Full Question & Answer Text (for Search Engines)
Question 1:
The natural history of an asymptomatic thoracic disk herniation is:
Options:
- Rapid progression to a symptomatic thoracic disk herniation
- A slow progression to a symptomatic thoracic disk herniation
- To remain asymptomatic
- To completely resorb and remain asymptomatic
- To completely resorb and progress to a degenerative disk
Correct Answer: To remain asymptomatic
Explanation:
The natural history of an asymptomatic thoracic disk herniation is to remain asymptomatic and exhibit little change in size. In a series of 48 asymptomatic thoracic disk herniations, Wood found that all disks remained asymptomatic at follow-up with little fluctuation in size of the disk.
Question 2:
A 48-year-old man presents with acute onset of unilateral, anterior band-like chest pain after lifting heavy machinery at work. The history and physical examination and the magnetic resonance image confirm a T9-T10 thoracic disk herniation. The best initial treatment for this patient is:
Options:
- Bed rest and traction for 6 weeks
- C ostotransversectomy to remove the T9-T10 disk herniation
- Activity modification and physical therapy
- Transthoracic decompression of the disk
- Laminectomy and decompression of the disk
Correct Answer: Activity modification and physical therapy
Explanation:
Brown et al retrospectively reviewed the natural history of symptomatic thoracic disk herniations and found 77% of patients did well with nonsurgical management. The patients returned to their previous level of activity following activity modification and physical therapy.
Question 3:
The most common site of a thoracic disk herniation requiring surgery is from levels:
Options:
- T1-T4
- T4-T7
- T8-T11
- T11-T12
- T12-L1
Correct Answer: T1-T4
Explanation:
T8-T11 is the most common site of disk herniation that requires surgery. A review of 71 patients with 82 thoracic disk herniations undergoing surgery found that 66% of disks were between T8-T11. The most common disk level was T9-T10, which represented 26% of the herniations.C orrect Answer: T8- T11
Question 4:
The most common location for a thoracic disk herniation is:
Options:
- C entral
- Lateral
- C entrolateral
- Medial
- Mediolateral
Correct Answer: Lateral
Explanation:
The most common locations for a thoracic disk herniation are centrolateral (94%) and lateral (6%). Disks classified as centrolateral have the bulk of the disk herniation medial to the lateral margin of the thecal sac.
Question 5:
A 38-year-old construction worker falls from a scaffolding and sustains a pure flexion-compression injury to T12. In this type of injury, which portion of the vertebral body fails first:
Options:
- End plate
- Subcortical cancellous bone
- Posterior elements
- Middle column
- Lamina
Correct Answer: End plate
Explanation:
Failure occurs first at the end plate. The intact intervertebral disk has limited compressibility. Therefore, when the compressive forces exceed the disk compressibility, the load is transmitted to the contiguous bone. The end plate will rupture first followed by the subcortical cancellous vertebral bone.
Question 6:
An absolute indication for surgical management of thoracolumbar burst fractures is:
Options:
- Canal compromise greater than 10%
- Canal compromise greater than 30%
- Kyphotic deformity greater than 10%
- Kyphotic deformity greater than 30%
- Progressive neurologic deficit
Correct Answer: Progressive neurologic deficit
Explanation:
Patients with a neurologic deficit or a progressive neurologic deficit should undergo operative decompression. C ontroversy exists as to the amount of kyphosis and canal compression that is considered acceptable. Support can be found in the literature for both operative and nonoperative management of neurologically intact burst fractures. Each patient must be evaluated on a case by case basis and followed closely after injury.
Question 7:
A 12-year-old girl presents with back pain of 3 monthsâ duration. She is a Risser stage 2. She displays a left thoracic curve of 27° on radiographs. The next study obtained in the work-up should be:
Options:
- Lateral bending films
- C omputerized tomography scan of the spine
- Head computerized tomography
- Magnetic resonance image of the thoracic spine
- Ultrasound of the kidneys
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance image of the thoracic spine
Explanation:
Left thoracic curves are unusual in idiopathic scoliosis. A magnetic resonance image of the thoracic spine is mandatory in the work-up to rule out diastematomyelia, tethered spinal cord, spinal tumor, or other type of congenital anomaly.
Question 8:
The most common organism responsible for vertebral column infection is:
Options:
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Staphylococcus epidermidis
- Staphylococcus aureus
- Escherechia coli
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis
Explanation:
Staphylococcus aureus accounts for more than 50% of spinal infections and often results from hematogenous dissemination. Gram-negative organisms are more common following genitourinary procedures or urinary tract infections. Staphylococcus epidermidis can complicate spinal surgical wounds, and polymicrobial infection is more common in these circumstances.
Question 9:
Symptoms of spinal infection may include all of the following except:
Options:
- Activity-related back pain
- Fever
- Neurological deficit
- Torticollis
- Decreased spinal range of motion
Correct Answer: Activity-related back pain
Explanation:
Neck or back pain associated with spinal infection is relentless and constant. The pain is not usually associated with activity. There may be night pain as well. Other symptoms and signs are variable, requiring a high degree of suspicion. Fever occurs less than 50% of the time and neurological deficit less than 10% of the time. Paraspinal muscle spasms may result in decreased range of motion or torticollis.
Question 10:
Which test is most specific for diagnosing spinal column infection:
Options:
- White blood count
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- Carbon-reactive protein
- Blood culture
- Biopsy
Correct Answer: Biopsy
Explanation:
Vertebral biopsy, either via open or computed tomography-guided means, is most specific even though false-negative rates for closed and open biopsies are 30% and 14%, respectively. A patients white blood count may be normal even in acute spinal infection. Although often elevated, erythrocyte sedimentation rate and carbon-reactive protein are nonspecific tests. Blood cultures are negative in more than 75% of patients.
Question 11:
Which of the following describes the magnetic resonance image (MRI) appearance of vertebral osteomyelitis:
Options:
- Increased signal onT1 images, decreased on T2 images
- Decreased signal onT1 images, decreased on T2 images
- Decreased signal onT1 images, increased on T2 images
- Increased signal onT1 images, increased on T2 images
- MRI is usually unable to detect vertebral osteomyelitis
Correct Answer: Decreased signal onT1 images, decreased on T2 images
Explanation:
Magnetic resonance image (MRI) carries a 95% accuracy rate. Infected disk and vertebral bone appear on MRI with decreased signal onT1 images and increased signal on T2 images. Gadoliniun enhancement is useful in differentiating spinal infection or abscess from epidural scar in the postoperative setting.
Question 12:
Appropriate treatment for spinal infection may include all the following except:
Options:
- Antibiotics
- Surgical decompression
- Brace immobilization
- Removal of spinal hardware in the acute postoperative setting
- Removal of spinal hardware in the chronic infection
Correct Answer: Removal of spinal hardware in the acute postoperative setting
Explanation:
Spinal stability appears to improve healing of spinal infection. C hronic, persistent infections may require removal of hardware. Antibiotics and immobilization are the mainstays of treatment. Neurological deficit from epidural abscess or kyphotic collapse may require operative decompression.
Question 13:
Which of the following is not a surgical indication in the treatment of spinal column infection:
Options:
- Persistent back pain and elevated c-reactive protein despite 8 weeks of intravenous antibiotics and bracing
- Progressive neurological deficit and magnetic resonance image evidence of epidural abscess
- Progressive kyphotic collapse
- Development of sepsis
- Extension of infection into the disk space
Correct Answer: Extension of infection into the disk space
Explanation:
Uncomplicated spinal osteomyelitis and diskitis are treated nonoperatively. Operative debridement, decompression, and stabilization may be useful in cases of abscess, sepsis, neurological deficit, and progressive deformity.
Question 14:
Which of the following is more characteristic of tuberculoid rather than pyogenic spinal infection:
Options:
- Bony destruction on plain radiography
- Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- Prolonged onset of mild back pain despite extensive destruction seen on radiograph
- High fevers, weight loss, and night pain
- Predilection for the cervical spine
Correct Answer: Prolonged onset of mild back pain despite extensive destruction seen on radiograph
Explanation:
Spinal tuberculosis typically follows an indolent course early on despite radioqraphic findings out of proportion to the exam. Pyogenic and tuberculoid spinal infections involve the thoracic spine more commonly than the cervical spine. Both spinal infections may result in bony destruction, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rates, and may or may not present with constitutional symptoms.
Question 15:
Which of the following is a risk factor for neurological deficit associated with tuberculoid spinal infection:
Options:
- Age
- Pulmonary involvement
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate higher than 90
- History of smoking
- History of hypertension
Correct Answer: Age
Explanation:
Tuberculosis in the cervical spine of children younger than 10 years of age carries a significantly lower risk of paralysis than in older patients (17% vs 81%).
Question 16:
All of the following organisms may cause granulomatous opportunistic spinal infection in immunocompromised patients except:
Options:
- Mycobacteria
- Nocardia
- Actinomyces
- Staphylococcus
- Brucella
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus
Explanation:
Staphylococcal infection is typically pyogenic, not granulomatous.
Question 17:
Antibiotic treatment for spinal tuberculosis includes all of the following except:
Options:
- Isoniazid
- Ethambutol
- Pyrazinamide
- Rifampin
- C efotaxime
Correct Answer: C efotaxime
Explanation:
A four-drug regimen against spinal tuberculosis is recommended because of the high prevalence of organism resistance. Cefotaxime is a cephalosporin not active against mycobacterial infection.
Question 18:
What percentage of spinal infections have concurrent positive blood cultures:
Options:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:
Even though the majority of spinal infections are considered hematogenous in origin, only 25% of infections occur with positive blood cultures.
Question 19:
The treatment of choice for spinal epidural abscess is:
Options:
- Four weeks of antibiotics
- Parenteral antibiotics until the erythrocyte sedimentation rate falls to half of its pretreatment value
- Surgical drainage plus a prolonged course of antibiotics
- Spinal fusion
- Bracing and analgesia
Correct Answer: Surgical drainage plus a prolonged course of antibiotics
Explanation:
It is generally believed that pockets of pus, whether they are epidural, paravertebral, or psoas abscesses, must be drained in addition to antimicrobial therapy.
Question 20:
Which of the following antibiotics would not be useful in staphylococcal vertebral osteomyelitis:
Options:
- C efuroxime
- Nafcillin
- C efazolin
- C iprofloxicin
- Tobramycin
Correct Answer: Tobramycin
Explanation:
Aminoglycosides, such as tobramycin, are active against gram-negative organisms. First- and second-generation cephalosporins are alternatives to semisynthetic penicillins that may be useful if the organism is not resistant. Ciprofloxicin has also been considered a possible alternative to penicillins against gram-positive vertebral osteomyelitis.