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Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set BD61F5

Updated: Feb 2026 6 Views
Orthopedic Surgery Mock Exam - Set BD61F5

Key Medical Takeaway

This mock exam provides 50 randomized questions derived from Arab Board and FRCS databanks to perfectly simulate testing environments.

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Advanced Orthopedic Mock Exam (Set BD61F5)

High-Yield Simulation: This randomly generated exam contains exactly 50 high-yield multiple-choice questions curated from the Arab Orthopaedic Board and FRCS databanks.
Optimize your learning: Use "Exam Mode" for timed pressure, or switch to "Study Mode" for instant explanations.
QUESTION 1 OF 50
of 100
Which nerve is most commonly injured after total knee arthroplasty?
1
Tibial nerve
2
Superficial peroneal nerve
3
Infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve 52
4
Sartorial branch of the saphenous nerve
QUESTION 2 OF 50
A 60-year-old man with previous right knee injury now has progressive pain over the last 2 years, despite physical therapy, low impact exercise and steroid injection. Figures 1 and 2 show his current radiographs. What is the best next step?
1
Posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
2
Arthroscopic debridement with osteochondral autograft transplant
3
Constrained TKA
4
Hinged knee arthroplasty
QUESTION 3 OF 50
Which of the following activities can improve posterior capsular contractures?
1
Theraband exercises to strengthen the external rotator
2
Latissimus pull-down exercises to the chest
3
Seated rows
4
Internal rotation stretch at 90 degrees abduction with scapular stabilization
5
Bench press with wide grip
QUESTION 4 OF 50
of 100
The patient in Figure 99 has pain at the first MTP joint.
1
Proximal phalangeal osteotomy alone
2
Proximal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
3
Distal metatarsal osteotomy with a modified McBride procedure
4
First tarsometatarsal fusion with a modified McBride procedure
5
First metatarsophalangeal fusion
QUESTION 5 OF 50
What complication is associated with the use of epidural morphine and steroid paste after laminectomy?
1
Surgical site infection
2
Arachnoiditis
3
Urinary retention
4
Disk space infections
5
Nerve irritation
QUESTION 6 OF 50
Placing the starting point for an antegrade femoral nail too anterior to the axis of the medullary canal can most commonly lead to what intraoperative complication?
1
Nail incarceration
2
Loss of locking screw trajectory into the lesser trochanter
3
Creation of a recurvatum deformity
4
Iatrogenic fracture of the proximal fragment
5
Decrease in hoop stresses
QUESTION 7 OF 50
Exposure of tendons to ciprofloxacin in vitro causes all of the following except:
1
A decrease in fibroblast proliferation
2
An increase in proteoglycan synthesis
3
A decrease in proteoglycan synthesis
4
An increase in matrix degrading proteolytic activity
5
A decrease in collagen synthesis
QUESTION 8 OF 50
Figures 1 through 4 show the radiographs and MRI obtained from a 40-year-old man who has a 6-week history of ring finger pain, redness, and swelling after puncturing the finger with a toothpick. Purulent drainage from the puncture wound site grew _Eikenella corrodens_. The patient was initially treated with oral antibiotics for 10 days and then intravenous (IV) antibiotics for 3 weeks. What is the best next step in treatment?
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1
Continued IV antibiotics for 4 weeks
2
Continued oral antibiotics for 6 weeks
3
Bone scan, biopsy, and metastatic work-up
4
Surgical débridement along with antibiotics
QUESTION 9 OF 50
of 100
Figures 48a through 48e are the MR image, radiograph, CT scan, and biopsy specimens of a 14-year-old boy with right shoulder pain without antecedent trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?





1
Unicameral bone cyst
2
Eosinophilic granuloma
3
Chondrosarcoma
4
Chondroblastoma
QUESTION 10 OF 50
of 100
An 18-year-old woman who plays high school volleyball (Figure 44)
1
Ligamentous reconstruction
2
Meniscal repair
3
Meniscectomy
4
Immobilization
QUESTION 11 OF 50
The hereditary pattern for Holt-Oram syndrome is:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
Sex-linked recessive
4
Sex-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 12 OF 50
ProsthetiCplacement in a cement-filled canal creates highest peak elevations in pressure when:
1
Using a cement restrictor
2
Using a retrograde filling
3
Using mechanical pressurization
4
Inserting the prosthesis late in the setting phase
5
Inserting the prosthesis early, while the cement is extremely soft
QUESTION 13 OF 50
A 72-year-old man injured his right shoulder after tripping over a chair leg. Radiographs obtained in the emergency department reveal an isolated anterior dislocation. After successful closed reduction, the patient has recurrent anterior instability and is unable to elevate the arm. What is the most likely cause of the recurrent instability?
1
Infection of the anterior glenoid labral detachment
2
Anterior glenoid fracture
3
Axilllary nerve palsy
4
Occult surgical neck fracture
5
Rotator cuff tear
QUESTION 14 OF 50
The treatment of stenosing tenosynovitis should include all of the following except:
1
Release of the A1 pulley.
2
Release of the A1 pulley and flexor tendon tenosynovectomy.
3
Splinting and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
4
Steroid injections between the flexor tendon and the A1 pulley.
5
Release of the A1 and A2 pulleys.
QUESTION 15 OF 50
of 100
Figures 88a through 88d are the radiographs and biopsy specimens of a 65-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who has been experiencing 6 weeks of increasing left hip pain. She denies any injury. What is the most likely diagnosis?





1
Metastatic breast cancer
2
Myeloma
3
Fibrous dysplasia
4
Osteosarcoma
QUESTION 16 OF 50
All of the following are characteristic of hemangiomas except:
1
70% of hemangiomas are visible by 4 weeks of age
2
70% of hemangiomas regress by 7 years of age
3
Hemangiomas are three times more common in woman than men
4
All cavernous hemangiomas regress by 12 years of age
5
None of the above
QUESTION 17 OF 50
A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a mangled lower extremity that is not salvageable. He undergoes transfemoral amputation. Three months later the patient presents to the office with the limb sitting in an abducted position. What important step was forgotten during the amputation?
1
Beveling the distal femur
2
Saving the patella
3
Allowing the sciatic nerve to retract deep into the soft tissue
4
Myodesis of the adductors
5
Timely fitting of orthosis
QUESTION 18 OF 50
of 100
The most appropriate treatment of this lesion involves
1
radiofrequency ablation (RFA).
2
wide resection and hemicortical allograft reconstruction.
3
prophylactic internal fixation followed by radiation.
4
local debridement and an infectious disease consultation.
QUESTION 19 OF 50
A patient with deficient anteroinferior bone stock undergoes a Latarjet procedure that transfers a portion of the coracoid to the glenoid rim and secures it with two screws. After surgery, the patient reports numbness on the anterolateral forearm. To verify the diagnosis, what muscle should be tested for strength?
1
Axillary
2
Abductor pollicis brevis
3
Supinator
4
Triceps
5
Biceps
QUESTION 20 OF 50
of 100
A 7-year-old boy is treated for a femoral shaft fracture with flexible intramedullary (IM) nailing. At 2 years postoperative, 1.5-cm overgrowth of the injured side is noted. Which factors increase the risk of overgrowth?
1
Length stable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio <0.8
2
Length stable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio ≥0.8
3
Length unstable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio <0.8
4
Length unstable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio ≥0.8
QUESTION 21 OF 50
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 25-year-old left-hand dominant minor league pitcher with a 6 month history of progressive left elbow pain during pitching. He fails nonoperative treatment and undergoes surgery to address the problem. What is the most common complication of this procedure?
1
Ulnar nerve neuropraxia
2
Flexor pronator mass avulsion
3
Posterolateral rotatory instability
4
Symptomatic hardware
QUESTION 22 OF 50
Figure 60 is the radiographs of a patient who underwent surgery to alleviate pain under her second metatarsal that is worsened by wearing high heel shoes. What is the most common complication of the osteotomy shown in the radiographs?
1
Osteonecrosis
2
Nonunion of the osteotomy
3
Significant transfer lesions
4
Metatarsophalangel (MTP) arthritis
5
Dorsiflexion contracture at the MTP joint
QUESTION 23 OF 50
What radiographic view will best reveal degeneration of the pisotriquetral joint in a patient who is being evaluated for pisotriquetral arthrosis?
1
True lateral
2
Lateral in 30 degrees of pronation
3
Lateral in 30 degrees of supination
4
Posteroanterior in 30 degrees of pronation
5
Carpal tunnel
QUESTION 24 OF 50
1250) Based on the Young and Burgess classification of pelvic ring injuries, an anterior-posterior compression type II injury does not result in disruption of which of the following?

1
pubic symphysis
2
anterior sacroiliac ligaments
3
posterior sacroiliac ligaments
4
sacrospinous ligament
5
sacrotuberous ligament
QUESTION 25 OF 50
A 10-year-old soccer player has bilateral heel pain and reports that the pain is worse during and immediately after sports. Examination reveals that the calcaneal tuberosities are painful to palpation bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Plantar fasciitis
2
Calcaneal apophysitis
3
Achilles tendinitis
4
Calcaneal bursitis
5
Stress fractures of the calcanei
QUESTION 26 OF 50
A 46-year-old man reports occasional squeaking of his hip 2 years after undergoing an uneventful total hip arthroplasty. History reveals no pain, physical examination cannot reproduce audible squeaking, and radiographs show appropriate implant position. What is the most appropriate management?



1
Revise the cup bearing to polyethylene
2
Revise the cup bearing to polyethylene and replace the femoral head with a metal design
3
Increase the cup abduction angle
4
Decrease the cup abduction angle
5
Continue routine follow-up and observation
QUESTION 27 OF 50
An L3 radiculopathy is best differentiated from a femoral neuropathy by testing what muscle? ](http://www.orthobullets.com/anatomy/10065/adductor-longus)
1
Quadriceps
2
Adductor longus
3
Iliacus
4
Sartorius
5
Psoas
QUESTION 28 OF 50
What is the most common cause of persistent pain after excision of a Morton neuroma?
1
Tarsal tunnel syndrome
2
Painful plantar scar formation
3
Metatarsophalangeal joint synovitis
4
Presence of an amputation stump neuroma
5
Inadequate resection of an interdigital neuroma
QUESTION 29 OF 50
of 100
A 69-year-old patient with diabetes has had acute-onset back pain and difficulty with ambulation for several hours. Evaluation reveals a temperature of 38.3°C, a white blood cell (WBC) count of 14000/µL (reference range [rr], 4500-11000/µL), C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 120 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 130 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h), normal rectal examination findings, and normal sensation to light touch. Motor function testing of the lower extremities reveals 3/5 ankle dorsiflexion and 4/5 plantar flexion strength bilaterally. An MR image reveals a large epidural abscess from L1-5. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?


1
Medical management with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and observation
2
CT-guided aspiration of the abscess before initiating antibiotics
3
Surgical decompression and IV antibiotics
4
Blood cultures and re-evaluation in 24 hours
QUESTION 30 OF 50
In the upright standing position, approximately what percent of the vertical load is borne by the lumbar spine facet joints?
1
0%
2
20%
3
40%
4
60%
5
80%
QUESTION 31 OF 50
A young gymnast fell awkwardly onto an outstretched hand during a competition. At the time of impact, his forearm was positioned in supination. Axial and posterolateral forces were loaded along the forearm into the elbow and the elbow underwent a significant valgus thrust. What injury pattern is most likely to result from the combination of these forces at the elbow?


1
Extension-type supracondylar fracture
2
Flexion-type supracondylar fracture
3
Anterior olecranon fracture dislocation
4
Coronoid fracture, olecranon fracture and elbow dislocation
5
Coronoid fracture, radial head fracture and elbow dislocation
QUESTION 32 OF 50
A 21-year-old football player reports increasing pain and a deformity involving his chest after colliding with another player during a scrimmage. Imaging studies confirm an anterior sternoclavicular dislocation. Management should consist of
1
reconstruction of the sternoclavicular capsule.
2
symptomatic nonsurgical treatment.
3
medial clavicle excision.
4
medial clavicle excision with capsular imbrication.
5
medial clavicle excision and rhomboid ligament reconstruction.
QUESTION 33 OF 50
A patient with stress fracture has a transcortical area of intense uptake on the technetium bone scan. Which of the following findings would most likely be present on the magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan:
1
Normal periosteal signal; normal marrow signal on T1; high marrow signal on T2
2
Normal periosteal signal; low marrow signal on T1; high marrow signal on T2
3
Normal periosteal signal on T2; low marrow signal on T1; high marrow signal on T2
4
High periosteal signal on T2; low marrow signal on T1; high marrow signal on T2
5
High periosteal signal on T2; low marrow signal on T1; normal marrow signal on T2
QUESTION 34 OF 50
of 100
Figure 29 is the radiograph of a 12-year-old female gymnast with elbow pain.
1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 35 OF 50
A 25-year-old male presents with the injury seen in Figures A and B following a motorcycle collision. He has an ipsilateral open tibia fracture. No other injuries are noted. He is hemodynamically stable and cleared for operative intervention. What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment for this injury?



1
Reamed unlocked antegrade nailing
2
Unreamed antegrade nailing with dynamic interlocking
3
Reamed unlocked retrograde nailing
4
Reamed retrograde nailing with static interlocking
5
Reamed retrograde nailing with dynamic interlocking
QUESTION 36 OF 50
of 100
A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with osteomyelitis and subperiosteal abscess of the distal tibia demonstrated on the MRI. CRP is 13 mg/l. He is taken to the operating room (OR) for incision and drainage. Intraoperative cultures as well as blood cultures grow methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). On postoperative day 2, he develops swelling in the leg, as well as an increased oxygen requirement. What should be the next step in evaluation?
1
Repeat MRI of the leg
2
CT scan of chest
3
Radiograph of chest
4
Return to the OR for repeat incision and drainage
QUESTION 37 OF 50
A 32-year-old previously healthy male sustained a closed right tibial shaft fracture 15 months prior that was treated with an unreamed intramedullary nail. The patient presents with persistent
pain in his right leg with radiographs revealing an "elephant's foot" appearance of the bone at the fracture site with gapping on all four cortices on the AP and lateral radiographs. His medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes for which he uses an insulin pump and denies any related issues. Based on this information, what is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's condition?


1
Chronic low-grade infection at the fracture site
2
Insufficient blood supply at the fracture site
3
Lack of stability at the fracture site
4
Low levels of vitamin D
5
Genetic error of collagen metabolism
QUESTION 38 OF 50
of 100
A 45-year-old woman has a painless thigh mass that is larger than 5 cm. What is the best next step?




1
Percutaneous biopsy
2
Positron emission tomography (PET)/CT scan
3
Excisional biopsy
4
MRI of the thigh with gadolinium
QUESTION 39 OF 50
A 30-year-old man who participates in recreational sports reports the spontaneous onset of intermittent pain and swelling about the right knee. Examination reveals a 3+ effusion, with a range of motion of 10° to 60°. He has mild diffuse tenderness but no instability. MRI scans and an arthroscopic view are shown in Figures 39a through 39c. Management should consist of
1
arthroscopic debridement of the articular lesion and resurfacing.
2
knee aspiration and an intra-articular cortisone injection.
3
rheumatologic evaluation.
4
infectious disease evaluation for possible Lyme disease.
5
arthroscopic synovectomy.
QUESTION 40 OF 50
A 57-year-old man has had a 2-week history of neck pain. He has no history of radiating symptoms, and has no complaints of numbness or paresthesias. There was no trauma associated with the onset of the pain. Figure 26 shows the MRI scan initially obtained by his family physician. What should the patient be told regarding the prevalence of the MRI findings in his age group?
1
Less than 10%
2
20% to 25%
3
50% to 60%
4
75% to 80%
5
Greater than 95%
QUESTION 41 OF 50
What nerve is at greatest risk of harm from the portal shown in Figure 36?
1
Radial
2
Ulnar
3
Median
4
Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
5
Posterior antebrachial cutaneous
QUESTION 42 OF 50
Which finger is most commonly involved in a flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion injury:
1
Index
2
Middle
3
Ring
4
Small
5
Thumb
QUESTION 43 OF 50
of 100
The patient is treated with emergent open reduction and internal fixation via a lateral approach to the distal femur. The peroneal nerve is found intact but is under pressure by a proximal bone fragment. After fixation, there is near-anatomic fracture reduction and no tension on the nerve. The patient is comfortable at a postsurgical check 4 hours later. Her toes
are warm and pink and there is no pain with passive dorsiflexion/plantar flexion of the toes. However, she continues to have absent first web space sensation, diminished dorsal foot sensation, and absent toe/ankle dorsiflexion. What is the best next step?
1
Return to surgery emergently for 4-compartment fasciotomy because she has a compartment syndrome and the nerve will not otherwise recover
2
Return to surgery urgently within the next few days for nerve exploration and potential microsurgical repair (vs cable grafting) to the damaged nerve to speed repair
3
Observe the nerve injury with further workup/intervention only if there is no sign of nerve recovery by 3 months after surgery
4
Observe the nerve injury with further workup/intervention only if there is no sign of nerve recovery by 12 months after surgery
QUESTION 44 OF 50
..What is the most appropriate treatment if instability is present at the time of evaluation?

1
TEA
2
Distal humeral replacement arthroplasty
3
Arthroscopic release with debridement
4
Soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty DISCUSSION..The radiographs reveal ulnohumeral arthrosis with relative sparing of the radiocapitellar articulation secondary to underlying osteoarthritis. Arthrosis of the elbow joint in this young and active patient presents a treatment dilemma for the surgeon. Interposition arthroplasty allows for improved function with pain relief and no weight-lifting restrictions, as required with TEA. This option is an intermediate procedure that preserves bone stock and allows for conversion to a TEA if necessary. Conventional TEA would provide pain relief with improved range of motion, but activity limitation and lifetime weight restrictions make this an undesirable option. Arthroscopic debridement is not an option, considering the previous failure from this modality. Contraindications for soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty include elbow instability, active infection, and pain without motion loss. Common complications associated with this procedure include instability, infection, ulnar neuropathy, bone resorption, and heterotopic bone formation.
QUESTION 45 OF 50
Botulinum toxin is used to treat vasospastic disorders of the hand such as the Raynaud phenomenon to improve digital perfusion and reduce pain. Botulinum toxin enables which transmitter to be unopposed, resulting in vasodilation?
1
Substance P
2
Glutamate
3
Rho kinase
4
Nitric oxide
QUESTION 46 OF 50
What is the most common presenting problem in patients with cauda equina syndrome?
1
Urinary retention
2
Urinary incontinence
3
Saddle numbness
4
Lower extremity numbness and weakness
5
Back and leg pain
QUESTION 47 OF 50
of 100
While performing long fusion with osteotomies for a patient with adult scoliosis and sagittal plane deformity, the neurophysiologist reports a change in motor-evoked potentials in the lower extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?
1
Perform an immediate wake-up test
2
Continue with the surgery and reassess in 5 minutes
3
Administer intravenous methylprednisolone
4
Ensure that mean arterial blood pressure is 80 or higher
QUESTION 48 OF 50
**An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man underwent a right**
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon- bone allograft. Routine preimplantation cultures of the allograft taken by the surgeon were positive for coagulase-negative Staphylococcus 5 days postoperatively. The patient has exhibited no evidence of clinical infection and his postoperative course has been uncomplicated during this time. What is the ideal management of this patient?
1
Observation
2
Oral antibiotics for 6 weeks
3
IV antibiotics for 6 weeks
4
Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement with graft retention
5
Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement with graft removal #
QUESTION 49 OF 50
Which of the following is not associated with increased risk of stress fractures:
1
Eating disorder
2
Hyperthyroidism
3
Prolonged corticosteroid use
4
Hypothyroidism
5
CeliaCsprue
QUESTION 50 OF 50
A healthy 25-year-old man sustains a grade IIIB open tibial fracture. Following appropriate debridement, irrigation, and stabilization with an external fixator, the soft-tissue injury is shown in Figure 30. What is the most appropriate definitive soft-tissue coverage procedure?
1
Split-thickness skin graft
2
Full-thickness skin graft
3
Soleus rotation flap
4
Medial gastrocnemius rotation flap
5
Free latissimus dorsi flap with microvascular anastomosis
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
Keywords
orthopedic mock exam FRCS orthopedics MCQ arab board orthopedics random MCQ test
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