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Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set FF5036

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Advanced Orthopedic Mock Exam (Set FF5036)

High-Yield Simulation: This randomly generated exam contains exactly 50 high-yield multiple-choice questions curated from the Arab Orthopaedic Board and FRCS databanks.
Optimize your learning: Use "Exam Mode" for timed pressure, or switch to "Study Mode" for instant explanations.
QUESTION 1 OF 50
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs after attempted reduction of an injury in a 9-year-old girl. Which anatomic structure is most likely to be interposed?
1
Brachialis muscle
2
Radial nerve
3
Median nerve
4
Ulnar nerve
QUESTION 2 OF 50
of 100
A diskectomy is performed in which the disk space is not aggressively debrided. When compared to techniques that involve aggressive debridement of the disk space, this results in
1
less intraoperative blood loss.
2
an increased rate of recurrent disk herniation.
3
a shorter length of hospital stay.
4
a higher rate of surgical complications.
QUESTION 3 OF 50
A collegiate football player who sustained a blow to the head during the first quarter of a game is confused for several minutes after the hit but does not lose consciousness. He had two similar episodes in games earlier in the season. When should he be allowed to return to play?
1
Immediately
2
In the second half
3
In 1 week
4
In 4 weeks
5
Next season
QUESTION 4 OF 50
Which of the following is an advantage of unreamed nailing of the tibia compared to reamed nailing?
1
Less surgical time
2
Lower risk of nonunion
3
Lower rate of malunion
4
Faster time to union
5
Less secondary procedures to achieve union
QUESTION 5 OF 50
of 100
Which statement best characterizes the injured structure in Figures 65a through 65d?
1
The structure is extrasynovial, contains significant innervation, and is highly 62 vascularized.
2
The structure is extrasynovial, does not contain significant innervation, and is not highly vascularized.
3
The structure is intrasynovial, contains significant innervation, and is not highly vascularized.
4
The structure is intrasynovial, does not contain significant innervation, and is not highly vascularized.
QUESTION 6 OF 50
Patients with homocystinuria phenotypically resemble patients with:
1
Achondroplasia
2
Larsen's syndrome
3
Marfan syndrome
4
Gaucher's disease
5
Noonan's syndrome
QUESTION 7 OF 50
Which of the following is a significant side effect of biphosphonates (e.g., alendronate):
1
Pruritus
2
Dizziness
3
Peripheral edema
4
Esophagitis and dyspepsia
5
Light sensitivity
QUESTION 8 OF 50
Figures 1 and 2 show the intraoperative photographs obtained during surgical treatment for de Quervain tendonitis. For orientation purposes, dorsal is at the top. Figure 1 is obtained just after the initial first extensor compartment release, and Figure 2 shows the floor of the first extensor compartment. If the structure marked by the black dot is not addressed, the most common postoperative problem would be

1
persistent pain.
2
tendon subluxation.
3
altered sensation.
4
tendon rupture.
QUESTION 9 OF 50
In the normal adult, the distance between the basion and the tip of the dens with the head in neutral position is how many millimeters?
1
2 to 3
2
4 to 5
3
6 to 7
4
7 to 8
5
9 to 10
QUESTION 10 OF 50
A 20-year-old woman with spastic hemiplegia is evaluated for function and hygiene issues with her right wrist. Her wrist has a resting posture of 90° of flexion and can be passively extended to 65° of flexion. Her fingers are flexed into her palm but can be passively extended with the wrist at 95°. What treatment is likely to provide the most durable result for improved hygiene, function, and cosmesis?
1
Flexor carpi ulnaris to extensor carpi radialis brevis transfer
2
Fractional lengthening of the wrist and finger flexor tendons
3
Wrist arthrodesis with proximal row carpectomy
4
Botulinum toxin injection
QUESTION 11 OF 50
A right-handed 14-year-old pitcher has had a 3-month history of shoulder pain while pitching. Examination reveals full range of motion, a mildly positive impingement sign, pain with rotational movement, and no instability. Plain AP radiographs of both shoulders are shown in Figures 25a and 25b. Management should consist of
1
referral to a pitching coach to improve throwing mechanics.
2
a weight-training program that concentrates on rotator cuff strengthening.
3
rest until symptoms have resolved, followed by a gradual return to pitching.
4
a metabolic work-up.
5
cessation of pitching until the physis is closed.
QUESTION 12 OF 50
When performing capsular releases during shoulder arthroplasty for the treatment of glenohumeral joint osteoarthritis, what anatomic landmark indicates the location of the axillary nerve as it begins to travel from anterior to posterior?
1
Inferior border of the subscapularis
2
Insertion of the pectoralis major onto the humerus
3
Insertion of the latissimus dorsi tendon onto the humerus
4
Lateral margin of the conjoint tendon
QUESTION 13 OF 50
Figure 33 shows the radiograph of a 28-year-old avid golfer who has chronic right wrist pain. Management should consist of
1
cast immobilization.
2
splinting with a bone stimulator.
3
excision of the fracture fragment.
4
arthroscopically assisted percutaneous fixation.
5
trephination of the fibrous union.
QUESTION 14 OF 50
A 15-year-old boy presented with inability to elevate his right shoulder and flex his elbow. He sustained a fall from an all-terrain vehicle 8 weeks ago. He landed on the right shoulder and twisted his neck. Radiographs of the skull, chest, cervical and thoracic spine, and shoulder were normal. There was no loss of consciousness, chest pain, or breathing difficulties. The patient was observed in the hospital until stable and referred for follow-up in the hand clinic at 4 weeks. An electromyelogram (EMG) was scheduled. C linical examination revealed weakness of deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, brachialis, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus. The remainder of his forearm musculature was preserved and he could
grasp, release, and pinch. Sensations were decreased along the distribution of the axillary nerve. There was 3 cm wasting of his arm and 2 cm of the forearm. Tinelâs sign is positive around the clavicle. Hornerâs signs are absent and his arm lies against the body. The EMG report showed fibrillation potentials in the weak muscles. The patient can now flex his elbow. When asked to demonstrate, he flexes his wrist and pronates his forearm to swing his elbow into flexion.
The most important indication for early exploration in this patient is:
1
Absence of biceps function at 3 months
2
Absence of biceps function with return of extensor carpi radialis longus (EC RL) power at 4 months
3
Presence of trick movements
4
Subluxation of humeral head on radiographs
5
Weakness of the supraspinatus
QUESTION 15 OF 50
A 35-year-old man who has had a 6-month history of low back pain and tenderness now reports worsening pain and stiffness in the hips and entire back. An AP radiograph of the pelvis demonstrates fusion of the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
Anesthetic injections in both sacroiliac joints
2
Sacroiliac fusion with plate fixation
3
Anti-inflammatory medications, physical therapy, and HLA-B27 testing
4
Patient reassurance and follow-up as needed
5
Immediate bilateral sacroiliac joint aspiration and culture
QUESTION 16 OF 50
Kinematic testing of patellofemoral motion demonstrates that malalignment that produces increased Q angle causes a shift of the patella laterally in the trochlear groove and is most pronounced during what phase of the flexion arc?
1
0 to 15 degrees
2
20 to 30 degrees
3
40 to 90 degrees
4
100 to 120 degrees
5
130 to 140 degrees
QUESTION 17 OF 50
of 100
A 24-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision. A CT scan of the cervical spine shows the injury in Figures 1 and

1
He had a normal motor and sensory examination. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this injury? ![img](/media/upload/30epzDiACY_Qh7lB24-oP8tfHD0dqOha8K4R7gZwIMScfaw6QQKBM1f8FEzVX_K_edyW_cl_9UfZSsm7m5auCMzEOa8qgEdAvIqM7mmO51LXTGSqNcd4qqQ-C3myVnE2jTqT2K--rgUnxaBfCWAOJqi8roRYvqODjGj6pUIBtRcTmxBl6oz6CBO3z1LQ1w)
2
Immobilization in a cervical collar
3
Halo traction
4
Anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion or posterior cervical instrumentation and fusion C4-C5
5
Anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion or posterior cervical instrumentation and fusion C3-C4, C4-C5
QUESTION 18 OF 50
A 32-year-old soccer player presents with severe right ankle pain and inability to bear weight after sustaining a slide-tackle injury during a game. Radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. Given the nature of his injury, he is taken for surgical reduction and fixation. Following medial malleolar fixation, the syndesmosis is addressed. All of the following are true regarding the most appropriate intraoperative technique for anatomic syndesmotic reduction EXCEPT:



1
The axis of the reduction clamp should parallel the anatomic trans-syndesmotic angle
2
The lateral tine of the clamp should be seated just posterior to the lateral malleolar ridge
3
The medial tine should be placed on the anterior third of the tibia on a true lateral fluoroscopic view of the ankle
4
The reduction clamp should be placed 1-2cm proximal to the tibial plafond
5
The surgeon should apply judicious compression under fluoroscopic visualization to avoid over-compression of the syndesmosis
QUESTION 19 OF 50
A high school football player asks you about an oral supplement that increases body mass and improves sprint times. He would like to use it to improve performance. What is the most likely agent?
1
Creatine
2
Caffeine
3
Testosterone
4
Human growth hormone
5
Ephedrine
QUESTION 20 OF 50
of 100 A 33-year old man sustains a posterior elbow dislocation after a fall. Attempts at closed reduction result in recurrent instability. What is the most common ligamentous injury found at the time of surgical stabilization?
1
Midsubstance tear of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament
2
Proximal avulsion of the ulnar collateral ligament
3
Proximal avulsion of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament
4
Distal bony avulsion of the ulnar collateral ligament from the sublime tubercle
QUESTION 21 OF 50
Superficial frostbite injuries result in:
1
Minimal tissue loss
2
Significant tissue loss
3
Firm tissue
4
Amputation
5
Hemorrhagic blisters
QUESTION 22 OF 50
Intra-articular steroids change synovial fluid characteristincs by:
1
Stabilizing phagocytes
2
Stabilizing synthesis of inflammatory mediators
3
Increasing the hyaluroniCacid concentration in a joint
4
Decreasing the hyaluroniCacid concentration in a joint
5
Intra-articular steroids do not change synovial fluid characteristics
QUESTION 23 OF 50
Optimization of early active motion protocols for flexor tendon rehabilitation includes:
1
Multi-strand repair
2
Splinting the digit in extension
3
Using passive flexion of the finger to gain flexibility
4
Therapist hyperextension of the finger
5
Ultrasound as an adjunct
QUESTION 24 OF 50
of 100
22
The lesser or small saphenous vein passes along the sural nerve in the mid calf
1
medially.
2
laterally.
3
anteriorly.
4
posteriorly.
QUESTION 25 OF 50
Which of the following methods reduce radiation exposure to a surgeon during fluoroscopic procedures:
1
Avoiding the inverted C -arm position
2
Avoiding collimation of the radiation beam
3
Limiting the use of the foot pedal for controlling the fluoroscopy unit
4
Always standing on the opposite side of the C -arm
5
Increasing the amperage of each exposure
QUESTION 26 OF 50
-Figure 81 is the radiograph of a healthy 72-year-old man who has a 3-month history of medial knee pain.He denies any specific trauma. Until 3 months ago when the pain began, he had been an avid runner for many years. Initial treatment should be oral anti-inflammatory medication
1
alone.
2
with food.
3
with a proton pump inhibitor.
4
with glucosamine hydrochloride.
QUESTION 27 OF 50
A patient with spina bifida has significant symmetrical calcaneus positioning of both ankles. This is most likely due to:
1
Lack of ambulatory experience
2
Braces that are set in too much dorsiflexion
3
Motor level at L3
4
Motor level at L5
5
Motor level at S1
QUESTION 28 OF 50
A 50-year-old man who underwent an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair 5 days ago now returns for an early postoperative follow-up because of increasing pain in his shoulder. He reports increasing malaise and has a low-grade fever. Examination reveals no redness or swelling, but he has scant serous drainage from the posterior portal. An emergent Gram stain is positive for gram-positive cocci. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
1
oral antibiotics and observation.
2
IV antibiotics and observation.
3
immediate arthroscopic debridement and lavage.
4
blood cultures, oral antibiotics, and a reculture in 2 days.
5
aspiration of the joint at his regular follow-up in 7 days if the symptoms increase.
QUESTION 29 OF 50
of 100
Which distal biceps repair technique has the highest load to failure in vitro?
1
Suspensory cortical button (Endobutton)
2
Suture anchor
3
Transosseous suture
4
Interference screw
QUESTION 30 OF 50
What is the most common complication following surgical treatment of a displaced talar neck fracture?
1
Osteonecrosis
2
Varus malunion
3
Posttraumatic arthritis
4
Fracture delayed union/nonunion
5
Wound dehiscence/delayed wound healing
QUESTION 31 OF 50
A 29-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department with a 24-hour history of severe back and leg pain precipitated by weight-lifting. The patient reports bilateral leg pain and is unable to urinate. She has dense anesthesia in the perineal region on examination. A MRI scan is shown in Figure 38. The patient is taken to surgery urgently. What is her prognosis for recovery?
---

1
Improvement in her pain and sensory symptoms following surgery but may have residual bladder dysfunction
2
Decreased pain following surgery; sensory deficits and bladder function are not likely to improve
3
No change in her symptoms following surgery
4
Complete resolution of pain and will have normal sensation and bladder function following surgery
5
Improvement in her pain and complete return of bladder function following surgery; sensation may not return
QUESTION 32 OF 50
Posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty has been studied by numerous methods including kinematic video fluoroscopy. Which of the following is the best description of typical kinematic behavior?



1
Unpredictable anterior femoral condylar translation from full extension to 90 degrees of flexion
2
Predictable femoral rollback from full extension to 90 degrees of flexion
3
Medial femoral condyle pivot with minimal medial femoral condyle translation and lateral femoral condyle posterior translation in flexion
4
Lateral femoral condyle pivot with minimal medial femoral condyle translation
5
Anterior tibial contact of both the medial and lateral femoral condyles in full extension
QUESTION 33 OF 50
of 100
Which inheritance pattern has been described for the condition shown in Figures 64a through 64d?
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
QUESTION 34 OF 50
What structure has been described as having a risk of injury with retractor placement on the sacrum during combined acetabular-pelvic ring surgery using the Stoppa approach with a lateral window?

1
External iliac artery
2
Pudendal nerve
3
Corona mortis
4
L5 nerve root
5
Ilioinguinal nerve
QUESTION 35 OF 50
of 100
Figures 97a through 97d are the radiographs and MR images of a 21-year-old man with symptoms of a left medial thigh mass. Upon examination, you palpate a firm, fixed, deep, nontender mass of the medial proximal left thigh. No other masses are found during the examination. The patient fears metastatic disease. What is the risk for malignant transformation throughout this patient’s lifetime?



1
0%
2
Less than 1%
3
Less than 15%
4
More than 15%
QUESTION 36 OF 50
Currently, what is the most common clinical study type in the orthopaedic literature?
1
Level 1 (prospective, randomized trial)
2
Level 2 (cohort trial)
3
Level 3 (retrospective case control)
4
Level 4 (retrospective case series)
5
Level 5 (expert opinion) #
QUESTION 37 OF 50
of 100
A surgeon is performing a revision total hip arthroplasty. Multiple screws are used to stabilize the acetabulum, including screws placed in the anterior superior and posterior superior quadrants. In the postanesthesia care unit, the patient develops a progressive decline in blood pressure. Intraoperative injury to which anatomical structure has most likely occurred?
1
Femoral artery
2
External Iliac artery
3
Superior gluteal artery
4
Inferior gluteal artery
QUESTION 38 OF 50
A 13-year-old pitcher is hit in the left intercostal space by a line drive ball. He collapses, is apneic and unresponsive, and his radial pulse is absent. What is the next step in management?
1
Protect the airway and use smelling salts
2
Protect the airway, move to the shade, and place in reverse Trendelenburg
3
Protect the airway and protect from seizure activity
4
Protect the airway, start CPR, and prepare to cardiovert
5
Protect the airway, and move patient slowly to a spine board
QUESTION 39 OF 50
A 32-year-old powerlifter who was performing a dead lift 3 days ago noted a sharp pain in the front of his dominant right arm just after beginning to lower the weight. He now reports pain in the anterior aspect of the arm that worsens when he opens a door. Examination reveals moderate ecchymosis and swelling of the forearm and tenderness in the antecubital fossa. The MRI scans are shown in Figures 15a and 15b. If the injury is left unrepaired, the greatest functional deficit will most likely be the loss of
1
elbow extension motion.
2
elbow flexion strength.
3
forearm supination motion.
4
forearm pronation strength.
5
forearm supination strength.
QUESTION 40 OF 50
Water comprises what percentage of bone composition:
1
5% to 8%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
QUESTION 41 OF 50
of 100
The workup to exclude other congenital abnormalities should include evaluation of which systems?
1
Cardiac, renal, and gastrointestinal (GI)
2
Cardiac, renal, and auditory
3
Cardiac, pulmonary, and GI
4
Cardiac, pulmonary, and neural axis
QUESTION 42 OF 50
A 12-year-old girl has the painful foot deformity seen in Figure 79. You advise her that she has juvenile bunions. How do they differ from adult bunions?



1
Metatarsus primus varus
2
Large exostosis
3
Rigidity of the metatarsal phalangeal joint
4
Greater hallux valgus angle than in adult bunions
5
Prominent bursal thickening over the medial eminence
QUESTION 43 OF 50
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Duchennes muscular dystrophy:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 44 OF 50
A patient presents for treatment of a dislocated second metatarsophalangeal joint. Radiographs demonstrate the dislocation. In addition to soft tissue balancing, you perform an oblique shortening osteotomy of the second metatarsal head (Weil). The most common complication following this osteotomy is:
1
Recurrent dislocation
2
Avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head
3
Arthritis of the second metatarsophalangeal joint
4
Elevation of the second toe
5
C law toe deformity
QUESTION 45 OF 50
In congenital lesions characterized by failure of formation of parts, the most functional, without treatment, is/are:
1
Transverse arrest at the wrist.
2
C entral deficiencies.
3
VATER syndrome.
4
Ulnar deficiencies.
5
Radial deficiencies
QUESTION 46 OF 50
of 100
A 28-year-old man is subjected to a blast and sustains the fragmentary injury shown in the plain radiographs in Figures 99a and 99b. He lacks distal radial nerve function. His wounds have associated soft-tissue damage, although they do not appear grossly contaminated, and tissue loss would not prevent either primary or delayed closure. Which surgical plan is associated with the lowest rate of revision surgery and complications?

1
Open reduction and intramedullary fixation
2
Primary closure and coaptation splinting
3
Nerve exploration and intramedullary fixation
4
Nerve exploration and internal fixation
QUESTION 47 OF 50
A 17-year-old high school football player injures his right ankle during a game. Examination reveals swelling and a closed ankle deformity, with normal foot circulation and sensation. Radiographs are shown in Figures 10a and 10b. In addition to closed reduction, management should include
1
cast immobilization.
2
delayed fixation of the medial malleolus.
3
immediate fixation of the medial malleolus and plating of the fibula.
4
immediate fixation of the medial malleolus, plating of the fibula, and placement of a syndesmotic screw.
5
immediate fixation of the medial malleolus and placement of a syndesmotic screw.
QUESTION 48 OF 50
of 100
A 21-year-old man learned he had Ewing sarcoma of the right distal femur at age 13. He underwent treatment with neoadjuvant chemotherapy, surgical resection with distal femoral replacement, and adjuvant chemotherapy. He completed treatment at age 14, and subsequent surveillance imaging has shown no evidence of recurrence. He has noted increasing fatigue during the last 3 months, however, and bleeding when he brushes his teeth. An examination is unremarkable with the exception of bilateral pretibial bruising for which the patient does not recall trauma. Which tests will aid in diagnosis?
1
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
2
Serum protein electrophoresis
3
Complete blood count (CBC) with a peripheral smear
4
Platelet aggregation testing and bleeding time
QUESTION 49 OF 50
Which of the following is the normal resting pressure in skeletal muscle:
1
0 mm Hg to 8 mm Hg
2
10 mm Hg to 16 mm Hg
3
18 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg
4
24 mm Hg to 30 mm Hg
5
30 mm Hg to 36 mm Hg
QUESTION 50 OF 50
of 100
She completes the necessary testing and wishes to proceed with revision surgery. The most appropriate surgical option in this scenario involves implant removal and
1
unconstrained total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA).
2
resection arthroplasty.
3
reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA).
4
hemiarthroplasty.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon