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Advanced Orthopedic Mock Exam (Set 00C4AD)
High-Yield Simulation: This randomly generated exam contains exactly 50 high-yield multiple-choice questions curated from the Arab Orthopaedic Board and FRCS databanks.
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Optimize your learning: Use "Exam Mode" for timed pressure, or switch to "Study Mode" for instant explanations.
An adult with a distal humeral fracture underwent open reduction and internal fixation. What is the most common postoperative complication?
What is the most common pathogen for soft-tissue infection of the foot caused by a puncture wound?
If the structure marked by the tip of the probe in Figure 94 is repaired to the bony glenoid with suture anchors
during an arthroscopic stabilization procedure, what is the most likely result?
during an arthroscopic stabilization procedure, what is the most likely result?
Which of the following is not a clinical sign of rickets?
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A 35-year-old active woman with rheumatoid arthritis experiences right shoulder pain following an extended course of corticosteroids (Figures 96a and 96b).
A 35-year-old active woman with rheumatoid arthritis experiences right shoulder pain following an extended course of corticosteroids (Figures 96a and 96b).
A 12-year-old child with sickle cell anemia has had pain in the distal femur for 1 day, a temperature of 101.5° F, and a white blood count of 14,000/mm3 . Plain films are unremarkable. Recommended treatment includes:
A 14-year-old boy sustains an intercondylar fracture of the distal humerus. There is a single fracture line into the joint between the capitellum and the trochlea. The medial column of the distal humerus is comminuted, but the lateral column is not. All fragments are highly displaced. Neurovascular status is normal. The recommended treatment is:
The best clinical outcome following a primarily ligamentous Lisfranc injury is with:
A 5-year-old boy has had a limp for the past 4 weeks with intermittent pain at the foot. He remains normally active and has no history of trauma. He has no fevers, rashes, or swelling. Examination reveals tenderness at the mid-dorsum of the foot medially. Radiographs are seen in Figures la and lb. Treatment should include which of the following?
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What is the best initial treatment?
What is the best initial treatment?
A 63-year-old woman presents for treatment of pain and a burning/tingling sensation along the medial aspect of the foot and hallux. She underwent a tarsal tunnel release 12 months ago, but she has not experienced much symptomatic relief. Upon clinical examination, she has a positive percussion test (Tinel sign) along the course of the distal tibial nerve and pain upon pressure of the tarsal canal. There are no other pertinent clinical findings and a magnetic resonance image does not reveal any pathologic lesion. The next course of treatment is:
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A 70-year-old man has a 1-year history of progressive right shoulder pain, motion loss, and weakness associated with rotator cuff arthropathy. He has failed nonsurgical treatment. During the informed consent process, the patient is counseled regarding his treatment options, and the surgeon recommends that he undergo a right reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA). The patient must be informed about the complications associated with this type of procedure, the most common of which is
A 70-year-old man has a 1-year history of progressive right shoulder pain, motion loss, and weakness associated with rotator cuff arthropathy. He has failed nonsurgical treatment. During the informed consent process, the patient is counseled regarding his treatment options, and the surgeon recommends that he undergo a right reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA). The patient must be informed about the complications associated with this type of procedure, the most common of which is
A 40-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a history of new-onset right lower extremity weakness resulting in frequent falls. She reports that a few weeks prior to the onset of the lower extremity symptoms, she experienced an episode of acute back pain, which has since resolved. Examination reveals 1-2/5 strength in the right hip flexors, abductors, and quadriceps. There is 0-1/5 strength noted in the right ankle plantar and dorsiflexors. Deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive in the lower extremities and there is clonus on dorsiflexion of the right ankle. The patient has a positive Babinski sign on the right side. The patient denies neck or arm symptoms, and the upper extremity neurologic examination is within normal limits. Figures 59a and 59b show the MRI scans of the patient’s cervical and lumbar spine. What is the
next most appropriate step in management?
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next most appropriate step in management?
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A 10-year-old girl has a midshaft both bone forearm fracture. After attempted closed reduction, alignment consists of bayonet apposition, 10° of malrotation, and 8° of volar angulation. Management should now consist of
Figure 1
A 21-year-old man presents for evaluation of high arches, which have been present his entire life. C urrently, he is experiencing some discomfort with running activities. His brother and mother have high arches. He does not recall any trauma as a child, or any other pertinent childhood musculoskeletal problems. C linical examination reveals a rigid deformity bilaterally. The most common cause for his high arches is:
A 21-year-old man presents for evaluation of high arches, which have been present his entire life. C urrently, he is experiencing some discomfort with running activities. His brother and mother have high arches. He does not recall any trauma as a child, or any other pertinent childhood musculoskeletal problems. C linical examination reveals a rigid deformity bilaterally. The most common cause for his high arches is:
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The direct anterior approach is used to perform a total hip arthroplasty (THA). When the surgeon makes postsurgical rounds, it is noted that the patient cannot extend her knee flat into the bed. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
The direct anterior approach is used to perform a total hip arthroplasty (THA). When the surgeon makes postsurgical rounds, it is noted that the patient cannot extend her knee flat into the bed. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?
-When compared with reamed intramedullary nailing for an unstable diaphyseal tibia fracture, undreamed nailing is associated with which of the following?
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The patient's painful great-toe deformity is best treated with
The patient's painful great-toe deformity is best treated with
A 42-year-old man sustained a fracture of the distal radius with subsequent stiffness in the ipsilateral shoulder. Despite a 6-month program of range-of-motion exercises, external rotation at the side is limited to 10 degrees. Attempts at closed manipulation are unsuccessful. Treatment should now consist of
Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of a 57-year-old man who dislocated his left shoulder after a fall while playing tennis. On examination, he had full passive shoulder range of motion, but he was unable to actively elevate his injured shoulder. Sensation was intact to light touch over the lateral shoulder. What is the most likely etiology of his shoulder weakness?
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A tendon repair is thought to be weakest during which phase of tendon healing?
Which of the following statements is true concerning the changes seen in human articular cartilage as a person ages (normal cartilage):
Ganglions most commonly arise from the:
Figures 16a and 16b show the radiographs of a 2-year-old boy who has right arm swelling and pain. He also has multiple scalp lesions and chronic ear pain that has failed to respond to antibiotics. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 16c. Figure 16d shows an immunohistochemical stain with CD1a. What is the most likely diagnosis?
How do outcomes and postoperative care of patients undergoing total elbow arthroplasty differ depending on diagnosis?
Histologic studies of surgically resected tissue in lateral epicondylitis demonstrate which of the following findings?
Suprapatellar intramedullary nailing for tibia fractures when compared to
infrapatellar nailing is associated with
infrapatellar nailing is associated with
The lateral arm flap is based on what arterial supply?
-A tendon repair is thought to be weakest during which phase of tendon healing?
Figures 1 and 2 are the MR arthrogram images of a 16-year-old, right-hand-dominant baseball player who injured his left shoulder 4 weeks ago during a game. He now has pain, weakness, and the inability to swing a bat and can no longer do push-ups. He denies prior injury to his left shoulder. Radiographs are unremarkable. The patient fails an extensive course of physical therapy and is unable to return to baseball. He and his orthopaedic surgeon elect to proceed with surgery. During a repeat evaluation, he has negative sulcus and Beighton sign findings, and radiographs show 5° of glenoid retroversion. What is the most appropriate surgical plan?
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An 18-month-old boy presents with a clawing deformity of the right hand. He was born full term after a difficult delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia. He weighed 9.5 lbs at birth. The patient had a brief episode of apnea with an APGAR score of
5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patientâs right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Hornerâs syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent.
The level of the lesion in this patient is:
5 at birth and needed resuscitation and admission to the neonatal intensive care unit. A tender bump was noted on the patientâs right clavicle, which was diagnosed as clavicle fracture. A week later, the patient could not flex the fingers of his right hand. The neonatologist informed the parents that the fracture was managed conservatively and the absence of finger flexion was due to fracture and would recover. However, recovery can be prolonged and may take up to two years. The patient has grown and his immunization is complete. His right hand has extension at all the metacarpal joints of the fingers while the proximal interphalangeal and distal interphalangeal joints are flexed. The thumb is in an adducted position, and it is difficult to passively bring the thumb to full abduction. There is obvious wasting of the hand and forearm. The patient moves the arm well with no abnormalities noticed at the shoulder, elbow, and wrist. Radiograph of the chest shows a healed clavicle fracture with no evidence of diaphragmatic paralysis. There is no evidence of Hornerâs syndrome and the grasp reflex is absent.
The level of the lesion in this patient is:
What is the most common cause of rotator cuff injury in high school athletes?
A 68-year-old patient undergoes total knee arthroplasty for end-stage degenerative joint disease. Two years later, she trips and falls at home and sustains a fracture seen in Figures A and B. Before her fall, she was a community ambulator and had no knee pain. The component is determined to be stable and the surgeon decides to treat this fracture with closed reduction and retrograde intramedullary fixation with a supracondylar nail. Which of the following statements is true?
A 14-year-old boy suffers a hip dislocation in a motor vehicle accident. It is reduced by closed means. The risk of avascular necrosis is:
A 12-year-old boy with achondroplasia has a gradual 40° thoracolumbar kyphosis. He is unable to walk more than two blocks. Magnetic resonance imaging reveals spinal stenosis, and the patient is scheduled to undergo posterior decompression from T12- S1. In addition to this procedure, you recommend:
A 14-year-old football player has had right knee pain for the past 2 months; however, he denies any history of trauma. Examination shows an abductor lurch and increased external rotation of the right lower extremity. The best course of action should be to
Figure 42 shows the radiograph of a 70-year-old woman who has had a painful near ankylosis of her dominant elbow for 1 year. Treatment should consist of
A 42-year-old man who is right-hand dominant injured his right shoulder when he fell from a ladder onto his outstretched arm 1 hour ago. Radiographs reveal a two-part greater tuberosity anterior fracture-dislocation. Initial management should consist of
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Figures 33a through 33c are the radiographs of a total knee arthroplasty (TKA). What is the cause of the radiographic abnormality?
Figures 33a through 33c are the radiographs of a total knee arthroplasty (TKA). What is the cause of the radiographic abnormality?
A 40-year-old male laborer sustained a fall from height and has isolated pelvic pain. He is otherwise hemodynamically stable. A radiograph is shown in Figure A. A stress examination under anesthesia does not show any further anterior diastasis or posterior pelvic ring displacement. Computed tomography reveals no asymmetry of the sacroiliac joints. What is the most appropriate management of this injury?
Figure 53 shows the radiograph of a 48-year-old man who has a left side periprosthetic femoral fracture around the femoral stem of a previous revision hip arthroplasty. What is the most appropriate treatment?
An amputation through the wrist is an indication for attempted replantation.
A 57-year-old man with type I diabetes mellitus has had a tender, erythematous right sternoclavicular joint for the past 2 weeks. Radiographs reveal mild osteolysis without arthritic changes, within normal limits. Management should consist of
While performing revision total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices a flexion gap that is larger than the extension gap. The following statement is most likely true:
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Figures 77a and 77b are the clinical photographs of a 36-year-old woman who cannot fully extend the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joints of her long and ring fingers 6 months after the removal of a plate from the proximal radius via a dorsal approach. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Figures 77a and 77b are the clinical photographs of a 36-year-old woman who cannot fully extend the metacarpophalangeal (MP) joints of her long and ring fingers 6 months after the removal of a plate from the proximal radius via a dorsal approach. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
ORTHOPEDIC MCQS ONLINE OB 20 2B RECONSTRUCTION
ORTHOPEDIC MCQS ONLINE OB 20 2B RECONSTRUCTION
156) A 66-year-old male undergoes the procedure shown in figures A and B. After 4 years, he develops progressive pain and limitations in his daily function that is refractory to conservative measures. He is indicated for conversion to a total knee replacement with almost complete relief of his symptoms postoperatively. What preoperative factor likely led to the subsequent failure?
ORTHOPEDIC MCQS ONLINE OB 20 2B RECONSTRUCTION
156) A 66-year-old male undergoes the procedure shown in figures A and B. After 4 years, he develops progressive pain and limitations in his daily function that is refractory to conservative measures. He is indicated for conversion to a total knee replacement with almost complete relief of his symptoms postoperatively. What preoperative factor likely led to the subsequent failure?
-How is the fracture pattern shown in Figures 76a through 76c best classified?
In patients older than age 40 years who sustain a first-time anterior dislocation of the shoulder, prolonged morbidity is most commonly associated with
A 56-year-old man has a painful flatfoot deformity. Attempts at orthotic support and bracing of the foot have not been
successful. On examination, the forefoot is abducted, the heel is fixed in valgus, and the subtalar joint is rigid. The operation that is most likely to correct the foot deformity is:
successful. On examination, the forefoot is abducted, the heel is fixed in valgus, and the subtalar joint is rigid. The operation that is most likely to correct the foot deformity is:
A 35-year-old man has numbness and tingling in the index, middle, and ring fingers. History reveals that he also has had vague wrist pain and stiffness since being injured in a motorcycle accident 1 year ago. Radiographs are shown in Figures 47a through 47c. Management should consist of
