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Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: Arthroplasty, Trauma & Spine Part 255

OITE & ABOS Orthopedic MCQ Exam: Arthroplasty, Trauma & Sports Medicine - Part 52

27 Apr 2026 222 min read 69 Views
OITE & ABOS Orthopedic Board Prep: Practice Exam Part 52

Key Takeaway

This page offers Part 52 of an interactive MCQ set for orthopedic residents and surgeons preparing for their AAOS and ABOS board certification exams. It features 100 high-yield questions, mirroring OITE and AAOS exam formats, focusing on arthroplasty, fracture, hip, and knee. Utilize study and exam modes for comprehensive board exam preparation.

About This Board Review Set

This is Part 52 of the comprehensive OITE and AAOS Orthopedic Surgery Board Review series authored by Dr. Mohammed Hutaif, Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon.

This set has been strictly audited and contains 100 100% verified, high-yield multiple-choice questions (MCQs) modelled on the exact format of the Orthopaedic In-Training Examination (OITE) and the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) board examinations.

How to Use the Interactive Quiz

Two distinct learning modes are available:

  • Study Mode — After selecting an answer, you immediately see whether you are correct or incorrect, together with a full clinical explanation and literature references.
  • Exam Mode — All feedback is hidden until you click Submit & See Results. A live timer tracks elapsed time. A percentage score and detailed breakdown are displayed upon submission.

Pro Tip: Use keyboard shortcuts A–E to select options, F to flag a question for review, and Enter to jump to the next unanswered question.

Topics Covered in Part 52

This module focuses heavily on: Arthroplasty, Fracture, Hip, Infection, Knee, Ligament, Tendon.

Sample Questions from This Set

Sample Question 1: An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man underwent a right anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone allograft. Routine preimplantation cultures of the allograft taken by the surgeon were positive for coagulase-...

Sample Question 2: A 72-year-old woman falls onto her left hip after tripping over a curb during her daily 3-mile walk. An injury radiograph is shown in Figure A. What is the best long term solution?...

Sample Question 3: Following an episode of transient quadriplegia in contact sports, an athlete’s return to play is absolutely contraindicated when...

Sample Question 4: Which of the following treatment regimens for thromboembolic prophylaxis meets the American College of Chest Physicians Guidelines for 10-day treatment after total hip arthroplasty and total knee arthroplasty?...

Sample Question 5: What is the incidence and significance of anterior cruciate ligament laxity following tibial eminence fractures in skeletally immature individuals?...

Why Active MCQ Practice Works

Evidence consistently demonstrates that active recall through spaced MCQ practice yields substantially greater long-term retention than passive reading alone (Roediger & Karpicke, 2006). All questions in this specific module have been algorithmically verified for clinical integrity and complete explanations.

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man underwent a right anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone allograft. Routine preimplantation cultures of the allograft taken by the surgeon were positive for coagulase-negative Staphylococcus 5 days postoperatively. The patient has exhibited no evidence of clinical infection and his postoperative course has been uncomplicated during this time. What is the ideal management of this patient?





Explanation

The incidence of preimplantation positive cultures of musculoskeletal allografts used for anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction has varied between 4.8% and 13.3%. Interestingly, in none of the studies evaluating this issue did any of the patients
implanted with a "contaminated" graft develop a clinical infection. The results of the current literature suggest that the treatment of low-virulence organisms is unnecessary if no evidence of clinical infection exists. Preimplantation cultures do not appear to correlate with clinical infection. Therefore, the routine culture of allograft tissue is not recommended.

Question 2

A 72-year-old woman falls onto her left hip after tripping over a curb during her daily 3-mile walk. An injury radiograph is shown in Figure A. What is the best long term solution?





Explanation

THA is the best long term solution for displaced femoral neck fractures (FNF) in active elderly patients.
The aims of surgery for FNF in elderly patients are immediate pain relief, rapid mobilization, and low complications and revision. THA has best pain relief, fewer reoperations, best survivorship and is most cost-effective but has longer operative/anesthetic time, blood loss, higher infection rate, and potential instability compared with HA.
Healy and Iorio examined the optimal treatment for elderly FNF. They compared internal fixation (120 patients) with arthroplasty (HA, 43 patients; THA, 23 patients). There was no different in reoperation or mortality rates between the 2 groups, but arthroplasty was more cost effective, had independent living, and longer interval to reoperation/death. THA had less pain, better function, and lower rates of reoperation than HA, and was most cost-effective. They concluded that THA was the best treatment.
Yu et al. performed a meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials to determine whether THA or hemiarthroplasty (HA) was superior. They found that THA had lower risk of reoperation (RR = 0.53), higher risk of dislocation (RR = 1.99), and
higher functional scores at 1 and 4 years. There was no difference in mortality, infection and complication rates.
Figure A shows a displaced left femoral neck fracture. Incorrect Answers:

Question 3

Following an episode of transient quadriplegia in contact sports, an athlete’s return to play is absolutely contraindicated when





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Return to play decisions after traumatic spinal or spinal cord injury are not always clear-cut and often must be made on a patient-by-patient basis.  The Torg ratio has been found to have low sensitivity in patients with large vertebral bodies.  Abnormal electromyographic studies can persist in the face of normal function and do not define spinal injury.  Duration of quadriplegia is not related to anatomic pathology.  Findings on MRI scans or contrast-enhanced CT scans consistent with stenosis include lack of a significant cerebrospinal fluid signal around the cord, bony or ligament hypertrophy, or disk encroachment.  Based on these findings, return to play should be avoided.
REFERENCES: Cantu RC, Bailes JE, Wilberger JE Jr: Guidelines for return to contact or collision sport after a cervical spine injury.  Clin Sports Med 1998;17:137-146.
Herzog RJ, Wiens JJ, Dillingham MF, Sontag MJ: Normal cervical spine morphometry and cervical stenosis in asymptomatic professional football players: Plain film radiography, multiplanar computer tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging.  Spine 1991;16:178-186.
Bailes JE, Hadley MN, Quigley MR, Sonntag VK, Cerullo LJ: Management of athletic injuries of the cervical spine and spinal cord.  Neurosurgery 1991;29:491-497.

Question 4

Which of the following treatment regimens for thromboembolic prophylaxis meets the American College of Chest Physicians Guidelines for 10-day treatment after total hip arthroplasty and total knee arthroplasty?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Only three thromboembolic treatment protocols have reached Grade 1A status for the American College of Chest Physicians Guidelines for thromboembolic prophylaxis after total hip arthroplasty and total knee arthroplasty.  Grade 1A evidence shows a clear benefit/risk improvement with supportive data from randomized clinical trials, which are strongly applicable in most clinical circumstances.  Warfarin is recommended but at an INR level of 2 to 3. 

Low-molecular-weight heparin and fondaparinox are also acceptable treatment options.  Aspirin, adjusted dose unfractionated heparin, and elastic compressive stockings are not recommended as stand-alone options. 

REFERENCES: Colwell C: Evidence based guidelines for prevention of venous thromboembolism: Symposia.  Proceedings of the 2005 AAOS Annual Meeting.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 15-18.
Freedman KB, Brookenthal KR, Fitzgerald RH, et al: A meta-analysis of thromboembolic prophylaxis following elective total hip arthroplasty.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:929-938.

Question 5

What is the incidence and significance of anterior cruciate ligament laxity following tibial eminence fractures in skeletally immature individuals?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Measurable anterior cruciate ligament laxity, while frequently seen after tibial eminence fractures, usually does not cause symptoms.  It is found even in patients whose fractures have been anatomically reduced and fixed, leading to speculation that it is due to stretching of the ligament at the time of injury. 
REFERENCES: Willis R, Blokker C, Stall TM, et al: Long-term follow-up of anterior

eminence fractures.  J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:361-364.

Smith JB: Knee instability after fracture of the intercondylar eminence of the tibia. 

J Pediatr Orthop 1984;4:462-464.

Question 6

What is the neoplastic cell of origin for this tumor?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Tenosynovial giant-cell tumors are widely known as pigmented villonodular synovitis (PVNS), although this term is misleading because this tumor type is a clonal neoplasm and does not involve an inflammatory process. It often is shown to have a t(1:2)(p13q37) karyotype resulting in CSF1-COL6A3 gene fusion. There are various amounts of mononuclear cells, osteoclastlike giant cells, foamy histiocytes, hemosiderophages, and chronic inflammatory cells. Local recurrences are common, but CSF1R inhibitors are being investigated in studies involving local control improvement and disease regression.
Targeted therapy trials to assist in control of the diffuse-type tenosynovial giant-cell tumor (formerly called PVNS) involve the use of monoclonal antibodies that inhibit CSF1R activation. CSF1R-expressing mononuclear phagocytes are affected by these monoclonal antibodies.
Infantile fibrosarcoma is associated with the t(12;15)(p13;q25) karyotype and ETV6-NTRK3 gene fusion product. Nodular fasciitis is associated with the t(17;22)(p13;q13.1) karyotype and MYH9-USP6 gene fusion product. Inflammatory myofibroblastic tumor is associated with translocations involving 2p23 resulting in multiple fusion products of ALK with TPM4 (19p13.1), TPM3 (1q21), CLTC (17q23), RANBP2 (2q13), ATIC (2q35), SEC31A (4q21), and CARS (11p15). No
nonpreferred response has a histologic appearance that includes hemosiderin, foamy histiocytes, and osteoclastlike giant cells.
A conformation-specific inhibitor of the juxtamembrane region of CSF1R is a synthetic molecule that is designed to access the autoinhibited state of the receptor through direct interactions with the juxtamembrane residues embedded in the adenosine 5’-triphosphate-binding pocket. It is designed to bind in the regulatory a-helix of the N-terminal lobe of the kinase domain in neoplastic cells of tenosynovial giant-cell tumor that have expression of the CSF1 gene. There is a structural plasticity of the domain of the CSF1R that allows the molecule to directly bind the autoinhibited state of CSF1R.
Another approach involves the development of the anti-CSF1R antibody, emactuzumab, which targets tumor-associated macrophages. A lower percentage of volume reduction has been reported with imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor. Alkylating agents have not been used in this benign neoplasm.
Tenosynovial giant-cell tumor is characterized by an overexpression of CSF1. CSF1R activation leads to recruitment of CSF1R-expressing cells of the mononuclear phagocyte lineage.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Cassier PA, Gelderblom H, Stacchiotti S, Thomas D, Maki RG, Kroep JR, van der Graaf WT, Italiano A, Seddon B, Dômont J, Bompas E, Wagner AJ, Blay JY. Efficacy of imatinib mesylate for the treatment of locally advanced and/or metastatic tenosynovial giant cell tumor/pigmented villonodular synovitis. Cancer. 2012 Mar 15;118(6):1649-55. doi: 10.1002/cncr.26409. Epub 2011 Aug 5. PubMed PMID: 21823110. View Abstract at PubMed
Ladanyi M, Fletcher JA, Dal Cin P. Cytogenetic and molecular genetic pathology of soft tissue tumors. In: Goldblum JR, Folpe AL, Weis SW, eds. Enzinger & Weiss’s Soft Tissue Tumors. 6th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Saunders; 2014:76-109.
Staals EL, Ferrari S, Donati DM, Palmerini E. Diffuse-type tenosynovial giant cell tumour: Current treatment concepts and future perspectives. Eur J Cancer. 2016 Aug;63:34-40. doi: 10.1016/j.ejca.2016.04.022. Epub 2016 Jun 5. Review. View Abstract at PubMed
Tap WD, Wainberg ZA, Anthony SP, Ibrahim PN, Zhang C, Healey JH, Chmielowski B, Staddon AP, Cohn AL, Shapiro GI, Keedy VL, Singh AS, Puzanov I, Kwak EL, Wagner AJ, Von Hoff DD, Weiss GJ, Ramanathan RK, Zhang J, Habets G, Zhang Y, Burton EA, Visor G, Sanftner L, Severson P, Nguyen H, Kim MJ, Marimuthu A, Tsang G, Shellooe R, Gee C, West BL, Hirth P, Nolop K, van de Rijn M, Hsu HH, Peterfy C, Lin PS, Tong-Starksen S, Bollag G. Structure-Guided Blockade of CSF1R Kinase in Tenosynovial Giant-Cell Tumor. N Engl J Med. 2015 Jul 30;373(5):428-37. doi:10.1056/NEJMoa1411366. PubMed PMID: 26222558. View Abstract at PubMed
Ries CH, Cannarile MA, Hoves S, Benz J, Wartha K, Runza V, Rey-Giraud F, Pradel LP, Feuerhake F, Klaman I, Jones T, Jucknischke U, Scheiblich S, Kaluza K, Gorr IH, Walz A, Abiraj K, Cassier PA, Sica A, Gomez-Roca C, de Visser KE, Italiano A, Le Tourneau C, Delord JP, Levitsky H, Blay JY, Rüttinger D. Targeting tumor-associated macrophages with anti-CSF-1R antibody reveals a strategy for cancer therapy. Cancer Cell. 2014 Jun 16;25(6):846-59. doi: 10.1016/j.ccr.2014.05.016. Epub 2014 Jun 2. PubMed PMID: 24898549.View Abstract at PubMed

Question 7

A 29-year-old female has sustained the acute injury shown in Figure A. Which of the following is an indication for open reduction internal fixation in this patient?





Explanation

Figure A shows a minimally displaced Weber B ankle fracture. The need for operative treatment would be dependent on fracture stability. A gravity stress test would best demonstrate fracture displacement, syndesmotic injury and medial sided ligamentous integrity.
In patients who present with no medial widening on standard ankle radiographs and no clinical symptoms of deltoid ligament injury, the integrity of the deltoid ligament remains unknown. The gravity stress radiograph may be used to help identify a deltoid ligament injury in association with an isolated distal fibular fracture. Stage-IV supination-external rotation fractures, which involve the deltoid ligament, are more likely to be treated operatively as they are often considered unstable ankle fractures.
Egol et al. reviewed 101 patients with isolated fibular fracture and an intact mortise. They found that medial tenderness, swelling, and ecchymosis were not sensitive with regard to predicting widening of the medial clear space on stress radiographs. Interestingly, they report that good functional results can be obtained in patients with widening of the medial clear space on a stress radiograph in the absence of medial signs.
Gill et al. compared the effectiveness of gravity stress radiograph as compared to manual stress radiograph for the detection of deltoid ligament injury in isolated fibular fracture. A total of twenty-five patients with SER type-II fracture and SER Type IV-equivalent fractures were enrolled. They found the gravity stress radiograph was equivalent to the manual stress radiograph for determining deltoid ligament injury.
Figure A shows a mortise radiograph displaying a minimally displaced Weber B ankle fracture. Illustration A shows the positioning for a gravity stress radiograph. The patient is in the lateral decubitus position with the injured leg dependent and off the end of the table, a mortise view is taken in 10° of internal rotation of the tibia.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 8

-Figures 3a and 3b are the clinical photographs of a 35-year-old man seen 3 months after repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture. He has no constitutional symptoms and is unable to perform a single heelrise test. The most appropriate treatment is





Explanation

Question 9

Which of the following radiographic findings indicates that the injury to the great toe shown in Figures 60a and 60b should be reducible by closed manipulation?





Explanation

In the case of first MP joint dislocation, though rare, there is a complete disruption of the intersesamoid ligament, at separation of the sesamoid seen or x-ray (Type II). This dislocation can be readily reduced. A Type I lesion/dislocation yields no disruption of the sesamoid mass though a dislocation is present. This type I lesion are usually irreducible if attempted closed.

Question 10

Closure of the rotator cuff interval results in elimination of which direction of shoulder instability?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The rotator cuff interval consists of the superior glenohumeral and coracohumeral ligaments.  Injury to this ligament complex leads to posteroinferior shoulder instability.  Tightening of these tissues through surgical means has been shown to result in a significant reduction in posteroinferior translation of the humerus in relation to the glenoid.
REFERENCES: Harryman DT II, Sidles JA, Harris SL, et al: The role of the rotator interval capsule in passive motion and stability of the shoulder.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:53-66.
O’Brien SJ, Schwartz RS, Warren RF, et al: Capsular restraints to anterior-posterior motion of the abducted shoulder: A biomechanical study.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:298-308.
Warner JJ, Deng XH, Warren RF, et al: Static capsuloligamentous restraints to superior-inferior translation of the glenohumeral joint.  Am J Sports Med 1992;20:675-685.

Question 11

What is the main benefit of using metal-backed tibial components in total knee arthroplasty?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a normal knee, the hard subchondral bone helps to distribute loads across the joint surface. A metal-backed tibial component in total knee arthroplasty decreases the compressive stresses on the underlying, softer cancellous bone by distributing the load over a larger surface area, particularly when one condyle is loaded.  Although metallic base plates also increase the tensile forces on the other condyle when one is loaded and may decrease the thickness of the polyethylene tray, these are not benefits. Compressive forces on the polyethylene tray are increased with metal backing.  The conformity of the articular surfaces is not affected by metal backing of the tibial component. 
REFERENCE: Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 265-274.

Question 12

A 64-year-old man who underwent an L4-5 decompression approximately 1 year ago reported relief of his claudicatory leg pain initially, but he now has increasing low back pain and recurrent neurogenic claudication despite nonsurgical management. Radiographs show new asymmetric collapse and spondylolisthesis at the decompressed segment, and MRI scans show lateral recess stenosis. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: When radiographic findings reveal postlaminectomy instability, procedures that do not include some type of fusion will fail to solve the problem.  In fact, wider decompression or diskectomy alone will only further destabilize the segment.  Because there is radiographic evidence of recurrent lateral recess stenosis and symptomatic neurogenic claudication, a revision decompression should be included.  Since access to the canal involves a posterior approach, the stabilization should be performed through that same approach.
REFERENCES: Herkowitz HN, Kurz LT: Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis with spinal stenosis: A prospective study comparing decompression with decompression and intertransverse process arthrodesis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:802-808.
Hansraj KK, O’Leary PF, Cammisa FP Jr, et al: Decompression, fusion, and instrumentation surgery for complex lumbar spinal stenosis.  Clin Orthop 2001;384:18-25.

Question 13

A 19-year-old running back lands directly on his anterior knee after being tackled. He has mild anterior knee pain, a trace effusion, a 2+ posterior drawer, a grade 1+ stable Lachman, no valgus laxity, and negative dial tests at 30° and 90°. What is the best treatment strategy at this time?




Explanation

This patient has likely sustained an isolated PCL injury. The examination is consistent with a grade II injury to the PCL. In this scenario, the best initial option is nonsurgical treatment and return to play as symptoms subside and strength improves. Physical therapy with a focus on quadriceps strengthening and delayed PCL reconstruction is not the answer because this patient can likely be treated without surgery. The absence of valgus laxity and negative dial testing findings suggest that an injury to the posteromedial and posterolateral corners has not occurred. Initial nonsurgical treatment is indicated for this patient. If he completes rehabilitation and experiences persistent disability with anterior and/or medial knee discomfort or senses the knee is "loose," PCL reconstruction should be considered at that time.

Question 14

A 22-year-old volleyball player has atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. This deficit is the result of entrapment of what nerve?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Suprascapular deficits, as the result of repetitive forceful internal rotation with overhead ball striking, occur in the spinoglenoid notch.  Compression interferes with distal suprascapular nerve innervation to the infraspinatus, while allowing the supraspinatus to function normally.  A scapular notch entrapment of this nerve would involve both the supraspinatus and the infraspinatus.  The axillary, dorsal scapular, and subscapular nerves do not affect the infraspinatus.
REFERENCES: Ferretti A, Cerullo G, Russo G: Suprascapular neuropathy in volleyball players.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:260-263.
Bigliani LU, Dalsey RM, McCann PD, April EW: An anatomical study of the suprascapular nerve.  Arthroscopy 1990;6:301-305.

Question 15

A patient with a below-the-knee amputation is being evaluated for a new prosthesis. He wants to improve his ability to walk on uneven surfaces. What modification to the prosthesis can be made to accommodate this request?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Changing from a solid keel to a keel with a sagittal split allows an amputee to navigate uneven terrain more easily.  Changing the length of the keel affects the responsiveness of the prosthesis but does not address the surface conditions for ambulation.  The SACH is not used as frequently anymore, because overload problems to the nonamputated foot have been observed.
REFERENCES: Koval K (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 31-45.
Goldberg B (ed): Atlas of Orthoses and Assistive Devices, ed 3.  St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1997. 

Question 16

A Trendelenburg gait is most likely to be seen in association with





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A Trendelenburg gait results from weakness of the gluteus medius, which is innervated by the L5 nerve root.  A paracentral disk herniation at L4-L5 most commonly results in an L5 radiculopathy and thus weakness of the gluteus medius.  A paracentral herniation at L5-S1 most commonly affects the S1 nerve root.  A paracentral herniation at L3-L4, a central herniation at L3-L4, and a far lateral herniation at L4-L5 all affect the L4 root.
REFERENCES: Fardon DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 323-332.
Andersson GB, Deyo RA: History and physical examination in patients with herniated lumbar discs.  Spine 1996;21:10S-18S.

Question 17

A 2-year-old child is being evaluated for limb-length and girth discrepancy. As a newborn, the patient was large for gestational age and had hypoglycemia. Current examination shows enlargement of the entire right side of the body, including the right lower extremity and foot. The skin shows no abnormal markings, and the neurologic examination is normal. The spine appears normal.





Explanation

The patient may have Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (BWS), which consists of exophthalmos, macroglossia, gigantism, visceromegaly, abdominal wall defects, and neonatal hypoglycemia. Hemihypertrophy develops in approximately 15% of patients with BWS. Patients with hemihypertrophy that is the result of BWS have a 40% chance of developing malignancies such as Wilms’ tumor or hepatoblastoma; therefore, frequent ultrasound screening is recommended until about age 7 years. The absence of nevi and vascular markings helps to rule out other causes of hemihypertrophy, such as neurofibromatosis, Proteus syndrome, and Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome. Bone age estimations are not accurate at this young age but may become more useful later to help predict the timing of epiphysiodesis procedures.

Question 18

Figures below show the radiographs, and the CT obtained from a 58-year-old woman who underwent cementless left total hip arthroplasty. Nine months after surgery, she continued to have groin pain when actively flexing her hip. She has trouble walking up stairs and getting out of her car. What is the most likely diagnosis?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Groin pain after total hip replacement has a number of possible causes, and an exact diagnosis may remain elusive in some patients. Infection should be ruled out with laboratory studies and, if indicated, diagnostic aspiration of the hip joint. Implant loosening should be evaluated by plain radiograph and bone scan, if indicated. Synovitis resulting from wear debris should be considered in patients with polyethylene liners who experience late-onset symptoms or in any patient with a metal-on-metal bearing. This patient's symptoms are classic for iliopsoas tendonitis. Physical examination usually reveals pain and weakness with resisted hip flexion. A cross-table lateral radiograph and CT show that the anterior edge of the acetabulum protrudes beyond the anterior wall, thereby acting as a source of iliopsoas tendon irritation. In such cases, acetabular component revision and repositioning are indicated. Fluoroscope-guided iliopsoas cortisone injection can help to establish the diagnosis and relieve groin pain. If the acetabular component is well positioned, then iliopsoas tenotomy should be considered.

Question 19

A 45-year-old previously healthy woman has experienced weakness and fatigability for 2 months. She states she feels best in the morning, but tires easily with exertion. If she sits and rests her strength improves, but she easily tires with each activity. When her fatigue is most severe, she has double vision. Physical examination is positive for ptosis with upward gaze after 20 seconds. When she holds her arms out straight she shows good initial strength, but rapidly decreasing strength with time. What is the pathologic cause of her muscle weakness? Review Topic




Explanation

The patient has myasthenia gravis, which has its onset in middle age and causes progressive weakness because of the loss of acetylcholine receptors secondary to autoimmune antibodies at the NM junction. Rest periods allow uptake of acetylcholine and initial strength, but easy fatigability. Treatment is aimed at immunomodulation; acetyl cholinesterase inhibitors often coupled with thymectomy can control symptoms. Decreased release of acetylcholine at the NM junction is the effect of a nondepolarizing drug or toxin botulinum. Patients with muscular dystrophy lack dystrophin that acts at the sarcolemma to regulate calcium channels, and onset of this condition occurs at a younger age. The decrease in myelin indicates Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and is often seen with long axon degeneration, such as in the feet and lower legs.

Question 20

Figures 4a and 4b show the radiographs of a 53-year-old woman who was injured in a fall. After initial closed reduction, what is the preferred treatment for this fracture?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: This elbow fracture-dislocation involves a radial head fracture, coronoid fracture, and ulnohumeral dislocation (terrible triad).  Several algorithms exist for treatment; surgical treatment is indicated.  The treatment should address the radial head.  Studies have shown replacement to be superior to repair in comminuted fractures.  The coronoid may be addressed in unstable cases at the time of radial head excision and replacement.  Lateral ligamentous repair is carried out during closure of the lateral elbow capsule.  Medial ligamentous repair also may be undertaken but usually in concert with bony repair.  Hinged external fixation remains an option when instability exists following bony and soft-tissue repair.  Acute ulnar nerve transposition is rarely indicated.
REFERENCES: Ring D, Jupiter JB, Zilberfarb J: Posterior dislocation of the elbow with fractures of the radial head and coronoid.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:547-551.
Pugh DM, Wild LM, Schemitsch EH, et al: Standard surgical protocol to treat elbow dislocations with radial head and coronoid fractures.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:1122-1130.

Question 21

…Figure 53 is the emergency department radiograph of a 7-year-old boy who has pain and is unwilling to use his right arm after a fall on the playground. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?




Explanation

Question 22

All of the following have been shown to negatively affect clinical outcomes in treating displaced acetabular fractures, EXCEPT:





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Negative outcome factors have been shown to include: increasing patient age, time from injury to surgery (>3 weeks), intraoperative complications, femoral head bone or cartilage injury, and fracture reduction > 1-2mm from anatomic. Choice of surgical approach has not been shown to affect patient outcomes.
The referenced study by Matta evaluated outcomes of displaced acetabular fractures. The overall clinical result was excellent for 104 hips (40 per cent), good for ninety-five (36 per cent), fair for twenty-one (8 per cent), and poor for forty-two (16 per cent). The clinical result was related closely to the radiographic result. These findings indicate that in many patients who have a complex acetabular fracture the hip joint can be preserved and post-traumatic osteoarthrosis can be avoided if an anatomical reduction is achieved.

Question 23

Which of the following has been associated with a decreased rate of glenoid component radiolucent lines?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: According to a recent study, cemented pegged glenoid components had fewer radiolucent lines initially and at 2-year follow-up when compared to a cemented keeled design.  Curve-backed designs have also shown fewer radiolucent lines when compared to flat-backed designs.  Oversizing the glenoid can lead to impaired rotator cuff function and decreased range of motion.  An off-centered glenoid can lead to early loosening.
REFERENCES: Gartsman GM, Elkousy HA, Warnock KM, et al: Radiographic comparison of pegged and keeled glenoid components.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2005;14:252-257.
Szabo I, Buscayret F, Edwards TB, et al: Radiographic comparison of flat-back and convex-back glenoid components in total shoulder arthroplasty.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2005;14:636-642.
Mileti J, Boardman ND III, Sperling JW, et al: Radiographic analysis of polyethylene glenoid components using modern cementing techniques.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2004;13:492-498.


Question 24

A 29-year-old woman reports shoulder pain after sustaining a minor fall 6 weeks ago. She has a history of celiac sprue. Radiographs of the forearm and shoulder are shown in Figures 53a and 53b. Which of the following serum abnormalities would be expected?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Celiac sprue results in rapid gastrointestinal transit and fatty stools that impair the absorption of calcium and vitamin D and result in nutritional-deficiency osteomalacia with secondary hyperparathyroidism.  The radiographs show marked osteopenia with brown tumors.  A pathologic fracture is seen in the proximal humerus through a large brown tumor.  Serum findings include low or normal calcium, low phosphate, elevated alkaline phosphatase, low 1,25(OH)2D, and increased PTH levels.  Secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with a variety of conditions including malabsorption syndromes.
REFERENCES: Potts JT: Parathyroid hormone: Past and present.  J Endocrinol 2005;187:311-325.
Corazza GR, Di Stefano M, Maurino E, et al: Bones in coeliac disease: Diagnosis and treatment.  Best Pract Res Clin Gastroenterol 2005;19:453-465.
Mankin HJ, Mankin CJ: Metabolic bone disease: An update.  Instr Course Lect 2003;52:769-784.

Question 25

When performing a bunionectomy with a release of the lateral soft-tissue structures, the surgeon is cautioned against releasing the conjoined tendon that inserts along the lateral base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe. This conjoined tendon is made up of what two muscles?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Owens and Thordardson cautioned surgeons not to release the conjoined tendon from the base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe because of an increased risk of iatrogenic hallux varus.  Release of the transverse and oblique heads of the adductor hallucis is largely accomplished by releasing the soft tissue adjacent to the lateral sesamoid, without releasing tissue from the base of the proximal phalanx.  The conjoined tendon is made up of the flexor hallucis brevis and the adductor hallucis.
REFERENCES: Owens S, Thordardson DB: The adductor hallucis revisited.  Foot Ankle Int 2001;22:186-191.
Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1983, chapter 5.

Question 26

Figures 31a and 31b are the radiographs of a 5-year-old boy with an elbow injury.




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Figure 26 shows lucent areas of both femoral condyles. This may represent a variation of ossification, in which case this boy’s knee pain is coincidental. Another possibility is atypical osteochondritis dissecans. An MRI will distinguish between the 2 entities and will guide treatment.
Figures 27a and 27b show healing rib and distal tibia fractures. These fractures likely are attributable to child abuse. A plain radiographic skeletal survey is sufficient for orthopaedic needs.
A triplane fracture of the distal tibia is revealed in Figure 28. A CT scan will quantify displacement and identify fracture fragments for planning of screw trajectories if open reduction and internal fixation is indicated (displacement > 2 mm).
In Figure 29, the linear lucency of the capitellum indicates an early osteochondritis dissecans. An MRI will allow staging of the lesion.
Figure 30 shows that the left radius and ulna do not align with the humerus; this is the likely result of a transphyseal fracture of the distal humerus. An arthrogram will outline the unossified distal humerus and allow for reduction. For an unstable neonate, this likely can be performed in the NICU.
Figures 31a and 31b reveal a widely displaced lateral condyle fracture for which open reduction and internal fixation is required. No advanced imaging is necessary.

Question 27

A 15-year-old wrestler sustains an abduction, hyperextension, and external rotation injury to his right shoulder. The MRI scan findings shown in Figures 27a and 27b are most consistent with Review Topic





Explanation

An isolated avulsion of the lesser tuberosity occurs very rarely and usually is found in 12- and 13-year-old adolescents. The MRI scans reveal a tear of the humeral attachment of the inferior glenohumeral ligament, a so-called HAGL lesion. This injury to the inferior glenohumeral ligament occurs much less commonly than the classic Bankart lesion (anterior inferior labral tear). A tear of the subscapularis occurs with a similar mechanism of injury but generally occurs in older individuals.

Question 28

-Six weeks later the boy remains uncomfortable and continues to use crutches for all ambulation. What do the new radiographs seen in Figures 78a and 78b reveal?




Explanation

DISCUSSION FOR QUESTIONS 77 AND 78
It has been demonstrated on a cadaver model that screw fixation of moderate and severe slipped capital femoral epiphyses may result in screw impingement upon the acetabulum and labrum. This is likely when the screw head on the anteroposterior view is seen to lie medial to the intertrochanteric line. Femoral artery pseudoaneurysm has been reported when the screws are left long (projecting far from the bone) to ease removal. Chondrolysis is associated with persistent penetration into the hip joint; both screws stop well short of the articular surface. Many in vitro studies of slip models have demonstrated increased strength of construct of two screws compared to one, although the clinical relevance can be questioned.
The radiographs show the screw heads firmly in the femoral head, with loss of fixation in the femoral neck. Sanders and associates reported a series of 7 such failures and hypothesized that acute-on-chronic slips may develop osteopenia of the femoral neck. All patients reported continued pain postoperatively rather than the relief typically seen following surgical stabilization of the epiphysis.
There is no radiographic evidence of osteonecrosis or chondrolysis.

Question 29

An 18-year-old high school football player sustains a thigh injury that results in the findings shown in Figure 1. Initial management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows myositis ossificans within the quadriceps muscle.  This condition occurs as a complication of muscle injury.  Initial treatment should include rest, ice, compression, and elevation.  While gentle active range of motion is encouraged in the functional recovery from this injury, passive stretching is contraindicated as it can enhance hemorrhage and accentuate the development of myositis ossificans.  Ultrasound is similarly contraindicated because it can enhance the development of myositis ossificans and has no proven efficacy in this patient; electrical stimulation also has no proven benefits.  Massage is contraindicated in the initial management of this injury because of its influence on increasing local blood flow. 
REFERENCES: Anderson JE (ed): Grant’s Atlas of Anatomy.  Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1978, pp 4.39-4.49.
Brumet ME, Hontas RB: The thigh, in DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Orthopaedic Sports Medicine.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, pp 1086-1112.
Antao NA: Myositis of the hip in a professional soccer player: A case report.  Am J Sports Med 1988;16:82-83.
Jackson DW, Feagin JA: Quadriceps contusions in young athletes: Relation of severity of injury to treatment and prognosis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1973;55:95-105.

Question 30

According to Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) guidelines, which set of patient laboratory study results fits the definition of chronic prosthetic joint infection?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The MSIS definition of periprosthetic joint infection was updated in 2014 with two major and six minor criteria. The presence of one major criterion or three minor criteria is diagnostic for infection. The major criteria are two positive cultures with the same organism or a draining sinus tract. The current MSIS minor criteria are 1) an elevated ESR (more than 30 mm/hr) and CRP level (more than 10 mg/L), 2) an elevated synovial   WBC   count   (more   than   3,000   cells   per/microliter),   3)   an   elevated   synovial   fluid polymorphonuclear count (more than 80%), 4) a positive histological analysis of periprosthetic tissue, and 5) a single positive culture.

Question 31

Figure 38 shows the radiograph of a 75-year-old woman who has had right shoulder pain, difficulty sleeping on the affected arm, and difficulties performing activities of daily living for the past 6 weeks. Initial nonsurgical management includes analgesics, a subacromial cortisone injection, and gentle range-of-motion exercises. However, these modalities have failed to provide relief, and the patient reports that she is unable to elevate her arm. Her pain is worse and she would like the most reliable treatment method for pain relief and functional improvement. What is the best surgical treatment?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The authors of several studies conducted in Europe have reported promising results in the short- and medium-term with use of a reversed or inverted shoulder implant.  The most recent investigation, a multicenter study in Europe in which 77 patients (80 shoulders) with glenohumeral osteoarthritis and a massive rupture of the rotator cuff were treated with the Delta III prosthesis, described an improvement in the mean constant score of 42 points, an increase of 65 degrees in forward elevation, and minimal or no pain in 96% of the patients.  Hemiarthroplasty, the “nonconstrained” option, has long been the standard of care for rotator cuff tear arthropathy.  However, careful examination of the literature reveals that the results have not been uniform.
REFERENCES: Favard L, Lautmann S, Sirveaux F, et al: Hemiarthroplasty versus reverse arthroplasty in the treatment of osteoarthritis with massive rotator cuff tear, in Walch G, Boileau P, Mole D (eds): 2000 Shoulder Prosthesis Two to Ten Year Follow-Up.  Montpellier, France, Sauramps Medical, 2001, pp 261-268.
Frankle M, Siegal S, Pupello D, et al: The reverse shoulder prosthesis for glenohumeral arthritis associated with severe rotator cuff deficiency: A minimum two-year follow-up study of sixty patients.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1697-1705.
Werner CM, Steinmann PA, Gilbart M, et al: Treatment of painful pseudoparesis due to irreparable rotator cuff dysfunction with the Delta III reverse-ball-and-socket total shoulder prosthesis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1476-1486.

Question 32

A 67-year-old female presents with shoulder pain for 3 months after falling down stairs. Imaging demonstrates a large rotator cuff tear involving multiple tendons. You perform an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair and biceps tenodesis. At her 2 month follow up, she reports worsening shoulder pain and decreased range of motion. Examination reveals active forward flexion to 80°. Passive range of motion is full. There is a positive external rotation lag sign. An MRI is performed and is pictured in Figure A. Which is the best treatment for this patient? Review Topic





Explanation

The next best step for this patient's failed rotator cuff repair is a revision repair of the infraspinatus.
Failed rotator cuff repair is multifactorial. Structural failure of repair is the result of both intrinsic and extrinsic factors. Intrinsic factors include advancing patient age, increasing tear size, poor tendon and muscle quality, systemic disease and smoking history. Extrinsic factors include inadequate biomechanical construct or repair configuration and overaggressive postoperative rehabilitation.
Denard et al authored a review article on revision rotator cuff repair. Indications for revision repair are persistent symptoms despite nonoperative management in whom infection and advanced degenerative changes have been ruled out. Satisfactory results have been reported following revision repair of recurrent rotator cuff tears, particularly with arthroscopic techniques. Female sex and preoperative forward flexion < 135° is associated with poorer outcomes.
Lambers Heerspink et al found that increasing age, larger tear size and additional biceps or acromioclavicular (AC) joint procedures have a negative influence on cuff integrity at follow up. Smoking, duration of symptoms, obesity and medical comorbidities were not found to influence cuff integrity in this study. Only AC procedures and workers’ compensation status were associated with worse functional outcomes.
Figure A is a coronal T2 MRI demonstrating a failed rotator cuff repair with retear. Incorrect Responses:

Question 33

In a patient with a major head injury and a femoral shaft fracture, intraoperative hypotension during femoral fixation has been associated with which of the following?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Hypoxia and hypotension are associated with lower GCS scores in polytrauma patients with major head injuries, but whether early fracture fixation adversely affect CNS outcomes has been controversial. New studies, however, have found no association between early surgery and decreased discharge GCS scores. The referenced study by Scalea et al reviewed 171 patients with pelvic or lower extremity fractures and head injuries; they showed no difference in CNS outcomes or mortality in patients who underwent early fixation. The second reference by Brundage et al showed improved outcomes (including high GCS scores at time of discharge) in those who had early fixation of femoral shaft fractures in the head-injured patient. The last referenced study by Jaicks et al found a lower discharge GCS in the early fracture fixation group compared with the late group. However, they also found that early fracture fixation was associated with hypoxemia and hypotension, as well as greater fluid administration.

Question 34

A 67-year-old man who underwent humeral head arthroplasty for a four-part fracture 6 months ago reports that he is still unable to actively elevate his arm. Rehabilitation after surgery consisted of a sling with passive range-of-motion exercises for 2 weeks and then progressed to active-assisted and strengthening exercises at 3 weeks. Radiographs are shown in Figures 28a and 28b. What is the primary cause of his inability to elevate the arm?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show nonunion of both the greater and lesser tuberosities.  Tuberosity pull-off and nonunion remain among the most common causes of failed humeral head arthroplasty for fracture.  Strict attention to securing the tuberosities to each other and to the shaft, and autogenous bone grafting from the excised humeral head will decrease the incidence of pull-off and improve healing rates.  Active-assisted range-of-motion and strengthening exercises should be delayed until tuberosity healing is noted radiographically, usually at 6 to 8 weeks postoperatively.
REFERENCES: Hartsock LA, Estes WJ, Murray CA, et al: Shoulder hemiarthroplasty for proximal humeral fractures.  Orthop Clin North Am 1998;29:467-475.
Hughes M, Neer CS: Glenohumeral joint replacement and postoperative rehabilitation. 

Phys Ther 1975;55:850-858. 

Compito CA, Self EB, Bigliani LU: Arthroplasty and acute shoulder trauma.  Clin Orthop 1994;307:27-36.


Question 35

A 66-year-old woman was a restrained passenger in an automobile accident. She sustained a direct blow to her nondominant left hand as the airbag in her automobile deployed and she now reports pain, swelling, and difficulty moving her fingers. Radiographs are shown in Figures 58a and 58b. Appropriate definitive treatment should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: While most isolated metacarpal fractures can be treated nonsurgically, multiple metacarpal fractures are inherently unstable due to the loss of support that an intact adjacent metacarpal provides; therefore, treatment should consist of surgical fixation of all three metacarpal fractures.
REFERENCES: Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green’s Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 286.  
Faraj AA, Davis TR: Percutaneous intramedullary fixation of metacarpal shaft fractures.  J Hand Surg Br 1999;24:76-79.

Question 36

Figures below show the radiographs obtained from an 86-year-old-woman who has had chronic left hip pain for several years. She now uses a walker and a wheelchair for ambulation. She is medically healthy. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
This 86-year-old woman has poor bone quality and osteoarthritis of the left hip. Her lateral radiograph confirms Dorr type C bone quality. A hybrid left THA with a cemented femoral stem would be the treatment of choice.

Question 37

A patient has pain 2 years after undergoing a metal-on-metal (MOM) left total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which test(s) best correlate with prognosis in the setting of reaction to metal debris?




Explanation

Figures 1 and 2 are the recent radiographs of an 82-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who underwent total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 18 years ago. These radiographs reveal osteolysis with loosening of the tibial component. Aspiration and laboratory study findings for infection are negative. During the revision TKA, treatment of tibial bone loss should consist of

Question 38

A 17-year-old football player is injured during a play and reports abdominal pain that is soon followed by nausea and vomiting. What organ has most likely been injured?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The spleen is the most common organ injured in the abdomen as the result of blunt trauma.  It is also the most common cause of death because of an abdominal injury. The liver is the second most commonly injured organ.  Injury to the other organs is rare.  The diagnosis can be made with CT.  Treatment ranges from observation to splenectomy, depending on the severity of injury.
REFERENCES: Green GA: Gastrointestinal disorders in the athlete.  Clin Sports Med 1992;11:453-470.
Kibler WB (ed): ACSM’s Handbook for Team Physician.  Philadelphia, PA,
Williams & Wilkins, 1996, p 151.

Question 39

Acral metastases are most commonly seen in what type of carcinoma?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Metastatic lesions to bone are usually located in the axial and proximal appendicular skeleton.  Metastases below the elbow and knee are rare, but when they do occur they are most commonly from lung carcinoma.
REFERENCES: Hayden RJ, Sullivan LG, Jebson PJ: The hand in metastatic disease and acral manifestations of paraneoplastic syndromes.  Hand Clin 2004;20:335-343.
Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 313.

Question 40

Which of the following best describes heat stroke? Review Topic





Explanation

Heat stroke consists of hyperthermia (greater than 105.8 degrees F [41 degrees C]), central nervous system dysfunction, and cessation of sweating with hot, dry skin. It is a medical emergency that results from failure of the thermoregulatory mechanisms of the body. It has a high death rate and requires rapid reduction in body core temperature. Heat syncope is characterized by a transient loss of consciousness with peripheral vasodilation and decreased cardiac output with normal body temperature. Heat cramps involve painful contractions of large muscle groups because of decreased hydration and a decrease of serum sodium and chloride. Heat exhaustion is distinguished by a core temperature of less than 102.2 degrees F (39 degrees C) and an absence of central nervous system dysfunction. Hypernatremic heat exhaustion results from inadequate water replacement.

Question 41

A 54-year-old woman undergoes an interposition arthroplasty that fails and requires conversion to a total elbow arthroplasty. She has progressive elbow pain and radiographic loosening. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein are normal. Joint aspiration is positive for Staphylococcus epidermidis. What surgical treatment would best optimize function and decrease risk of recurrence?




Explanation

The most reliable surgical option in this case for eradicating a deep infection following a total elbow arthroplasty is a two-stage revision. One study, however, reported that staged reimplantation of an infected total elbow replacement could be successful in the setting of organisms other than S epidermidis. Arthroscopic debridement is not a viable option with poorly fixed or loose components. A single-stage revision, while considered an option in hip and knee arthroplasty, has not been definitively proven to be an option for revision total elbow arthroplasty. Single-stage revision has shown moderate success in the setting of Staphylococcus aureus infections, although with only short-term follow-up. A resection arthroplasty would likely be successful in managing the deep infection but would not optimize the functional result. Resection arthroplasty
 is best reserved for low-demand or infirm patients.

Question 42

An 18-year-old girl with quadriplegic cerebral palsy underwent posterior spinal fusion from T2 to the pelvis 3 weeks ago. She now has a low-grade fever and mild midline erythema in a 1-cm area from which there is slight clear yellowish drainage. What is the next most appropriate step in management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The presence of drainage 3 weeks after surgery is a sign of wound infection.  This infection most likely involves deep tissues until proven otherwise. Oral or IV antibiotics, in the absence of debridement, are not sufficient.  Removal of the hardware would lead to rapid progression of the scoliosis in a spine that has been surgically destabilized by removal of the facet joints.  The appropriate treatment is debridement with wound culture, IV antibiotics, and retention of hardware.  The wound should be closed over drains.
REFERENCES: Theiss SM, Lonstein JE, Winter RB: Wound infections in reconstructive spine surgery.  Orthop Clin North Am 1996;27:105-110.
Richards BS: Delayed infections following posterior spinal instrumentation for the treatment of idiopathic scoliosis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:524-529.

Question 43

What is the best initial screening test for a patient with a limb-length discrepancy?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: With the patient standing, add blocks under the short leg until the pelvis is level, then measure the blocks to determine the discrepancy.  This method is an accurate, simple, and inexpensive way to assess limb-length discrepancy.  Differences of less than 2 cm need no treatment.  Increasing discrepancy in a growing child should be followed clinically.  Radiographic examination can include scanography, CT scanography, or a standing pelvic radiograph with the pelvis leveled.  CT scanography is the most accurate diagnostic test when hip, knee, or ankle contractures are present.
REFERENCES: Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopedics, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, pp 1041-1045.
Schoenecker PL, Rich MM: The lower extremity, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2001, pp 1120-1122.
Stanitski DF: Limb-length inequality: Assessment and treatment options.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:143-153.
Aaron A, Weinstein D, Thickman D, Eilert R: Comparison of orthoroentgenography and computed tomography in the measurement of limb-length discrepancy.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:897-902.

Question 44

A 7-year-old boy sustained a head contusion and small bowel injuries in a motor vehicle accident in which he was wearing a lap belt. He subsequently required a bowel resection. Six weeks after the accident, his parents note a painful mass in his lower back. His neurologic examination is normal. A radiograph and CT scans are shown in Figures 47a through 47c. Definitive management should now consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The posttraumatic lumbar kyphotic deformity will not remodel and is likely to worsen with time because the central line of gravity lies anterior to the deformity and the ligamentous disruption will not heal.  The worsening deformity also puts the patient at some risk for future neurologic damage.
REFERENCES: Ebraheim NA, Savolain ER, Southworth SR, et al: Pediatric lumbar seat belt injuries.  Orthopedics 1991;14:1010-1013.
Taylor JA, Eggli KD: Lap belt inhuries of the lumbar spine in children: A pitfall in CT diagnosis.  Am J Rad 1988;150:1355-1358.

Question 45

Following spinal cord injury (SCI), methylprednisolone (a bolus of 30 mg/kg plus 5.4 mg/kg per hour over 24 hours) initiated within 8 hours of injury has been associated with which of the following MRI findings? Review Topic





Explanation

MRI findings following SCI treated with high dose steroids have demonstrated that the steroids are associated with a lower extent of cord hemorrhage. No difference in cord edema was found. The decreased cord hemorrhage seen with use of high dose steroid adminstration in this setting has not correlated with improved clinical outcomes.

Question 46

.A patient is unable to actively externally rotate the shoulder when the arm is placed into 90 degrees of abduction and neutral rotation. This finding is most consistent with a tear of the





Explanation

Question 47

Which structure(s) is/are most at risk with surgical treatment of displaced clavicle fractures with ORIF?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Complications associated with nonsurgical treatment of displaced midshaft clavicle fractures are uncommon. Although intrathoracic and local vascular complications have been reported with clavicle fracture, subclavian artery aneurysm and pneumothorax are rare. Malunion to some degree is inevitable with nonsurgical treatment of displaced clavicle fractures, but only about 9% of patients develop symptomatic malunion. Nonunion occurs in about 15% of patients.
Previously identified risk factors for nonunion of clavicle fractures include female gender, displacement exceeding 100%, comminution, and advanced age. Research demonstrates the strongest risk factors are smoking, comminution, and fracture displacement. Rate of nonunion in 1 study was approximately 13%. Murray and associates showed that by estimating the risk of nonunion using their model and operating only on fractures with at least a 40% chance of nonunion, they would only need to operate on 1.7 patients to prevent 1 nonunion (decreased from 7.5 procedures per nonunion if operating on all displaced midshaft fractures). This data could potentially be used to limit unnecessary procedures and decrease costs associated with treatment of clavicle fractures.
Hardware removal is the most common reason for revision surgery. Symptomatic malunion and supraclavicular nerve entrapment are rare after surgery. Nonunion is uncommon (in fewer than 2% of cases). The main reason for revision surgery is hardware removal to address local irritation/prominent hardware or infection.
An anatomical study demonstrated that in 97% of clavicles, 2 to 3 branches of the supraclavicular nerve were crossing the clavicle with wide location variability in the zone in which most clavicle fractures occur and surgery would take place. The subclavian vein and artery and brachial are rarely injured,
although there are case reports of injury to all either by the displaced fracture fragments or errant hardware.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
McKee RC, Whelan DB, Schemitsch EH, McKee MD. Operative versus nonoperative care of displaced midshaft clavicular fractures: a meta-analysis of randomized clinical trials. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2012 Apr 18;94(8):675-84. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.J.01364. Review. PubMed PMID: 22419410.View Abstract at PubMed
Robinson CM, Court-Brown CM, McQueen MM, Wakefield AE. Estimating the risk of nonunion following nonoperative treatment of a clavicular fracture. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2004 Jul;86-A(7):1359-65. PubMed PMID: 15252081.View Abstract at PubMed
Murray IR, Foster CJ, Eros A, Robinson CM. Risk factors for nonunion after nonoperative treatment of displaced midshaft fractures of the clavicle. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2013 Jul 3;95(13):1153-8. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.K.01275. PubMed PMID: 23824382.View Abstract at
PubMed
Canadian Orthopaedic Trauma Society. Nonoperative treatment compared with plate fixation of displaced midshaft clavicular fractures. A multicenter, randomized clinical trial. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2007 Jan;89(1):1-10. PubMed PMID: 17200303.View Abstract at PubMed
Nathe T, Tseng S, Yoo B. The anatomy of the supraclavicular nerve during surgical approach to the clavicular shaft. Clin Orthop Relat Res. 2011 Mar;469(3):890-4. doi: 10.1007/s11999-010-1608-x. Epub 2010 Oct 9. PubMed PMID: 20936387.View Abstract at PubMed
CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 26 AND 27

A

B

C

D
Figures 26a through 26c are the radiographs of a 50-year-old athlete who sustained an injury to his right foot; the foot was plantar flexed and another player landed on the posterior aspect of his heel. After sustaining the injury he was unable to bear weight, and 3 days later he was seen in the emergency department because of persistent pain and tenderness over his midfoot.

Question 48

A 10-year-old boy has a painful, swollen knee after falling off his bicycle. Examination reveals no other injuries. Radiographs are shown in Figures 35a and 35b. Initial management of this fracture should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show a minimally displaced fracture of the tibial eminence, which is classified as a McKeever type II injury.  In a number of studies, it has been found that most of these fractures will reduce with extension of the knee.  This is often made easier with evacuation of the hemarthrosis.  The position of knee immobilization is controversial, with some authors preferring full extension and others preferring 20 degrees of flexion.  Flexion to 90 degrees will further displace the fragment.  If the fragment does not reduce or if the patient has a McKeever type III or IV injury, reduction and internal fixation are required.  This can be done with either an open or an arthroscopic procedure.  Excision of the fragment is not indicated.  
REFERENCES: Meyers MH, McKeever FM: Fractures of the intercondylar eminence of the tibia.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1970;52:1677-1684.
Wiley JJ, Baxter MP: Tibial spine fractures in children.  Clin Orthop 1990;255:54-60
Janarv PM, Westblad P, Johansson C, Hirsch G: Long-term follow-up of anterior tibial spine fractures in children.  J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:63-68.
Kuhn JE, Sailer MJ, Sterett WI, Hawkins RJ: Arthroscopic technique for the treatment of tibial spine fractures in the skeletally immature patient.  J Ortho Tech 1995;3:7-12.

Question 49

In addition to the radiographic features seen in Figures 49a and 49b, this patient will most likely have which of the following findings?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show the characteristic features of osteopetrosis.  The condition results from defective resorption of immature bone by osteoclasts.  There are three distinct clinical forms: (1) infantile-malignant, which is autosomal recessive and fatal in the first few years of life if untreated; (2) intermediate autosomal recessive; and (3) autosomal dominant.  These conditions do not follow a malignant course, and patients have normal life expectancy with orthopaedic problems and anemia.  In the malignant form, the clinical features include frequent fractures, macrocephaly, progressive deafness and blindness, hepatosplenomegaly, and severe anemia beginning in early infancy or in utero.  Deafness and blindness are generally thought to represent effects of pressure on nerves and usually occur later in life.  The anemia is caused by encroachment of bone on marrow, resulting in obliteration, and the hepatosplenomegaly is caused by compensatory extramedullary hematopoiesis.  Dental caries and abscesses, as well as osteomyelitis of the mandible, are also seen.  Most patients have normal intelligence.  Treatment of the malignant form includes high dose 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D with a low-calcium diet to stimulate bone resorption, not because there are vitamin deficiencies.  Bone marrow transplant has also been successful.
REFERENCES: Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopedics, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, p 1550.
Zaleske DJ: Metabolic and endocrine abnormalities, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2001, pp 212-214.
Kaplan FS, August CS, Fallon MD, et al: Successful treatment of infantile malignant osteopetrosis by bone-marrow transplantation: A case report.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:617-623.  

Question 50

What is the best approach to reduce and stabilize a displaced volar lunate facet fracture of the wrist?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A volar lunate fragment of a distal radial fracture is considered a critical component to overall joint stability and function.  Obtaining a reduction is difficult through a standard volar approach to the radius between the flexor carpi radialis and radial artery.  Visualization and reduction of the ulnar volar facet is not possible from this approach.   An extended carpal tunnel incision provides access to the entire articular surface, except for the distal radial styloid component. 
REFERENCES: Hanel DP, Jones MD, Trumble TE: Wrist fractures.  Orthop Clin North Am 2002;33:35-57.
Trumble TE, Culp RW, Hanel DP, et al: Intra-articular fractures of the distal aspect of the radius.  Instr Course Lect 1999;48:465-480.

Question 51

A 26-year-old man with chronic lateral ankle instability underwent a modified Broström procedure 8 months ago. He reports persistent pain and swelling of the lateral ankle. Examination reveals lateral ankle tenderness and swelling and a negative anterior drawer test. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 6,500/mm 3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 15 mm/h. Radiographs of the ankle are normal. What is the most likely cause of this problem?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Chronic lateral instability is commonly associated with a longitudinal split tear of the peroneus brevis tendon.  The interrelationship of lateral ankle instability with superior retinacular laxity and resultant peroneus brevis split can account for persistent lateral ankle pain in this patient.  Surgical treatment must identify and correct the underlying tendon pathology and should attempt to repair or debride the peroneus brevis tendon, reconstruct the superior peroneal retinaculum, flatten the posterior edge of the fibula by removing the sharp bony prominence, or deepening the fibular groove, along with addressing lateral ankle ligamentous instability.  The laboratory values are not consistent with infection.  A negative anterior drawer test confirms stability of the repair.  Ankle arthritis is not seen on radiographs and usually takes longer than 3 months to develop.
REFERENCES: Bonnin M, Tavernier T, Bouysset M: Split lesions of the peroneus brevis tendon in chronic ankle laxity.  Am J Sports Med 1997;25:699-703.
Sobel M, Geppert MJ, Warren RF: Chronic ankle instability as a cause of peroneal tendon injury.  Clin Orthop Relat Res 1993;296:187-191.

Question 52

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 35-year-old right-hand-dominant man who has had progressive right wrist pain for 1 year. There is no history of trauma, and he has had no treatment to date. He reports some pain at rest with limited motion and substantial pain with use. He is currently out of work on short-term disability because of this wrist problem. An examination reveals mild dorsal wrist swelling, decrease wrist range of motion, and decreased grip strength. Contralateral wrist examination findings are normal. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
This patient has late-stage Kienböck disease. According to the Lichtman classification for Kienböck disease, this would represent stage IIIB, with lunate collapse/fragmentation, loss of carpal height secondary to proximal capitate migration, and a flexed scaphoid. The lateral radiograph reveals a radioscaphoid angle exceeding 60 degrees, so disease stage is IIIB. According to Condit and associates, when the presurgical radioscaphoid angle exceeds 60 degrees, results are poor when an attempt to maintain the lunate is made. As a result, the procedure with the most predictable outcome is a proximal row carpectomy. A radial-shortening osteotomy could be performed because the ulnar variance is negative. Considering the marked lunate fragmentation and collapse, a vascularized bone graft likely is contraindicated and associated with less predictable results than a proximal row carpectomy. There is no role for supervised hand therapy and splinting in the setting of advanced Kienböck disease. Similarly, there is no role for maintenance of the lunate in the setting of advanced collapse and fragmentation.  

Question 53

Plate fixation of olecranon fractures is recommended over tension band wire fixation when





Explanation

Tension band wire fixation of olecranon fractures is recommended for fracture patterns that are proximal to the coronoid process and are relatively transverse to withstand compressive forces. When comminution is present, a neutralization technique such as plating is preferred over a compressive technique such as tension band wire fixation. Such neutralization plating, if performed correctly, does not have the risk of narrowing the sigmoid notch as tension band wire fixation would. Fractures of the tip of the olecranon, transverse fractures, fractures associated with osteoporosis, and displaced fractures are all relative indications for tension band wire fixation.

Question 54

A metal-on-metal bearing used for total hip arthroplasty shows which of the following properties?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Activity levels do not affect cobalt and chromium ion levels, which are the bulk of serum ion levels.  The majority of ions are produced in the run-in period in the first several years.  A gradual reduction in ion levels occurs thereafter.  The kidneys are responsible for the bulk of clearance from the serum, and to date there is no relationship of cancer to ion levels in the serum.
REFERENCE: Heisel C, Silva M, Skipor AK, et al: The relationship between activity and ions in patients with metal-on-metal bearing hip prostheses.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:781-787.

Question 55

A 58-year-old man has had increasing midback pain for 8 weeks. Radiographs reveal mild osteopenia and mild disk degeneration but no fractures or lesions. An MRI of the spine reveals diskitis with a small-intensity signal within the spinal canal that is consistent with an epidural abscess at T11-12. The patient is neurologically intact but in significant pain. CT-guided biopsy of the disk space is positive for methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate treatment?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The treatment of spinal infections is variable. A diskitis in a patient with a mechanically stable spine without neurologic compromise is typically treated with needle biopsy/culture and appropriate IV antibiotics. Epidural abscess often is considered one of the true orthopaedic emergencies that necessitates surgical intervention. However, there is growing evidence that medical management can be appropriate to treat epidural abscesses in certain cases. In cases involving neurologic deterioration, surgical decompression, drainage, and systemic IV antibiotics is the treatment of choice. Medical management of spinal abscesses can be considered when a patient refuses surgical decompression; surgery is contraindicated because of high risk, pain, or
infection; or paralysis lasting longer than 24 to 36 hours results in a likely inability to reverse the paralysis. Patients who are neurologically intact may also be treated with medical management alone if they are stable and have an identifiable microorganism that can be observed closely to assess for neurologic deterioration. If neurologic changes are noted, surgical decompression and debridement and continued IV antibiotic therapy are appropriate.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Darouiche RO. Spinal epidural abscess. N Engl J Med. 2006 Nov 9;355(19):2012-20. Review. PubMed PMID: 17093252.View Abstract at PubMed
Kim SD, Melikian R, Ju KL, Zurakowski D, Wood KB, Bono CM, Harris MB. Independent predictors of failure of nonoperative management of spinal epidural abscesses. Spine J. 2014 Aug 1;14(8):1673-9. doi: 10.1016/j.spinee.2013.10.011. Epub 2013 Oct 30. PubMed PMID:

Question 56

Figure 36a shows the current radiograph of a 65-year-old woman who slipped and fell. History reveals that prior to the fall she was actively functioning without pain. Figure 36b shows a radiograph obtained 1 year ago. Based on the fracture pattern, the failure is most likely related to





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a fracture distal to the prosthesis in a stable, apparently well-fixed prosthetic stem.  The well-fixed prosthesis-bone composite is stiff, creating a modulus mismatch between the proximal and distal femur.  Therefore, the risk of fracture, particularly in osteoporotic bone, is increased at this level.  Revision of the stem to a longer construct is unnecessary, and standard plate and screw fixation has been shown to yield union rates of greater than 90%.  Nonsurgical treatment of fractures distal to the tip of the prosthesis results in high nonunion rates, reported to be from 25% to 42%.  
REFERENCES: Johansson JE, McBroom R, Barrington TW, Hunter GA: Fracture of the ipsilateral femur in patients with total hip replacement.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:1435-1442.
Bethea JS III, DeAndrade JR, Fleming LL, Lindenbaum SD, Welch RB: Proximal femoral fractures following total hip arthroplasty.  Clin Orthop 1982;170:95-106.
Garbuz DS, Masri BA, Duncan CP: Periprosthetic fractures of the femur: Principles of prevention and management, in Cannon WD Jr (ed): Instructional Course Lectures 47.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 237-242.

Question 57

A 44-year-old man sustains the injury shown in Figures 1 through 3. What is the most appropriate treatment?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
Reduction, either open or closed, with internal fixation (pinning) is the recommended treatment for the majority of these injuries. Closed reduction with pinning is most often performed for acute injuries. Open reduction with pinning is performed for those injuries that cannot be reduced by closed means or those with a delayed presentation. Four cases of successful closed reduction and splinting, all performed upon presentation in the emergency department, have been described by Storken and associates, but the authors note that their review of three prior reports uncovered cases of secondary dislocation, which required surgical stabilization. One of the dislocations occurred 4 months after the reduction. They assert that an indication for primary ORIF is a CMC dislocation associated with major fractures. Primary arthrodesis can be considered in cases with severe intra-articular comminution, but this procedure substantially limits the ability of the hand to increase and decrease the transverse metacarpal arch, which is an important functional movement. It can also lead to osteoarthritis of the triquetrohamate joint. Suspension arthroplasty has been described for old fracture-dislocations of the fifth CMC joint, using a partial slip of the extensor carpi ulnaris.








Question 58

Figures  below  show  the  radiographs  obtained  from  a  19-year-old  woman  with  a  3-year  history  of progressive hip pain in the left groin with activity, which is unresponsive to activity modification and physical therapy. Examination reveals normal range of motion, with pain on anterior impingement testing. What treatment is associated with the best long-term results?


Explanation

DISCUSSION:
This patient has symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement as well as clinical and radiographic signs of acetabular retroversion, including a cross-over sign, ischial spine sign, and posterior wall sign bilaterally. Good   midterm   to   long-term   outcomes   have   been   reported   with   reverse   (anteverting)   Bernese periacetabular osteotomy (PAO). In patients with less retroversion, open or arthroscopic rim trimming with labral refixation have shown good short-term results, but longer-term results have yet to be fully delineated. Isolated  hip  arthroscopy  and  labral  repair  would  not  be  indicated  without  addressing  the retroversion  deformity.  Femoral  varus  rotational  osteotomy  plays  no  role  in  the  treatment  of  this pathology.  Open  surgical  dislocation  with  rim  trimming  could  be  considered  in  patients  with  less deformity, but some studies have shown inferior long-term results compared with reverse PAO.

Question 59

In patients with displaced radial neck fractures treated with open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and screws, the plate must be limited to what surface of the radius to avoid impingement on the proximal ulna?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radial head is covered by cartilage on 360 degrees of its circumference.  However, with the normal range of forearm rotation of 160 to 180 degrees, there is a consistent area that is nonarticulating.  This area is found by palpation of the radial styloid and Lister’s tubercle.  The hardware should be kept within a 90-degree arc on the radial head subtended by these two structures.
REFERENCES: Smith GR, Hotchkiss RN: Radial head and neck fractures: Anatomic guidelines for proper placement of internal fixation.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:113-117.
Caputo AE, Mazzocca AD, Santoro VM: The nonarticulating portion of the radial head: Anatomic and clinical correlations for internal fixation.  J Hand Surg Am 1998;23:1082-1090.

Question 60

A 28-year-old man sustained a shoulder dislocation 2 years ago. It remained dislocated for 3 weeks and required an open reduction. He now reports constant pain and has only 60 degrees of forward elevation and 10 degrees of external rotation. He desires to return to some sporting activities. An AP radiograph and intraoperative photograph (a view of the humeral head through a deltopectoral approach) are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. What is the best treatment option to decrease pain and improve function?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph and intraoperative photograph show osteonecrosis with near complete head loss/collapse.  A stemmed implant is more appropriate in this patient because there is very little bone to support a resurfacing implant.  In a younger patient, a glenoid implant should be delayed as long as possible because of the eventual need for revision secondary to glenoid loosening and wear, especially in a young active male.  The hemiarthroplasty may be converted to a total shoulder arthroplasty in the future.
REFERENCES: Levy O, Copeland SA: Cementless surface replacement arthroplasty of the shoulder: 5- to 10-year results with the Copeland mark-2 prosthesis.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:213-221.
Burroughs PL, Gearen PF, Petty WR, et al: Shoulder arthroplasty in the young patient. 

J Arthroplasty 2003;18:792-798.

Question 61

Figures below demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a 56-year-old man with a 3-year history of right groin pain. A comprehensive nonsurgical program has failed, and the patient would like to proceed with total hip arthroplasty. He is seen by a pain management specialist and is currently taking 40 mg of sustained-release morphine twice daily with oxycodone 10 mg 2 to 3 times a day for severe pain. What is the recommended course of action regarding his chronic narcotic use?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Chronic opioid consumption prior to total joint arthroplasty has been associated with increased pain after surgery, increased opioid requirements, a slower recovery and longer hospital stay, and higher 90-day postoperative complications compared with patients not on chronic opioids preoperatively. Based on this information, Nguyen and associates performed a study in three patient groups that included 1) chronic opioid users who underwent no preoperative intervention, 2) chronic opioid users who were weaned down to 50% of their prior opioid regimen, and 3) patients who were not chronic opioid users. The authors found that the reduction of preoperative opioid use improved postoperative function, pain, and recovery and  that  the  weaned  group  performed  more  like  the  opioid  naive  group  than  the  chronic  opioid  user
group. Increasing opioid use prior to surgery in this patient would make it more difficult to control pain after surgery. Stopping all of his opioids just prior to surgery would place the patient at substantial risk for  opioid  withdrawal  and  is  not  recommended.  Avoiding  the  use  of  all  narcotics  and  using  only acetaminophen postoperatively is very unlikely to provide appropriate pain relief in a chronic opioid user. The recommendation based on the provided literature is to decrease the patient's narcotic use prior to
surgery.

Question 62

When compared to smokers who do not quit, an improvement in the rate of lumbar fusion is seen in patients who cease smoking for at least how many months postoperatively?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The effects of cigarette smoking and smoking cessation on spinal fusion have been studied extensively.  Although permanent smoking cessation is ideal, significant improvements in fusion rates are seen in patients who avoid smoking for greater than 6 months postoperatively.
REFERENCE: Glassman SD, Anagnost SC, Parker A, et al: The effect of cigarette smoking and smoking cessation on spinal fusion.  Spine 2000;25:2608-2615.

Question 63

A 19-year-old wrestler has numbness along the radial aspect of the forearm after undergoing an open Bankart repair through an anterior deltopectoral approach. Motor weakness would be expected along with what other finding?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The musculocutaneous nerve may be injured by retracting the conjoined tendon medially.  This nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5 cm distal to its origin.  Its sensory distribution is the radial forearm, and its motor supply is to the biceps and brachialis.
REFERENCES: Bach BR, O’Brien SJ, Warren RF, et al: An unusual neurologic complication of the Bristow procedure.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:458-460.
McIlveen SJ, Duralde XA: Isolated nerve injuries about the shoulder, in Bigliani LU (ed): Complications of Shoulder Surgery.  Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1993, pp 214-239.

Question 64

When planning pin placement for external fixation of the tibia, what is the maximum extent of the knee capsular reflection from the subchondral joint line?





Explanation

Intracapsular pin placement is a concern for septic arthritis. Reid and associates and DeCoster and associates have demonstrated that the maximum distal extent of the knee capsule is 14 mm from the subchondral line and occurs in the posterolateral region. The recommended placement of external fixation pins is greater than 14 mm from the subchondral line of the proximal tibia.

Question 65

What is the main biologic effect of aggrecan in cartilage? Review Topic





Explanation

Aggrecan binds hyaluronic acid to attract water, which accounts for its hydrophilic property.
Aggrecan is the predominant proteoglycan in cartilage. It contains a large number of negatively charged sequences that attract water called sulfated glycosaminoglycan (GAG) chains. Its the N-terminal globular domain of aggrecan that binds hyaluronan to form huge aggregates. Together with its chondroitin sulfate chains, they help to create a hydrophilic viscous gel that decreases the coefficient of friction as well as to help absorb compressive loads.
Ulrich-Vinthe et al. reviewed the biology of articular cartilage. They report that matrix metalloproteinases and aggrecanases play a major role in aggrecan degradation and their production is upregulated by mediators associated with joint inflammation and overloading.
Illustration A shows a depiction of the function of aggrecan in articular cartilage. In the relaxed state, the aggregates draw water into cartilage. With compressive loads, the water is displaced to cushion the load. Upon removal of the load, the water content is restored.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 66

A 66-year-old female presents to your clinic complaining of back pain, difficulty standing-up straight, weakness in her legs, and neurogenic claudication. On upright thoracolumbar radiographs, there is a 75 degree thoracolumbar curve with the apex at L2, and the C7 plumb line falls 12 cm anterior to the posterosuperior corner of S1. Aside from a decompression of the stenotic levels, which of the following choices will lead to the MOST reliable decrease in overall disability? Review Topic





Explanation

This patient has a spinal deformity in both the coronal and sagittal planes. Among the options given, correction of the sagittal vertical axis (SVA) to +3 cm is the most reliable predictor of clinical improvement.
Spinal malalignment in Adult Spinal Deformity (ASD) challenges balance mechanisms used for maintenance of an upright posture to achieve the basic human needs of preserving level visual gaze and retaining the head over the pelvis. Severe malalignment can result in greater muscular effort and energy expenditure to maintain the erect posture as well as use of compensatory mechanisms. As such, surgical correction of these deformities are aimed at achieving proper spinopelvic alignment.
Glassman et al. performed a multi-center retrospective study of 298 adults with spinal deformity. Regardless of operative (129 patients) or non-operative care (172 patients) a positive sagittal balance was the found to be the most reliable predictor of clinical symptoms in both patient groups.
Schwab et al. published a current concepts review on operative management for adult spinal deformities and identified three major goals of surgery: (1) Correct the SVA to
within 5 cm of neutral, (2) Ensure the pelvic tilt is less than 20 degrees, (3) Ensure the lumbar lordosis is within 9 degrees of the pelvic incidence.
Illustration A demonstrates how to measure the SVA. Illustration B depicts the realignment objectives in the saggital plane as described by Schwab et al.
Incorrect

Question 67

A radiograph of a 12-year-old boy who has had an insidious onset of pain in the right hip for the past 6 weeks shows diffuse narrowing of the joint space. Examination reveals that he is afrebile, and the range of motion of the hip is less than 50% of normal in all planes. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 21 mm/hr and a WBC of 11,000/mm3. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

First, sickle cell crisis is a localized area of bone marrow infarction with excruciating pain. Swelling of the extremity and limitation of motion are usually mild. Temperature elevation is usually mild but is >39 degrees celsius in 29% of patients. It is also limited to 3-5 days in duration.
This patient has no history of hemophilia given. Hemophilic arthropathy begins with a hemarthrosis.
In osteoid osteoma the pain is typically unrelenting, sharp, boring, worse at night, and relieved with aspirin. It is not associated with joint space narrowing.
The most common age for Legg-Calve-Perthes disease is 4-8 years. It causes AVN of the femoral head and widening of the medial joint space is an early radiographic finding.
In Bleck’s report on Idiopathic Chondrolysis JBJS 1983 nine cases were seen at the reporting institution between 1973 and 1978. The average age was 11.5 years. All the patients were otherwise healthy and had no history of systemic illness of previous trauma. All the patients reported the insidious onset of pain in the anterior part of the hip. All had a decreased passive ROM. Radiographic examination showed regional osteoporosis, premature closure of the femoral capital physis, narrowing of the joint space, and lateral overgrowth of the femoral head on the neck. All laboratory examinations were negative for evidence of infection or rheumatoid arthritis. Treatment consists of administration of aspirin, active non-loading exercise of the hip, and protected weight-bearing with crutches.

Question 68

A 68-year-old woman undergoes a complicated four-level anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion at C3-7 with iliac crest bone graft and instrumentation for multilevel cervical stenosis. Surgical time was approximately 6 hours and estimated blood loss was 800 mL. Neuromonitoring was stable throughout the procedure. The patient’s history is significant for smoking. The most immediate appropriate postoperative management for this patient should include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Airway complications after anterior cervical surgery can be a catastrophic event necessitating emergent intubation for airway protection.  Multilevel surgeries requiring long intubation and prolonged soft-tissue retraction as well as preexisting comorbidities may predispose a patient to postoperative airway complications.  Sagi and associates reported that surgical times greater than 5 hours, blood loss greater than 300 mL, and multilevel surgery at or above C3-4 are risk factors for airway complications.  In surgical procedures with the aforementioned factors, serious consideration should be given to elective intubation for 1 to 3 days to avoid urgent reintubation.
REFERENCES: Sagi HC, Beutler W, Carroll E, et al: Airway complications associated with surgery on the anterior cervical spine.  Spine 2002;27:949-953.
Epstein NE, Hollingsworth R, Nardi D, et al: Can airway complications following multilevel anterior cervical surgery be avoided?  J Neurosurg 2001;94:185-188.
Emery SE, Smith MD, Bohlman HH: Upper-airway obstruction after multi-level cervical corpectomy for myelopathy.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:544-551.

Question 69

Patient outcomes can be improved and early post-injury management errors decreased by adhering to the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) protocol. This protocol includes criteria for inter-hospital transfer when the patient's needs exceed the resources available. Which of the following would it be acceptable to manage without interfacility transfer to a trauma center?





Explanation

Patients with severe open fractures should be managed at a trauma center. A patient with an isolated open forearm fracture may not require transfer if her injury is isolated, relatively free of contamination and not otherwise complicated by other factors such as tissue ischemia or tissue loss.
While most patients can receive all their definitive care at any hospital to which they present, early recognition of those that require transfer to a trauma center is essential to maximizing outcomes. Inherent in such identification is physician's' assessment of their own and their institutions' abilities and the limits thereof.
Van Olden et al. prospectively studied severely injured patients consecutively presenting to two community hospitals in the Netherlands. Comparison was made between patients treated prior to and after introduction of ATLS training to physicians at the studied hospitals. There was no difference in overall mortality between the two groups. however, there was a significant reduction in mortality in the first 60 minutes after admission, from 24.2% pre-ATLS to 0.0% post-ATLS.
Ali et al. studied trauma outcomes and mortality in patients presenting to the largest hospital in Trinidad and Tobago for the four years prior to and after introduction of ATLS training for physicians in the emergency department. Trauma mortality decreased to 33.5% from 67.5% after introduction of ATLS. Post-injury functional outcomes were also improved.
Illustration A shows the ATLS guidelines for interfacility transfer in table format. Incorrect answers:

Question 70

Figure 37 shows the T2-weighted MRI scan of the hip joint. What structure is labeled A?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The obturator internus originates on the obturator membrane and adjacent bone, including the quadrilateral plate, and exits the lesser sciatic notch to insert on the posterior medial greater trochanter.  The structure labeled C is the pectineus, B is the sartorius, and D is the gluteus medius.
REFERENCES: Last RJ: Anatomy: Regional and Applied, ed 6.  London, England, Churchill Livingstone, 1978, pp 145-150, 324. 
Anderson JE (ed): Grant’s Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7.  Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1978, plate 4-46. 

Question 71

A 67-year-old woman has a painful, arthritic proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint, and nonsurgical measures have failed to improve the pain. What implant and joint replacement approach combination has been demonstrated to have the lowest rate of revision surgery?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
A recent systematic review compared silicone replacement, pyrocarbon replacement, and surface replacement arthroplasty for PIP arthritis. Silicone arthroplasty through a volar approach showed the greatest gains in arc of motion and had the lowest rate of revision surgeries. The rates of revision surgeries from low to high for each type of arthroplasty were 6% for silicone volar, 10% for silicone lateral, 11%
Surface replacement arthroplasty through a volar
for silicone dorsal, 18% for surface replacement dorsal, and 37% for surface replacement volar. Revision surgeries include implant replacement (to silicone or maintaining the surface replacement), arthrodesis, explantation, amputation, and other procedures.
approach showed the highest revision ratethe worst gain in arc of motion, and the greatest extension lag. However, substantial pain relief and higher satisfaction still were reported after surface replacement arthroplasty, regardless of the complications.                      

Question 72

What percentage of bone weight is collagen?





Explanation

Bone is a composite of both inorganic and organic material. The inorganic component of bone comprises 60% to 70% of the tissue, water accounts for 5% to 8%, and the organic matrix makes up the remainder. Collagen accounts for 90% of the organic component and thus 20% to 25% of bone weight. Collagen accounts for the flexibility of bone. The inorganic component of bone is made primarily of calcium and phosphorous, in the analogue of hydroxyapatite, and other ions including sodium, magnesium, and carbonate.

Question 73

Figures below depict the radiographs obtained from a 76-year-old woman with a painful total knee arthroplasty. She describes an uneventful recovery with no wound-healing issues and was pain free for the first 10 years. Although reporting no trauma or inciting event, she now describes pain in the entire knee that is most severe with her first few steps. She has begun to notice night pain and, more recently, constant swelling. What is the most appropriate work-up at this time?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
An evaluation of the painful total knee must be supported by an understanding of the potential etiologies of pain. They may include, aseptic loosening, infection, osteolysis, gap imbalance, referred pain, stiffness, and complex regional pain syndrome. In this case, the patient demonstrates start-up pain and had no prior history of infections. Her radiographs show subsidence of the tibia, indicating a loose prosthesis. Knowing that the prosthesis is already loose precludes the need for a bone scan. It is, however, important to rule out infection in this case; therefore, CRP and ESR testing is essential. Aspiration is also recommended when going into knee arthroplasty, and infection is a concern.

Question 74

Figure 68 is the radiograph of a 33-year-old runner who recently decided to begin running barefoot on trails. Since his transition to running without shoes 3 months ago, he has been having pain in the second metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. He feels like he is walking on a stone, notes edema in the ball of his foot, and has started to see a deviation of the second toe. What is the most likely etiology of these symptoms and findings?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Lesser-toe plantar plate injuries are becoming increasingly recognized. Patients typically have an increase in pain, a positive Lachman test result upon examination, and deviation of the MTP joint. On radiograph, MTP subluxation can be appreciated. Nonsurgical treatment with a metatarsal pad may be attempted. Many patients who have surgery will have a partial or full tear of the plantar plate. The repair necessitates reinsertion of the plantar plate to the base of the proximal phalanx.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Doty JF, Coughlin MJ, Weil L Jr, Nery C. Etiology and management of lesser toe metatarsophalangeal joint instability. Foot Ankle Clin. 2014 Sep;19(3):385-405. doi: 10.1016/j.fcl.2014.06.013. Epub 2014 Jul 10. PubMed PMID: 25129351. View Abstract at PubMed
Nery C, Coughlin MJ, Baumfeld D, Raduan FC, Mann TS, Catena F. Prospective evaluation of protocol for surgical treatment of lesser MTP joint plantar plate tears. Foot Ankle Int. 2014 Sep;35(9):876-85. doi: 10.1177/1071100714539659. Epub 2014 Jun 23. PubMed PMID:

Question 75

The primary purpose of obtaining the radiograph shown in Figure 9 is to assess





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a faux profil view of the hip.  The primary purpose of this view is to evaluate anterior coverage of the femoral head.
REFERENCES: Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 455-492.
Ganz R, Klaue K, Vinh TS, Mast JW: A new periacetabular osteotomy for the treatment of hip dysplasias: Technique and preliminary results.  Clin Orthop 1988;232:26-36.
Lequesne M, deSez S: Le faux profil du bassin: Nouvelle incidence radiographique pour l’etude de la hance.  Son utilite dans les dysplasies et les differentes coxopathies.  Rev Rhum Mal Osteoartic 1961;28:643.

Question 76

Figures 9a and 9b show the radiographs of a 75-year-old man who underwent a revision total knee arthroplasty with a long-stemmed tibial component. In rehabilitation, he reports fullness and tenderness in the proximal medial leg (at the knee). The strategy that would best limit this postoperative problem is use of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The problem with this reconstruction is the medial protrusion of the base plate.  The use of a base plate with an offset stem can prevent the protrusion and thus the impingement and pain.  Allograft bone or smoothing the outline with cement would be just as prominent and likely to cause pain.  An ingrowth surface may improve soft-tissue attachment but would still leave the implant protruding medially and likely to cause pain.  A nonstemmed tibial base plate would lead to less medial protrusion but at the expense of a smaller area for load carriage on the proximal tibia.
REFERENCE: Gustke K: Cemented tibial stems are not requisite in revision.  Orthopedics 2004;27:991-992.

Question 77

Chondrosarcoma The plain radiographs show a purely lytic destructive lesion that is poorly marginated. The technetium bone scan does not show any major uptake. The computerized tomography scan shows purely lytic bone destruction with breakthrough of the cortical bone. Complete destruction of the cortical bone is suggestive of a malignancy. The magnetic resonance image shows a lesion that is homogenously low on T1-weighted images and high on T2-weighted images. Surgeons cannot make a definitive diagnosis based upon the radiographic features. The most common malignancies in this age group are:





Explanation

Slide 1 Slide 2 Slide 3 Slide 4


Slide 5 Slide 6
A 50-year-old woman has had severe hip pain for 4 months. Her plain radiographs (Slide 1), technetium bone scan (Slide 2), computerized tomography scan (Slide 3), and coronal T1- and T2-weighted magnetic resonance images (Slide 4) are presented. A needle biopsy is also performed (Slides 5 and 6). Which of the following treatment regimens would be the most appropriate:

Question 78

A 23-year-old national team rower reports pain over the radial dorsum of the forearm that is made worse with flexion and extension of the wrist during competition. His primary physician initially diagnosed de Quervain’s tenosynovitis, and a subsequent corticosteroid injection into the first dorsal compartment at the wrist provided no relief. The patient continues to report pain and audible crepitus that is noted 5 cm proximal to the wrist joint, on the radial aspect. What structures are involved in the continued pathology?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Intersection syndrome is also known as “squeakers wrist,” “oarsmen wrist,” and crossover tendinitis. It occurs where the first and second dorsal wrist compartment structures pass over one another, resulting in fibrosis, muscular changes, and inflammation of the bursa in this area. The structures involved are the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis (first dorsal compartment) that pass across the second compartment structures (extensor carpi radialis brevis and extensor carpi radialis longus). An audible “squeak” is occasional y heard at the intersection point, which is approximately 4 to 5 cm proximal to the proximal dorsal wrist crease.
REFERENCES: Grundberg AB, Reagan DS: Pathologic anatomy of the forearm: Intersection syndrome. J Hand Surg Am 1985; 10:299-302.
Thorson E, Szabo RM: Common tendinitis problems in the hand and forearm. Orthop Clin North Am 1992;23:65-74.
Williams JG: Surgical management of traumatic non-infective tenosynovitis of the wrist extensors. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1977;59:408-410.
Wood MB, Dobyns JH: Sports-related extraarticular wrist syndromes. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1986;202:93-102.

Question 79

Figure 24 shows the arthroscopic view of a patient with ankle impingement syndrome. This is commonly seen after high ankle sprains and represents fibrotic granulation thickening of what structure?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Chronic anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament sprains can lead to thickening and synovitis that catches or impinges dorsiflexion; patients often note painful clicking with dorsiflexion eversion.  The other structures are not affected by this injury.
REFERENCES: Hopkinson WJ, St Pierre P, Ryan JB, Wheeler JH: Syndesmosis sprains of the ankle.  Foot Ankle 1990;10:325-330.
Amendola A: Controversies in diagnosis and management of syndesmosis injuries of the ankle.  Foot Ankle 1992;13:44-50.
Baxter DE: The Foot and Ankle in Sports.  St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1995, p 30.
Pfeffer GB (ed): Chronic Ankle Pain in the Athlete.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, p 11.

Question 80

Figure 21 shows the tomogram of a 26-year-old woman who sustained an axial load injury to her neck in a fall off a horse. What ligament is injured?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Levine and Edwards, in their description of the classic C1 burst (Jefferson) fracture, noted that spread of the lateral masses of more than 7 mm is indicative of a transverse ligament rupture.  Long-term C1-C2 instability, however, has not been described with this fracture pattern.  Although long-term traction followed by halo vest immobilization has been described as the best technique for achieving an ideal result, treatment of this injury remains somewhat controversial.
REFERENCES: Levine AM, Edwards CC: Fractures of the atlas.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:680-691.
Kurz LT: Fractures of the first cervical vertebra, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 409-413.

Question 81

A 13-year-old girl injures her ankle playing soccer. Radiographs reveal a displaced Tillaux fracture. CT scans are shown in Figure 25. What is the most important consideration for appropriate management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Tillaux and triplane fractures occur in adolescents as the result of an external rotation injury of the ankle.  As seen on the CT scan, the growth plate starts to close during adolescence; therefore, growth arrest resulting in limb-length discrepancy or angulation is less of a concern in this age group than achieving joint congruity.  The joint should be surgically reduced if displacement is greater than 2 mm to minimize the chances of late arthrosis.
REFERENCES: Kay RM, Matthys GA: Pediatric ankle fractures: Evaluation and treatment. 

J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:268-278.

Kling TF Jr: Operative treatment of ankle fractures in children.  Orthop Clin North Am 1990;21:381-392.
Duchesneau S, Fallat LM: The Tillaux fracture.  J Foot Ankle Surg 1996;35:127-133.

Question 82

A 46-year-old man has incomplete paraplegia after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. The CT scan shown in Figure 5 reveals marked canal compromise. What is the most appropriate management to improve neurologic status?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: According to a study by the Scoliosis Research Society, the use of anterior decompression is most predictable for improving neurologic status.  This is particularly true of bowel and bladder functional loss.  Laminectomy is contraindicated because it further destabilizes the spine.  Posterior instrumentation and indirect reduction through distraction and ligamentotaxis only incompletely decompress the compromised canal and are successful only if performed within 48 hours of injury.  While some improvement may occur with closed management, the amount of recovery is less than that achieved with surgical decompression.  A posterior approach and instrumentation may be added to the anterior decompression based on the characteristics of associated injuries to the posterior element.
REFERENCES: Gertzbein SD: Scoliosis Research Society multicenter spine fracture study.  Spine 1992;17:528-540.
Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 197-215.
Cammisa FP Jr, Eismont FJ, Green BA: Dural laceration occurring with burst fractures and associated laminar fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:1044-1052.

Question 83

A 35-year-old man has a brachial plexus injury affecting the lateral cord. He partially improves with observation and now has complete return of median nerve function and pectoral muscle function. What nerve transfer is most likely to restore the motor function he is lacking?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
The lateral cord of the brachial plexus gives off the lateral pectoral nerve, the musculocutaneous nerve, and then contributes to the median nerve. The patient has had recovery of function of these components except for the musculocutaneous nerve. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps and the brachialis, which provide elbow flexion. To restore motor function, a nerve transfer would have to provide reinnervation of the biceps and brachialis.                       

Question 84

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the pull-out strength of a lumbar pedicle screw?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: All of the factors listed contribute to some extent to the pull-out strength of lumbar pedicle screws, but bone mineral density correlates most precisely.
REFERENCES: Wittenberg RH, Shea M, Swartz DE, et al: Importance of bone mineral density in instrumented spine fusions.  Spine 1991;16:647-652.
Zindrick MR, Wiltse LL, Widell EH, et al: A biomechanical study of intrapeduncular screw fixation in the lumbosacral spine.  Clin Orthop 1986;203:99-112.

Question 85

Figures below show the radiographs, and the MRIs obtained from a 32-year-old man with worsening left knee  pain.  A  3-foot  hip-to-ankle  radiograph  shows  a  13-degree  varus  knee  deformity.  The  patient sustained a major left knee injury 5 years ago and a confirmed complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. He managed this injury nonsurgically with a functional brace but experienced worsening pain. He was seen by an orthopaedic surgeon 18 months ago, and a medial meniscus tear was diagnosed; the tear was treated with an arthroscopic partial medial meniscectomy. Since then, his knee has been giving way more often, and he no longer feels safe working on a pitched roof. The patient received 6 months of formal physical therapy and was fitted for a new functional ACL brace, but he still has pain and instability. He believes he has exhausted his nonsurgical options and would like to undergo surgery. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Proximal tibial osteotomy is the most appropriate intervention to correct varus malalignment and to reduce stress on the ACL. In some cases, proximal tibial osteotomy alone may address both pain and instability, but if instability persists, particularly in the setting in which instability can be dangerous, subsequent ACL reconstruction  can  further  stabilize  the  knee  with  less  stress  on  the  graft  after  the  correction  of malalignment.  Varus  alignment  places  increased  stress  on  the  native  or  reconstructed  ACL.  ACL reconstruction should be performed only at the same time as or following proximal tibial osteotomy to correct alignment in the setting of varus malalignment. It is not appropriate to perform ACL reconstruction prior to proximal tibial osteotomy in this setting. Distal femoral osteotomy is not indicated to correct varus malalignment. Varus alignment places increased stress on the native or reconstructed ACL, and ACL
reconstruction alone is not indicated for this patient.

Question 86

A 14-year-old girl with a right thoracic curve from T4 through L2 measuring 78 degrees is scheduled to undergo posterior spinal fusion for scoliosis. The surgical plan is to fuse from T3 through L2, using pedicle screws at L2 and about the apex at T8. What neural monitoring modality is most likely to identify a reversible neurologic deficit during surgery?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Neural monitoring during scoliosis surgery was initially developed to avoid the devastating effects of spinal cord injury, particularly paraplegia.  Monitoring in some form has become standard for this type of surgery.  Somatosensory-evoked potentials in the lower extremities will detect many but not all neurologic difficulties with the spinal cord.  Anterior spinal cord vascular disruption also can be detected by monitoring motor potentials.  Electromyography following stimulation of lumbar pedicle screws can prevent nerve root injury that is the result of misplacement of the screws.  This is best documented in the lumbar spine and has not been routinely used in the thoracic spine.  The most common neural deficits following spinal surgery, however, are in the upper extremities because of the positioning of the patient in the prone position for long periods.  In Schwartz and associates series of 500 patients, impending upper extremity neural injury was detected by somatosensory-evoked potentials in 18 (3.6%) patients.  In contrast, lower extremity deficits were detected by combined motor- and sensory-evoked potentials in only 2 (0.4%) out of 500 patients in Padberg and associates series.  Neural compression in the upper extremity can be easily detected by somatosensory-evoked potentials, and injury can be prevented by repositioning the patient.
REFERENCES: Padberg AM, Wilson-Holden TJ, Lenke LG, Bridwell KH: Somatosensory- and motor-evoked potential monitoring without wake-up test during idiopathic scoliosis surgery: An accepted standard of care.  Spine 1998;23:1392-1400.
Schwartz DM, Drummond DS, Hahn M, Ecker MI, Dormans JP: Prevention of positional brachial plexopathy during surgical correction of scoliosis.  J Spinal Disord 2000;13:178-182.

Question 87

A 17-year-old boy is shot in the left side of the neck at the C5-6 level and sustains an incomplete spinal cord injury that is called a Brown-Sequard syndrome. Which of the following best describes the expected deficits? Review Topic





Explanation

Brown-Sequard syndrome is an incomplete spinal cord injury that involves damage unilaterally to the cord, most commonly from penetrating trauma. The motors fibers of the cord decussate within the brainstem so the motor deficit is ipsilateral to the injury; whereas, the pain and temperature fibers cross midline immediately on entering the cord so that the sensory deficit is contralateral to the injury. This patient was shot in the left side, thus he would have weakness of the left upper and lower extremity with diminished pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body. Response 3 describes opposite symptoms that would result from a right-sided injury. Response 1 describes a central syndrome with greater upper than lower extremity involvement. Response 2 is an anterior cord syndrome with only preservation of the posterior columns of the cord. Response 4 describes a C6 root injury.

Question 88

A 66-year-old man who underwent shoulder arthroplasty 7 years ago reports progressively worsening shoulder pain for the past 4 weeks after hospital discharge for community-acquired pneumonia. He is afebrile and reports no chills or night sweats. Laboratory studies show a white blood cell count of 11,200/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 25/h. Shoulder radiographs are negative for fracture, dislocation, or signs of implant loosening. What is the most appropriate management? Review Topic





Explanation

The patient may have hematologic spread of the pulmonary infection to the shoulder arthroplasty; however, further work-up is necessary at this point. The elevated laboratory studies may still be secondary to the pulmonary infection. Aspiration of the shoulder joint with stat Gram stain and culture of the fluid is indicated. If the aspirate shows signs of infection and irrigation and debridement is indicated, complete revision of the well-seated implants may not be necessary. Physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not indicated until the possibility of a shoulder infection has been ruled out. A wait of 2 weeks to repeat the laboratory values, in the presence of new shoulder pain, is contraindicated.

Question 89

When balancing gaps in the coronal plane, what structure preferentially impacts the flexion space more than the extension space?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
In the setting of valgus deformities, TKA poses different challenges than those encountered when varus deformities are present. Most valgus alignment is attributable to a deformity of the distal femur rather than of the proximal tibia, as seen in varus knees. One of the major anatomical differences is a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle which, when not recognized and used as a rotational reference point,
can lead to internal rotation of the femoral component. This malrotation in turn leads to patellofemoral maltracking or instability, which is a common complication associated with primary TKA.

Question 90

Baseball pitchers who have internal impingement will most likely demonstrate what changes in range of motion?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pitchers tend to have a decrease in internal rotation and an increase in external rotation.  The increase in external rotation is felt to be multifactorial.  An increase in humeral retroversion occurs from repeated throwing.  This results in increased soft-tissue stretching and results in a posterior capsular contracture.
REFERENCES: Meister K, Buckley B, Batts J: The posterior impingement sign: Diagnosis of rotator cuff and posterior labral tears secondary to internal impingement in overhand athletes.  Am J Orthop 2004;33:412-415.
Crockett HC, Gross LB, Wilk KE, et al: Osseous adaptation and range of motion at the glenohumeral joint in professional baseball pitchers.  Am J Sports Med 2002;30:20-26.

Question 91

A 13-year-old girl has had increasing left hip pain for the past 4 months. A radiograph, bone scan, MRI scan, and photomicrograph are shown in Figures 1a through 1d. Which of the following immunohistochemistry results would confirm the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The imaging studies show a permeative lesion of the left hemipelvis with a large soft-tissue mass.  The photomicrograph demonstrates a small blue cell tumor with pseudorosettes.  The most likely diagnosis is primitive neuroectodermal tumor (Ewing’s sarcoma family of tumors).  MIC-2 is a highly sensitive and specific marker for this family of tumors.  Cytokeratin is an epithelial marker.  Vimentin is a mesenchymal marker.  Thus, Ewing’s sarcomas are cytokeratin negative and vimentin positive.  Before discovery of the MIC-2 antigen, PAS and reticulin stains were commonly used to help differentiate Ewing’s sarcoma from lymphoma.  In contrast to lymphoma, Ewing’s sarcomas are typically PAS positive and reticulin negative. 
REFERENCES: Halliday BE, Slagel DD, Elsheikh TE, et al: Diagnostic utility of MIC-2 immunocytochemical staining in the differential diagnosis of small blue cell tumors.  Diagn Cytopathol 1998;19:410-416.
Llombart-Bosch A, Navarro S: Immunohistochemical detection of EWS and FLI-1 proteins is Ewing sarcoma and primitive neuroectodermal tumors: Comparative analysis with CD99

(MIC-2) expression.  Appl Immunohistochem Mol Morphol 2001;9:255-260.

Question 92

Which of the following factors are considered prognostic of survival in patients with soft-tissue sarcomas?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The factors that are independently prognostic of patient survival are tumor size, tumor grade, and tumor depth (ie, subfascial versus superficial).  These factors are the basis for the American Joint Committee on Cancer staging criteria.  Patient age and neurovascular invasion are not prognostic.  Surgical margin is prognostic for local recurrence but not conclusively for patient survival or metastasis.  Metastatic disease is also predictive of survival.
REFERENCES: Cheng EY, Thompson RC Jr: New developments in the staging and imaging of soft-tissue sarcomas.  Instr Course Lect 2000;49:443-451.
Fleming ID, et al: Manual for Staging of Cancer/American Joint Committee on Cancer, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1997, pp 149-156. 

Question 93

.Figures 59a and 59b are the axial T2 and T1 with contrast MRI scans of a 32-year-old woman who has a 10-year history of pain and a 1-year history of progressive swelling in her right leg. The histopathology is shown in Figure 59c. A radiograph of her leg showed no mineralizations or osseous erosions. The chromosomal abnormality that is associated with this disease is




Explanation

CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 60 THROUGH 63
A 45-year-old woman has an enlarging buttock mass. The mass is 12 cm and nonpainful. The patient first noticed it about 6 months after she had a low-impact fall. The general surgeon evaluating the patient felt this mass could be either a lipoma or a hematoma. The patient underwent a surgical procedure to remove the mass.

Question 94

A 65-year-old woman sustained an axial load on the arm followed by an abduction injury after falling on ice. Treatment in the emergency department consisted of reduction of an anterior dislocation. She now has a positive drop arm sign and a positive lift-off test. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 9. Based on these findings, management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon is the result of a defect in the region of the rotator cuff interval, coracohumeral ligament-superior glenohumeral ligament pulley, or an associated tear of the medial insertion of the subscapularis tendon.  In the case of an intra-articular dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon associated with a tear of the subscapularis tendon, stabilization of the biceps tendon is difficult in this situation; therefore, biceps release or tenodesis and repair of the subscapularis tendon is the treatment of choice.
REFERENCES: Eakin CL, Faber KJ, Hawkins RJ, et al: Biceps tendon disorders in athletes. 

J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:300-310.

Sethi N, Wright R, Yamaguchi K: Disorders of the long head of the biceps tendon.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:644-654.
Walch G, Boileau P: Subluxations and dislocations of the tendon of the long head of the biceps.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1998;7:100-108.

Question 95

Which of the following amputations will lead to the greatest oxygen requirement per meter walked following prosthesis fitting?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The general trend is increasing energy requirement for more proximal amputations. Amputation should be performed at the lowest possible level in order to preserve the most function. Pinzur compared 5 patients with amputations at midfoot, Syme’s, BKA, through knee, and AKA with five controls. Walking speed and cadence decreased while oxygen consumption per meter walked increased with each more proximal amputation. The only exception is the Syme which was the most energy efficient even though it is more proximal to the midfoot amputation.

Question 96

  • Which of the following factors is used to determine torsional rigidity of a long bone fracture under internal or external fixation?





Explanation

Torque is defined as: T=r x F, where r is the moment arm and F is the force applied. The moment arm is the perpendicular distance from the line of action or axis of rotation. Thus torque is a vector
quantity having a magnitude and direction. Torsion involves shear and tensile stresses that cause deformation. Thus torsional rigidity is related to bone rotation and the torque applied to it.

Question 97

What mechanism is most likely responsible for the initiation of mechanical failure seen at the midstem modular junction of modular revision hip stems?




Explanation

The junction fracture is initiated in a fretting-fatigue mechanism and completed by a bending moment. Fretting fatigue occurs when contacting components experience cyclic loads while small oscillatory motion occurs between them. This increases tensile and shear stress, leading to small flaws that result in crack propagation. In the referenced study no evidence of corrosion was seen because there was no etching, pitting, corrosion products, or chloride formation. Etching is a finding seen in corrosion. Abrasive wear occurs when a rough surface glides against a softer surface. It is generally seen in polyethylene wear from bone or cement in third-body wear. Risk factors for stem breakage include high body mass index and lack of proximal bone support at the modular stem-junction area.

Question 98

A 27-year-old woman with Down syndrome has a severe bunion with pain and deformity in the left forefoot. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. She does not use any assistive ambulatory devices. A radiograph is shown in Figure 21. Treatment should now consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient requires an arthrodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint because of the abnormal neuromuscular forces.  The more traditional bunionectomies such as a distal chevron bunionectomy, a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy, and a double osteotomy have a high failure rate because of the underlying Down syndrome.  The Keller procedure is indicated for older, sedentary individuals and has little role in the management of a neuromuscular bunion.
REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ, Abdo RV: Arthodesis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint with Vitallium plate fixation.  Foot Ankle Int 1994;15:18-28.
Mann RA: Disorders of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:34-43.

Question 99

Figure 7 shows the MRI scan of a 23-year-old competitive rugby player who has anterior ankle pain and swelling. He states that he has been playing for many years and has sprained his ankle several times. Examination will reveal what specific hallmark feature?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The history and MRI findings indicate the presence of anterior tibiotalar osteophytes.  This is frequently observed in soccer, rugby, and football athletes who play on grass or turf surfaces and repetitively push off and change directions.  Examination may reveal an effusion but no loss of subtalar motion.  A positive external rotation (Klieger) test is described as pain at the distal ankle with external rotation of the foot and is observed in patients with syndesmosis sprains.  This patient may have an increased anterior drawer because of a history of sprains; however, this finding is not specific for anterior impingement of tibiotalar osteophytes.  The most specific finding on physical examination is pain with forced dorsiflexion.
REFERENCES: Ogilvie-Harris DJ, Mahomed N, Demaziere A: Anterior impingement of the ankle of the ankle treated by arthroscopic removal of bony spurs.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:437-440.
Cannon LB, Hackney RG: Anterior tibiotalar impingement associated with chronic ankle instability. J Foot Ankle Surg 2000;39:383-386.

Question 100

Following insertion of a cementless femoral component into the total hip arthroplasty construct, the amount of femoral stress shielding is most associated with




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Although material modulus, characteristics of surface, and extent of coating all contribute to stress shielding, poor bone quality is the most important factor associated with stress shielding.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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