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Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set F85282

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Advanced Orthopedic Mock Exam (Set F85282)

High-Yield Simulation: This randomly generated exam contains exactly 50 high-yield multiple-choice questions curated from the Arab Orthopaedic Board and FRCS databanks.
Optimize your learning: Use "Exam Mode" for timed pressure, or switch to "Study Mode" for instant explanations.
QUESTION 1 OF 50
Which of the following statements is true concerning the changes seen in human articular cartilage as a person ages (normal cartilage):
1
Progressive increase in chondroitin 4-sulfate
2
Progressive decrease in chondroitin 6-sulfate
3
Progressive decrease in collagen concentration
4
Progressive increase in collagen concentration
5
Progressive increase in keratan sulfate concentration
QUESTION 2 OF 50
of 100
Which factor leads to the worst long-term prognosis in slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), most likely requiring total hip arthroplasty (THA)?
1
Avascular necrosis (AVN)
2
Age at onset of SCFE
3
Slip severity or slip angle
4
Femoral acetabular impingement (FAI) with degenerative changes
QUESTION 3 OF 50
All of the following factors increase the rigidity of an external fixator except:
1
Increased individual pin diameter
2
Increased pin number
3
Increased bone-to-rod distance
4
Increased pin group separation
5
Separating half pins by 45°
QUESTION 4 OF 50
A 65-year-old female presents with the injury seen in Figures A and B after a motor vehicle collision. She is hemodynamically unstable and undergoes emergent pelvic supra-acetabular external fixation followed by laparotomy. She is now hemodynamically stable and cleared for surgery. She has no evidence of neurologic deficit on examination. Which of the following factors is a relative contraindication to open reduction and plating of her posterior pelvic injury from an anterior approach?

1
Sacral fracture
2
Prior laparotomy
3
Supra-acetabular external fixtator
4
Parasymphyseal fractures
5
Ipsilateral proximal femur fracture
QUESTION 5 OF 50
Figures 1 and 2 show the radiographs obtained from a 79-year-old woman who has been experiencing increasing tibial pain 10 years after undergoing revision total knee arthroplasty. No evidence of infection is seen. What is the most appropriate treatment?
7
1
Retain the components and implant a tibial strut allograft.
2
Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and metaphyseal uncemented stem.
3
Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and a press-fit diaphyseal-engaging stem.
4
Revise the tibial component with a long cemented diaphyseal-engaging stem. Stems are available for cemented and press-fit implantation. To be effective, press-fit stems should engage the diaphysis, as shown in Figures 3 and
5
They also assist in obtaining correct limb alignment. Short metaphyseal- engaging stems are associated with failure rates that range between 16% and 29%. Cemented stems may be shorter than press-fit stems, because they do not have to engage the diaphysis. Short, fully cemented stems offer the advantage of metaphyseal fixation. Hybrid stem fixation makes use of the metaphysis for cement fixation with metaphyseal cones or sleeves and diaphyseal-engaging press-fit stems.
QUESTION 6 OF 50
After sustaining a muscle contusion injury, prolonged immobilization leads to
1
increased tensile stiffness.
2
increased granulation tissue production.
3
improved recovery of tensile strength.
4
reduced incidence of myositis ossificans.
QUESTION 7 OF 50
Figure 6 shows the radiograph of a 72-year-old woman who underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty
17 years ago. She now reports groin pain. Optimal surgical management should consist of which of the following?
1
Synovectomy and polyethylene liner exchange
2
Synovectomy, polyethylene liner exchange, and femoral stem revision
3
Synovectomy and complete acetabular revision
4
Synovectomy, bone grafting of lytic lesions, and retention of the components and polyethylene liner
5
Revision of all components with synovectomy
QUESTION 8 OF 50
of 100
An otherwise healthy 47-year-old woman has numbness and weakness in her bilateral lower legs. Her physical examination reveals an ataxic gait and +3/4 patella and Achilles reflexes. Her upper extremity neurological examination is normal. Her MRI scans are shown in Figures 1 through

1
What additional test would best help you plan her treatment? ![img](/media/upload/-4Enl6zurRl5YMZMYzNrf1MZ6X_Nv6hMEVfgT7jNNlvUkYEHpP4fhww8XPID3cwFfRigvq8YflwkZJlKJrom7qdXCgSXjmyFnG9MwPnn9Yb774lGuyeqwAJfH8f2Mw8WeAUkJimeQ9kbPVMFqtS0KwlezCXR09mCZNFfmIsmlto-MBKRP4pzOaMhDFOv2g)
2
Flexion / extension radiographs of the thoracic spine
3
CT scan of the thoracic spine
4
MRI scan of the cervical spine
5
Pulmonary function test
QUESTION 9 OF 50
Placement of the most distal interlocking screw seen in the radiographs in Figures 1 and 2 poses a risk to the nerve that controls what motor function?
1
Elbow flexion
2
Thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint extension
3
Index finger proximal IP joint flexion
4
Index finger metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint abduction
QUESTION 10 OF 50
All of the following factors are important to achieve primary osteonal healing during plate fixation except:
1
AnatomiCreduction
2
Rigid fixation
3
Adequate vascular supply
4
Moderate-to-high strain levels
5
Very low strain levels
QUESTION 11 OF 50
A 63-year-old right-hand dominant woman has a history of gradually progressive atraumatic right shoulder pain. She describes a constant nagging pain that radiates to her deltoid insertion and difficulty with overhead activities. Her examination and imaging studies confirm a rotator cuff tear. What is the mostly likely initiating anatomic location of her tear?
1
Anterior portion of the supraspinatus tendon adjacent to the biceps tendon
2
15 mm posterior to the biceps tendon near the supraspinatus/infraspinatus junction
3
Superior portion of the subscapularis tendon
4
30 mm posterior to the biceps tendon near the supraspinatus/infraspinatus junction 51
QUESTION 12 OF 50
The most common complication after resection of a plantar fibromatosis is:
1
A recurrent fibroma
2
Infection
3
Wound dehiscence
4
Injury to the medial plantar nerve
5
Injury to the lateral plantar nerve
QUESTION 13 OF 50
Which of the following statements is true regarding soft tissue sarcomas:
1
Soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasize to bone.
2
Patients with soft tissue sarcomas of the hand have worse prognosis than patients with similar tumors in other extremities.
3
Soft tissue sarcomas present as a painful mass in the hand.
4
Overall prognosis is better with radical resection than wide excision.
5
Soft tissue sarcomas can be "shelled out".
QUESTION 14 OF 50
As the most direct and predictable preoperative diagnostiCtest for hip infection, the false-positive rate for hip aspiration is:
1
0%
2
0% to 15%
3
15% to 25%
4
25% to 40%
5
40% to 50%
QUESTION 15 OF 50
of 100
A 4-year-old girl who has midlumbar myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus is being evaluated for her uneven gait. A hip examination reveals a right hip dislocation. Bilateral hips are pain-free with full range of motion and no fixed deformity. What is the most appropriate course of action?
1
Obtain standing AP pelvis to evaluate the hips; plan open reduction of the right hip when the patient starts having hip pain
2
Obtain supine AP pelvis to evaluate the hips; plan open reduction of the right hip as soon as possible
3
Inform the family that the dislocated hip will not limit the ability to ambulate and will not benefit from reduction
4
Inform the family that the patient's ambulatory potential is poor due to the hip dislocation, which cannot be treated successfully
QUESTION 16 OF 50
Biomechanical in vitro studies of double-row anchor fixation of rotator cuff tears show what initial advantage over single-row anchor fixation?
1
Increased peak-to-peak elongation
2
Decreased stiffness
3
Higher ultimate tensile load
4
Decreased contact area
5
Increased conditioning elongation
QUESTION 17 OF 50
Which of the following tumor metastasizes to lungs:
1
Squamous cell carcinoma
2
Basal cell carcinoma
3
Soft tissue sarcoma
4
Schwannoma
5
Actinic keratosis
QUESTION 18 OF 50
Which of the following factors predisposes patients undergoing lateral ankle reconstruction to surgical failure?
1
Low functional demand
2
Anatomic reconstruction
3
Cavovarus foot deformity
4
Planovalgus foot deformity
5
History of acute instability (preoperative)
QUESTION 19 OF 50
Which of the following has been associated with an increased likelihood of stress shielding after cementless total hip arthroplasty?
1
Use of titanium alloy femoral components
2
Use of proximally fixed femoral components
3
Use of distally fixed femoral components
4
Use of press-fit stems in patients with narrow intramedullary canals
5
Use of plasma sprayed components
QUESTION 20 OF 50
of 100
Staging for patients with this diagnosis necessitates which study or studies?
1
CT scan of the chest and a bone scan
2
Skeletal survey
3
Bone marrow aspirate
4
Bone marrow biopsy
QUESTION 21 OF 50
Which of the following abnormalities has been observed in a higher than expected frequency in patients with metal-on-metal hip bearings?

1
Renal cell carcinoma
2
Leukocyte chromosomal aberrations
3
Carcinomas of the gastrointestinal tract
4
Soft-tissue sarcomas
5
Thyroid carcinoma
QUESTION 22 OF 50
The gold standard for diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis is considered:
1
History and physical examination
2
Plain radiographs
3
Electromyography
4
Magnetic resonance imaging
5
Radionuclear bone scan
QUESTION 23 OF 50
of 100
The idiopathic form of this condition may be associated with
1
absence of the anterior tibial artery.
2
absence of the fibula.
3
duplication of the first ray.
4
postaxial polydactyly.
QUESTION 24 OF 50
1251) A 25-year-old male involved in a motor vehicle accident sustains multiple injuries. He undergoes operative treatment for his humeral shaft fracture. Figures A and B show his preoperative and postoperative radiographs. The distal interlocks for this implant place which of the following nerves at risk?

1
Radial
2
Ulnar
3
Anterior interosseous
4
Axillary
5
Musculocutaneous
QUESTION 25 OF 50
During the anterior approach for repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture, what structure, shown under the scissors in Figure 6, is at risk for injury?
1
Brachial artery
2
Median nerve
3
Posterior interosseous nerve
4
Lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
5
Antecubital vein
QUESTION 26 OF 50
What is the post-amplification product of reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)?
1
RNA
2
DNA
3
Protein
4
Mitochondria
5
Immunoglobulins #
QUESTION 27 OF 50
Injuries to the central articular disk portion of the triangular fibrocartilage complex are related to all of the following except:
1
Age
2
Positive ulnar variance
3
Ulnocarpal impingement
4
Scaphoid nonunion
5
Avulsion injuries from the dorsal ligamentous attachments
QUESTION 28 OF 50
Which of the following may be beneficial in decreasing the deleterious effects of total muscle ischemia in a patient who has a compartment syndrome:
1
Systemic steroids
2
Hypothermia
3
Elevation of the extremity above the heart
4
Antihypertensive therapy
5
Anticoagulant therapy
QUESTION 29 OF 50
of 100
A 71-year-old man with long-standing ankle arthrosis who has previously had a subtalar fusion (Figure 42).

1
Tibial and/or fibular osteotomy with open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
2
Ankle distraction arthroplasty
3
Ankle fusion
4
Total ankle arthroplasty (TAA) ![img](/media/upload/939dd27a-3c47-4250-b502-843a84c95393.jpg)
QUESTION 30 OF 50
Isolated subtalar fusion:
1
Is not associated with development of ankle or transverse tarsal joint arthritis
2
Is associated only with development of transverse joint arthritis, but the ankle joint is spared
3
Is associated only with development of ankle arthritis, but the transverse tarsal joints are spared
4
Is associated with the development of both ankle and transverse tarsal joint arthritis
5
Is associated with knee joint degenerative arthritis
QUESTION 31 OF 50
**CLINICAL SITUATION**
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 68-year-old woman who comes to the emergency department after stepping into a hole and twisting her ankle. She is complaining of isolated ankle pain and is unable to bear weight.
How is syndesmotic reduction best assessed intra-operatively?
---

1
By comparing tibiofibular overlap with population norms
2
By comparing tibiofibular clear space with population norms
3
By comparing images with the patient’s contralateral uninjured side
4
By measuring the talocrural angle
QUESTION 32 OF 50
In comparing high tibial osteomtomy to unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
Patients with high tibial osteotomy recover faster than patients with UKA.
2
High tibial osteotomy has better 10-year results than UKA.
3
High tibial osteotomy has better early results than UKA.
4
High tibial osteotomy is better for patients who work as heavy laborers.
5
High tibial osteotomy has fewer operative complications than UKA.
QUESTION 33 OF 50
If the structure marked by the tip of the probe in Figure 94 is repaired to the bony glenoid with suture anchors

during an arthroscopic stabilization procedure, what is the most likely result?
1
Loss of external rotation with the glenohumeral joint abducted 90 degrees
2
Loss of external rotation with the arm at the side of the body
3
Loss of internal rotation with the glenohumeral joint abducted 90 degrees
4
Loss of internal rotation up the back
5
Loss of flexion
QUESTION 34 OF 50
The incidence of patella component loosening is:
1
4%
2
10%
3
2%
4
8%
5
15%
QUESTION 35 OF 50
of 100
If the patient had an isolated spine injury without neurologic deficit, the most appropriate next step would be
1
anterior corpectomy with percutaneous pedicle screw stabilization.
2
percutaneous pedicle screw stabilization.
3
posterior pedicle screw stabilization with fusion.
4
MRI.
QUESTION 36 OF 50
In which of the following osteonecrotiCconditions does the marrow cavity become packed with abnormal cells:
1
Caisson disease
2
Gaucher disease
3
Renal transplantation
4
Pancreatitis
5
ChroniCcorticosteroid administration
QUESTION 37 OF 50
Early postoperative infections following primary total hip arthroplasty are most likely caused by which
organism?
1
Staphylococcus epidermidis
2
Streptococcus viridans
3
Propionibacterium acnes
4
Staphylococcus aureus
QUESTION 38 OF 50
The most common pathogen causing septic arthritis in the hand is:
1
Staphylococcus aureus
2
Streptococci
3
Haemophilus influenzae
4
Mix of gram-negative and gram-positive organisms
5
Atypical mycobacterium
QUESTION 39 OF 50
of 100
Figures 31a through 31d are the radiographs and MR images of a 52-year-old man who has a 7-week history of right ring finger pain, redness, and swelling. He accidentally stuck his finger with a toothpick 1 week before developing symptoms. There is purulent drainage from the puncture wound site. He was treated with oral antibiotics for 10 days and intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 3 weeks before being seen. Initial cultures grew _Eikenella corrodens_. What is/are the best next step(s)?



1
Continued IV antibiotics for 4 weeks
2
Bone scan followed by biopsy of the region
3
Drainage of the abscess with debridement of bone and soft tissue
4
Amputation through the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint
QUESTION 40 OF 50
of 100
Which 2 tendons are identified in the dissection shown in Video 92?
1
Semitendinosus and gracilis
2
Semitendinosus and semimembranosus
3
Semimembranosus and gracilis
4
Semimembranosus and sartorius
QUESTION 41 OF 50
Optimal treatment for a symptomatic ganglion is:
1
Observation
2
C losed rupture
3
Aspiration
4
Surgical excision
5
C orticosteroid injection
QUESTION 42 OF 50
Opioids must be used with caution in infants younger than 3 months of age because of which of the following properties:
1
Increased clearance
2
Increased protein binding
3
Increased hepatic activity
4
Decreased clearance and protein binding
5
Decreased body surface area to mass
QUESTION 43 OF 50
Which of the following is the most common final attribution of back pain in children and adolescents after all appropriate diagnostic studies are performed:
1
Spondylolysis
2
Osteoid osteoma
3
Infection
4
Herniated nucleus pulposus
5
No identifiable cause
QUESTION 44 OF 50
A 65-year-old woman with a history of diabetes mellitus and plantar ulcers has an erythematous and swollen right foot and ankle. Despite IV antibiotics, the erythema spreads to her lower calf within 24 hours. She has a systolic blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120. Laboratory studies show a creatinine level of 1.5 mg. Initial management should consist of
1
continued IV antibiotics and observation.
2
hyperbaric oxygen treatment.
3
rapid IV fluid boluses.
4
surgical debridement.
5
whirlpool therapy.
QUESTION 45 OF 50
What is the best treatment option for complex proximal humerus fractures in the
low-demand patient population?


1
Hemiarthroplasty
2
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
3
Locked-plate fixation
4
Nonoperative treatment
QUESTION 46 OF 50
Which of the following proteins or vitamins controls the amount of receptor activator of nuclear factor âkB ligand (RANKL)
produced by osteoblasts:
1
Parathyroid hormone
2
25 hydroxyvitamin D3
3
Thyroid hormone
4
1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3
5
Calcitonin
QUESTION 47 OF 50
of 100
Figure 9 is the radiograph of a 24-year-old amateur marathon runner who has ankle pain. She previously sustained a metatarsal stress fracture. In addition to asking about her training routine and the type of footwear she uses, the orthopaedic surgeon should inquire about this patient's history of nutrition and

1
genetics.
2
rheumatology.
3
menstruation.
4
cardiovascular health.
QUESTION 48 OF 50
Anterior subluxation in a throwing athlete is most commonly the result of
1
avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid.
2
avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from the humerus.
3
fracture of the anterior glenoid rim.
4
excessive capsular laxity from microtrauma.
5
a large Hill-Sachs lesion.
QUESTION 49 OF 50
Which of the following deformities is most common after the amputation shown in Figure A?

1
Pes cavus
2
Pes planus
3
Hindfoot valgus
4
Equinovarus
5
Calcaneovalgus
QUESTION 50 OF 50
A 45-year-old male with well-controlled diabetes and hypertension is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is complaining of left knee pain only. On physical examination, his skin is intact and his neurovascular examination is normal. His injury films are seen in Figure A. Which of the following places this patient at an increased risk for postoperative infection after open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)?

1
Intraoperative time over 3 hours
2
Age
3
Fracture Pattern
4
Medical comorbidities
5
Mechanism of injury
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon