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Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: Arthroplasty, Trauma & Spine Part 255

OITE & ABOS Orthopedic Exam Prep: Trauma, Shoulder & Tendon MCQs | Part 164

27 Apr 2026 230 min read 66 Views
OITE & ABOS Orthopedic Board Prep: Practice Exam Part 164

Key Takeaway

This interactive quiz offers Part 164 of the OITE/AAOS Orthopedic Surgery Board Review. Featuring 100 verified, high-yield MCQs for orthopedic surgeons, it aids board certification exam preparation. Topics include Fracture, Shoulder, Tendon, and Trauma, ensuring focused, comprehensive study.

About This Board Review Set

This is Part 164 of the comprehensive OITE and AAOS Orthopedic Surgery Board Review series authored by Dr. Mohammed Hutaif, Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon.

This set has been strictly audited and contains 100 100% verified, high-yield multiple-choice questions (MCQs) modelled on the exact format of the Orthopaedic In-Training Examination (OITE) and the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) board examinations.

How to Use the Interactive Quiz

Two distinct learning modes are available:

  • Study Mode — After selecting an answer, you immediately see whether you are correct or incorrect, together with a full clinical explanation and literature references.
  • Exam Mode — All feedback is hidden until you click Submit & See Results. A live timer tracks elapsed time. A percentage score and detailed breakdown are displayed upon submission.

Pro Tip: Use keyboard shortcuts A–E to select options, F to flag a question for review, and Enter to jump to the next unanswered question.

Topics Covered in Part 164

This module focuses heavily on: Fracture, Shoulder, Tendon, Trauma.

Sample Questions from This Set

Sample Question 1: A 21-year-old woman has a nontraumatic rupture of the Achilles tendon. Which of the following commonly prescribed medications has been associated with this condition?...

Sample Question 2: Figures 45a and 45b show the radiographs of a 40-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who is unable to straighten her ring and little fingers. Examination reveals that the fingers can be passively corrected, but she is unable to activel...

Sample Question 3: A 34-year-old man underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a closed both bones forearm fracture 11 months ago. The radiographs shown in Figures 32a and 32b reveal a 3-mm gap and loose screws. What is the best treatment option?...

Sample Question 4: An investigation studying whether physical therapy or subacromial injection can be successfully used to treat shoulder pain is conducted. Two groups are identified. One group is prescribed physical therapy, while the other receives a subacr...

Sample Question 5: Which of the following is an FDA approved adjunctive treatment for an acute open tibia fracture being treated with an intramedullary nail?...

Why Active MCQ Practice Works

Evidence consistently demonstrates that active recall through spaced MCQ practice yields substantially greater long-term retention than passive reading alone (Roediger & Karpicke, 2006). All questions in this specific module have been algorithmically verified for clinical integrity and complete explanations.

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 21-year-old woman has a nontraumatic rupture of the Achilles tendon. Which of the following commonly prescribed medications has been associated with this condition?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Fluoroquinolones have been associated with increased rates of tendinitis, with special predilection for the Achilles tendon.  Tenocytes in the Achilles tendon have exhibited degenerative changes when viewed microscopically after fluoroquinolone administration.  Recent clinical studies have shown an increased relative risk of Achilles tendon rupture of 3.7.  The other listed drugs have no known increase in tendon rupture rates nor tendinitis.
REFERENCES: van der Linden PD, van de Lei J, Nab HW, et al: Achilles tendinitis associated with fluoroquinolones.  Br J Clin Pharmacol 1999;48:433-437.
Bernard-Beaubois K, Hecquet C, Hayem G, et al: In vitro study of cytotoxicity of quinolones on rabbit tenocytes.  Cell Biol Toxicol 1998;14:283-292.
Maffulli N: Rupture of the Achilles tendon.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1019-1036.

Question 2

Figures 45a and 45b show the radiographs of a 40-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who is unable to straighten her ring and little fingers. Examination reveals that the fingers can be passively corrected, but she is unable to actively maintain the fingers in extension. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has extensor tendon ruptures at the level of the wrist that are the result of synovitis at the distal radioulnar joint (Vaughn-Jackson syndrome).  Extensor indius proprius transfer appropriately matches strength and excursion of the ruptured extensor digiti quinti and extensor digitorum communis tendons.  An extensor tenosynovectomy with distal radioulnar joint resection decreases the synovitis, which if left untreated may cause additional tendon ruptures.  Radial head resection is used for posterior interosseous nerve compression secondary to radial head synovitis, and in this patient only two fingers are involved, which rules out this diagnosis.  Dynamic splinting is not indicated for ruptured tendons.  Metacarpophalangeal arthroplasties and imbrication of the sagittal bands are used for metacarpophalangeal arthritis and extensor tendon subluxation.  If this was the problem, the patient should be able to maintain the fingers in extension after they are passively extended.  Total wrist arthrodesis prevents the tenodesis effect, thus limiting effective tendon excursion and making the proposed transfer less effective. 
REFERENCES: Feldon P, Terrono AL, Nalebuff EA, et al: Rheumatoid arthritis and other connective tissue diseases: Tendon ruptures, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green’s Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4.  New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999,

pp 1669-1684.

Moore JR, Weiland AJ, Valdata L: Tendon ruptures in the rheumatoid hand:  Analysis of treatment and functional results in 60 patients.  J Hand Surg Am 1987;12:9-14.
Leslie BM: Rheumatoid extensor tendon ruptures.  Hand Clin 1989;5:191-202.

Question 3

A 34-year-old man underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a closed both bones forearm fracture 11 months ago. The radiographs shown in Figures 32a and 32b reveal a 3-mm gap and loose screws. What is the best treatment option?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In an atrophic nonunion with a good soft-tissue envelope, adequate plating with cancellous bone graft can be used to span defects of up to 6 cm.  Cortical graft from the fibula or iliac crest is not necessary.  BMP-7 is a bone graft substitute and should not be used alone in this patient because the hardware is loose.
REFERENCES: Ring D, Allende C, Jafarnia K, et al: Ununited diaphyseal forearm fractures with segmental defects: Plate fixation and autogenous cancellous bone-grafting.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:2440-2445.

Question 4

An investigation studying whether physical therapy or subacromial injection can be successfully used to treat shoulder pain is conducted. Two groups are identified. One group is prescribed physical therapy, while the other receives a subacromial injection. The groups have similar baseline demographics and shoulder pathologies. Ten patients are randomized in each group and findings show that there is no significant difference in any patient-reported outcome measure. An increase in sample size would reduce the risk of what parameter?




Explanation

A football player injures his knee when he is tackled and falls awkwardly. He does not note any discreet “pop,” but pain prevents him from returning to the game. An effusion is noted the following day and an MRI scan is ordered. Selected images are shown in Figures 1 through 3. Based on these images, physical examination findings likely include

Question 5

Which of the following is an FDA approved adjunctive treatment for an acute open tibia fracture being treated with an intramedullary nail?





Explanation

rhBMP-2 has FDA approval for use when treating acute open tibia fractures with an intramedullary nail.
Open tibial shaft fractures can present many treatment challenges. Although its use remains somewhat controversial, rhBMP-2 has been shown to have many positive effects when used to treat acute open tibia fractures. These benefits include accelerated early fracture healing, decreased rates of hardware failure, decreased need for subsequent bone grafting procedures, and decreased infection rates. rhBMP-2 does have FDA approval specifically for use in open tibia fractures being treated with an intramedullary nail.
Alt et al. present a comparison of patients with Grade III open tibia fractures treated
with un-reamed nails with or without rhBMP-2. They found significant decreases in need for secondary interventions such as bone grafting or nail exchange. Mean time to fracture healing was less in the rhBMP-2 group, but this difference was not statistically significant.
Govender et al. present a prospective randomized study of 450 patients with open tibia fractures treated with an intramedullary nail with or without rhBMP-2. They found statistically significant decreases in need for secondary intervention, hardware failure, and infection as well as faster wound healing and faster time to fracture union.
Wei et al. provide a meta analysis regarding use of rhBMP-2 in open tibia fractures. Due to decreased rates of secondary interventions they estimated a net savings of
$6,000 per case when rh-BMP2 was used. They found no significant difference in rates of infection, postoperative pain, hardware failure, or fracture healing at 20 weeks.
Incorrect answers:

Question 6

An 18-year-old lacrosse player is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. What is the recommendation for return to play? Review Topic





Explanation

Infectious mononucleosis commonly affects adolescents and young adults. It is a febrile illness accompanied by acute pharyngitis. Splenomegaly may occur and predispose the athlete to splenic rupture. Splenic rupture has been reported in nonathletes as well as in patients with normal-sized spleens. Clinical evidence supports a return to all sports 4 weeks after the onset of symptoms provided that the spleen has returned to normal size.

Question 7

A 24-year-old former high school wrestler had anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with hamstring autograft 6 years ago. He now experiences daily instability of his knee with routine activities including walking. Examination reveals a grade 3+ Lachman test with a soft endpoint, varus laxity at 30°, and a positive dial test at 30° that dissipates at 90° of knee flexion. He has mild medial joint line tenderness. When walking, there is a slight varus thrust. What treatment is most likely to lead to a successful outcome?




Explanation

This patient underwent an ACL reconstruction that has now failed. Based on his examination, he also has a posterolateral corner injury. Because this concomitant injury was not treated, the patient had undue strain on his graft, resulting in ultimate failure. Hamstring grafts are as effective as other graft types for ACL reconstruction. The medial meniscus provides secondary stabilization to the knee; however, this patient has a missed lateral ligamentous injury, and meniscus tears do not result in the development of a varus thrust. An unrecognized PCL tear likely results in mild-to-moderate medial and patellofemoral osteoarthritis without significant lateral laxity and thrust.

Question 8

What is the most common arthroscopic finding of internal impingement in an overhead athlete?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Internal impingement occurs when the articular side of the supraspinatus abrades against the posterior superior glenoid in the cocking position.  Damage may include a posterior labral tear where the contact occurs, not anteriorly as in a Bankart lesion.  Biceps fraying and acromion spurs are more commonly seen in extrinsic impingement.  Loose bodies may occur from multiple lesions associated with instability and articular cartilage disorders but are uncommon in internal impingement.
REFERENCES: Jobe CM: Posterior superior impingement of the rotator cuff on the glenoid rim as a cause of shoulder pain in the overhead athlete.  Arthroscopy 1993;9:697-699.
McFarland EG, Hsu C, Neir C, O’Neil O: Internal impingement of the shoulder: A clinical and arthroscopic analysis.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:458-460.

Question 9

A 77-year-old man with a history of mild renal insufficiency and atrial fibrillation on warfarin therapy is scheduled to undergo a left total hip arthroplasty. He previously underwent a right total hip arthroplasty with development of significant heterotopic bone that resulted in limitation of motion. What is the most appropriate form of prophylactic treatment to minimize the formation of heterotopic bone on his left hip?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: This question centers on the prophylactic treatment to reduce the risk of heterotopic bone formation. Prophylaxis is indicated because he has already demonstrated bone formation with his prior hip arthroplasty, which places him at increased risk for developing heterotopic bone on the contralateral side. He is on warfarin and has renal insufficiency, which makes the use of NSAIDs contraindicated. The recommended dose is 600 to 800 centigrey of radiation given within 24 hours of surgery preoperatively or 72 hours postoperatively.
REFERENCES: Kolbl O, Knelles D, Barthel T, et al: Preoperative irradiation versus the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for prevention of heterotopic ossification following total hip replacement: The results of a randomized trial. Int J Radiat Oncol Biol Phys 1998;42:397-401.
Pakos EE, Ioannidis JP: Radiotherapy vs nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for the prevention of heterotopic ossification after major hip surgery: A meta-analysis of randomized trials. Int J Radiat Oncol Biol Phys 2004;60:888-895.
Seegenschmiedt MH, Makoski HB, Micke O, et al: Radiation prophylaxis for heterotopic ossification about the hip joint: A multicenter study. Int J Radiat Oncol Biol Phys 2001 ;51:756-765.

Figure 23 a Figure 23b

Question 10

A 21-year-old collegiate wrestler sustains a blow to his right eye during a match. Examination reveals anisocoria with a dilated right pupil. The globe is properly formed, and extra-occular movements and the visual field are grossly intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Traumatic mydriasis occurs from a contusion to the iris sphincter.  This is a transient phenomenon during which the iris fails to constrict properly, resulting in a dilated pupil.  More severe trauma can result in a tear of the sphincter and permanent pupillary deformity.  In association with head injury, traumatic anisocoria would be a concerning indicator of the severity of injury.  Retinal detachment, lens dislocation, corneal abrasion, and traumatic hyphema are all potential results of eye injury but are not reflected by this clinical description.
REFERENCES: Brucker AJ, Kozart DM, Nichols CW, Irving MR: Diagnosis and management of injuries to the eye and orbit, in Torg JS (ed): Athletic Injuries to the Head, Neck, and Face, ed 2.  St Louis, MO, Mosby Year Book, 1991, pp 650-670. 
Orlando RG, Doty JH: Ocular sports trauma: A private practice study.  J Am Optom Assoc 1996;67:77-80.

Question 11

  • Examination of a 32-year old woman who has pain in her shoulder as a result of a head-on motor vehicle accident reveals tenderness directly over the scapula and painful motion of the shoulder. Radiographs show a displaced extra-articular fracture of the scapula. Which of the following studies would best detect commonly associated injuries?





Explanation

Ninety-six percent of patients with scapular fractures has associated injuries, with rib fractures in the upper thorax being the most common. Pulmonary injuries were second in frequency (37%) with hemopneumothorax (29%) and pulmonary contusion (8%). Head injury was third (34%) and there were nine skull fractures. Clavicle fractures on the ipsilateral side occurred in 25%. The most frequent level of spinal cord injury was cervical (12%). Four patients suffered a permanent cord injury: two quadriplegics, one paraplegic, and one Brown-Sequard Syndrome. There were four brachial plexus injuries. Three recovered and the one with a persistent deficit also had a reflex sympathetic dystrophy. His injury was caused by a self-inflicted shotgun blast. Radiograph of the chest would provide the best overall survey for evaluation. The remaining studies would only evaluate isolated areas.

Question 12

The gluteus maximus is innervated by which of the following nerves?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The inferior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus maximus muscle.  The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fascia lata muscles.  The femoral nerve supplies the quadriceps, sartorius, and pectineus muscles.  The pudendal nerve is primarily a sensory nerve.
REFERENCE: Last RJ: Anatomy: Regional and Applied, ed 6.  London, England, Churchill Livingstone, 1978, pp 146-147. 

Question 13

A 20-year-old professional baseball pitcher has had a 3-year history of increased aching in his shoulder that is associated with pitching, and he is now seeking a second opinion. Nonsurgical management consisting of rest, anti-inflammatory drugs, ice, heat, and cortisone injections has failed to provide relief. A previous work-up that included radiographs and gadolinium-enhanced MRI arthrography was negative. Results of an arteriogram suggest quadrilateral space syndrome. Assuming that this is the correct diagnosis, what nerve needs to be decompressed?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Quadrilateral space syndrome is a rare condition and is the result of compression of the contents of the quadrilateral space.  The contents of the quadrilateral space include the posterior circumflex vessels and the axillary nerve.
REFERENCES: Cahill BR, Palmer RE: Quadrilateral space syndrome.  J Hand Surg 1983;8:65-69.
Lester B, Jeong GK, Weiland AJ, Wickiewicz TL: Quadrilateral space syndrome: Diagnosis, pathology, and treatment.  Am J Orthop 1999;28:718-722.

Question 14

  • A 55 year-old man has multiple lytic lesions in the humeri, clavicles, and scapulae. Which of the following diagnostic studies best confirms a diagnosis of multiple myeloma?





Explanation

Myeloma is a malignant bone tumor derived from plasma cells. It is associated with abnormalities of protein synthesis. It is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone. The disease is most common between the ages of 50 and 80. Patients most commonly present with bone pain, usually in the spine and ribs. Biopsy is necessary to establish the diagnosis in a solitary lesion and is still the gold standard for diagnosis of any lesion. Definitive diagnosis of multiple myeloma is established by bone marrow aspiration. However, multiple myeloma may also be diagnosed with considerable confidence based on radiographs and lab data. Bence Jones proteins may be found in the urine. Serum protein abnormalities may cause formation of a rouleaux in the peripheral blood smear. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis are usually abnormal. Answers #3, #4, and #5 may provide some information but the definitive diagnosis is based on bone marrow aspiration. Answer #1 provides little information.

Question 15

A 45-year-old previously healthy woman has experienced weakness and fatigability for 2 months. She states she feels best in the morning, but tires easily with exertion. If she sits and rests her strength improves, but she easily tires with each activity. When her fatigue is most severe, she has double vision. Physical examination is positive for ptosis with upward gaze after 20 seconds. When she holds her arms out straight she shows good initial strength, but rapidly decreasing strength with time. What is the pathologic cause of her muscle weakness? Review Topic




Explanation

The patient has myasthenia gravis, which has its onset in middle age and causes progressive weakness because of the loss of acetylcholine receptors secondary to autoimmune antibodies at the NM junction. Rest periods allow uptake of acetylcholine and initial strength, but easy fatigability. Treatment is aimed at immunomodulation; acetyl cholinesterase inhibitors often coupled with thymectomy can control symptoms. Decreased release of acetylcholine at the NM junction is the effect of a nondepolarizing drug or toxin botulinum. Patients with muscular dystrophy lack dystrophin that acts at the sarcolemma to regulate calcium channels, and onset of this condition occurs at a younger age. The decrease in myelin indicates Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and is often seen with long axon degeneration, such as in the feet and lower legs.

Question 16

A 45-year-old woman sustains an injury to her lower leg. Examination reveals that there is a deformity with no neurologic or vascular problems. The skin is intact. Radiographs are shown in Figures 46a and 46b. Which of the following factors would make closed management the least appropriate choice for this injury?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: All the factors listed, with the exception of an ipsilateral femoral fracture, are representative of a low-energy stable tibial shaft fracture that will do well with closed reduction and immobilization in a long leg cast, followed by weight bearing as tolerated and then a functional brace or patellar tendon bearing cast until union is achieved.  Shortening will not increase from that seen on these initial radiographs.  The spiral fracture provides a broad surface for healing, and the fibular fracture at another level indicates a stable soft-tissue envelope which, with the immobilization device, will stabilize the fracture reduction.  An ipsilateral femoral fracture is a strong indication to surgically stabilize both fractures.
REFERENCES: Trafton PG: Tibial shaft fractures, in Browner BD (ed): Skeletal Trauma, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, pp 2153-2169.
Martinez A, Sarmiento A, Latta LL: Closed fractures of the proximal tibia treated with a functional brace.  Clin Orthop 2003;417:293-302.

Question 17

An 18-year-old man has had an enlarging mass in his hand for the past 3 months. Radiographs, an MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 54a through 54d. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Also known as Nora’s lesion, BPOP is a benign osteocartilaginous tumor that almost always occurs in the hands and feet; one occurrence each in the femur and tibia has been reported.  Although local recurrence is common after excision, metastases have not been reported.
REFERENCES: Abramovici L, Steiner GC: Bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferation (Nora’s lesion): A retrospective study of 12 cases, 2 arising in long bones.  Hum Pathol 2002;33:1205-1210.
Nora FE, Dahlin DC, Beabout JW: Bizarre parosteal osteochondromatous proliferations of the hands and feet.  Am J Surg Pathol 1983;7:245-250.

Question 18

Which of the following findings helps to distinguish between stress fractures of the tibia and shin splints? Review Topic





Explanation

Anterior tibial pain can often be difficult to diagnose. A bone scan showing the tibial cortex in a diffuse, longitudinal orientation is consistent with shin splints compared to a more discreet, localized uptake more commonly seen with a stress fracture. Bone stress injuries are due to cyclical overuse of the bone. They are relatively common in athletes and military recruits but are also seem in otherwise healthy people who have recently started new or intensive physical activity. Diagnosis of bone stress injuries is based on the patient's history of increased physical activity and on imaging findings.
The general symptom of a bone stress injury is stress-related pain. Bone stress injuries are difficult to diagnose based only on a clinical examination because the clinical symptoms may vary depending on the phase of the pathophysiological spectrum in the bone stress injury. Imaging studies are needed to ensure an early and exact diagnosis. If the diagnosis is made early, most bone stress injuries heal well without complications.

Question 19

A 51-year-old woman is seen for evaluation of chronic supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendon tears. Three years ago, in an attempted repair the surgeon was unable to repair the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendon tears. Currently she has a marked amount of pain, reduced range of motion, and weakness. Examination reveals anterosuperior escape. Radiographs show no signs of arthritic changes. You are considering a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. During the discussion, you mention that





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is considered a surgical option for treatment in patients with chronic supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendon tears.  Preoperative subscapularis function is necessary for good clinical results.  Additionally, men with active elevation to shoulder level and active external rotation to 20 degrees have predictably good results.  Women with active shoulder elevation limited to below chest level have poor results from this procedure and should not be considered candidates.  Postoperatively they lack pain control, active elevation, and active external rotation.  Muscular atrophy in the latissimus dorsi does not occur, and glenohumeral arthritic changes frequently develop postoperatively. 
REFERENCES: Gerber C, Maquieira G, Espinosa N: Latissimus dorsi transfer for the treatment of irreparable rotator cuff tears: Factors affecting outcome.  J Bone Joint Surg Am

2006;88:113-120.

Iannotti JP, Hennigan S, Herzog R, et al: Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:342-348.

Question 20

Figure A shows the 2 bundles of the ACL dissected from a cadaveric knee off their bony attachments. They are labeled Bundle A and Bundle B, respectively. Which of the following is true? Review Topic





Explanation

Bundle A is the anteromedial (AM) bundle, which is longer, and is tight in flexion. Bundle B is the posterolateral (PL) bundle, which is shorter, and is loose in flexion. The AM bundle is attached anterior to the PL bundle on the tibia.
The ACL is comprised of 2 bundles. The AM bundle is longer than the PL bundle.
Their names reflect their relative anatomic positions on the tibial insertion site. On the femur, the AM bundle begins at the proximal-anterior aspect of the femoral insertion site, while the PL bundle begins at the posterior-inferior part. In flexion, the AM bundle is tight and the PL bundle is loose. In extension, the AM bundle is loose and the PL bundle is tight.
Bicer et al. reviewed the anatomy of the ACL. They found that the AM bundle was longer (32mm) compared with the PL bundle (18mm). PL bundle carries greater force near full extension, and the AM bundle carries greater force after 15-45° of flexion. Under combined rotatory loads (valgus and internal tibial torque at knee flexion
>30°), the AM bundle bore more force than the PL bundle.
Figure A shows the 2 bundles of the ACL. The AM bundle is longer than the PL bundle. The oft referred to length of ACL refers mainly to the length of the AM bundle. Illustrations A and B show the spatial relationships of the AM and PL bundles in a cadaveric knee. Illustration C shows the relative positions of the attachments of each bundle.
Incorrect

Question 21

A 48-year-old woman has an open subtrochanteric femur fracture. No other injuries are reported. After thorough evaluation, it is determined that she will need emergent surgical fixation. The patient and family indicate that they are practicing Jehovah's witnesses and desire adherence to the religious standards with respect to blood product usage. The patient signs a valid advanced directive confirming these wishes. Which of the following would be considered acceptable treatment?





Explanation

Jehovah's witnesses beliefs regarding blood products stems from direct interpretation of passages from the bible. The use of crystalloid, starch products such as Hetastarch and colloids are accepted. Typically Jehovah's witnesses will accept most medical treatment but refrain from the use of blood products including whole blood, packed red cells, platelets, white cells, or plasma. Any autologous transfusion, whether from the patient themself or donor directed, is forbidden. The use of cell-saver type processes is a matter of individual choice by the patient. The use of hemoglobin-based oxygen carriers are now accepted by many patients but it is important to respect the wishes of each individual patient. It is very important to discuss preoperatively with the patient and family their wishes and thoughts on what is acceptable to use. Many facilities have adopted bloodless-surgery protocols and committees that definitively outline the measures that can be used and take into consideration the many ethical issues involved in taking care of these patients.

Question 22

Which of the following is considered the most effective means of identifying an evolving motor tract injury during cervical spine surgery? Review Topic





Explanation

In a study of 427 patients undergoing cervical spine surgery, 12 patients demonstrated substantial or complete loss of amplitude of the tceMEPs. Ten of those patients had complete reversal of the loss following prompt intraoperative intervention. SSEP monitoring failed to identify any changes in one of the two patients that awoke with a new motor deficit. SSEP changes lagged behind the tceMEP changes in patients in
which major changes were detected by both modalities. TceMEP monitoring was 100% sensitive and 100% specific. SSEP monitoring was only 25% sensitive and 100% specific.

Question 23

A 59-year-old man underwent interposition arthroplasty for osteoarthritis of the elbow 9 years ago. Over the past year the patient has had





Explanation

In a series reported by Blaine and associates, 12 patients were converted from interposition to total elbow arthroplasty. This procedure was successful in 10 out of 12 patients.

Question 24

A 40-year-old man who is an avid weight lifter has had chronic pain in the proximal anterior shoulder for the past year. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals tenderness at the intertubercular groove, a positive speed test, and a positive Neer impingement sign. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief, and he is now considering surgery. Arthroscopic findings in the glenohumeral joint are shown in Figure 31. Based on these findings, treatment should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The arthroscopic image shows a tear through more than 50% of the biceps tendon; therefore, treatment should consist of tenodesis or tenotomy of the tendon.  However, because this patient is relatively young and active, the treatment of choice is tenodesis of the biceps tendon.
REFERENCES: Sethi N, Wright R, Yamaguchi K: Disorders of the long head of the biceps tendon.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1999;8:644-654.
Eakin CL, Faber KJ, Hawkins RJ, et al: Biceps tendon disorders in athletes.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:300-310.
Burkhead WZ, Arcand MA, Zeman C, et al: The biceps tendon, in Rockwood CA, Matsen FA, Wirth MA, et al (eds): The Shoulder, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1996.

Question 25

A 54-year-old woman reports worsening pain in her buttock, especially when sitting for long periods of time. She has occasional pain and paresthesias radiating down her posterior leg. She has no significant medical history. MRI scans are shown in Figures 15a and 15b and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 15c. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The biopsy specimen shows a wavy collagenous matrix with elongated cells; this is most consistent with neurofibroma.  The patient has a mass in the region of the sciatic nerve.  Imaging characteristics, homogeneous and very low signal on T1-weighted and very high signal on the T2-weighted sequences, are consistent with a myxoid-type lesion.  These include myxoma, myxoid sarcomas, and nerve sheath tumors. 
REFERENCES: Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2.  New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 1135-1136
Menendez LR: Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 251.

Question 26

A patient reports persistent anterior shoulder pain following a forceful external rotation injury to the shoulder. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 4. The patient remains symptomatic despite 3 months of nonsurgical management. Treatment should now consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scan reveals a subscapularis tear with a biceps that is out of the groove.  Treatment in this patient is most predictable if the subscapularis is repaired.  The biceps should either be tenodesed or tenotomized since it is unstable.  Recentering of the biceps has been found to be unpredictable.  Treatment of these lesions has been shown to have better results if the biceps is either released or tenodesed.  This prevents recurrent biceps symptoms that can be source of surgical failure. 
REFERENCES: Edwards TB, Walch G, Sirvenaux F, et al: Repair of tears of the subscapularis: Surgical technique.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:1-10.
Deutsch A, Altcheck DW, Veltri DM, et al: Traumatic tears of the subscapularis tendon: Clinical diagnosis, magnetic resonance imaging findings, and operative treatment.  Am J Sports Med 1997;25:13-22.
Walch G, Nove-Josserand L, Boileau P, et al: Subluxations and dislocations of the tendon of the long head of the biceps.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1998;7:100-108.

Question 27

The bone avulsion shown in Figure 32 has a high correlation with tearing of the





Explanation

DISCUSSION: As described by Segond in 1987, an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau is commonly referred to as a Segond fracture.  Subsequent to 1987, several authors have also found that the lateral capsular sign represents, but is not limited to, a disruption of the middle third of the lateral capsule and a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament. 
REFERENCES: Bach BR, Warren RF: Radiographic indicators of anterior cruciate ligament injury, in Feagin JA (ed): The Crucial Ligaments.  New York, NY, Churchill Livingston, 1988, pp 301-327.
Segond P: Recherches cliniques et experimentales sur les epanchements sanguins du genou par entorse.  Prog Med (Paris) 1987;7:297.
Johnson LL: Lateral capsular ligament complex: Anatomical and surgical considerations.  Am J Sports Med 1979;7:156-160.

Question 28

A 10-year-old boy with severe hemophilia A (factor VIII) sustained an injury to his right forearm 2 hours ago when a classmate fell on his arm during a scuffle. Examination reveals moderate swelling in the forearm, decreased sensation in the distribution of the median and ulnar nerves, and pain on passive extension of the fingers. What is the most appropriate sequence of treatment?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has severe hemophilia with a volar forearm hemorrhage and an emerging compartment syndrome.  Therefore, it is critical to normalize the clotting deficiency as the first step in treatment.  In a patient who has a factor VIII level of less than 1% and no inhibitors to factor VIII, transfusion with 4 unit/kg will typically raise the factor VIII level to 100%.  Continuous transfusion can then be used to maintain this level.  Compartment pressures can be safely measured after infusion of factor VIII.  Because the hemorrhage is of limited duration and any surgery is considered serious in a patient with hemophilia, the compartment pressure should be measured before making a decision regarding a fasciotomy.  However, it is important to note that the use of factor VIII concentrates allows both emergency and elective surgery provided that adequate hematology backup is available.  Splinting the elbow and wrist in flexion reduces the pressure in the volar compartments, protects the forearm from further trauma, and makes the patient more comfortable.
REFERENCES: Greene WB: Diseases related to the hematopoietic system, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds):  Lovell & Winter’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4.  Philadelphia, Pa, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 345-391.
Greene WB, McMillan CW: Nonsurgical management of hemophilic arthropathy, in Barr JS (ed): Instructional Course Lectures 38.  Park Ridge, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1989, pp 367-381.
Naranja RJ Jr, Chan PS, High K, Esterhai JL Jr, Heppenstall RB: Treatment considerations in patients with compartment syndrome and an inherited bleeding disorder. Orthopedics 1997;20:706-711.

Question 29

What is the most common benign bone tumor in childhood?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common benign bone tumor in childhood is a nonossifying fibroma.  It is estimated that 30% of children have a nonossifying fibroma.  In most patients, the lesion is not identified until a radiograph is obtained for unrelated reasons.  Similarly, most identified cases of fibrous cortical defect are not biopsied because the radiographic and clinical presentations are diagnostic.
REFERENCES: Aboulafia AJ, Kennon RE, Jelinek JS: Benign bone tumors of childhood.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:377-388.
Biermann JS: Common benign lesions of bone in children and adolescents.  J Pediatr Orthop 2002;22:268-273.

Question 30

A characteristic genetic translocation has been noted in which of the following tumors?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: There have been no characteristic gene translocations or rearrangements noted in osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, neurofibrosarcoma, or epithelioid sarcoma.  In contrast, Ewing’s sarcoma has been noted to have a consistent genetic translocation t(11:22).
REFERENCES: Brockstein BE, Peabody TD, Simon MA: Soft tissue sarcomas, in Vokes EE Golomb HM (eds): Oncologic Therapies.  New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 925-952.
Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Management of Surgical Specimens: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 67-75. 

Question 31

Which of the following nerves is most commonly injured during ankle arthroscopy?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The superficial peroneal nerve, which is adjacent to the location of the lateral arthroscopic portal is most commonly injured.
REFERENCES: Ferkel RD, Heath DD, Guhl JF: Neurological complications of ankle arthroscopy.  Arthroscopy 1996;12:200-208.
Barber CL, Click J, Britt BT: Complications of ankle arthroscopy.  Foot Ankle 1990;10:263-266.

Question 32

What is the most important sign of impending modulation with rapid progression of a spinal deformity in neurofibromatosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Rib penciling is the only singular factor; 87% of the curves progressed significantly in patients with three or more penciled ribs.  Modulation in neurofibromatosis scoliosis implies the change from an idiopathic type to a dysplastic type of curve with rapid progression and the need for aggressive stabilization by fusion. 
REFERENCES: Crawford AH, Schorry EK: Neurofibromatosis in children: The role of the orthopaedist.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:217-230.
Durrani AA, Crawford AH, Chouhdry SN, et al: Modulation of spinal deformities in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1.  Spine 2000;25:69-75.

Question 33

  • An otherwise healthy 65-year-old man has had chronic pain in his prosthetic knee for the past 9 months. Repeated aspirations reveal a coagulase-negative staphylococcus infection. To eradicate the infection while maintaining the best possible joint function, management should consist of





Explanation

Postoperative wound infections following total joint arthroplasty are generally classified as acute or chronic. The time period is either 2 or 4 weeks from the time of implantation depending on whom you read. This will, generally, determine if you can attempt a one-stage procedure. The other considerations are the bacteria’s resistance to antibiotics and whether or not it produces glycocalyx. If the microorganism elaborates glycocalyx it is highly likely that it will remain after surgical removal of the implants and debridement of the joint.
Present recommendations are to avoid a one-stage reconstruction in a patient in whom a glycocalyx elaborating microorganism has been isolated. In one study 52% of the isolates of S. epidermidis and 28% of the isolates of S. aureus elaborated glycocalyx. The microbiology laboratory can be asked to determine if the microorganisms elaborate glycocalyx. In the present case it should be assumed that the staphylococci elaborate glycocalyx and are resistant to antibiotics. A two-stage procedure is indicated for these reasons alone.
Antibiotic therapy alone has been used for a select group of patients who could not medically tolerate either a one-stage or a two-stage arthroplasty. The patient in this case is listed as otherwise healthy.
The decision to perform a resection arthroplasty as a definitive procedure without reimplantation is based on the bacteria’s resistance to antibiotics, quality of the local soft tissues, the complexity of the reconstruction, the patient’s refusal to have another operation, the patient’s overall health, or a combination of these factors. None of which appear to be present in this case.

Question 34

What is the most common complication following surgical treatment of a displaced talar neck fracture?





Explanation

The most frequent complication is posttraumatic arthritis. With talar neck fractures, osteonecrosis is relatively common, occurring in up to 50% of patients. Fracture nonunion occurs in 10% to 12% of patients. Varus malunion can occur with medial comminution. Wound dehiscence and deep infection are much less frequently encountered.
(SBQ12TR.14) Elevated interleukin 6 (IL-6) is most closely associated to which of the following clinical outcomes in orthopedic trauma patients? 
Decreased mortality rates
Increased mortality rates
Decreased osteomyelitis infection rates
Increased rhabdomyolysis rates
Increased compartmental syndrome rates
Elevated levels of Interleukin 6 (IL-6) is most closely associated with higher injury severity scores and increased mortality rates in polytrauma orthopaedic patients.
Hyperstimulation of the inflammatory system by major trauma is considered to be the key element in the pathogenesis of severe inflammatory response syndrome and multi-organ dysfunction syndrome. IL-6 is a complex acute-reactant cytokinase that is expressed by cells in response to tissue injury. IL-6 levels are associated with injury severity, complications, and mortality. Patients with the most severe injuries have the highest IL-6 serum levels.
Sears et al. reviewed the markers of inflammation in major trauma. They suggest that interleukin-6 and human leukocyte antigen-DR class II molecules appear to have the greatest potential for use in predicting the clinical course and outcome in trauma patients. Early identification of traumatic patients, based on inflammatory markers and genomic predisposition, could help to guide intervention and treatment.
Pape et al measured the perioperative concentrations of interleukin-6 in sixty-eight blunt trauma patients with non-life threatening pelvic fractures. Release of proinflammatory cytokines were higher in patients undergoing surgical procedures that cause increased blood loss. The release of markers seems to be related to the type and magnitude of surgery, rather than to the duration of the procedure.
Illustration A shows a diagram of the acute inflammatory response after major trauma Incorrect Answers:

Question 35

While performing long fusion with osteotomies for a patient with adult scoliosis and sagittal plane deformity, the neurophysiologist reports a change in motor-evoked potentials in the lower extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The use of intraoperative neuromonitoring is expanding, especially in the setting of deformity surgery. Changes in monitoring are concerning for the possibility of a neurologic injury; however, several other factors can alter signals. These include hypotension, changes in anesthesia depth and medications, the use of paralytic agents, and technical issues such as leads falling out or becoming disconnected. If a change in neuromonitoring signals is noted, these factors should be checked first to rule out false-positive findings. If this does not correct the problem, the wound should be explored to ensure there is no compression on the neural elements. Finally, if the deformity has been corrected, some of the correction can be released in an attempt to improve the signals. A wake-up test is difficult to perform and does not provide specific information regarding the location of the problem or how to correct it. Steroids may be used depending on surgeon preference, but should not be used until neurologic injury is ruled out. Any neuromonitoring changes always necessitate immediate investigation.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Ziewacz JE, Berven SH, Mummaneni VP, Tu TH, Akinbo OC, Lyon R, Mummaneni PV. The design, development, and implementation of a checklist for intraoperative neuromonitoring changes. Neurosurg Focus. 2012 Nov;33(5):E11. doi: 10.3171/2012.9.FOCUS12263. PubMed PMID: 23116091. View Abstract at PubMed
Malhotra NR, Shaffrey CI. Intraoperative electrophysiological monitoring in spine surgery. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2010 Dec 1;35(25):2167-79. doi: 10.1097/BRS.0b013e3181f6f0d0.
Review. PubMed PMID: 21102290. View Abstract at PubMed

Question 36

What type of thoracolumbar spinal injury is associated with an increased risk of neurologic deterioration following admission to the hospital?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Gertzbein’s Scoliosis Research Society Morbidity and Mortality report noted that neurologic deterioration developed in approximately 16% of patients who were hospitalized with fracture-dislocations of the thoracolumbar spine, a particular concern with rotational burst fractures (AO type C).  Patients with standard burst fractures and Chance fractures had a markedly lower incidence of neurologic involvement and tended to remain neurologically stable.
REFERENCES: Gertzbein SD: Neurologic deterioration in patients with thoracic and lumbar fractures after admission to the hospital.  Spine 1994;19:1723-1725.
Magerl F, Aebi M, Gertzbein SD, et al: A comprehensive classification of thoracic and lumbar injuries.  Eur Spine J  1994;3:184-201. 

Question 37

What is the primary mechanism by which anabolic steroids increase muscle tissue? Review Topic





Explanation

Anabolic steroids have many effects on the body. Increased muscle mass occurs specifically through increased production of messenger RNA. HDL levels usually decrease but do not affect muscle. Also, steroids act to change the effects of cortisol to decrease catabolism.

Question 38

Figure 43 shows the lateral radiograph of a 12-year-old boy with mild osteogenesis imperfecta who injured his left elbow after pushing his brother. Treatment should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a displaced fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon for which most authorities recommend surgical treatment.  In older children, stability of the reduction may be achieved by the use of two parallel medullary Kirschner wires and a figure-of-8 tension band loop of either stainless steel wire or absorbable suture.  The use of an absorbable suture does not require removal of the implant.  Absorbable suture alone is best used in very young patients who have this type of injury.  An intramedullary screw would pose an unnecessary risk of future growth disturbance.
A displaced, isolated fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon is an unusual injury in a child.  It has been suggested by several authors that children who have osteogenesis imperfecta may be especially prone to this injury.  One study reported seven of these fractures occurring in five children who had the mild form of osteogenesis imperfecta (Sillence type IA).  The authors of this study suggest that the diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfecta be considered in any child who has a displaced fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon, especially when the injury is associated with relatively minor trauma.
REFERENCES: Stott NS, Zionts LE: Displaced fractures of the apophysis of the olecranon in children who have osteogenesis imperfecta.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1026-1033.  
Gaddy BC, Strecker WB, Schoenecker PL: Surgical treatment of displaced olecranon fractures in children.  J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:321-324.
Dormans JP, Rang M: Fractures of the olecranon and radial neck in children.  Orthop Clin North Am 1990;21:257-268.

Question 39

  • When taken concomitantly with which of the following, erythromycin can cause an increase in the blood level of





Explanation

When erythromycin is taken concomitantly with digoxin, carbamazapine, cyclosporine, oral anticoagulants and theophylline, it can increase their blood levels. Erythromycin has no significant effect in the blood levels of the other listed agents. (Clindamycin enhances neuromuscular blocking effects and amphoterecin B may cause digoxin toxicity.)

Question 40

Figure 63 shows the radiographs of a 23-year-old man who sustained a twisting injury at work. Swelling, tenderness, and ecchymosis are noted about the entire midfoot. What associated injury is most likely to be problematic?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: This cuboid compression fracture (“nutcracker” injury) is associated with subtle injury to the Lisfranc complex. This diagnosis must be made to ensure proper treatment.
REFERENCE: Early JS: Fractures and dislocations of the midfoot and forefoot, in Bucholz R, Heckman JD, Court-Brown CM (eds): Rockwood and Green’s Fractures in Adults.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2006, pp 2337-2400.

Question 41

If the patient had an isolated spine injury without neurologic deficit, the most appropriate next step would be




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The treatment of thoracolumbar burst fractures has evolved over the years. In the absence of a neurologic deficit or a posterior ligamentous complex injury, nonsurgical treatment is as effective as surgery. The degree of spinal canal compromise is not a risk factor for neurologic symptoms. Similarly, although kyphosis may be a marker of more significant injury, the degree of kyphosis does not correlate with chronic pain. In the setting of a burst fracture, MRI can be used to evaluate the integrity of the posterior ligamentous complex. Polytrauma may be considered a relative indication for surgical intervention in the setting of a stable burst fracture.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Rechtine GR 2nd. Nonoperative management and treatment of spinal injuries. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2006 May 15;31(11 Suppl):S22-7; discussion S36. Review. PubMed PMID: 16685232. View Abstract at PubMed
Shen WJ, Shen YS. Nonsurgical treatment of three-column thoracolumbar junction burst fractures without neurologic deficit. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 1999 Feb 15;24(4):412-5. PubMed PMID: 10065527. View Abstract at PubMed
Wood K, Buttermann G, Mehbod A, Garvey T, Jhanjee R, Sechriest V. Operative compared with nonoperative treatment of a thoracolumbar burst fracture without neurological deficit. A prospective, randomized study. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2003 May;85-A(5):773-81. Erratum in: J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2004 Jun;86-A(6):1283. Butterman, G [corrected to Buttermann, G]. PubMed PMID: 12728024. View Abstract at PubMed
Wood KB, Li W, Lebl DS, Ploumis A. Management of thoracolumbar spine fractures. Spine J. 2014 Jan;14(1):145-64. doi: 10.1016/j.spinee.2012.10.041. Review. PubMed PMID: 24332321.View Abstract at PubMed

Question 42

An 18-year-old collegiate basketball player has had a 3-month history of activity-related back pain. She describes isolated low back pain without radiation that increases with training and playing basketball. Her pain resolves with rest. Physical therapy for 6 weeks has failed to provide relief. An axial CT scan is shown in Figure 17a, and Figures 17b and 17c show sagittal CT reconstructions through the right and left lumbar facets, respectively. Further management should consist of which of the following?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The sagittal and axial CT scans show a bilateral spondylolysis at L5.  The defect is in the pars interarticularis on the right side but at the base of the pedicle on the left.  Having failed a trial of physical therapy with only a 3-month history of pain, the next most appropriate step in management should consist of activity modification and bracing in an antilordotic lumbosacral orthosis.  Surgical intervention is reserved for patients who have failed to respond to a trial of bracing and activity restriction.
REFERENCES: Debnath UK, Freeman BJ, Grevitt MP, et al: Clinical outcome of symptomatic unilateral stress injuries of the lumbar pars interarticularis.  Spine 2007;32:995-1000.
Bono CM: Low-back pain in athletes.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:382-396.

Question 43

A 22-year-old skier reports painful range of motion in the left thumb after falling forward on his outstretched hand while holding his ski pole. Examination of the left thumb reveals increased AP laxity and 45° of valgus laxity at the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint. Examination of the right thumb shows 25° of valgus laxity at the MCP joint. Radiographs are normal. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a complete tear of the ulnar collateral ligament as defined by MCP joint laxity of greater than 30° (or 15° greater laxity compared with the opposite side).  Primary repair is the treatment of choice because displacement of the ligament superficial to the adductor aponeurosis (Stener lesion) must be corrected.  Any volar plate injury can be addressed during repair of the ulnar collateral ligament. 
REFERENCE: Heyman P: Injuries to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:224-229.

Question 44

Examination of a 5-year-old boy with amyoplasia shows a flexion contracture of 70° of the right knee. The active arc of motion is from 70° to 90°, and the opposite knee has a flexion contracture of 10°. Both hips are dislocated with flexion contractures of 10°, passive hip motion is from 10° to 90° of flexion, and the feet are plantigrade and easily braceable. Despite a daily stretching program, the parents and physical therapists note that it is increasingly difficult for him to walk because of the flexion contracture of the right knee. Management of the knee flexion contracture should now include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most children with amyoplasia are ambulatory and when a decrease in function occurs because of a severe contracture, it must be addressed.  A radical posterior soft-tissue release, including the posterior knee capsule and often the collateral ligaments and the posterior cruciate ligament, is needed to obtain extension. After the age of 1 year, aggressive physical therapy will do little to correct a contracture.  Botulinum toxin A is indicated for spasticity and is contraindicated with severe contractures.  Supracondylar femoral extension osteotomy works well, but will remodel at an average rate of 1° per month, which is not considered ideal in a young patient.  Gradual correction with a circular ring external fixator is an option, but a soft-tissue release will also most likely be needed for a contracture of this severity.  
REFERENCES: Sarwark JF, MacEwen GD, Scott CI Jr: Amyoplasia (a common form of arthrogryposis).  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:465-469.
DelBello DA, Watts HG: Distal femoral extension osteotomy for knee flexion contracture in patients with arthrogryposis.  J Pediatr Orthop 1996;16:122-126.
Sells JM, Jaffe KM, Hall JG: Amyoplasia, the most common type of arthrogryposis: The potential for good outcome.  Pediatrics 1996;97:225-231.

Question 45

A collegiate golfer sustains a hook of the hamate fracture. After 12 weeks of splinting and therapy, the hand is still symptomatic. What is the most appropriate management to allow return to competitive activity?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Excision of the fracture fragment typically leads to rapid return to function.  Fixation techniques are difficult to perform because of the size of the bone; hardware prominence is common.  Nerve deficits are not typically noted in this injury.  The motor branch of the ulnar nerve in Guyon’s canal must be protected during the surgical approach.
REFERENCES: Kulund DN, McCue FC III, Rockwell DA, et al: Tennis injuries: Prevention and treatment: A review.  Am J Sports Med 1979;7:249-253.
Morgan WJ, Slowman LS: Acute hand and wrist injuries in athletes: Evaluation and management.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:389-400.

Question 46

A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a mangled lower extremity that is not salvageable. He undergoes transfemoral amputation. Three months later the patient presents to the office with the limb sitting in an abducted position. What important step was forgotten during the amputation?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Prior to the late 80’s, techniques for transfemoral amputation sacrificed the hip adductor muscles resulting in unopposed abductor forces. Amputation with an abducted femur leads to an increase in side lurch and higher energy consumption. Gottschalk in ’99 showed that myodesis of the adductor magnus through drill holes in the lateral femur preserved maximum muscle force and provided a mechanical advantage for the adductors of the thigh. This resulted in maintenance of the normal anatomic alignment of the femur and a balance between the abductor and adductor mechanisms of the hip, thus providing patients with improved control and easier prosthesis fit.

Question 47

A 21-year-old man sustains multiple gunshot wounds to his right upper extremity. He can not extend his digits or his thumb but can extend and radially deviate his wrist. An injury to the radial nerve or one of its branches has most likely occurred at which of the following locations?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In this patient, the radial nerve is most likely injured at the level of the radial neck.  The radial nerve emerges from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and travels along the spiral groove of the humerus.  At the level of the lateral humeral condyle, the radial nerve branches into the posterior interosseous nerve after giving off two cutaneous branches, the superficial radial and the posterior cutaneous.  The posterior interosseous nerve travels through the supinator muscle and winds around the radial neck.  At this level, the posterior interosseous nerve is vulnerable to injury, particularly following fracture or penetrating trauma. 
REFERENCES: Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System, Part 1: Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders.  West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, p 53.
Hollinshead W: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, vol 3, pp 428-429.

Question 48

A 50-year-old woman with a 2-part surgical neck proximal humerus fracture and metaphyseal comminution






Explanation

DISCUSSION
Proximal humerus fractures account for approximately 5% of all fractures, with incidence increasing to reflect an aging population and related osteoporosis. Treatment is dependent upon the mechanism of injury, the patient’s physiologic age and activity level, the fracture pattern, and rotator cuff integrity. Most of these injuries are nondisplaced or minimally displaced and are associated with a good overall prognosis with nonsurgical treatment and temporary impairment. A patient with a nondisplaced surgical neck fracture should be treated without surgery. K-wire stabilization, although technically difficult to achieve, is an option for compliant patients with 2-part, 3-part, and valgus-impacted 4-part fractures who have adequate bone stock. Valgus-impacted 4-part fractures pose reduced risk for osteonecrosis because of the preserved blood supply through the medial hinge, which allows for this technique. For displaced 2-part fractures accompanied by
metaphyseal comminution, K-wire fixation cannot provide adequate stability to initiate a graduated home exercise or outpatient physical therapy program. Formal open reduction with intramedullary or plate fixation in addition to bone grafting (fibular strut allograft) is the best surgical option for the clinical scenario involving a displaced surgical neck fracture with comminution. Osteosynthesis of 3-part fractures may be feasible for physiologically young and active patients without humeral head involvement and osteoporosis.
Current indications for primary hemiarthroplasty include most 4-part fractures, 3-part fractures and dislocations in elderly patients with osteoporotic bone, head-splitting articular segment fractures, and chronic anterior or posterior humeral head dislocations with more than 40% of articular surface involvement. Because of the intra-articular nature of this patient’s 4-part injury in this scenario, hemiarthroplasty with anatomic reconstruction of the greater and lesser tuberosities is most appropriate. Relative indications for hemiarthroplasty also include fractures with more than 20 degrees of varus, associated moderate to severe osteopenia, and revision surgery for failed osteosynthesis. Currently accepted indications for rTSA include scenarios in which the fracture pattern, level of comminution, bone quality, and rotator cuff deficiency preclude plate fixation or hemiarthroplasty. Scenarios involving 4-part fractures and associated rotator cuff tears and tuberosity comminution are best served with a reverse shoulder prosthesis. One of the positive attributes of this implant is the ability to achieve functional forward flexion and abduction regardless of tuberosity healing, position, and degree of comminution. Caution is warranted with this surgical technique because complication rates are higher than for hemiarthroplasty reconstruction. Acute, irreducible 2-part fracture-dislocations of the proximal humerus necessitate open reduction and internal fixation of the affected tuberosities (posterior, lesser tuberosity; anterior, greater tuberosity) through screw, anchor, and/or suture fixation. These fracture-dislocations can be managed with this technique because of the integrity of the vascular supply, which is maintained by the soft-tissue attachments to the intact tuberosities. Repeated attempts at a closed reduction in the 37-year-old with the posterior fracture-dislocation could result in neurovascular injury and myositis ossificans and should be avoided. Arthroplasty reconstruction in this scenario should not be the index procedure in light of concerns regarding implant survivorship in patients of this age and their assumed elevated activity levels.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Harrison AK, Gruson KI, Zmistowski B, Keener J, Galatz L, Williams G, Parsons BO, Flatow EL. Intermediate outcomes following percutaneous fixation of proximal humeral fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2012 Jul 3;94(13):1223-8. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.J.01371. View Abstract at PubMed
Iannotti JP, Ramsey ML, Williams GR Jr, Warner JJ. Nonprosthetic management of proximal humeral fractures. Instr Course Lect. 2004;53:403-16. Review. View Abstract at PubMed
Mata-Fink A, Meinke M, Jones C, Kim B, Bell JE. Reverse shoulder arthroplasty for treatment of proximal humeral fractures in older adults: a systematic review. J Shoulder Elbow Surg. 2013 Dec;22(12):1737-48. doi: 10.1016/j.jse.2013.08.021. Review. View Abstract at PubMed
Jobin CM, Galdi B, Anakwenze OA, Ahmad CS, Levine WN. Reverse shoulder arthroplasty for the management of proximal humerus fractures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2015 Mar;23(3):190-201. doi: 10.5435/JAAOS-D-13-00190. Epub 2015 Jan 28. Review. View Abstract at PubMed
Bae JH, Oh JK, Chon CS, Oh CW, Hwang JH, Yoon YC. The biomechanical performance of locking plate fixation with intramedullary fibular strut graft augmentation in the treatment of unstable fractures of the proximal humerus. J Bone Joint Surg Br. 2011 Jul;93(7):937-41. View Abstract at PubMed
Kontakis G, Koutras C, Tosounidis T, Giannoudis P. Early management of proximal humeral fractures with hemiarthroplasty: a systematic review. J Bone Joint Surg Br. 2008 Nov;90(11):1407-13. doi: 10.1302/0301-620X.90B11.21070. Review. PubMed PMID: 18978256. View Abstract at PubMed
Hertel R, Hempfing A, Stiehler M, Leunig M. Predictors of humeral head ischemia after intracapsular fracture of the proximal humerus. J Shoulder Elbow Surg. 2004 Jul-Aug;13(4):427-33. PubMed PMID: 15220884. View Abstract at PubMed
CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 67 THROUGH 70
Figure 67 is the radiograph of a right-hand-dominant 70-year-old woman who arrives at the emergency department with acute left shoulder pain following a fall down a flight of stairs. She expresses acute diffuse left shoulder pain and swelling. Prior to her injury, she had full active painless shoulder range of motion.

Question 49

After humeral head replacement for four-part fractures, what is the most commonly reported difficulty?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Results show that patients who underwent humeral head replacement for fracture almost routinely report pain relief, but functional reports vary.  The most commonly reported difficulty is the use of weight in the overhead position with wide variation in active elevation.  Factors found to affect active elevation include age, humeral offset, greater tuberosity positioning, and four-part (as compared with three-part) fractures.
REFERENCES: Goldman RT, Koval KJ, Cuomo F, Gallagher MA, Zuckerman JD: Functional outcome after humeral head replacement for acute three- and fourth-part proximal humeral fractures.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:81-86.
Hawkins RJ, Switlyk P: Acute prosthetic replacement for severe fractures of the proximal humerus.  Clin Orthop 1993;289:156-160.

Question 50

Which of the following findings is most prognostic for the ability of a young child with cerebral palsy to walk? Review Topic





Explanation

Several studies have shown that sitting ability by age 2 years is highly prognostic of walking. Molnar and Gordon reported that children not sitting independently by age 2 years had a poor prognosis for walking. Wu and associates reported that children sitting without support by age 2 years had an odds ratio of 26:1 of walking compared with those unable to sit. This was far higher than the odds ratios for cerebral palsy location, motor dysfunction, crawling, creeping, scooting, or rolling.
(SBQ13PE.27) A 15-year-old male patient presents requesting clearance to perform in the Special Olympics. He has had abnormal facies, has had mental developmental delay and cytogenetic analysis confirmed abnormalities on chromosome 21. Orthopaedically, he has been treated in the past for an elbow dislocation as well as bilateral patellar dislocation. He has already visited his cardiologist and endocrinologist and has been cleared. He has no complaints, denies any pain, difficulties with walking and reports that his training has been going well. What is the next best step? Review Topic
With a normal physical exam, patient can be cleared for participation
MRI bilateral knees and elbow to ensure no ligamentous injury
Referral to a neurologist for clearance
Lateral cervical spine flexion and extension radiographs
AP pelvis radiograph
Ruling-out C1-C2 instability with flexion/extension radiographs is necessary prior to any spine surgery or participation in sports in patients with Down's Syndrome.
Patients with Down's Syndrome typically present with generalized ligamentous laxity and decreased tone. Thus, dislocations (elbow or patella) along with asymptomatic instability in the cervical spine can commonly occur. Imaging analysis is necessary prior to sports participation.
McKay et al. performed a systematic review to summarize all congenital causes of cervical instability. They found in Down's patients, cervical instability due to ligamentous laxity is found mostly at C1-2. They recommend asymptomatic patients
with an ADI <4.5mm can resume unrestricted activities, while asymptomatic patients between 4.5-10mm should not participate in contact sports. With ADI >10mm OR symptoms/cord changes on MRI, surgery is recommended. Symptomatic patients with ADI between 4.5-10mm should be observed with activity restriction.
Dedlow et al. outlines the most recent 2011 update and guidelines for cervical instability in Down's syndrome patients. One of the major highlighted changes is the emphasis placed on radiographic re-examination, regardless of prior clearance. Re-examination should occur prior to participation in sports and/or the onset of new symptoms.
Illustrations A, B and C highlight the C1-2 instability on flexion-extension lateral radiographs. Careful attention can be placed on the relationship of the anterior arch of C1 and the dens (Illustration C). This allows for the measurements of ADI and the space available for the cord (SAC), which is highlighted in Illustration D.
Incorrect answers:

Question 51

A 15-year-old boy reports leg pain after being tackled during football practice. Radiographs and a CT scan are shown in Figures 46a through 46c. The patient has a pathologic fracture through what underlying lesion?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The images show a lobulated, eccentric, well-marginated lesion that is typical of a nonossifying fibroma.  The lesion is slightly expansile, and the CT scan findings show that the lesion is very well marginated and the cortex is disrupted, which is a common finding.  None of the characteristics of this lesion is aggressive in nature.
REFERENCES: Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 69-75.
Parsons TW: Benign bone tumors, in Fitzgerald R Jr, Kaufer H, Malkani A (eds): Orthopaedics.  Philadelphia, PA, Mosby International, 2002, pp 1027-1035.

Question 52

Deep posterior compartment




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The structures at risk are the anterior tibial artery and deep peroneal nerve in the anterior compartment, superficial peroneal nerve in the lateral compartment, sural nerve in the superficial posterior compartment, and posterior tibial nerve and posterior tibial and peroneal arteries and veins in the deep posterior compartment.

Question 53

A 52-year-old woman with a 2-year history of a flexible (stage II) adult-acquired flatfoot deformity has failed to respond to nonsurgical management consisting of immobilization, custom orthotics, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and physical therapy. The patient is unable to perform a single limb heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs are shown in Figures 30a through 30c. What is the most appropriate surgical correction?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has an atypical adult flatfoot deformity.  The radiographs reveal forefoot abduction, mild loss of calcaneal pitch, and marked plantar flexion sag through the naviculocuneiform joint.  The inability to perform a single limb heel rise indicates that the posterior tibial tendon is nonfunctional; however, the deformity remains flexible.  In this patient, surgical treatment should include a tendon transfer, lateral column lengthening, medial column arthrodesis, and heel cord lengthening.  Because a substantial portion of the deformity stems from the naviculocuneiform joint in this instance, tendon transfer and lateral column lengthening alone provide insufficient deformity correction.  Triple arthrodesis and heel cord lengthening is best reserved for fixed flatfoot deformities.  Soft-tissue procedures alone are associated with a high failure rate, as are attempted tendon repairs.
REFERENCES: Greisberg J, Assal M, Hansen ST Jr, et al: Isolated medial column stabilization improves alignment in adult-acquired flatfoot.  Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;435:197-202.
Greisberg J, Hansen ST Jr, Sangeorzan BJ: Deformity and degeneration in the hindfoot and midfoot joints of the adult acquired flatfoot.  Foot Ankle Int 2003;24:530-534.

Question 54

In either a ceramic-on-highly-cross-linked polyethylene (HXPE) or metal-on-HXPE component, increasing the ball head size leads to




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Increasing the size of the ball head increases the primary arc of motion prior to impingement and the jump distance prior to dislocation, assuming an acetabular component abduction of less than 90 degrees. Although HXPE has demonstrated decreases in linear wear rates even with ball head sizes larger than 28 mm, volumetric wear remains a concern. A larger ball head size does not significantly change offset, and larger metal ball heads are not associated with decreased risk for corrosion.

Question 55

The CT scan shows the involvement area is approximately 30% of the posterior facet. What is the most appropriate treatment?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Radiographs reveal a talocalcaneal coalition. The incidence of tarsal coalition in the general population ranges between 2% and 13%. The incidence of tarsal coalition among patients with FGFR-related craniosynostosis syndromes is much higher than among the general population. Tarsal coalitions have been noted in FGFR-1-, FGFR-2-, and FGFR-3-related craniosynostosis syndromes of Apert, Pfeiffer, Crouzon, Jackson-Weiss, and Muenke, but not in Beare-Stevenson or Crouzonodermoskeletal syndromes. The FGFR genes are involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, migration, apoptosis, and pattern formation.
Additionally, nonsyndromic familial coalitions have been described with autosomal-dominant patterns of inheritance.
Cross-sectional imaging should always be obtained prior to resection of a radiographically evident coalition to define the extent of the coalition and determine the coexistence of an additional coalition. CT scan is the gold standard test; however, MRI can be helpful to define a suspected fibrous coalition if a CT scan is nondiagnostic. A bone scan may be useful if pain or history is atypical for a symptomatic coalition. Laboratory tests such as CBC, ESR, CRP, ANA, and RF may be indicated if the imaging evaluation does not confirm a tarsal coalition and if there is concern for malignancy, infection, or inflammatory arthritis.
Investigators have suggested that larger talocalcaneal coalitions with surface areas larger than 33% to 50% of the size of the posterior facet are unsuitable for resection and primary arthrodesis should be considered. However, a study by Koshbin and associates found that with long-term follow-up, favorable functional outcomes were seen even with resections of large talocalcaneal coalitions occupying more than 50% of surface area.

Question 56

A 25-year-old man shot himself at the base of the right index finger while cleaning his handgun. Examination reveals that the finger is cool and cyanotic. A clinical photograph and radiograph are shown in Figures 44a and 44b. What is the recommended treatment?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The gunshot wound has caused injury to multiple systems: bone, vascular, skin, and tendon; therefore, the treatment of choice is amputation.  An immediate ray amputation allows for a more rapid return to activities and less time off work.
REFERENCES: Peimer CA, Wheeler DR, Barrett A, et al: Hand function following single ray amputation.  J Hand Surg Am 1999;24:1245-1248.
Neumeister MW, Brown RE: Mutilating hand injuries: Principles and management.  Hand Clin 2003;19:1-15.

Question 57

A patient who underwent a L4-L5 hemilaminotomy and partial diskectomy for radiculopathy 8 weeks ago now reports increasing low back pain without neurologic symptoms. A sagittal T 2 -weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 13a, and a contrast enhanced T 1 -weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 13b. What is the most appropriate management for the patient’s symptoms?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scans show Modic changes in the L4-L5 vertebral bodies due to spondylosis.  There is no increased fluid signal or enhancement in the L4-L5 disk to suggest infection or any other pathologic process.  Therefore, the patient’s pain should be treated with a course of physical therapy and rehabilitation.  There is no infection; therefore, IV antibiotics and debridement are not indicated.  Similarly, a pseudomeningocele is not present.  A revision diskectomy is useful for recurrent radiculopathy but would not be helpful for degenerative low back pain.
REFERENCES: Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 319-329.
Shen FH, Samartzis D, Andersson GBJ: Nonsurgical management of acute and chronic low back pain.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2006;14:477-487.

Question 58

A 56-year-old man underwent right total shoulder arthroplasty 2 months ago. Recently while reaching with his shoulder in a flexed and adducted position, he noted shoulder pain and afterwards he could not externally rotate his arm. An axillary radiograph is shown in Figure 30. What is the most likely cause of this problem?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Anteversion of the humeral component may result in anterior instability of the component.  Posterior instability after total shoulder arthroplasty is usually the result of some combination of the following factors: untreated anterior soft-tissue contractures, excessive posterior capsular laxity, and excessive retroversion of the humeral and/or glenoid components.
REFERENCES: Cofield RH, Edgerton BC: Total shoulder arthroplasty: Complications and revision surgery.  Instr Course Lect 1990;39:449-462.
Wirth MA, Rockwood CA Jr: Complications of total shoulder replacement arthroplasty.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:603-616.

Question 59

Of the following clinical situations, which is most likely to lead to osteonecrosis associated with a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Osteonecrosis of the femoral head is the most devastating complication of SCFE. There is a 47% incidence of ischemic necrosis associated with an unstable SCFE.  By definition, the patient with an unstable SCFE is unable to bear weight even with crutches.  Osteonecrosis is most likely associated with the initial femoral head displacement rather than the result of either tamponade from hemarthrosis or from gentle repositioning prior to stabilization.  Age, sex, and obesity are not risk factors for osteonecrosis.
REFERENCES: Loder RT, Richards BS, Shapiro PS, et al: Acute slipped capital femoral epiphysis: The importance of physeal stability.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1134-1140.
Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, vol 2, pp 711-745.

Question 60

A 49-year-old male presents with right shoulder pain and weakness after undergoing open cervical lymph node biopsy approximately one year ago. A pertinent finding from the physical exam is seen in Figure A, with the patients arms by his side. Physical exam finding with the arms in a position of 90 degrees of forward elevation and 10 degrees of external rotation are shown in Figure B. What nerve is most likely injured? Review Topic





Explanation

The patient is presenting with LATERAL scapular winging which is a result of injury to the spinal accessory nerve and resultant trapezius muscle palsy.
The spinal accessory nerve is fundamental to scapulothoracic function and essential for scapulohumeral rhythm. This nerve is vulnerable along its superficial course. The majority of injuries to the spinal accessory nerve are iatrogenic and occur secondary to head and neck surgery. There is often a marked delay in recognition and initiating treatment. Surgical treatment with the Eden-Lange transfer lateralizes the levator scapulae and rhomboids (transfer from medial border to lateral border)
Camp et al. reviewed the results of 111 patients who underwent operative management of a lesion to the spinal accessory nerve. They found that the majority (~80%) of injuries were sustained iatrogenically and that diagnosis was delayed for approximately 12 months.
Pikkarainen et al. reviewed the natural history of isolated serratus palsy. They found that symptoms mostly recover in 2 years, but at least one-fourth of the patients will have long-lasting symptoms, especially pain.
Figure A depicts a patient with lateral scapular winging. Figure B demonstrates physical exam of this patient with their arms in a position of 90 degrees of forward elevation and 10 degrees of external rotation. Illustration A highlights the difference between medial and lateral scapular winging. Illustration B depicts another example of a patient with lateral scapular winging.
Incorrect Answers:
An injury to the long thoracic nerve would result in serratus anterior palsy which would lead to MEDIAL scapular winging.
An injury to the suprascapular nerve would result in weakness and wasting of the supraspinatus and/or infraspinatus.
An injury to the axillary nerve would result in deltoid muscle weakness.
An injury to the thoracodorsal nerve would result in latissimus dorsi weakness and would not cause scapular winging

Question 61

When comparing the overall outcomes of surgical versus nonsurgical treatment of stable thoracolumbar burst fractures in patients without neurologic injury, 5 years following injury, the principle differences lie in





Explanation

DISCUSSION: When patients are compared at 5 years follow-up, there are no statistically significant differences between the two groups with respect to kyphosis, the degree of retropulsed bone resorption, pain and function levels, or the ability to return to work.  Nonsurgical management of stable neurologically intact burst fractures has a very low incidence of complications.
REFERENCES: Wood K, Butterman G, Mehbod A, et al: Operative compared with nonoperative treatment of a thoracolumbar burst fracture without neurological deficit: A prospective, randomized study.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:773-781.
Shen WJ, Liu TJ, Shen YS: Nonoperative treatment versus posterior fixation for thoracolumbar junction burst fractures without neurologic deficit.  Spine 2001;26:1038-1045.

Question 62

Figure A is a glenoid CT 3D reconstruction of a 26-year-old accountant who has recurrent shoulder instability. His first dislocation occurred after a fall while skiing. He has now sustained his third dislocation, which was reduced in the emergency department prior to being sent to your office. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment? Review Topic





Explanation

This patient has recurrent shoulder instability with a small bony defect of the anterior glenoid and no previous surgery. The most appropriate definitive management in this
patient would be arthroscopic bony Bankart repair.
Older (>20 years old), recreational athletes with minor glenoid bone loss (<20% of the glenoid surface area) may be treated with soft tissue stabilization procedures using suture anchors. Goals of this procedure include tightening and repairing the torn ligament and labrum to the glenoid. Younger, contact sports athletes with large glenoid defect (>20%) may require bony augmentation type of procedures.
Lynch et al. review the clinical presentation, assessment and treatment algorithm for surgical management of bone loss associated with anterior shoulder instability. While defects larger than 25% of glenoid width should be managed with bony augmentation, they recommend soft-tissue stabilization in smaller defects.
Balg et al. analyzed 131 patients following Bankart procedure and identified following risk factors for failure: age <=20, competitive participation in contact sports, shoulder hyperlaxity, Hill-Sachs on AP radiograph, glenoid bone loss of contour on AP radiograph.
Using human cadaveric shoulders with various anterior glenoid defects sizes, The MOON Shoulder Group compared radiography, MRI and CT to determine the most reliable imaging modality for predicting bone loss. Three-dimensional CT, followed by regular CT were the most reliable and reproducible imaging modalities for predicting glenoid bone loss.
Figure A shows an en face sagittal 3D reconstruction of a glenoid with 10% surface area loss.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 63

Figures 1 and 2 display the radiographs obtained from a woman who had volar plating of the distal radius 8 months earlier. Two days ago, she noticed she could not actively extend her thumb. What is the most appropriate treatment that would restore active thumb extension?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
Although the fracture is aligned in anatomic position, prominence of a least one of the distal screws is evident on the lateral radiographic view. The prominent screw is the most likely cause of the EPL tendon rupture. If the patient chooses surgical treatment, the best option would be removal of the offending hardware combined with extensor indicis proprius to EPL tendon transfer. Intercalary grafting would also be an acceptable option. If the tendon transfer were to be performed alone, the prominent screw(s) could rupture the transferred tendon as well. Also, it is rarely possible to repair the EPL tendon primarily in such cases, because this rupture is an attrition type. Casting would obviously not provide any benefit in this situation, and IP arthrodesis would not be the first surgical treatment option. This problem can be avoided by using shorter screws or not placing screws in plate holes that direct screws into the third dorsal extensor compartment. Intraoperative fluoroscopy and special views, such as the carpal shoot-through view, are useful for avoiding this complication.                     

Question 64

Which of the following radiographic parameters is most predictive of a poor result following multilevel fusion surgery for adult degenerative scoliosis? Review Topic





Explanation

Sagittal imbalance appears to be the greatest predictor of a poor surgical outcome in multilevel fusions for adult scoliosis. Coronal imbalance is better tolerated as long as it is not excessive. The amount of residual scoliosis does not seem to play a role as long as overall balance is achieved. The issue of including the L5-S1 level in long fusions remains debatable, and some residual foraminal stenosis can be tolerated, particularly when included within the stabilized/fused segments.

Question 65

-Figures a through c are the MRI scans of a 21-year-old woman with recurrent shoulder instability and pain after an open anterior stabilization procedure. Positive belly-press test findings were positive.At surgery she was found to have an irreparable tear of the tendon injury identified preoperatively. The procedure to address the dynamic stabilizer deficit places which nerve at most risk?





Explanation

Question 66

The load versus deformation curve of the functional spinal unit (FSU) is made up of the neutral zone, the elastic zone, and the plastic zone. What is the plastic zone of the curve believed to represent?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Plastic deformation of viscoelastic tissues represents deformation of the soft tissues to the point of failure.  The lining up of collagen fibers would be in the “toe region” of the curve, which, in the case of the FSU, would be mainly in the neutral zone.  Elastin is a minor contributor to the composition of the ligaments and would be protected by the stiffer collagen fibers.  The transition between flexion and extension occurs in the neutral zone, and reversible elongation occurs in the elastic zone. 
REFERENCES: Fardon DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 15-23.
Panjabi MM, White AA: Physical properties and functional biomechanics of the spine, in White AA, Panjabi MM: Clinical Biomechanics of the Spine, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1990, pp 1-83.

Question 67

Six months later, the patient’s fracture has healed and a CT scan to further evaluate the physis is performed (Video 85). Based on these findings, how should you advise the family?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The hypertrophic zone is the weakest biomechanical zone of the physis and is most likely to fracture. The deep peroneal nerve supplies motor innervation to the ankle and toe
dorsiflexors (anterior compartment) and the first web space, which, in this history, have deficits. The superficial peroneal nerve supplies sensation to the dorsum of the foot and motor to the lateral compartment peroneal musculature (ankle evertors), which also has deficits. The injury must involve both peroneal branches (the common peroneal nerve). Because sensation to the sole of the foot and toe/ankle plantar flexion is intact, the tibial nerve is intact.
Because the nerve was visualized intact, a neuropraxia is the most likely type of nerve injury. This should recover in time and does not necessitate urgent exploration. In pediatric patients, an advancing Tinel sign and partial nerve recovery by 3 months is expected and can be followed clinically. If there is no sign of nerve recovery, an electromyogram should be ordered with consideration for nerve exploration if there is no sign of reinnervation. There is no sign of compartment syndrome because the patient has an unchanged neurologic deficit, is comfortable, and has no pain with passive range of motion.
These injuries are associated with a very high rate of growth arrest (up to 80% in some studies). The CT scan shows an asymmetric growth arrest, which suggests angulation through the distal femur.

Question 68

The dorsal (Thompson) approach to the proximal forearm uses which of the following intermuscular intervals?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The Thompson posterior approach is used in treatment of fractures of the proximal radius.  Dissection is carried out through the interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (radial nerve) and the extensor digitorum communis (posterior interosseous nerve).  To identify this interval, the forearm is pronated and the mobile lateral wad of muscles (the ulnar-most belly is the extensor carpi radialis brevis) is grasped with the thumb and finger and pulled from the much less mobile mass of the extensor digitorum communis.  The furrow created is marked with a skin marker for subsequent skin incision.  The skin incision follows a line from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus to a point corresponding to the middle of the posterior aspect of the wrist.  Distally, the intermuscular plane is between the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the extensor pollicis longus.
REFERENCES: Crenshaw AH Jr: Surgical techniques and approaches, in Canale ST (ed): Campbell’s Operative Orthopaedics, ed 9.  St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 128-129.  
Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Posterior approach to the radius, in Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1992, pp 136-146.
Thompson JE: Anatomical methods of approach in operations on the long bones of the extremities.  Ann Surg 1918;68:309-316.  

Question 69

The clinical photograph in Figure 27 shows a palsy of what nerve/associated muscle?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The clinical picture reveals medial scapular winging, which involves the serratus anterior muscle, potentially due to an injury to the long thoracic nerve that innervates this muscle. Injury to the long thoracic nerve is usually due to closed trauma, direct compression, traction or stretching injury, a direct blow, or, very rarely, viral infection such as Parsonage-Tumer syndrome. The nerve is easily injured in surgical dissection of the axilla, and is predisposed to injury due to its relatively long course, it is small in diameter, and it has little surrounding connective tissue. If rehabilitation and time are unsuccessful, both nerve and muscle transfers have been described with mixed results.
REFERENCES: Wiater JM, Flatow EL: Long thoracic nerve injury. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1999;368:17 -27.
Warner JJ, Navarro RA: Serratus anterior dysfunction: Recognition and treatment. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1998;349:139-148.

Question 70

Two major pharmacologic classes of bisphosphonates exist: nitrogen-containing and non-nitrogen-containing compounds. The nitrogen-containing compounds work by which of the following actions?





Explanation

Bisphosphonates represent the most clinically important class of antiresorptive agents available to treat diseases characterized by osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Two classes of bisphosphonates exist: nitrogen-containing and non-nitrogen-containing compounds. The non-nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates work by metabolizing into cytotoxic ATP analogs. The nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates work via the mevalonate pathway by inhibiting GTPase formation, leading to loss of GTP prenylation and eventual induction of osteoclast apoptosis.

Question 71

Haversian canals are found in the center of an osteon in compact bone. They contain blood vessels and nerves.






Explanation

The multi-axis articulated foot assembly is the best prosthetic for ambulation over uneven ground, and functions best for below knee amputations. Low functioning patients who need a prosthesis for transfers would probably benefit from a solid ankle, cushioned heel prosthesis. Runners and athletes often require high end carbon fiber prostheses. Patients with above knee
amputations have several options to optimize ambulation including solid, energy storing, and multi-axial prothesis.
Aaron et al. reviews the important considerations for patient specific prostheses and new developments on the horizon to maximize ambulation in prosthesis users.
Mesenchymal stem cells have the capacity to differentiate into all the following cell types EXCEPT?
Osteoclasts
Chondrocytes
Adipocytes
Osteoblasts
Fibroblasts
Mesenchymal stem cells are multipotent stem cells which retain the ability to self-renew and to form cells of the mesenchymal lineage. They can therefore form muscle, fat, tendon (made from fibroblasts), bone, cartilage, and the marrow stromal cells. Mesenchymal stem cells do not however form osteoclasts, which are formed from the monocyte lineage - from hematopoietic stem cells.
Caterson et al review the use of mesenchymal stem cells in tissue engineering and regeneration of musculoskeletal tissue.
A 60 year-old male was brought into the operating room for total hip replacement. Before making the incision, what precautionary procedure must be performed by the entire staff to minimize surgical error?
Mark the word "No" on the nonoperative extremities
Use intraoperative fluoroscopic imaging
Perform "timeout"
Have blood products ready in the operating room
Use the newest prosthesis
Surgical "timeout" is now part of the standard procedure which must be performed before starting surgery to minimize surgical error such as wrong site surgery.
Which of the following statements regarding articular cartilage is TRUE?
Cartilage is an isotropic material
Most of the water in articular cartilage exists in the deep layer next to the calcified cartilage
Cartilage only heals if the injury does not pass through the tidemark
Calcified cartilage is the only place that type IV collagen is found
Cartilage exhibits stress shielding of the solid matrix components
Cartilage exhibits significant stress shielding of the solid matrix components due to its high water content, the non-compressibility of water, and the structural organization of collagen and proteoglycans. Cartilage is composed of a permeable porous matrix and 65 to 80% of the total weight of articular cartilage is made up of water. A pressure gradient causes the water to flow through the porous-permeable solid matrix. Significant flow of fluid through the solid matrix requires high hydrodynamic pressures because of the low
permeability of the solid matrix.
The other answers are incorrect because cartilage is anisotropic, most of the water is located in the superficial layers, it only heals if the injury does pass through the tidemark, type X collagen is found in calcified cartilage and is thought to be involved in mineralization. Type IV collagen is found in the basal lamina.
A 38-year-old patient presents 6 months after intramedullary nailing of a distal third tibia fracture with symptoms consistent with complex regional pain syndrome. During the early stage of the disease he was treated with intermittent splinting, elevation and massage, contrast baths, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation. Despite these modalities, he continues to have severe and debilitating symptoms. Which of the following treatment options is indicated as a second line of treatment?
Long leg cast immobilization for 3 months
Walking boot with non weight bearing for three months
Exchange nailing to stimulate healing response to the limb
Epidural spinal cord stimulator
Surgical sympathectomy of the affected limb
Complex regional pain syndrome is a chronic progressive disease of unknown etiology characterized by pain, swelling and skin changes. If nonoperative modalities fail, a surgical sympathectomy of the affected limb is indicated.
The first line of treatment is physical therapy including intermittent splinting, elevation and massage, contrast baths, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation. Aggressive passive range-of-motion exercises should be avoided. If nonoperative modalites fail and symptoms remain severe, a surgical sympathectomy of the affected limb is indicated.
Keys to successful treatment include early clinical suspicion and treatment. Late CRPS is highly refractory to treatment and often results in permanent disability.
Two forms of Complex regional pain syndrome exist: 1) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
- which does not demonstrate nerve lesions, and 2) Causalgia - which is associated with damage to peripheral nerves. Diagnostic criteria include:
Major criteria: intense and prolonged pain, swelling, stiffness, and discoloration (vasomotor disturbances).
Minor criteria: trophic changes, osseous demineralization, temperature changes, and palmar fibromatosis.
Tran et al present their systemic review of 41 RCTs of the research regarding treatment of CRPS. Their data suggest that only bisphosphonates offer clear medicinal benefits in the treatment of CRPS. Evidence regarding a beneficial effect of lumbar sympathetic blocks, gabapentin, and physical therapy is lacking. As such, these authors advocate for further study thru well-designed RCTs to better evaluate appropriate and effective treatment strategies.
You are planning an intramedullary nail to treat a geriatric patient with a peritrochanteric femur fracture. Which of the following preoperative considerations is correct regarding your implant?
The radius of curvature of an intramedullary nail is generally greater than the radius of curvature of the femur
Closed section nails have less stiffness than slotted nails
The medial/lateral nail starting point relative to the greater trochanter does not affect varus/valgus position in the fracture
The bending stiffness of your nail is proportional to the second power of the radius
Intramedullary nails allow for mostly direct intramembranous bone healing
The radius of curvature of an intramedullary nail is generally greater than the radius of curvature of the femur, which is why anterior distal femur
penetration is a known complication of intramedullary nailing procedures.
Egol et al. evaluated the radius of curvature of 948 femurs (474 matched pairs) and compared those data with current intramedullary nails. He found the average femoral anterior radius of curvature was 120 cm (± 36 cm)
whereas the radius of curvature of the intramedullary nails ranged from 186 to 300 cm.
The other answers are incorrect because closed section nails have more stiffness than slotted nails. The starting position on the greater trochanter greatly affects the post- operative varus/valgus of the fracture. Intramedullary nails allow for mostly indirect enchondral bone healing due to relative motion at the fracture site.
All of the following antibiotics function by interfering with protein synthesis by inhibiting ribosomes EXCEPT
gentamicin
tobramycin
vancomycin
erythromycin
linezolid
Gentamicin and tobramycin are aminoglycosides that function by inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis via irreversible binding to ribosomal subunits. Erythromycin functions by binding to the 50s subunit of the bacterial 70s rRNA complex and thereby inhibits protein synthesis. Linezolid binds to the 23s portion of the ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis. In contrast, Vancomycin acts by inhibiting proper cell wall synthesis and does not inhibit the ribosome.
The bending rigidity of the implant shown in Figure A is proportional to what power of the measured radius of the implant?

Question 72

open biopsy and plating




Explanation

The history of this pathologic fracture is unremarkable. What is notable, is the patient’s age, location, and x-ray appearance. Radiographically, there is an isolated, eccentric, intracortical osteolytic (bubble-like) tibia shown in figure.
The differential diagnosis would include Adamantinoma (rarely seen under age 10, but commonly seen in the tibia), Fibrous dysplasia (usually older child and commonly seen in the tibia), Fibrous dysplasia (usually older child and commonly polyostotic), and Osteofibrous dysplasia (almost always prepubescent in age, isolated tibia/fibula, and eccentric osteolytic lesions).
“The radiographic features are so characteristic that the diagnosis can often be made, with confidence, from the radiographs alone, before or without histological confirmation.”
Therefore, any open biopsy or procedure answers would be wrong for test (OITE) purposes. However, it is not uncommon for thse to be biopsied and the pathology is also characteristic with two fundamental patterns: fibrous tissue surrounding bone trabeculae bordered by active osteoblasts and zonal architecture. Also, the absence of epithelia tissue would exclude adamantimona. Of note regarding Osteofibrous dysplasia, when biopsy/resection is performed, the benign tumor commonly locally returns if the patient is under age 10 to 15 years, but doesn’t if older.
“Marginal subperiosteal excision should not be attempted in patients who are less than fifteen years old, because most likely the lesion will recur. In many cases a biopsy appears to be unnecessary, because clinically and radiographically the lesion is so typical that the physician can be reasonably confident about the diagnosis. The occasional pathological fracture can be treated by plaster-cast immobilization.” Question 197 -
A 25-year-old woman who sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of her leg while playing basketball has immediate pain and cannot walk. Examination of the knee reveals an increase in posterior translation and external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. At 30 degrees of flexion, posterior translation and external rotation decrease. Radiographs are normal. Which of the following structures has been injured?
Posterolateral complex
Posterior cruciate ligament
Lateral collateral ligament
Posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral complex
Posterior cruciate ligament and medical collateral ligament
External rotation of the knee at 30 degrees of flexion averages 29 degrees with a range of 10-45. External rotation of the knee at 90 degrees of external rotation averages 37 degrees with a range of 15-

Question 73

A 45-year-old right-hand dominant woman falls onto an outstretched left hand. Imaging shows a complex elbow dislocation. The postreduction CT scan demonstrates a reduced joint, comminuted radial head fracture, and type I coronoid fracture. Surgical intervention is recommended to address the involved structures. Which component of the intervention adds the most rotational stability?




Explanation

A 68-year-old right-hand dominant woman has experienced progressive right elbow pain and loss of motion for several years. She has failed nonsurgical treatment and elects to undergo a total elbow arthroplasty (TEA). In comparison to a linked prosthesis, an unlinked prosthesis has which reported distinction with extended follow-up?
A. Improved longevity in comparison to the linked prosthesis
B. A significantly larger flexion-extension arc
C. A higher incidence of postsurgical instability
D. Lower frequency of ulnar nerve dysfunction
TEA is a popular option for treatment of end-stage elbow arthritis for elderly, lower-demand patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Good success rates have been published by several authors. The clear benefit of the current nonconstrained prosthesis has yet to be proven. Plaschke and associates investigated the Danish National Patient Registry to compare the longevity of the 2 types of implants. These authors found similar survival rates associated with both linked and unlinked implants at 10 years (88% and 77%, respectively). However, studies have documented an approximate 20% incidence of postsurgical instability with nonconstrained implants.

Question 74

A 14-year-old boy has a midshaft fibular lesion. Biopsy results are consistent with Ewing’s sarcoma. Following induction chemotherapy, local control typically consists of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Current treatment regimens for Ewing’s sarcoma typically involve induction chemotherapy followed by local control and further chemotherapy.  Local control consists of surgery alone, radiation therapy alone, or a combination of the two.  In bones that are easily resectable (or expendable) with wide margins, surgery alone is usually recommended.  For areas that are unresectable (ie, large, bulky pelvic tumors), radiation therapy alone is sometimes the preferred method of local control.  If surgery is chosen and margins are close, radiation therapy can be used as an adjuvant.  Amputation rarely is required for an isolated fibular lesion.  Observation without adequate local therapy results in local recurrence.  
REFERENCES: Nesbit ME Jr, Gehan EA, Burgert EO Jr, et al: Multimodal therapy for the management of primary, nonmetastatic Ewing’s sarcoma of bone: A long-term follow-up of the First Intergroup study.  J Clin Oncol 1990;8:1664-1674. 
Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Ewing’s Sarcoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 287-297. 

Question 75

The flap shown in the clinical photograph seen in Figure 51 is based on what arterial supply?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The groin flap is based on the superficial circumflex iliac artery, an axial flap that has been a mainstay of providing soft-tissue coverage of the upper extremity.  Flaps as large as 35 cm in length and 15 cm in width have been reported.  An advantage of the flap is that when used as a pedicle flap, the donor site can be closed directly.  A disadvantage of the flap is that it can be quite bulky and can have a thick layer of subcutaneous fat.  The superficial circumflex iliac artery travels lateral and superficial to the fascia and below and parallel to the inguinal ligament.  It is helpful to elevate the fascia at the medial border of the sartorius muscle to include the deep and superficial branches of the artery for improved flap survival.
REFERENCES: McGregor IA, Jackson IT: The groin flap. Br J Plast Surg 1972;25:3-9.
Lister GD, McGregor IA Jackson IT: The groin flap in hand injuries.  Injury 1973;4:229.

Question 76

A researcher experimenting with limb patterning removes some tissue from 1 part of the limb bud (which we shall call Site A) and transplants it along the anteroposterior (AP) axis to create a mirror-hand duplication. Which of the following is true?





Explanation

The ZPA is located on the posterior (ulnar) margin of the limb bud. It expresses Shh protein. When tissue from ZPA is added to the anterior (radial) margin of the limb bud, ulnar dimelia, or mirror hand duplication, occurs.
The ZPA controls AP (radioulnar) growth. The signaling molecule is Shh, which is dose dependent. Higher Shh doses lead to posterior (ulnar) digits ulnar sided polydactyly. The extent of duplication is dose dependent (higher dose = more replication). Reduced Shh leads to loss of digits. Posterior elements (little finger/ulna) are formed EARLY prior to anterior elements which are formed LATE (radius/thumb). Disruption of AP patterning will result in loss of later forming elements (radius/thumb).
Al-Qattan et al. reviewed embryology of the upper limb. They summarized that embryology of the upper limb can be viewed in 2 distinct ways: the steps of limb development and the way that the limb is patterned along its 3 spatial axes. Cell signaling plays a major role in regulating growth and patterning of the vertebrate limbs. Signaling cell dysfunction results in congenital differences according to the affected signaling axis.
Illustration A shows an experiment to create ulnar dimelia by adding ZPA tissue to the anterior limb bud. The video shows development of the limb.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 77

A 44-year-old patient who has had a proximal first metatarsal osteotomy has recurrent pain and difficulty wearing many types of shoes. Radiographs show a large 1-2 intermetatarsal angle (IMA).





Explanation

Question 78

A 51-year-old man sustained an open fracture of his tibia in Korea 42 years ago. An infection developed and it was resolved with surgical treatment. For the past 6 months, an ulcer with mild drainage has developed over the medial tibia. The ulcer is small and there is minimal erythema at the ulcer site. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 43a and Figure 43b. Initial cultures show Staphylococcus aureus susceptible to the most appropriate antibiotics. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 70 mm/h. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment at this time? Review Topic





Explanation

The patient has chronic tibial osteomyelitis that is due to low virulent bacteria. The history and studies do not suggest the need for an amputation or a free-flap procedure. This is a localized tibial infection that is in a healed bone; there is no need to resect the entire area of the tibia bone around the infection. The most appropriate treatment is curettage, debridement of nonviable bone, and placement of absorbable antibiotic beads, followed by a course of IV antibiotics from 1 to 4 weeks and a 6-week course of oral antibiotics. Studies have shown that in cases of localized osteomyelitis that are of low virulence, as little as 1 week of IV antibiotics followed by 6 weeks of oral antibiotics is successful.

Question 79

A 25-year-old semiprofessional football player sustains a hyperextension injury to the left foot. He is unable to bear weight. Examination reveals tenderness along the midfoot with swelling and plantar ecchymosis. Radiographs are negative. What is the next step in evaluation of this patient?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a suspected Lisfranc sprain based on the plantar ecchymosis.  The first step in diagnosis is a dynamic radiographic study.  This should include a physician-assisted midfoot stress examination or standing weight-bearing radiographs to evaluate for displacement.  There is no evidence of compartment syndrome, and a bone scan, CT, and MRI are expensive tests that are not warranted.
REFERENCES: Early JS: Fractures and dislocations of the midfoot and forefoot, in Bucholz R, Heckman JD, Court-Brown CM (eds): Rockwood and Green’s Fractures in Adults.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2006, pp 2337-2400.
Hunt SA, Ropiak C, Tejwani NC: Lisfranc joint injuries: Diagnosis and treatment.  Am J Orthop 2006;35:376-385.

Question 80

  • A 16-year-old girl who swims on her high school team reports pain in the shoulder after swimming. History reveals a glenohumeral dislocation at age 14 years while doing the backstroke. Examination shows a positive anterior apprehension sign. Treatment at this time should consist of





Explanation

p.579: “The Putti-Platt procedure is contraindicated in multidirectional instability (AMBRI); tightening the front of the shoulder will only increase the likelihood of posterior instability. In traumatic instability (TUBS) the data suggest that such a procedure, which limits external rotation is not necessary if the Bankart lesion is solidly repaired.”
p. 577: “A vigorous effort to stabilize the shoulder with exercises is particularly indicated in patients with multidirectional or posterior instability and in athletes requiring a completely normal or supranormal range of motion.”
p. 989: “If the [swimmer] has symptoms of subluxation, a conservative program that strengthens the external rotators is warranted. Surgery is seldom indicated.”

Question 81

When the data are normally distributed, what statistical test is best used to compare means of three or more independent groups?





Explanation

Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is used to compare means of three or more independent groups with continuous variables that are normally distributed (eg, age, weight, height, etc). Kaplan-Meier analysis is used to analyze survivorship of subjects or products in an outcome study. Chi-square test is used to compare proportions for categorical variables. Meta-analysis is a systematic review method to analyze combined results of several independent studies, usually randomized clinical trials. Log rank is a statistical test to compare survivorship.

Question 82

Figure 14 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who underwent prosthetic arthroplasty 8 years ago and has now become symptomatic again over the past 18 months. A WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are within normal limits, and aspiration of the glenohumeral joint yields a negative Gram stain and cultures. Which of the following procedures will most likely provide the best pain relief and function?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Simple removal of the loose glenoid component or removal of the loose component followed by implantation of a new glenoid component are both appropriate treatment choices, depending on the remaining glenoid bone stock.  However, removal and reimplantation appears to provide the most predictable pain relief and better function than removal alone.
REFERENCES: Antuna SA, Sperling JW, Cofield RH, et al: Glenoid revision surgery after total shoulder arthroplasty.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:217-224.
Rodosky MW, Bigliani LU: Surgical treatment of non-constrained glenoid component failure.  Oper Tech Orth 1994;4:226-236.

Question 83

When a patient has recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a bony glenoid reconstructive procedure should be considered in which clinical setting?




Explanation

HAGL lesions may initially be treated without surgery. Recurrent instability in the setting of a HAGL lesion may be treated with a soft-tissue repair. A non-engaging or non-tracking Hill-Sachs lesion may be treated with an anterior soft-tissue (Bankart) repair. A tracking or engaging lesion may be treated with a bony glenoid procedure or a soft-tissue procedure plus remplissage. An ALPSA lesion may be treated with a soft-tissue procedure unless it is associated with a glenoid bony defect >25%. A glenoid bony defect >25% is associated with substantially higher recurrence than defects <20%, and consideration for bony glenoid reconstruction is advised. Consideration of bone augmentation procedures with less severe glenoid bone loss may be considered
 in collision athletes.

Question 84

Figures 23a and 23b show the radiograph and clinical photograph of a patient who reports a reduced ability to flex the interphalangeal joint of her great toe after undergoing a Chevron-Akin bunionectomy. What is the most likely cause?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The flexor hallucis longus tendon is at risk during a Chevron-Akin osteotomy because of its close relationship to the base of the proximal phalanx.  The radiograph reveals a reduced ability to flex the interphalangeal joint secondary to the flexor hallucis longus laceration.  The other complications are not supported by the radiograph.
REFERENCES: Tollison ME, Baxter DE: Combination chevron plus Akin osteotomy for hallux valgus: Should age be a limiting factor?  Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:477-481.
Scaduto AA, Cracchiolo A III: Lacerations and ruptures of the flexor or extensor hallucis longus tendons.  Foot Ankle Clin 2000;5:725-736.

Question 85

A 47-year-old woman falls and sustains a direct blow to her middle finger. She notes pain and swelling and is unable to move the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) or distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. Radiographs are shown in Figures 8a through 8c. Proper management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The oblique nature of the fracture and extension of the fracture to the condyles implies an unstable fracture.  Lag screw fixation provides an excellent chance of union, and the ability to start early range of motion.
REFERENCES: Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green’s Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 281.
Kozin SH, Thoder JJ, Lieberman G: Operative treatment of metacarpal and phalangeal shaft fractures.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:111-121.

Question 86

Which of the following structures is at risk during proximal dissection of a single lateral perifibular approach for compartment syndrome of the leg?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The perifibular approach is carried out through a straight lateral incision beginning just posterior and parallel to the fibula from the fibular head to the tip of the lateral malleolus. At the proximal end of the incision, the common peroneal nerve must be identified and protected. Elevation of the soleus off the posterior fibula ensures proper deep compartment release. The anterior edge of the incision is then retracted to expose the anterior and lateral compartments, and at this point, care must be taken to avoid the superficial peroneal nerve as it exits the fascia of the lateral compartment and runs anterior in the distal third of the leg. The referenced article by Whitesides is a review of compartment syndrome pathology, diagnosis, and treatment.

Question 87

A 28-year-old man has left knee pain after a snow skiing accident. The MRI scan shown in Figure 47 reveals which of the following? Review Topic





Explanation

Bone bruises are often noted on MRI after anterior cruciate and medial collateral ligament injuries. The significance of these injuries awaits long-term follow-up studies. The areas of increased signal on T2-weighted images represent areas of acute hemorrhage and are secondary to microfractures of the adjacent medullary trabeculae.

Question 88

When comparing arthroscopic lavage and knee debridement with placebo in patients with chronic symptomatic osteoarthritis, what outcome has been demonstrated?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Excluding  a  diagnosis  of  meniscal  tear,  loose  body,  or  mechanical  derangement,  treating  knee osteoarthritis of indeterminate cause with arthroscopic lavage and debridement has been found to provide no discernable benefit to offset the risk of surgery. The effects of arthroscopy have not been clinically significant in the vast majority of patient-oriented outcomes measures for pain and function at multiple
times between 1 week and 2 years after surgery.

Question 89

A direct lateral (Hardinge) approach is used during total hip arthroplasty. The structure labeled A in Figure 7 is the





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The superior gluteal nerve is located approximately 7.82 cm above the tip of the greater trochanter as it courses through the gluteus medius.  This anatomic consideration is relevant during a Hardinge approach to the hip, where excessive proximal dissection or retraction could result in nerve injury.  A split of the gluteus medius of no more than 4 cm above the greater trochanter is considered safe.
REFERENCES: Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, pp 333-335.
Ramesh M, O’Byrne JM, McCarthy N, et al: Damage to the superior gluteal nerve after the Hardinge approach to the hip.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1996;78:903-906.

Question 90

A 45-year-old man reports severe discomfort following a twisting injury to his right ankle and foot. Plain radiographs are negative; however, the CT scans shown in Figures 39a and 39b reveal a fracture. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The CT scans show a fracture of the anterior process of the calcaneus that involves less than 25% of the joint surface with minimal to no displacement.  The preferred treatment is external immobilization in either a walking cast or, more typically, a removable cast boot.  For larger fractures that involve more than 25% of the articular surface with joint incongruity, open reduction and internal fixation may be indicated.  Primary calcaneocuboid joint arthrodesis is not warranted because symptoms are rare in most patients.  Delayed excision of the fragment is a late reconstructive option if painful nonunion develops.  Percutaneous pin fixation is not indicated beceause there tends to be inherent stability in this fracture.
REFERENCES: Heckman JD: Fractures and dislocations in the foot, in Rockwood CA Jr, Green DP, Bucholz RW, Heckman JD (eds): Rockwood and Green’s Fractures in Adults, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 2267-2405.
Juliano TJ, Myerson MS: Fractures of the hindfoot, in Myerson MS (ed): Foot and Ankle Disorders.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 1297-1340.

Question 91

-Where is the physis with the highest growth rate (in mm per year) located?




Explanation

Question 92

What molecules have been shown to promote fibrosis during muscle injury?




Explanation

A muscle's response to injury can be divided into 4 phases: necrosis, inflammation, repair, and fibrosis. Necrosis involves the degeneration of the muscle fibrils and death. The inflammatory cells then phagocytose the debris and secrete cytokines that promote vascularity. Muscle regeneration does not occur until phagocytic cells remove the debris. Consequently, anti-inflammatory drugs may have negative effects on muscle healing by inhibiting macrophage-induced phagocytosis. Muscle fibrosis occurs at the same time as muscle regeneration and has been shown to involve TGF-ß1. IGF-1 and bFGF are important trophic factors in muscle regeneration. Bone morphogenetic protein has several functions including bone and cartilage regeneration.

Question 93

Which of the following therapies has a direct anabolic effect on bone?





Explanation

Bisphosphonates are antiresorptive agents that act by targeting osteoclatic bone resorption. Calcitonin also inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption. Excessive cortisol decreases intestinal calcium absorption, increases calcium loss from the kidney, inhibits bone matrix formation, and causes secondary hyperparathyroidism. TNF-a inhibits osteoblastic activity and enhances osteoclastic bone resorption. Intermittent administration of PTH isoforms is anabolic, whereas persistent elevated levels of PTH promotes bone resorption.

Question 94

Recurrence of this deformity after initial treatment should be treated with




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Single nuclear polymorphism (SNP) on chromosome 12q24.31, an intergenic SNP, is the PITX1-TBX4 transcriptional pathway that codes for hindfoot formation and is associated with clubfoot. The COLIA-1 gene is related to osteoporosis. Mutations in EXT genes that control formation of tumors cause multiple hereditary exostosis. Mutations in the COL5A or COL3A genes are associated with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. All idiopathic clubfeet involve abnormalities of or around the talus.
The classic Ponseti technique is associated with a low recurrence rate when followed precisely. The most common reason for recurrence is noncompliance with postsurgical bracing. The initial treatment for recurrence after Ponseti casting is recasting.
NCOA2 fusion transcripts has been noted in mesenchymal chondrosarcoma. Ring chromosomes with CDK4 and MDM2 amplification may be identified with low-grade central osteosarcoma or parosteal osteosarcoma. Fusion transcripts of CDH11-USP6 have been observed in aneurysmal bone cysts.

Video 85
CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 82 THROUGH 85
Figures 82a and 82b are the radiographs of a 10-year-old girl who was an unrestrained back seat passenger in a motor vehicle collision. Her sole injury is to her left leg. She has a deformed valgus knee with lateral swelling and bruising, and no wound is visible. Upon examination, she has symmetric pulses to her right leg but diminished sensation on the dorsum of the foot and in the first web space. She cannot dorsiflex her left foot or toes but can plantar flex and invert them. Weak ankle eversion is present. Sensation to the plantar foot, medial ankle, and lateral ankle is intact. She likely will reach skeletal maturity at age 14.

Question 95

A 22-year-old woman has had progressive upper extremity weakness for the past several years. History reveals no pain in her neck or shoulders. Examination reveals scapular winging of both shoulders and weakness in external rotation. She can abduct to only 120 degrees bilaterally, and there is mild supraspinatus weakness. She is otherwise neurologically intact with normal sensation and reflexes; however, she has difficulty whistling. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 14. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Progressive weakness is a common sign with a large differential diagnosis.  Nerve, muscle, and joint problems should be excluded when a patient has diffuse weakness and atrophy.  Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy is a rare disease characterized by facial muscle weakness and proximal shoulder muscle weakness.  The weakness is usually bilateral, and scapular winging is common.  If the scapular winging becomes pronounced, elevation of the shoulder can be affected.  In severe cases, scapulothoracic fusion or pectoralis muscle transfer to the scapula may be indicated.  Duchenne muscular dystrophy is typically severe and progressive.  The other diagnoses are not compatible with the history or the physical findings.
REFERENCES: Shapiro F, Specht L: The diagnosis and orthopaedic treatment of inherited muscular diseases of childhood.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:439-454.
Bunch WH, Siegel IM: Scapulothoracic arthrodesis in fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy: Review of seventeen procedures with three to twenty-one-year follow-up.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:372-376.

Question 96

A patient who sustained a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) 18 months ago has a long-standing spastic adduction contracture of the shoulder with a rigid block to passive external rotation. Significant hygiene problems exist with maceration and continued skin breakdown. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Following a CVA, the muscular imbalance often leads to a fixed contracture of the shoulder in adduction, internal rotation, and flexion.  The responsible muscles include the pectoralis major, subscapularis, teres major, and latissimus dorsi.  If stretching cannot produce enough improvement for axillary hygiene, then surgery is an option.  If the shoulder resists external rotation during examination with the arm at the side, as in this patient, then the subscapularis is spastic and contributing to the deformity as well and needs to be released along with the pectoralis.  Phenol nerve blocks are most effective and best given within 6 months of the initial CVA to be effective.  Lidocaine blocks may be helpful in determining whether a deformity is caused by a fixed soft-tissue contracture or by spasticity but play no role once the contracture is present.  The modified L’Episcopo procedure is indicated in patients with contracture secondary to brachial plexus birth palsies.
REFERENCES: Braun RM, Botte MJ: Treatment of shoulder deformity in acquired spasticity.  Clin Orthop 1999;368:54-65.
McCollough NC III: Orthopaedic evaluation and treatment of the stroke patient.  Instr Course Lect 1975;24:45-55.

Question 97

Figures 29a and 29b show the AP and lateral radiographs of a 30-year-old man who has increasingly worse back pain and stiffness. Examination shows painful, limited spinal range of motion. There is no neurologic deficit. What laboratory study would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show ankylosing spondylitis with sclerosis of the sacroiliac joints and a “bamboo spine” in the lumbar region.  HLA-B27 is positive in 80% to 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and in about 8% of the general population.  The findings do not represent diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH), which is a radiographic diagnosis in which there are three consecutive levels of nonmarginated osteophytes without disk degeneration.
REFERENCES: Calin A: Ankylosing spondylitis.  Clin Rheum Dis 1985;11:41-60.
Booth R, Simpson J, Herkowitz H: Arthritis of the spine, in Herkowitz HH (ed): The Spine, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, p 431.
van der Linden S, Valkenburg H, Cats A: The risk of developing ankylosing spondylitis in HLA-B27 positive individuals: A family and population study.  Br J Rheumatol 1983;22:18-19.

Question 98

Figures below show the radiographs, MRI, and MR arthrogram obtained from a 25-year-old collegiate soccer player who has new-onset left groin pain. He played competitive soccer from a young age and has competed or practiced 5 to 6 times per week since the age of 10. He denies any specific hip injury that necessitated treatment, but his trainer contends that he had a groin pull. He reports groin pain with passive flexion and internal rotation of the left hip, and his hip has less internal rotation than his asymptomatic right hip. He is otherwise healthy. What is the primary cause of a cam deformity?




Explanation

Multiple studies have confirmed that cam or pincer anatomy is commonly present in asymptomatic hips. According to a large systematic review, cam deformities are present in approximately one-third of asymptomatic hips in young adults, and the proportion is higher than 50% in the subgroup of athletes. Ganz and associates proposed that femoral acetabular impingement is the root cause of osteoarthritis in most nontraumatic, nondysplastic hips, and functional improvement with surgical correction of the deformity has been demonstrated. Despite the link between cam deformity and hip osteoarthritis, a corresponding link between the correction of the deformity and prevention of osteoarthritis has never been proven. The results of cam deformity correction, typically including repair of the degenerative labral tear, are much poorer when substantial joint space loss is present. A typical joint space cutoff of 2 mm or less is used to recommend against hip preservation surgery.

Question 99

  • Which of the following methods of treatment of a displaced Lisfranc fracture-dislocation will most reliably lead to good functional results?





Explanation

It is recommended that If ligament injury is documented in the presence or absence of fracture, open reduction and internal fixation should be performed. According to gossans and De Stoop, who studied 20 patients with Lisfranc injuries, 5 of 7 had a poor outcome with plaster immobilization, 1 out of 2 had a poor outcome with reduction and plaster, and 7 out of I 1 had a good result with ORIF. 2 of these had a poor result, and 2 had injuries severe enough to result in amputation due to Clostridium infection secondary to open fractures.

Question 100

Figure 56 is the MR image of a 20-year-old Division I baseball pitcher who has a 1-month history of medial elbow pain in his throwing arm. He also notes a decrease in both control and pitching velocity. An examination reveals tenderness at the medial epicondyle that is exacerbated with valgus elbow stress. The strongest indication for ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction is




Explanation

DISCUSSION
All responses represent findings that may be associated with chronic UCL insufficiency. Responses 1 and 3 reflect injury to the UCL itself. In most patients, particularly young patients, UCL reconstruction should not be considered until an appropriate trial of nonsurgical measures has failed. This trial should include, at a minimum, 6 weeks of throwing abstinence followed by rehabilitation to address pitching mechanics and shoulder motion deficits and core strengthening. Although the decision to enter the MLB draft may influence surgical decision making, a pitcher with a 1-month history of elbow symptoms should attempt nonsurgical therapy before making a surgical decision that is not based on clinical data.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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