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Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: Arthroplasty, Trauma & Spine Part 255

Orthopedic Board Review MCQs: Trauma, Arthroplasty & Foot Surgery | Part 245

27 Apr 2026 212 min read 59 Views
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: AAOS Master Bank Part 245

Key Takeaway

This page presents Part 245 of a professional orthopedic surgery board review quiz. Designed for orthopedic surgeons and residents, it offers 100 high-yield, verified MCQs. Content mirrors OITE/AAOS exam format, covering key topics like Arthroplasty, Fracture, Hip, Knee, and Trauma, to ensure rigorous board certification preparation.

About This Board Review Set

This is Part 245 of the comprehensive OITE and AAOS Orthopedic Surgery Board Review series authored by Dr. Mohammed Hutaif, Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon.

This set has been strictly audited and contains 100 100% verified, high-yield multiple-choice questions (MCQs) modelled on the exact format of the Orthopaedic In-Training Examination (OITE) and the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) board examinations.

How to Use the Interactive Quiz

Two distinct learning modes are available:

  • Study Mode — After selecting an answer, you immediately see whether you are correct or incorrect, together with a full clinical explanation and literature references.
  • Exam Mode — All feedback is hidden until you click Submit & See Results. A live timer tracks elapsed time. A percentage score and detailed breakdown are displayed upon submission.

Pro Tip: Use keyboard shortcuts A–E to select options, F to flag a question for review, and Enter to jump to the next unanswered question.

Topics Covered in Part 245

This module focuses heavily on: Arthroplasty, Foot, Fracture, Hip, Knee, Trauma.

Sample Questions from This Set

Sample Question 1: Which of the following studies best increases the ability to diagnose femoral neck fractures in patients with femoral shaft fractures?...

Sample Question 2: A 19-year-old female long-distance runner has an incomplete tension-side femoral neck stress fracture. Management should consist of...

Sample Question 3: A 68-year-old woman had advanced right knee arthritis and total knee replacement was planned. She learned she had primary biliary cirrhosis at age 41 and now has advancing liver failure. Preoperative coagulation tests show a baseline Intern...

Sample Question 4: A 35-year-old man is seen in the emergency department with a bullet wound to the foot that occurred 2 hours ago. Examination reveals a 0.5-cm entrance wound on the dorsum of the foot and a 1.5-cm exit wound on the plantar aspect. Exploratio...

Sample Question 5: A 62-year-old woman reports diffuse aches and pains of the hip and pelvis. She denies any significant trauma but does have a history of chronic anemia. Figure 17a shows a radiograph of the pelvis, and Figures 17b and 17c show T 2 -weighted ...

Why Active MCQ Practice Works

Evidence consistently demonstrates that active recall through spaced MCQ practice yields substantially greater long-term retention than passive reading alone (Roediger & Karpicke, 2006). All questions in this specific module have been algorithmically verified for clinical integrity and complete explanations.

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

Which of the following studies best increases the ability to diagnose femoral neck fractures in patients with femoral shaft fractures?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Tornetta and associates and Yang and associates found that nearly half of all femoral neck fractures associated with femoral shaft fractures were being missed at their institution.  On the basis of the delayed diagnosis of these injuries, a best-practice protocol was developed by the attending trauma surgeons for the evaluation of the femoral neck in patients with a femoral shaft fracture.  This protocol includes a preoperative AP internal rotation radiograph of the hip, a fine-cut (2-mm) CT scan through the femoral neck (as a part of the initial trauma scan), and an intraoperative fluoroscopic lateral evaluation of the hip just prior to fixation of the femoral shaft.  In addition, postoperative AP and lateral radiographs of the hip are made in the operating room to specifically evaluate the femoral neck before the patient is awakened.  They found that fine-cut CT (2 mm was the best screening tool in this group of patients) identified 12 of the 13 fractures, whereas 8 of the 13 fractures were visible on the dedicated preoperative AP internal rotation hip radiographs. 
REFERENCES: Tornetta P III, Kain MS, Creevy WR: Diagnosis of femoral neck fractures in patients with a femoral shaft fracture: Improvement with a standard protocol.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2007;89:39-43.
Yang KH, Han DY, Park HW, et al: Fracture of the ipsilateral neck of the femur in shaft nailing: The role of CT in diagnosis.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1998;80:673-678.

Question 2

A 19-year-old female long-distance runner has an incomplete tension-side femoral neck stress fracture. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Unlike compression-side stress fractures, tension-side stress fractures on the superior side of the femoral neck are at a very high risk of displacement, even if the patient is not bearing weight.  It is highly recommended to treat these fractures like acute fractures and to proceed with internal fixation emergently.  Once the fracture has displaced, the prognosis is poor in terms of returning to sports, even when reduced and internally fixed.  Nonsurgical management, such as limited weight bearing and low-impact activities, works very well for other lower extremity stress fractures.  A training program evaluation (shoes, tracks, schedule) is always indicated for all patients with stress fractures.  
REFERENCE: Boden BP, Osbahr DC: High-risk stress fractures: Evaluation and treatment.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:344-353.

Question 3

A 68-year-old woman had advanced right knee arthritis and total knee replacement was planned. She learned she had primary biliary cirrhosis at age 41 and now has advancing liver failure. Preoperative coagulation tests show a baseline International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 1.36. Appropriate methods to prevent thromboembolic disease as recommended by the 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty , include




Explanation

The 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty, recommends the use of mechanical prophylaxis for patients at increased risk for bleeding (including those with liver disease or hemophilia). This recommendation is the consensus of the workgroup that established these guidelines because there was insufficient evidence to justify a stronger recommendation in this clinical scenario. The other responses use no prophylaxis or pharmacological prophylaxis. Pharmacological prophylaxis is not recommended in patients who are at increased risk for bleeding.

Question 4

A 35-year-old man is seen in the emergency department with a bullet wound to the foot that occurred 2 hours ago. Examination reveals a 0.5-cm entrance wound on the dorsum of the foot and a 1.5-cm exit wound on the plantar aspect. Exploration of the plantar wound in the emergency department reveals bone and metal fragments. Radiographs reveal a comminuted, unstable fracture of the base of the first metatarsal and cuneiform. Management should consist of tetanus toxoid, and





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient sustained a type I unstable fracture that requires debridement of superficial fragments from the sole and surgical stabilization.  Low-velocity wounds less than 8 hours old are considered type I open fractures.  In contrast, gunshot wounds with associated fractures more than 8 hours old are considered type II open fractures using the Gustilo and Anderson classification.  Gustilo type I stable fractures due to gunshot wounds and seen within 8 hours can be treated with tetanus toxoid (if no history of immunization or booster within 5 years), surface irrigation, and casting or a hard sole shoe.  Antibiotics are not required unless gross contamination is present.  However, if the extent of contamination is unclear, or if a joint is penetrated, then routine antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended.  Indications for surgery include: articular involvement, unstable fractures, presentation 8 or more hours after injury, tendon involvement, and superficial fragments in the palm or sole.  Type I unstable fractures may be stabilized with internal or external fixation.  Type II unstable fractures should be treated with external fixation and repeat debridements until clean.
REFERENCES: Holmes GB Jr: Gunshot wounds of the foot.  Clin Orthop Relat Res

2003;408:86-91.

Bartlett CS, Helfet DL, Hausman MR, et al: Ballistics and gunshot wounds: Effects on musculoskeletal tissues.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2000;8:21-36.

Question 5

A 62-year-old woman reports diffuse aches and pains of the hip and pelvis. She denies any significant trauma but does have a history of chronic anemia. Figure 17a shows a radiograph of the pelvis, and Figures 17b and 17c show T 2 -weighted MRI scans. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals diffuse osteopenia and areas in the proximal femora that are moth-eaten in appearance.  The extent of the marrow-replacing process is evident on the MRI scans, which reveal signal abnormality throughout the entire pelvis and both proximal femora.  This represents a marrow-packing process, of which multiple myeloma is the best choice.  This diagnosis is also supported by the anemia noted on the patient’s history.  Metastatic carcinoma and lymphoma also may have a similar presentation.
REFERENCE: Resnick D (ed): Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders.  Philadelphia, PA,

WB Saunders, 2002, pp 2189-2216.

Question 6

Figure below shows the radiograph obtained from a 68-year-old man who fell 3 weeks after undergoing a successful left primary total hip arthroplasty. He is experiencing a substantial increase in pain and an inability to bear weight. What is an appropriate treatment plan?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The fracture has occurred around the stem, representing a Vancouver type B fracture,  and the stem is clearly loose, making it a type B2 fracture. The appropriate treatment is removal of the loose in situ stem; ORIF of the femur using cerclage wires, cables, or a plate; and insertion of a longer revision stem such as a tapered fluted modular titanium or fully porous coated cylindrical stem to bypass the fracture. All of the other options are incorrect, because they represent inappropriate treatment options for a Vancouver type B2 fracture.

Question 7

An 84-year-old female community ambulator with a history of hypertension undergoes a right hip hemiarthroplasty for a femoral neck fracture. When performed in the post-operative period, the timed up and go (TUG) test may be used to predict which patient outcome?





Explanation

The timed up and go (TUG) test may be used as a clinical indicator of function and the need for a walking aid in patients treated with hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture at 2-year follow-up.
Hip fractures are a cause of significant functional decline for elderly patients. Many outcome tests have been developed to prediction function after hip fracture to manage patient expectations and to assist in rehabilitation planning. The TUG test objectively measures functional mobility and dynamic balance. The test is performed by timing the amount of seconds it requires for a patient to stand up from a chair, walk 10ft (3.05m), return to the chair, and sit.
Laflamme et al performed a prospective study evaluating the utility of the TUG test to predict functional outcomes in patients undergoing hip hemiarthroplasty for femoral neck fracture. The TUG scores were significantly higher at 4-days and 3-weeks postoperatively in patients requiring a walking aid compared with patients walking independently at two-years. Patients who performed the test in >58s at 4-days postoperatively had an eightfold greater risk of requiring an assistive device.
Springer et al prospectively analyzed the unipedal stance test (UPST) with eyes open and closed in healthy subjects to establish normative values for the test across age and gender groups. Performance on the test was found to be age-specific and not related to gender. The UPST is a method of quantifying static balance ability.
Kristensen et al studied the relative and absolute inter tester reliability of TUG in patients with hip fractures. The authors found that the TUG has a high interobserver reliability and an improvement by 6.2 seconds for a patient with a baseline of 20s indicates a change in functional mobility.
Video A shows the timed up and go test.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 8

A 55-year-old man who underwent total shoulder arthroplasty 10 years ago recently reports an increase in shoulder pain. Laboratory studies consisting of a white blood cell count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein are all negative, as is joint aspiration. Radiographs are shown in Figures 95a and 95b. If all intraoperative frozen sections are negative, what is the appropriate treatment during revision surgery to provide pain relief and improved function? Review Topic





Explanation

The radiographs reveal a loose glenoid in the setting of no infection. Glenoid removal may give this patient the best chance of improved function and pain relief if sufficient bone stock remains. Bone grafting of defects may allow future glenoid implantation. Conversion to reverse shoulder arthroplasty would be a salvage procedure in this younger patient. Shoulder arthrodesis would be difficult and unpredictable after shoulder arthroplasty.

Question 9

Where is the most common site for tuberculosis (TB) spondylitis in children? Review Topic





Explanation

In children, the main route of infection in skeletal TB is through hematogenous spread from a primary source. The mycobacterium is deposited in the end arterials in the vertebral body adjacent to the anterior aspect of the vertebral end plate. Thus, the anterior portion of the vertebral body is most commonly involved. The lower thoracic region is the most common segment; next in decreasing order of frequency are the lumbar, upper thoracic, cervical, and sacral regions.

Question 10

During a revision total knee arthroplasty (TKA), there is difficulty gaining exposure and a tibial tubercle osteotomy (TTO) is performed. The final components are stable and include a stemmed tibial component that bypasses the osteotomy site. The tibial tubercle is reattached to the osteotomy site with multiple cerclage wires. Following closure of the arthrotomy, the knee is flexed to 90 degrees, and there is no observed displacement of the TTO. What is the best next step in postsurgical rehabilitation?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
TTO is a recognized technique for improving exposure when performing TKA in a stiff knee. TTO has been reported to enhance surgical exposure and not adversely affect outcomes after TKA, but there is a 5% complication rate. The postsurgical routine following TTO
includes full weight-bearing activity and range of motion as tolerated. Caution should be exercised when manipulation is performed to improve knee flexion following a TTO.

Question 11

A 55-year-old woman with type I diabetes mellitus has a chronic ulcer over the dorsum of her right foot and reports forefoot pain. Examination reveals 1- x 2-cm nondraining ulcer over the dorsum of the foot. The patient has 1-2+ pain with compression of the foot and ankle. She has a weakly palpable posterior tibial pulse and an absent dorsalis pedis pulse. There is no erythema, cellulitis, or drainage. Radiographs are normal. Which of the following diagnostic studies should be obtained?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The presence of a dorsal ulcer in the presence of weak or absent pulses strongly suggests the possibility of arterial insufficiency.  The best initial noninvasive study to assess for ischemia is the Doppler arterial study.  A determination of the vascular status is of a greater priority than an assessment for infection or neuropathy because of the location and presentation of the ulcer.  If ankle pressures are less than 45 mm Hg, there is a high risk that these lesions will not heal without revascularization.
REFERENCES: Wagner FW Jr: The dysvascular foot: A system for diagnosis and treatment.  Foot Ankle 1981;2:64-122.
Apelqvist J, Castenfors J, Larson J, Stenstrom A, Agardh CD: Prognostic value of systolic ankle and toe blood pressure levels in outcome of diabetic foot ulcer.  Diabetes Care 1989;12:373-378.

Question 12

A 3-year-old girl has had wrist pain, a fever, and has refused to move her right wrist for the past 10 days. She has an oral temperature of 102 degrees F (38.7 degree C). Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 50 mm/h, a WBC count of 11,000/mm 3 , and a left shift. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 57a and 57b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most likely diagnosis is acute osteomyelitis.  She may also have a septic wrist; however, the lytic lesion in the distal radius has the typical presentation and radiographic appearance of metaphyseal osteomyelitis.  In this area of sluggish vascular flow, low oxygen tension, and low pH, bacterial seeding is common and is the usual origin of metaphyseal osteomyelitis.  Leukemia and Ewing’s sarcoma can present as a lytic lesion with an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, but they are much less common than osteomyelitis and are less focal and more destructive in appearance.  Nonossifying fibroma is typically metaphyseal and eccentric; however, it is well circumscribed and uncommon in the upper extremity.  Eosinophilic granuloma does not typically present with inflammatory indicies.
REFERENCES: Dormans JP, Drummond DS: Pediatric hematogenous osteomyelitis: New trends in presentation, diagnosis and treatment.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:333-341.
Song KM, Sloboda JF: Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in children.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:166-175.

Question 13

Compared to eumenorrheic athletes, amenorrheic athletes have more frequent occurrences of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In secondary amenorrhea, women do not receive the estrogen needed to maintain adequate bone mineralization.  This hypoestrogenic state affects bone density, and there is evidence that stress fractures are more frequent in amenorrheic than eumenorrheic athletes.  The other conditions are not seen with increased frequency in amenorrheic athletes.
REFERENCES: Warren MP: Health issues for women athletes: Exercise-induced amenorrhea. 
J Clin Endocrinol Metab 1999;84:1892-1896.
Rencken ML, Chesnut CH III, Drinkwater BL: Bone density at multiple skeletal sites in amenorrheic athletes.  JAMA 1996;276:238-240.

Question 14

Which is the best initial study for the diagnostic evaluation of diskogenic low back pain? Review Topic





Explanation

Radiography is the best initial study for the evaluation of diskogenic low back pain. The normal degenerative process can be evaluated. Vacuum phenomenon may be found within the disk space. Other possible sources for back pain should also be evaluated. The other tests may be beneficial but represent later imaging options.

Question 15

A 71-year-old woman has a failed revision hip arthroplasty and is undergoing a re-revision hip arthroplasty. Her last hip surgery was 4 years ago with revision of the acetabular component. Radiographs show a well-fixed extensively porous-coated femoral component and a failed acetabular component with proximal and medial migration through the floor of the acetabulum. Preoperative laboratory studies reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 70 mm/h (normal 0-29 mm/h), a C-reactive protein (CRP) of 23.3 (normal 0.2-8.0), and a negative hip aspiration. At the time of surgery, tissues look inflamed and a frozen section shows 20 WBC per high power field; however, a Gram stain is negative. What is the most appropriate action at this point?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Despite the negative aspiration preoperatively, intraoperative findings are suspicious for infection. Additionally, the preoperative blood work is also concerning for infection with an elevated CRP and ESR. The frozen section is also positive. Most important is the unreliability of the Gram stain. Numerous investigators have show high false negative rates for Gram stain in chronic periprosthetic infection. The Gram stain should not be relied on for decision-making in revision surgery, particularly when other investigations point to infection. With the information available, the diagnosis is deep infection. The best course of action is to obtain cultures, remove the implants, and insert an antibiotic spacer. Only obtaining cultures and closing would require a second operation to remove the implants if the cultures are positive.
REFERENCES: Sanzen L, Sundberg M: Periprosthetic low-grade hip infections: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein in 23 cases. Acta Orthop Scand 1997;68:461-465.
Spangehl MJ, Hanssen AD, Osman DR: Diagnosis and treatment of the infected hip arthroplasty, in Morrey BF(edA)L:-MJoaidnetnaRCeopplyacement Arthroplasty, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Churchill Livingstone, 2003, pp 856-874. Question 71
A 79-year-old patient has a history of peripheral vascular disease and reports chronic knee pain. She has had coronary artery disease treated with angiography and stents on two occasions. Peripheral pulses are absent in both lower extremities, but the patient is disabled by advanced chronic degenerative arthritis in her right knee and would like to proceed with a total knee arthroplasty. The next most appropriate evaluation should include which of the following?
Ankle-brachial index of the affected lower extremity
Femoral popliteal angiography
Venous Dopplers of both lower extremities
MRI of the popliteal fossa
Radiographs to identify calcified plaques in the femoral artery
DISCUSSION: This question is designed to draw attention to the fact that peripheral vascular disease carries an increased risk of complications for the patient and should be carefully evaluated. The vascular surgeon will make the choice of revascularization or surgical clearance for knee reconstruction based on the initial results of the ankle-brachial index.

REFERENCE: Smith DE, McGraw RW, Taylor DC, et al: Arterial complications and total knee arthroplasty. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001 ;9:253-257.

Question 16

A 3-year-old boy sustains a complete paralysis following a high thoracic spinal cord injury consistent with a SCIWORA-type injury (spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality). Subsequent progressive spinal deformity will develop in what percent of patients with this injury?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Spinal cord injury in skeletally immature patients almost always leads to the development of paralytic spinal deformity.  The age at injury is the most important factor affecting the development of scoliosis.  Spinal cord injury that occurs more than 1 year prior to skeletal maturity is almost always followed by the development of scoliosis.  In one study, scoliosis developed in 100% of children who were younger than age 10 years at the time of spinal cord injury.  Scoliosis can occur after injury at any level.  Spasticity is often a contributing factor.  Up to two thirds of patients who have paralytic scoliosis prior to skeletal maturity will eventually require surgery for curve control.
REFERENCES: Mayfield JK, Erkkila JC, Winter RB: Spine deformity subsequent to acquired childhood spinal cord injury. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:1401-1411.
Lancourt JE, Dickson JH, Carter RE: Paralytic spinal deformity following traumatic spinal cord injury in children and adolescents. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:47-53.
Dearolf WW III, Betz RR, Vogel LC, Levin J, Clancy M, Steel HH: Scoliosis in pediatric spinal cord injured patients.  J Pediatr Orthop 1990;10:214-218. 

Question 17

Figure 53 shows the pedigree of a family with an unusual type of muscular dystrophy. This pedigree is most consistent with what type of inheritance pattern?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The pedigree documents involvement of male offspring only, and it also shows transmission through an uninvolved female carrier.  This inheritance pattern is most consistent with a x-linked recessive inheritance.  It would be inconsistent with a dominant inheritance pattern unless there was incomplete penetrance.  Autosomal-recessive inheritance would be possible only if the family member labeled II.F was also a carrier of the same gene; however, this is unlikely.  Mitochondrial inheritance is possible, but as with autosomal patterns, mitochondrial inheritance normally affects both male and female offspring.  It is transmitted only through the maternal line.  
REFERENCE: Gelehrter TD, Collins FS: Principles of Medical Genetics.  Baltimore, Md, Williams & Wilkins, 1990, pp 27-45.

Question 18

An 19-year-old male presents to the emergency room following an motor vehicle accident as an unrestrained driver. Examination reveals unilateral jugular vein engorgement. Chest and special view radiographs are seen in Figures A and B respectively. Following CT scan of the chest, the next step in management is Review Topic





Explanation

This patient has a right posterior sternoclavicular (SC) dislocation. Management involves closed reduction and bracing. Closed reduction should be performed with a thoracic surgeon available in the event of mediastinal involvement.
The SC joint can dislocate anteriorly or posteriorly. Posterior dislocations are first treated with closed reduction. If closed reduction fails, open reduction is indicated. Early complications of posterior SC dislocation include pneumothorax, laceration/erosion/occlusion of great vessels, esophageal rupture and brachial plexus compression. Late complications include tracheoesophageal fistula, stridor and dysphagia.
Groh et al. reviewed traumatic SC injuries. Reduction maneuvers in posterior SC dislocation include: (1) traction on the arm and slowly bringing it into extension, (2) traction with the arm in adduction and posterior pressure applied to the shoulder, and
(3) pulling anteriorly on a towel clip encircling the medial clavicle. Chronic instability after posterior SC dislocations can be managed with figure-of-8 semitendinosus graft or medial clavicle resection and reattachment of the clavicle to the first rib with dacron tape.
Glass et al. performed a systematic review on SC dislocations. They found mediastinal compression occurred 30% of the time with posterior dislocations.
Figures A and B are radiographs demonstrating asymmetry of the SC joints, characteristic of a right posterior SC dislocation (Figure B is not a serendipity view). Illustration A demonstrates how in POSTERIOR dislocation, the clavicle appears INFERIOR, and in ANTERIOR dislocation, the clavicle appears SUPERIOR on a serendipity view radiograph respectively. Illustration B shows the imaging technique for a serendipity view radiograph. Illustration C is a reconstructed CT image of the patient showing left posterior SC dislocation.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 19

A 12-year-old boy who pitches on two “select” baseball teams has had pain in his dominant right shoulder for the past 6 weeks. The pain is present only with throwing and is associated with decreased throwing velocity and control. He has no radiation of pain or paraesthesias of the upper extremity. An AP radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 19a and 19b, respectively. Management should consist of Review Topic





Explanation

The imaging study demonstrates characteristics of Little Leaguer’s shoulder, including physeal widening. This condition is secondary to overuse (typically throwing) and responds well to rest from the inciting activity. There is no evidence from the patient’s history or examination that he has an impingement syndrome, nor is there any indication of labral pathology on the MRI scan. The changes in the proximal humerus are classic for this condition and are not suggestive of a neoplastic process requiring biopsy for definitive diagnosis.

Question 20

Up to what time frame are the risks minimized in anterior revision disk replacement surgery?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Revision anterior exposure within 2 weeks of total disk replacement incurs relatively little additional morbidity because adhesion formation is minimal.  Surgeons should have a low threshold for revising implants that are clearly dangerously malpositioned or show early migration within this 2-week window.  Beyond this time period, a revision strategy must be individualized to the particular clinical situation.  A posterior fusion with instrumentation with or without a laminectomy is currently the most effective salvage procedure.
REFERENCE: Tortolani JP, McAfee PC, Saiedy S: Failures of lumbar disc replacement.  Sem Spine Surg 2006;18:78-86.

Question 21

  • A 32-year-old man has swelling of the knee as a result of falling with the knee flexed and his foot in plantar flexion. A Lachman’s test reveals an apparent increase in anterior translation. Passive external tibial rotation at 30 degrees and 90 degrees is equal to the contralateral side, and the quadriceps active test is positive on the affected side. The neurovascular examination is normal. Treatment should consist of





Explanation

The question describes a patient with an isolated PCL injury. The mechanism of most athletic PCL injuries is a fall on the flexed knee with the foot in plantar flexion. The results of the physical examination—Lachman’s test with increased anterior translation and a positive quadriceps active test—suggests a PCL injury. The passive external tibial rotation at 30 degrees and 90 degrees being equal to the contralateral side suggest an intact posterolateral corner. In light of these findings, the patient appears to have an isolated PCL injury. In acute isolated posterior cruciate ligament tears with less than 10mm of posterior laxity at 90 degrees of flexion, current knowledge suggests nonoperative treatment that stresses aggressive quadriceps rehabilitation.

Question 22

A complication unique to computer navigation of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Threaded pins are frequently inserted into the femoral shaft and tibial shafts or proximal tibia to attach arrays for tracking devices. There have been case reports of fractures propagating through the pin tracks, which is a complication unique to computer navigation. Intercondylar fractures can occur following posterior stabilized TKA. Vascular injury, ligament disruption, and nerve palsy are rare complications following TKA performed with or without computer navigation.

CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 111 THROUGH 113
Figure 111 is the anteroposterior radiograph of a 79-year-old woman with a presurgical diagnosis of osteonecrosis who sustained a periprosthetic tibia fracture following her total knee arthroplasty (TKA).

Question 23

A patient has pain 2 years after undergoing a metal-on-metal (MOM) left total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which test(s) best correlate with prognosis in the setting of reaction to metal debris?




Explanation

Figures 1 and 2 are the recent radiographs of an 82-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who underwent total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 18 years ago. These radiographs reveal osteolysis with loosening of the tibial component. Aspiration and laboratory study findings for infection are negative. During the revision TKA, treatment of tibial bone loss should consist of

Question 24

What method of spinal fixation requires the largest force to disrupt the bone-implant interface?




Explanation

Pedicle screws have been established to produce a superior bone-implant interface in the nonosteoporotic spine according to numerous studies, but, interestingly, clinical outcomes using the varied implants have not been different.

Question 25

An otherwise healthy 45-year-old woman reports the onset of severe right leg pain. Figure 20a shows an axial MRI scan of the L4-5 level, and Figure 20b shows a sagittal view with the arrow at the L4-5 level. What nerve root is the most likely source of her pain?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The scans show a disk herniation in the far lateral region of the disk.  In particular, the sagittal view shows the herniation adjacent to the exiting L4 nerve root.  Disk herniations in this area that cause symptoms are more likely to compress the nerve exiting at the same level rather than the next most caudal level.
REFERENCES: McCulloch JA: Microdiscectomy, in Frymoyer JW (ed): The Adult Spine: Principles and Practice.  New York, NY, Raven Press, 1991, vol 2, pp 1765-1783. 
Hodges SD, Humphreys SC, Eck JC, Covington LA: The surgical treatment of far lateral L3-L4 and L4-L5 disc herniations: A modified technique and outcomes analysis of 25 patients.  Spine 1999;24:1243-1246.

Question 26

One of the serious potential complications of repair of distal biceps tendon ruptures is limited pronation and supination as a result of synostosis. What surgical approach and technique presents the highest risk for development of this complication?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The risk of synostosis is imminent with any technique for repairing a distal biceps tendon rupture.  However, the risk is quite low for all approaches that avoid exposure of the ulna, including the muscle-splitting two-incision technique.
REFERENCE: Norris TR: Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Shoulder and Elbow.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, p 342.

Question 27

A 65-year-old man has a painful and often audible crepitus after undergoing a total knee arthroplasty 8 months ago. His symptoms are reproduced with active extension of about 30°. Examination reveals no effusion or localized tenderness, a stable knee, and a range of motion of 5° to 120°. Radiographs are shown in Figures 37a and 37b. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: This is a typical presentation of the patellar clunk syndrome.  The syndrome usually follows implantation of a posterior stabilized prosthesis.  It is thought to be the result of femoral component design and altered extensor mechanics.  The condition usually resolves with arthroscopic debridement of the suprapatellar fibrous nodule.  Arthrotomy or revision is seldom warranted.
REFERENCES: Beight JL, Yao B, Hozack WJ, Hearn SL, Booth RE Jr: The patellar “clunk” syndrome after posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty.  Clin Orthop 1994;299:139-142.
Lintner DM, Bocell JR, Tullos HS: Arthroscopic treatment of intra-articular fibrous bands after total knee arthroplasty: A follow-up note.  Clin Orthop 1994;309:230-233.

Question 28

What is the most frequent complication of percutaneous repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Sural nerve entrapment is the major risk of percutaneous repair.  A small mini-open technique with a suture guide can obviate that issue.  Re-rupture rates after surgical repair are approximately 3%.  Infection and wound problems are rarely encountered with percutaneous repair; they are issues with open repair.
REFERENCES: Aracil J, Pina A, Lozano JA, et al: Percutaneous suture of Achilles tendon ruptures.  Foot Ankle 1992;13:350-351.
Sutherland A, Maffulli N: A modified technique of percutaneous repair of the ruptured Achilles tendon.  Oper Orthop Traumatol 1998;10:50-58.
Assal M, Jung M, Stern R, et al: Limited open repair of Achilles tendon ruptures: A technique with a new instrument and findings of a prospective multicenter study.  J Bone Joint Surg Am

2002;84:161-170.

Question 29

A 25-year-old tennis player has shoulder pain and weakness to external rotation. MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What is the most likely cause of his weakness?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scans show a paralabral cyst, which is most commonly associated with labral tears.  Compression of the suprascapular nerve results in weakness of the supraspinatus and/or infraspinatus depending on the level of compression. 
REFERENCES: Piatt BE, Hawkins RJ, Fritz RC, et al: Clinical evaluation and treatment of spinoglenoid notch ganglion cysts.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:600-604.
Inokuchi W, Ogawa K, Horiuchi Y: Magnetic resonance imaging of suprascapular nerve palsy. 

J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1998;7;223-227. 

Question 30

A 4-year-old child sustains a spiral fracture to the tibia in an unwitnessed fall. History reveals three other fractures to long bones, and the parents are vague about the etiology of each. There is no family history of bone disease. The parents ask if the child has osteogenesis imperfecta (OI); however, there are no clinical or radiographic indications of this diagnosis. In addition to fracture care, management should include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Child abuse and OI are frequently both in the differential diagnosis of a child with multiple fractures.  If OI is suspected, testing is appropriate to confirm this diagnosis.  This may include skull radiographs to look for wormian bones and/or fibroblast culturing and collagen analysis of a punch biopsy.  Unfortunately, because of the large number of mutations that can yield the disease, DNA testing is not commercially available for OI.  In this patient, however, the physician suspects nonaccidental trauma and is legally obligated in most states to notify child protective services.  Because the child may be at considerable risk of further injury, hospitalization is indicated to protect the child until child protective services can complete a home investigation and assess the degree of risk.  Work-up for both OI and child abuse can be done during the hospitalization.
REFERENCES: Rockwood CA, Wilkins KE, King RE (eds): Fractures in Children.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, vol 3, pp 173-175. 
Kempe CH, Silverman FN, Stelle BF, Droegemueller W, Silver HK: The battered-child syndrome.  JAMA 1962;181:17-24.
Akbarnia BA, Akbarnia NO: The role of the orthopedist in child abuse and neglect.  Orthop Clin North Am 1976;7:733-742.

Question 31

Figure 177 is an intra-articular photograph taken while viewing from the anterior superior portal during arthroscopy of a right shoulder. Which of the following findings identified at the time of surgery would be the most predictive for recurrence following arthroscopic repair of the demonstrated pathology? Review Topic





Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone deficiency of 35% is most predictive of recurrence. Figure 177 shows an acute tear of the anterior inferior glenoid labrum consistent with a Bankart lesion. It has been clearly shown that there is a direct relationship between failure (ie, recurrent dislocation) of arthroscopic Bankart repair and anterior glenoid bone loss. Anterior glenoid bone loss of greater than 25% in the setting of anterior glenohumeral instability is a relative contraindication to performing arthroscopic stabilization and instead is an indication to perform a bony glenoid augmentation procedure to address the articular arc deficit. Therefore, an anterior bony defect of 35% is the most predictive finding at the time of surgery for recurrent dislocation. An engaging Hill-Sachs deformity has a significant effect on the rate of redislocation, but a nonengaging one should not. An intra-articular loose body, subacromial bursitis, and a partial-thickness articular-sided supraspinatous tear should not lead to an increased risk of recurrent dislocation following Bankart repair.

Question 32

Compared with retention of the native patella in primary total knee arthroplasty, routine patellar resurfacing is associated with




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Despite concerns regarding fracture, osteonecrosis, and patellar clunk, the routine retention of the native patella during primary total knee replacement is associated with a 20% to 30% increased revision risk in
large joint registries. In addition, the retention of the native patella results in a 5.7% revision surgery rate in patients with anterior knee pain.

Question 33

In addition to the radiographic features seen in Figures 49a and 49b, this patient will most likely have which of the following findings?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show the characteristic features of osteopetrosis.  The condition results from defective resorption of immature bone by osteoclasts.  There are three distinct clinical forms: (1) infantile-malignant, which is autosomal recessive and fatal in the first few years of life if untreated; (2) intermediate autosomal recessive; and (3) autosomal dominant.  These conditions do not follow a malignant course, and patients have normal life expectancy with orthopaedic problems and anemia.  In the malignant form, the clinical features include frequent fractures, macrocephaly, progressive deafness and blindness, hepatosplenomegaly, and severe anemia beginning in early infancy or in utero.  Deafness and blindness are generally thought to represent effects of pressure on nerves and usually occur later in life.  The anemia is caused by encroachment of bone on marrow, resulting in obliteration, and the hepatosplenomegaly is caused by compensatory extramedullary hematopoiesis.  Dental caries and abscesses, as well as osteomyelitis of the mandible, are also seen.  Most patients have normal intelligence.  Treatment of the malignant form includes high dose 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D with a low-calcium diet to stimulate bone resorption, not because there are vitamin deficiencies.  Bone marrow transplant has also been successful.
REFERENCES: Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopedics, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, p 1550.
Zaleske DJ: Metabolic and endocrine abnormalities, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2001, pp 212-214.
Kaplan FS, August CS, Fallon MD, et al: Successful treatment of infantile malignant osteopetrosis by bone-marrow transplantation: A case report.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:617-623.  

Question 34

A 47-year-old man is seen in consultation in the ICU after being admitted and treated emergently for a dissecting aortic aneurysm. Current examination reveals generalized weakness of the lower extremities with a significant decrease in pain and temperature sensation from approximately the waist down. Proprioception is maintained. What is the most likely diagnosis at this time? Review Topic





Explanation

Incomplete cord syndromes include anterior cord syndrome, Brown-Sequard syndrome, central cord syndrome, and posterior cord syndrome. The anterior cord syndrome involves a variable loss of motor function and pain and/or temperature sensation, with preservation of proprioception as seen in this patient. The Brown-Sequard syndrome involves an ipsilateral loss of proprioception and motor function, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. The posterior cord syndrome is a rare injury and is characterized by preservation of motor function, sense of pain and light touch, with loss of proprioception and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion. The central cord syndrome is characterized with greater motor weakness in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities. The pattern of motor weakness shows greater distal involvement in the affected extremity than proximal muscle weakness. Spinal shock is the period of time, usually 24 hours, after a spinal injury characterized by absent reflexes, flaccidity, and loss of sensation below the level of the injury.

Question 35

Figures 61a and 61b show the CT and MRI scans of a 40-year-old man who has hip pain. He undergoes total hip arthroplasty and curettage and cementation of the lesion as shown in Figure 61c. Histopathologic photomicrographs of the curettage specimen are shown in Figures 61d and 61e. What is the best course of treatment?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The definitive surgery would be removal of the entire resection bed, and in this case of dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma, a hemipelvectomy was performed.  The MRI and CT scans show an aggressive cartilage lesion.  The histology, representative of a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma, shows a bimorphic low-grade cartilage lesion with high-grade spindle cell sarcoma.  The cartilage lesion is usually an enchondroma or low-grade chondrosarcoma.  The dedifferentiated portion is typically a malignant fibrous histocytoma, osteosarcoma, or fibrosarcoma. 
REFERENCES: Weber KL, Pring ME, Sim FH: Treatment and outcome of recurrent pelvic chondrosarcoma. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2002;397:19-28.
Pring ME, Weber KL, Unni KK, et al: Chondrosarcoma of the pelvis: A review of sixty-four cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1630-1642

Question 36

Anterior penetration of an iliosacral screw through the sacral ala would most likely lead to weakness of which of the following movements?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Penetration of an iliosacral screw through the sacral ala would injure the ipsilateral L5 nerve root (great toe dorsiflexion). This can be avoided with proper understanding of the sacral anatomy as well as iliosacral screw starting points. The three required views for placement of this screw are: lateral sacral, pelvic inlet, and pelvic outlet. The referenced study by Ziran et al is an excellent review of fluoroscopic evaluation of screw placement. They reported that the anterior border of the S1 body is best seen with overlap of the S1 and S2 anterior cortex while the superior aspect of the S1 foramen is best seen with overlap of the S2 foramen on the superior pubic ramus.
The referenced study by Routt et al reviewed 177 patients with pelvic ring injuries treated with these screws and found that quality triplanar imaging decreased intraoperative and postoperative complications. They also recommend supplemental fixation of iliosacral screws with posterior plating in noncompliant patients.

Question 37

What is the most likely explanation for the change between the initial intraoperative radiograph (Figure 11a) and the radiograph taken 4 weeks after surgery (Figure 11b) in an 87-year-old man who underwent primary hip replacement for osteoarthritis?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The image demonstrates subsidence of the femoral implant. The implant subsided because it did not have good initial stability. The tapered femoral implant was placed after initial preparation for an anatomic femoral stem. A limited, nondisplaced femoral neck fracture was encountered during the procedure and treated. Two advantages of tapered stems are the efficient transfer of stress to the proximal femur and the ability to accommodate some subsidence to achieve enhanced stability. Although subsidence of a tapered stem to a more stable position can produce a good result, quality of metaphyseal bone should be considered. Attention to surgical technique remains important to optimize component stability for biological fixation.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Savory CG, Hamilton WG, Engh CA Sr, Della Valle CJ, Rosenberg AG, Galante JO. 15 Hip designs. In: Barrack RL, Booth RE Jr, Lonner JH, McCarthy JC, Mont MA, Rubash HE, eds. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 3.
Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2006:345-368.
Blaha JD, Borus TA. Press-fit femoral components. In: Callaghan J, Rosenberg A, and Rubash H, eds The Adult Hip. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 2007:1036-1043.

Question 38

A patient has pain 2 years after undergoing a metal-on-metal (MOM) left total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which test(s) best correlate with a prognosis if this patient is having a reaction to metal debris?




Explanation

Painful MOM THA and taper corrosion can cause substantial damage to a patient's hip if left untreated. In this case, the workup for a painful MOM THA starts the same as a workup for a painful metal-on-polyethylene bearing couple. Infection must be ruled out in every case with a set of inflammatory markers. If these markers are remotely elevated, this is an indication for joint aspiration. In patients with metal debris, the pathology report often indicates too many cells to count or cellular debris. Metal ion levels do not seem to correlate with prognosis. There are well-functioning patients with high ion levels and poor-functioning patients with low ion levels. Advanced imaging with MARS MRI to evaluate for peritrochanteric fluid collection, a soft-tissue mass, or synovial/capsular hypertrophy will reveal signs of a metal reaction that indicate the need for a revision discussion. A CT scan can show more advanced bony destruction as an indicator of poor prognosis. These films can be used to determine the need for a structural graft or augments for reconstruction of bone loss attributable to metal debris.

Question 39

..Figures 112a and 112b are the anteroposterior and lateral radiographs of a 65-year-old man who has a significant history of tobacco abuse and a 6-week history of right thigh pain. Axial and sagittal MRI scans are seen in Figures 112c and 112d. His MR angiogram is shown in Figure 112e. A biopsy of a lesion is shown in Figure 112f. What is the most likely diagnosis?




Explanation

CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 113 THROUGH 116
Figures 113a and 113b are the radiographs of a 68-year-old-man who has increasing pain in his left groin with weight-bearing activities and a Trendelenburg gait. Radiographs reveal a lytic lesion of the greater trochanter. An initial diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the lung was made 1 year before this presentation. His lung cancer treatment consisted of partial lobectomy and postsurgical radiation therapy.


Question 40

A 13-year-old girl with Down syndrome has bilateral chronic patellar dislocations. She denies knee pain. She is able to straighten her knees and walks with a symmetric but awkward gait. She does not flex her knees in midstance. Examination reveals that the patellae cannot be brought into a reduced position. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Chronic dislocation of the patella is occasionally seen in patients with Down syndrome.  In early childhood, patellar realignment may restore stability of the patellae.  In later childhood, bony changes in the patellar groove interfere with stability, even if surgical realignment is performed.  Realignment can also lead to increased knee pain postoperatively.  In asymptomatic patients who are able to extend their knees, continued observation is the management of choice. 
REFERENCES: Dugdale TW, Renshaw TS: Instability of the patellofemoral joint in Down syndrome.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:405-413.
Mendez AA, Keret D, MacEwen GD: Treatment of patellofemoral instability in Down’s syndrome.  Clin Orthop 1988;234:148-158.

Question 41

  • Which of the following injuries is most commonly associated with a fracture of the scapular body?





Explanation

Ada and Miller reviewed 148 fractures in 113 scapulae. Ninety-six percent had associated injuries, the most common being fracture of an upper thoracic rib. Other associated injuries included lung trauma, head injury, cervical spine injury, clavicle fractures and brachial plexus injury.

Question 42

A 23-year-old soccer player sustains a grade III complete posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear after colliding with another player. In reconstructing the PCL, it is optimal to reconstruct the





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The PCL is a nonisometric structure with nonuniform tension during knee motion, with maximum tension at 90° of flexion.  While the posteromedial PCL fibers have been found to be the most isometric, the anterolateral fibers represent the bulk of the ligament.  Studies have suggested that anterior placement of the femoral tunnel is superior to placement in an isometric position.  The anterolateral bundle tightens as the knee flexes; therefore, it is optimal to tension the graft at 90° of flexion.
REFERENCES: Harner CD, Xerogeanes JW, Livesay GA, et al: The human posterior cruciate ligament complex: An interdisciplinary study.  Ligament morphology and biomechanical evaluation.  Am J Sports Med 1995;23:736-745.
Burns WC II, Draganich LF, Pyevich M, Reider B: The effect of femoral tunnel position and graft tensioning technique on posterior laxity of the posterior cruciate ligament-reconstructed knee.  Am J Sports Med 1995;23:424-430.

Question 43

What preoperative factor correlates best with the outcome of rotator cuff repair?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The size of the rotator cuff tear in both anteroposterior and mediolateral dimensions has been found to correlate best with outcome.  Older patient age and rupture of the long head of the biceps tend to be associated with larger tears and, therefore, may be associated indirectly with a poorer outcome.
REFERENCES: Iannotti JP: Full-thickness rotator cuff tears: Factors affecting surgical outcome.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:87-95.
Iannotti JP, Bernot MP, Kuhlman JR, Kelley MJ, Williams GR: Postoperative assessment of shoulder function: A prospective study of full-thickness rotator cuff tears.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:449-457.

Question 44

Which of the following positions of immobilization has been shown to best approximate the anterior labrum against the glenoid rim following anterior dislocation of the shoulder?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, the affected arm is typically placed in a sling with the shoulder in adduction and internal rotation.  A recent study has shown that placement in this position actually results in laxity of the anterior supporting structures of the shoulder, allowing the postinjury hemarthrosis to push the labrum and capsular ligaments away from the anterior glenoid rim.  Thus, immobilization in this position may actually impede healing of these structures.  Alternatively, resting the arm in a position of adduction and external rotation allows the anterior supporting structures to abut against the anterior glenoid rim by forcing the hemarthrosis posteriorly.  Placing the arm in this position following anterior dislocation is believed to allow for better healing of the anterior labrum and ligaments.
REFERENCE: Itoi E, Sashi R, Minagawa H, et al: Position of immobilization after dislocation of the glenohumeral joint: A study with use of magnetic resonance imaging.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:873-874.

Question 45

What is the most common malignant tumor of the foot?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Whereas chondrosarcoma is the most frequently occurring malignant bone tumor of the foot and synovial sarcoma is the most common soft-tissue foot malignancy, the most common malignant tumor overall is melanoma.  It constitutes approximately 25% of lesions found on the lower extremity.  Furthermore, 31% of all melanomas arise in the foot.
REFERENCES: Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 11-26.
Bos GD, Ester RJ, Woll TS: Foot tumors: Diagnosis and treatment.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2002;10:259-270.

Question 46

A 53-year-old man with a history of severe left hip pain has a significant limp that is the result of a 5-cm limb-length discrepancy. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 48. The underlying etiology is most likely related to a history of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Radiographic abnormalities such as coxa magna, coxa breva secondary to growth arrest, and coxa plana and acetabular deformities are associated with healed Legg-Calve-Perthes disease.  Femoral heads that were flat yet congruent with the acetabulum are at risk for disabling arthritis in the sixth decade of life in 50% of these untreated patients.  As the normal ball-and-socket joint deforms to a flattened cylinder, the hip loses abduction and rotation capability, while retaining flexion and extension potential.  If the femoral head is flat and is not concentric with the acetabulum, early severe arthritis occurs.  Hinge abduction and anterior impingement are known sequelae of a flat, incongruent femoral head.  
REFERENCE: Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 3-23.

Question 47

In Dupuytren’s disease, the retrovascular cord typically displaces the radial proper digital nerve of the ring finger in what direction?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Retrovascular cords are common in Dupuytren’s disease and commonly require surgical treatment.  Nerve injury in Dupuytren’s surgery is an infrequent complication that occurs partly because the digital nerves can be displaced from their normal anatomic relationships by retrovascular cords.  The nerves are displaced superficially, toward the center of the digit (palmarly and ulnarly).  This displacement is typically seen at the level of the metacarpophalangeal joint.
REFERENCE: Rayan GM: Palmar fascial complex anatomy and pathology in Dupuytren’s disease.  Hand Clin 1999;15:73-86.

Question 48

Which of the following best describes the legal definition of standard of care?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The standard of care is a legal concept that is elusive and amorphous, although the term is used widely by physicians to mean different things. Different state courts across the United States have also applied different meanings to the term “standard of care.” Most commonly, the standard of care is that which a reasonable physician would have done under similar circumstances. Expert testimony from other physicians is often required to educate a jury in a medical malpractice trial about the applicable standard of care. As a general rule, treatment that exhibits knowledge, skill, diligence, and care on the part of the physician is likely to fall within the standard of care, regardless of variations in the definition of this term.
REFERENCES: Lewis MH, Gohagan JK, Merenstein DJ: The locality rule and the physician’s dilemma: Local medical practices vs the national standard of care. JAMA 2007;297:2633-2637.
AAOS Expert Witness Program, www3.aaos.org/member/expwit/expertwitaess.cfm

Question 49

  • The pharmacologic action of botulinum-A toxin can be best described as





Explanation

DISCUSSION: BotulinumA toxin acts by interfering with presynaptic acetylcholine release at cholinergic nerve terminals without destroying nerve endings, nerve terminals, or neuromuscular junctions. Thus, the toxin blocks neuromuscular control and functionally denervates the muscle.

Question 50

  • Which of the following medicolegal relationships between an attending surgeon and a resident assistant applies when a patient files a malpractice suit relating to surgical complications following a total knee arthroplasty?





Explanation

“Let the master answer”. A resident has been authorized to act for or represent the supervising physician. As an agent for the supervisor, all acts of the resident are considered to be under the direction of the supervisor. This is the definition for respondeat superior. Hold harmless agreement attempts to shift liability from company to physician. Comparative negligence refers to the % of involvement. Contributory negligence is where the resident is accused of contributing to a negligent act.

Question 51

Figures 54a and 54b show the radiograph and MRI scan of a 7-year-old boy who has a painful right thoracic scoliosis that measures 35°. Neurologic examination is normal. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Because hydrosyringomyelia, with or without an Arnold-Chiari malformation, is now being recognized as the etiology of many infantile and juvenile idiopathic scolioses, management should consist of a neurosurgical consultation.  Observation with follow-up radiographs is not an option in curves of this magnitude.  A technitium Tc 99m bone scan is unnecessary because the etiology of the curve has been identified.  Although spinal fusion may be needed in the future, it should not be undertaken before the neurosurgical problem has been addressed.
REFERENCES: Zadeh HG, Sakka SA, Powell MP, Mehta MH: Absent superficial abdominal reflexes in children with scoliosis: An early indicator of syringomyelia.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1995;77:762-767.
Schwend RM, Hennrikus W, Hall JE, Emans JB: Childhood scoliosis: Clinical indications for magnetic resonance imaging.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:46-53.
Farley FA, Song KM, Birch JG, Browne R: Syringomyelia and scoliosis in children.  J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:187-192.

Question 52

A 22-year-old female collegiate javelin thrower has shoulder pain. She notes that her pain is primarily located in the posterior aspect of her shoulder, is exacerbated with throwing, and she experiences maximal tenderness in the extreme cocking phase of the throwing cycle. On examination, she reports deep posterior shoulder pain when the arm is abducted 90 degrees and maximally externally rotated to 110 degrees. This reproduces her symptoms precisely. Shoulder radiographs are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? Review Topic





Explanation

The patient has internal impingement. Internal impingement is commonly seen in overhead throwing athletes. When positioned in the extreme cocking phase of the throwing cycle, the posterior glenoid impacts the articular surface of the infraspinatus and posterior fibers of the supraspinatus tendon. This impact can cause partial-thickness rotator cuff tearing and posterosuperior labral lesions. She has no evidence of anterior shoulder instability, and her range of motion is excellent which rules out adhesive capsulitis. Subacromial impingement is identified with anterolateral shoulder pain with internal rotation in the abducted position. A full-thickness rotator cuff tear in a 22-year-old individual would require significant trauma and would likely result in pain at rest and with lifting.

Question 53

A 51-year-old woman has had progressively increasing right knee pain for the past 6 months. She has a history of metastatic renal cell carcinoma to the lung and the skeletal system. Radiographs are seen in Figures 18a and 18b. The next step in management of the right distal femur lesion should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a patient with known metastatic disease, the surgeon must rule out additional lesions throughout the femur prior to surgical management.  Lesions located in the diaphysis or in the peritrochanteric region may influence the surgical procedure. 
REFERENCES: Frassica FJ, Gitelis S, Sim FH: Metastatic bone disease: General principles, pathophysiology, evaluation, and biopsy.  Instr Course Lect 1992;41:293-300. 
Sim FH: Metastatic bone disease of the pelvis and femur.  Instr Course Lect 1992;41:317-327. 

Question 54

An otherwise healthy 75-year-old man has a painful mass in the popliteal fossa of his right knee. A lateral radiograph of the knee, a CT scan of the distal femur, and a histopathologic specimen are shown in Figures 13a through 13c. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a parosteal osteosarcoma of the distal femur.  The findings of mild knee pain, radiographic evidence of a radiodense mass involving the parosseous space or surface of the distal femur, and histologic findings of a spindle cell lesion forming immature osteoid with little to no necrosis most likely suggest a parosteal osteosarcoma.  The treatment of choice is surgical resection.
REFERENCES: Okada K, Frassica FJ, Sim FH, Beabout JW, Bond JR, Unni KK: Parosteal osteosarcoma: A clinicopathological study.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:366-378.
Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors.  New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1990, pp 433-454.

Question 55

Immediately after undergoing lumbar instrumentation, a patient reports severe right leg pain and has 4+/5 weakness. Figure 24 shows an axial CT scan of L5. Exploratory surgery will most likely reveal





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common finding at exploration of an inappropriately placed pedicle screw is displacement of the nerve.  Pedicle breach is common, ranging from 2% to 20%, but most are asymptomatic.  All of the choices are possible, but in a large series conducted by Lonstein and associates, the authors reported that displacement of the root, most often medial, was the most common finding.  Laceration, contusion, or transfixion usually was not seen.  Spinal fluid leakage occurs less frequently and is not expected in the minimal broach illustrated.
REFERENCES: Esses SI, Sachs BL, Dreyzin V: Complications associated with the technique of pedicle screw fixation: A selected survey of ABS members.  Spine 1993;18:2231-2238.
Laine T, Lund T, Ylikoski M, et al: Accuracy of pedicle screw insertion with and without computer assistance: A randomised controlled clinical study in 100 consecutive patients.  Eur Spine J 2000;9:235-240.
Lonstein JE, Denis F, Perra JH, et al: Complications associated with pedicle screws.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1519-1528.

Question 56

A 78-year-old man has a history of worsening bilateral calf pain with activity. MRI scans are shown in Figures 31a through 31d. His symptoms are not improved with forward flexion of the lumbar spine. His lower extremity pain is relieved when he sits or ceases activity. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis? Review Topic





Explanation

The differential diagnosis of degenerative lumbar stenosis is extensive. Vascular and neurogenic claudication frequently coexist in the older population. Therefore, it is important to determine the specific etiology of a patient's lower extremity claudication prior to any surgical intervention. Vascular claudication is relieved with cessation of activity, whereas neurogenic claudication requires that the patient sit down or flex the lumbar spine forward to increase the canal diameter. Because this patient does not experience improvement in his symptoms with sitting or forward flexion, it is likely that he is experiencing vascular claudication. The ankle-brachial index (ABI) is the ratio of the blood pressure in the lower legs to the blood pressure in the arms. Compared with the arm, lower blood pressure in the leg is a sign of peripheral vascular disease. The ABI is calculated by dividing the systolic blood pressure in the arteries at the ankle and foot by the higher of the two systolic blood pressures in the arms. An ABI value between 0.40 to 0.80 is moderately decreased and such patients often experience symptoms such as intermittent claudication. Selective nerve root blocks prove to be more useful in identifying specific level(s) of involvement in patients experiencing radicular pain and paresthesias. Their utility is less helpful in lower extremity claudication. Electrophysiologic studies are rarely useful, except in identifying the presence and source of a peripheral neuropathy. About 80% of patients with symptomatic lumbar stenosis will demonstrate electromyographic changes. Osteoarthritis of the hip may be associated with buttock, groin, hip, and thigh pain.
Decreased range of motion and hip joint pain, especially in internal rotation and abduction, are common findings in patients with degenerative arthritis of the hip. While post-myelography CT has been found superior to MRI as a single study for the preoperative planning of decompression for lumbar spinal stenosis, it will not assist in differentiating vascular from neurogenic claudication.

Question 57

A 64-year-old man who underwent an L4-5 decompression approximately 1 year ago reported relief of his claudicatory leg pain initially, but he now has increasing low back pain and recurrent neurogenic claudication despite nonsurgical management. Radiographs show new asymmetric collapse and spondylolisthesis at the decompressed segment, and MRI scans show lateral recess stenosis. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: When radiographic findings reveal postlaminectomy instability, procedures that do not include some type of fusion will fail to solve the problem.  In fact, wider decompression or diskectomy alone will only further destabilize the segment.  Because there is radiographic evidence of recurrent lateral recess stenosis and symptomatic neurogenic claudication, a revision decompression should be included.  Since access to the canal involves a posterior approach, the stabilization should be performed through that same approach.
REFERENCES: Herkowitz HN, Kurz LT: Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis with spinal stenosis: A prospective study comparing decompression with decompression and intertransverse process arthrodesis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:802-808.
Hansraj KK, O’Leary PF, Cammisa FP Jr, et al: Decompression, fusion, and instrumentation surgery for complex lumbar spinal stenosis.  Clin Orthop 2001;384:18-25.

Question 58

Figure 17 shows the AP radiograph of a 5-year old child who has mild short stature and a painless bilateral gluteus medius lurch. Initial work-up should include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Bilateral flattening of the femoral heads suggests multiple epiphyseal dysplasia; therefore, a skeletal survey is indicated to look for involvement of other epiphyses.  Unilateral flattening of the femoral head would suggest Legg-Perthes disease.
REFERENCES: Sponseller PD: Skeletal dysplasias, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2001, pp 269-270.
Herring JA: Tachdjian’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2002, vol 1, pp 689-691.

Question 59

A 37-year-old patient with type I diabetes mellitus has a flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb flexor tendon sheath following a kitchen knife puncture wound to the volar aspect of the thumb. Left unattended, this infection will likely first spread proximally creating an abscess in which of the following spaces of the palm?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Flexor tenosynovitis of the thumb flexor tendon sheath can spread proximally and form an abscess within the thenar space of the palm.  The flexor pollicis longus tendon does not pass through the central space of the palm or the hypothenar space of the palm.  The flexor pollicis longus tendon does pass through the carpal tunnel, but this is not a palmar space.  The three palmar spaces include the hypothenar space, the thenar space, and the central space.  The posterior adductor space would likely only be involved secondarily after spread from a thenar space infection.
REFERENCES: Hollinshead W: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, vol 3, pp 478-479.
Lee D, Ferlic R, Neviaser R: Hand infections, in Berger R, Weiss AP (eds): Hand Surgery.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2004, pp 1784-1785.

Question 60

Commotio cordis is best treated with





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Commotio cordis is a rare but catastrophic condition that is caused by blunt chest trauma.  It results in cardiac fibrillation and is universally fatal unless immediate defibrillation is performed.  Although case reports of successful use of the chest thump maneuver exist, the best method of treatment is cardiac defibrillation.  IV fluids, epinephrine, and albuterol inhalers are used to treat dehydration, anaphylactic shock, and bronchospasm respectively, and are not effective in the treatment of commotio cordis.
REFERENCES: McCrory P: Commotio cordis.  Br J Sports Med 2002;36:236-237.
Boden BP, Tacchetti R, Mueller FO: Catastrophic injuries in high school and college baseball players.  Am J Sports Med 2004;32:1189-1196.

Question 61

Which of the following zones of articular cartilage has the highest concentration of proteoglycans?





Explanation

The fundamental structure of normal adult articular cartilage is divided into four different zones: superficial, transitional, deep, and calcified. These layers vary in chondrocyte morphology, size and orientation of collagen bundles, and water and proteoglycan content. The deep zone has the highest concentration of proteoglycans and the lowest concentration of water. The tidemark is a boundary between the calcified and uncalcified layers of articular cartilage.

Question 62

A 22-year-old college football player reports shortness of breath and dyspnea after a tackle. Examination reveals tachypnea, tachycardia, the trachea is shifted to the right, and there are decreased breath sounds on the left lung fields. The first line of treatment on the field should be





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a tension pneumothorax.  This is a life-threatening emergency where air is trapped between the pleura and the lung, which prevents expansion of the lung.  This causes hypoxia and cardiopulmonary compromise.  The first line of treatment is to place a needle into the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line.  The athlete should then be transported to the emergency department for chest tube placement.  The athlete cannot return to play, and resuscitation is not necessary because he has not gone into cardiopulmonary arrest.
REFERENCES: Amaral JF: Thoracoabdominal injuries in the athlete.  Clin Sports Med 1997;16:739-753.
Perron AD: Chest pain in athletes. Clin Sports Med 2003;22:37-50.

Question 63

When planning revision of a total hip arthroplasty where an acetabular reconstruction will be required, what prerequisite is important to ensure long-term success of a cementless component?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In bone defects where host bone support is less than 50%, the failure rate is 70% at 5.1 years.  The presence or absence of columns or hip position is of relatively little importance if the supportive bone is not present in at least 50% of the surface area around the future acetabular implant.
REFERENCE: Gross AE, Allan DG, Catre M, et al: Bone grafts in hip replacement surgery: The pelvic side. Orthop Clin North Am 1993;24:679-695.

Question 64

A 28-year-old man has had a 2-year history of progressive lateral ankle pain. History reveals that he underwent a triple arthrodesis at age 13 for a tarsal coalition. The pain has been refractory to braces, custom inserts, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Weight-bearing radiographs of the ankle and foot are shown in Figures 3a through 3d. Surgical management should include which of the following?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a valgus-supination triple arthrodesis malunion.  Weight-bearing radiographs show excessive residual valgus through the subtalar joint, producing lateral subfibular impingement, and residual forefoot abduction and midfoot supination through the talonavicular joint, lateralizing the weight-bearing forces through the foot.  The deformity is best managed with a medial displacement calcaneal osteotomy and transverse tarsal derotational osteotomy.  Ankle arthroscopy and lateral ligament reconstruction are indicated in the event of ligament instability.  Tendon transfer, lateral column lengthening, and heel cord lengthening are used for treatment of adult flatfoot from posterior tibial tendon insufficiency.  Ankle arthrodesis and ankle arthroplasty are not indicated in this patient because the lateral ankle symptoms are the result of the underlying deformity in the hindfoot, the patient is young, and the ankle joint is relatively normal.
REFERENCES: Haddad SL, Myerson MS, Pell RF IV: Clinical and radiographic outcome of revision surgery for failed triple arthrodesis.  Foot Ankle Int 1997;18:489-499.
Mäenpää H, Lehto MU, Belt EA: What went wrong in triple arthrodesis?  An analysis of failures in 21 patients.  Clin Orthop Relat Res 2001;391:218-223.

Question 65

..A 60-year-old woman has a proximal femur fracture. A permeative, lytic defect is recognized at the fracture site. Appropriate imaging studies are performed and show no other lesions. What is the next treatment step?




Explanation

CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 7 THROUGH 9

Question 66

A 73-year-old woman reports a 4-month history of severe left-sided posterior buttock pain and left leg pain. The leg pain radiates into the left lateral thigh and posterior calf with cramping. Examination reveals mild difficulty with a single-leg toe raise on the left side and a diminished ankle reflex. There is also a significant straight leg raise test at 45 degrees which exacerbates symptoms. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 4. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time? Review Topic





Explanation

Lumbar spinal stenosis with lumbar radiculopathy can be commonly caused by a synovial cyst arising from the facet joints. Lyons and associates reported on the surgical treatment of synovial cysts in 194 patients. Of the 147 with follow-up data, 91% reported good pain relief and 82% had improvement of their motor deficits. Epstein reported a 58% to 63% incidence of good/excellent results and a 38 to 42
point improvement on the SF-36 Physical Function Scale. It was also suggested that since the presence of a synovial cyst indicates facet pathology, possible fusion should be considered in these patients, especially those with underlying spondylolisthesis.
(SBQ12SP.20) Amphotericin B is most appropriate for the treatment of which type of spine infection? Review Topic
Fungal osteomyelitis
Bacterial osteomyelitis with a gram-positive organism
Bacterial osteomyelitis with a gram-negative organism
Tuberculous osteomyelitis
Viral meningomyelitis
Amphotericin B would be most appropriate for the treatment of fungal infections of the spine.
Amphotericin B is a broad-spectrum anti-fungal medication. It is commonly used as the first-line agent for treatment of fungal infections of the spine. The most common fungi involving the spine include cryptococcus, candida, and aspergillus. The indications for débridement and stabilization with spinal fusion, includes resistance to antibiotic therapy, spinal instability, and/or neurologic deficits.
Kim et al. reviewed fungal infections of the spine. They comment that fungus infections are most commonly spread by hematogenous or direct spread. Access to the vascular system may include intravenous lines, during implantation of prosthetic devices, or during surgery.
Frazier et al. retrospectively reviewed 11 patients with fungal osteomyelitis of the spine. Nine of the patients were immunocompromised secondary to diabetes mellitus, corticosteroid use, chemotherapy for a tumor, or malnutrition. All were treated with anti-fungal medication. 10 of 11 patients were also treated with surgical debridement. Paralysis secondary to the spine infection developed in eight patients. After an average of 6.3 years of follow-up, the infection had resolved in all nine surviving patients.
Illustration A shows the mechanism of action of Amphotericin. Illustration B shows T1- (Image A and B) and T2-weighted (Image C) images of the lower thoracic and lumbar spine. There are hypointense signals within the T12 and L1 vertebral bodies (Images A and B) indicative of fungal osteomyelitis.
IncorrectAnswers:


Question 67

The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve innervates the





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve innervates the abductor digiti quinti, and more distal branches of the lateral plantar nerve supply the quadratus plantae and the interossei.  The medial plantar nerve supplies the abductor hallucis brevis and the flexor digitorum brevis. 
REFERENCES: Pansky B, House EH: Review of Gross Anatomy, ed 3.  New York, NY, Macmillan, 1975, pp 464-476.
Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1983,

pp 325-328.

Question 68

A B C Figures 30a through 30c are the radiograph and MR images of a 54-year-old woman who has severe leg pain with walking. Her treatment has included 12 weeks of physical therapy, anti-inflammatory medications, and narcotic pain relievers, and she is interested in surgery. Minimally invasive transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion (MIS TLIF) is recommended. When compared with open TLIF, MIS TLIF is associated with




Explanation

DISCUSSION
MIS TLIF involves a steep learning curve but is associated with similar longterm outcomes as open TLIF, arguably comparable or possibly lower complication rates, and equivalent fusion rates. The major distinguishing feature comparing open to minimally invasive surgery for this and other spinal diagnoses has been shorter hospital stays.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Peng CW, Yue WM, Poh SY, Yeo W, Tan SB. Clinical and radiological outcomes of minimally invasive versus open transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2009 Jun 1;34(13):1385-9. doi: 10.1097/BRS.0b013e3181a4e3be. PubMed PMID: 19478658. View
Abstract at PubMed
Lee KH, Yue WM, Yeo W, Soeharno H, Tan SB. Clinical and radiological outcomes of open versus minimally invasive transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion. Eur Spine J. 2012 Nov;21(11):2265-70. doi: 10.1007/s00586-012-2281-4. Epub 2012 Mar 28. PubMed PMID:

Question 69

A 19-year-old man has had pain and swelling in his left forearm for the past 8 months. Laboratory studies show a mildly elevated WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Radiographs are shown in Figures 58a and 58b, a CT scan is shown in Figure 58c, and T 1 - and T 2 -weighted MRI scans are shown in Figures 58d and 58e, respectively. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 58f. Immunohistochemistry demonstrates that the lesion is negative for leukocyte common antigen (CD34). What is the most common cytogenetic translocation associated with this lesion?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The imaging studies show a permeative lytic destructive lesion in the proximal radius with “hair-on-end” periosteal reaction and a large soft-tissue mass most consistent with Ewing’s sarcoma.  The pathology reveals monotonous sheets of “round blue” cells.  This limits the differential diagnosis to primary lymphoma of bone versus Ewing’s sarcoma.  These are best differentiated by immunohistochemistry, cytogenetics, and flow cytometry.  Lymphoma of bone is typically CD34 positive and CD99 negative; whereas, the reverse is true of Ewing’s sarcoma, CD34 negative and CD99 positive.  The most common cytogenetic translocation with Ewing’s sarcoma is 11; 22; 21; 22 and 7; 22 translocations have also been reported in Ewing’s sarcomas.  The X; 18 translocation is most commonly associated with synovial cell sarcomas; the 12; 22 translocation is most commonly associated with clear cell sarcomas; the 2; 13 translocation is most commonly associated with alveolar rhabdomyosarcomas, and the 12; 16 translocation is most commonly associated with myxoid liposarcomas.  Flow cytometry is used to characterize the cell types of lymphomas.
REFERENCES: Womer R: The cellular biology of bone tumors.  Clin Orthop Relat Res 1991;262:12-21.
Yamaguchi U, Hasegawa T, Morimoto Y, et al: A practical approach to the clinical diagnosis of Ewing’s sarcoma/primitive neuroectodermal tumour and other small round cell tumours sharing EWS rearrangement using new fluorescence in situ hybridisation probes for EWSR1 on formalin fixed, paraffin wax embedded tissue.  J Clin Pathol 2005;58:1051-1056.
Lazar A, Abruzzo LV, Pollock RE, et al: Molecular diagnosis of sarcomas: Chromosomal translocations in sarcomas.  Arch Path Lab Med 2006;130:1199-1207.

Question 70

A 20-year-old basketball player sustains a knee injury during a game and is seen in the orthopaedic clinic 3 days after injury. Examination reveals a positive Lachman, pivot shift, joint line tenderness, and moderate effusion. Which of the following tissue injuries is most likely causing the jointline tenderness?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The physical examination findings are consistent with an acute anterior cruciate ligament tear. In the acute setting, a lateral meniscus tear is a more common secondary injury than a medial meniscus tear. In one study of acute anterior cruciate ligament tears in alpine skiers, the incidence of lateral meniscus tears was over four times that of medial meniscus tears. Medial meniscus tears are more common in the chronic setting, most likely secondary to its role as a secondary restraint.
REFERENCES: Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, p 201.
Greis PE, Bardana DD, Holmstrom MC, et al: Meniscal injury: I. Basic science and evaluation. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2002;10:168-176.
Duncan JB, Hunter R, Purnell M, et al: Meniscal injuries associated with acute anterior cruciate ligament tears in alpine skiers. Am J Sports Med 1995;23:170-172.

Question 71

What pathology is most likely to result in failure of an arthroscopic Bankart repair?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Recent studies have documented that an arthroscopic Bankart repair performed with good technique can produce success rates similar to an open repair.  However, the results of an arthroscopic repair deteriorate significantly if there is a 25% or greater anterior-inferior glenoid rim defect (inverted pear configuration) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion in which the humeral head defect keys onto the glenoid rim in abduction and external rotation.  If either of these entities exist or there is multidirectional instability with pathologic hyperextensible tissue laxity, an open repair is recommended.  An associated SLAP lesion would not significantly affect the result of the Bankart procedure.  Not infrequently, the anterior glenoid labrum is partially or completely disrupted and, in itself, is not a contraindication to arthroscopic Bankart repair.  In almost all patients with predominantly unidirectional instability, some degree of capsular/anterior-inferior glenohumeral ligament attenuation is present and can be addressed during the arthroscopic repair.
REFERENCES: Burkhart SS, De Beer JF: Traumatic glenohumeral bone defects and their relationship to failure of arthroscopic Bankart repairs: Significance of the inverted-pear glenoid and the humeral engaging Hill-Sachs lesion.  Arthroscopy 2000;16:677-694. 
Cole BJ, Romeo AA: Arthroscopic shoulder stabilization with suture anchors: Technique, technology, and pitfalls.  Clin Orthop 2001;390:17-30.

Question 72

A 35-year-old man has a brachial plexus injury affecting the lateral cord. He partially improves with observation and now has complete return of median nerve function and pectoral muscle function. What nerve transfer is most likely to restore the motor function he is lacking?




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
The lateral cord of the brachial plexus gives off the lateral pectoral nerve, the musculocutaneous nerve, and then contributes to the median nerve. The patient has had recovery of function of these components except for the musculocutaneous nerve. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps and the brachialis, which provide elbow flexion. To restore motor function, a nerve transfer would have to provide reinnervation of the biceps and brachialis.                       

Question 73

At what age does the lateral epicondyle normally ossify in males?





Explanation

The lateral epicondylar epiphysis is the last to ossify in the elbow at age 12 to 14 years in males. The first secondary ossification center to ossify is the capitellum, which ossifies during the first 6 months of life. Next is the radial head, ossifying between age 3 and 6 years. The medial epicondyle appears between 5 and 7 years; the trochlea and olecranon at 8 and 10 years, respectively. In females, the appearance of ossification centers is about a year earlier than males.

Question 74

A 27-year-old man sustained a gunshot wound to the lumbar spine and undergoes an exploratory laparotomy. An injury to the cecum is identified and treated. Management should now include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Gunshot wounds to the spine present relatively little risk of infection in most cases.  When there has been an injury to the colon, the risk of infection can be minimized with

a 7-day course of broad-spectrum antibiotics.  Fragment removal is not indicated.

REFERENCES: Roffi RP, Waters RL, Adkins RH: Gunshot wounds to the spine associated with a perforated viscus.  Spine 1989;14:808-811.
Velmahoos GC, Demetriades D: Gunshot wounds of the spine: Should retained bullets be removed to prevent infection?  Ann R Coll Surg Engl 1976;94:85-87.

Question 75

A 6-year-old boy had a 4-day history of worsening atraumatic right thigh and knee pain. He was seen in the emergency department, where he had a temperature of 39.1°C. Laboratory studies reveal a white blood cell count of 15000 /µL (reference range, 4500-11000 /µL). He had a small knee effusion with range of motion 0 to 90 degrees and a swollen, painful, hot distal thigh. The knee effusion was aspirated, revealing a white blood cell (WBC) count of 2000 with negative gram stain (reference range < 2000 WBC/mL). The boy was admitted to the pediatric medical service and intravenous (IV) antibiotics were initiated. The next day, MR imaging was obtained and orthopaedics was consulted. Based on Figures 8a and 8b, what is the most appropriate description of his condition?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The MRI scans show an advanced distal femur osteomyelitis with a substantial subperiosteal abscess. This necessitates open drainage; by definition, an abscess is avascular, so antibiotics cannot be delivered to the area without drainage.

CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 9 THROUGH 12
Figures 9a and 9b are the radiographs of a 9-year-old boy who fell from the monkey bars and sustained a closed fracture of the elbow.

Question 76

After the athlete undergoes the appropriate treatment of the postsurgical complication and recovers without further incident, which muscle most likely will be last to experience return of function?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
This patient sustained an eccentric contracture (muscle lengthening while contracting) of his biceps muscle while trying to stop a defender from getting around him. This in turn caused failure of the distal biceps tendon, as evidenced by pain in the antecubital fossa, lack of elbow supination strength, and his positive biceps active test finding (supination/pronation of the forearm showing no motion of the biceps muscle belly). Eccentric contractors have the highest
potential for building strength but also are at highest risk for injury. Concentric (muscle shortening with contraction), isometric (no change in muscle length with contracture), and isokinetic (constant velocity of muscle contraction with a variable force) do not describe the mechanism detailed.
The loss of distal biceps attachment will result in loss of elbow supination strength in flexion (the biceps is the only supinator to cross the elbow) while still retaining elbow flexion (albeit weakened) because of the other elbow flexors (brachioradialis and brachialis). Consequently, treatment should be anatomic repair of the distal biceps insertion, which can be performed with a 2-incision or 1-incision technique. Although all of the listed complications have been reported with these techniques, LABC neuropraxia is by far the most common. Radiographs show that this athlete’s injury was repaired using a 1-incision technique with a cortical fixation device and a radial bone tunnel. This technique has gained favor because of its decreased incidence of heterotopic ossification and radioulnar synostosis compared to the 2-incision technique. The most troubling complication for most surgeons is the development of a PIN palsy, which this patient clearly demonstrates in addition to the more common LABCN upon postsurgical examination. Because the LABC nerve injury is typically a neuropraxia from retraction, a period of observation is indicated. PIN injury can result from excessive traction during surgical exposure or from entrapment by the fixation button.
Considering the anatomy of the PIN, successful recovery of the nerve typically progresses based on the distance from the origin of the nerve to the muscle indicated. The EIP is the most distal muscle innervated and can be expected to recover last. First to return would be the EDC followed by the ECU, EDQ, and, finally, the EIP.
RESPONSES FOR QUESTIONS 26 THROUGH 27
Anterior tibial artery
Posterior tibial artery
Superficial peroneal nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
Match the neurovascular structure at risk (listed above) with the compartment undergoing fasciotomy (listed below).

Question 77

Which of the following is an FDA approved adjunctive treatment for an acute open tibia fracture being treated with an intramedullary nail?





Explanation

rhBMP-2 has FDA approval for use when treating acute open tibia fractures with an intramedullary nail.
Open tibial shaft fractures can present many treatment challenges. Although its use remains somewhat controversial, rhBMP-2 has been shown to have many positive effects when used to treat acute open tibia fractures. These benefits include accelerated early fracture healing, decreased rates of hardware failure, decreased need for subsequent bone grafting procedures, and decreased infection rates. rhBMP-2 does have FDA approval specifically for use in open tibia fractures being treated with an intramedullary nail.
Alt et al. present a comparison of patients with Grade III open tibia fractures treated
with un-reamed nails with or without rhBMP-2. They found significant decreases in need for secondary interventions such as bone grafting or nail exchange. Mean time to fracture healing was less in the rhBMP-2 group, but this difference was not statistically significant.
Govender et al. present a prospective randomized study of 450 patients with open tibia fractures treated with an intramedullary nail with or without rhBMP-2. They found statistically significant decreases in need for secondary intervention, hardware failure, and infection as well as faster wound healing and faster time to fracture union.
Wei et al. provide a meta analysis regarding use of rhBMP-2 in open tibia fractures. Due to decreased rates of secondary interventions they estimated a net savings of
$6,000 per case when rh-BMP2 was used. They found no significant difference in rates of infection, postoperative pain, hardware failure, or fracture healing at 20 weeks.
Incorrect answers:

Question 78

Figure 33 shows the CT scan of a 40-year-old man who injured his left shoulder while skiing. What structure is attached to the bony fragment?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The scan reveals a bony Bankart lesion.  The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament is the major restraint to anterior translation of the humeral head and is usually injured with anterior shoulder dislocations.  It inserts onto the glenoid labrum at the anteroinferior aspect of the glenoid rim.  The labrum most frequently avulses from the glenoid (Bankart lesion), but occasionally the bony attachment is avulsed.
REFERENCES: O’Brien SJ, Neves MC, Arnoczky SP, et al: The anatomy and histology of the inferior glenohumeral ligament complex of the shoulder.  Am J Sports Med 1990;18:449-456.
Warner JP: The gross anatomy of the joint surfaces, ligaments, labrum and capsule, in Matsen FA, Fu FF, Hawkins RJ (eds): The Shoulder: A Balance of Mobility and Stability.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1992, pp 7-28.  

Question 79

A 55-year-old woman with a 15-year history of systemic lupus erythematosus has had left shoulder pain for the past 3 months. She reports that the pain has grown progressively worse over the past few months, and her shoulder function is severely limited. She is presently being treated with azathioprine and has used corticosteroids in the past. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 19a and 19b, and MRI scans are shown in Figures 19c and 19d. Which of the following forms of management will yield the most predictable pain relief and return of shoulder function?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Prosthetic shoulder arthroplasty has been shown to provide predictable results for treating stage III and stage IV osteonecrosis of the humeral head.  The decision to resurface the glenoid (total shoulder arthroplasty versus humeral hemiarthroplasty) usually is made based on the radiographic and intraoperative appearance of the glenoid.  Core decompression of the humeral head has been reported to be effective for earlier stages (pre collapse) but would not be appropriate for a patient with stage IV disease.
REFERENCES: Hattrup SJ, Cofield RH: Osteonecrosis of the humeral head: Results of replacement.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:177-182.
L’Insalata JC, Pagnani MJ, Warren RF, et al: Humeral head osteonecrosis: Clinical course and radiographic predictors of outcome.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:355-361.
Cruess RL: Steroid-induced avascular necrosis of the head of the humerus: Natural history and management.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1976;58:313-317.

Question 80

A 50-year-old pipefitter falls from a ladder at work and dislocates his non-dominant shoulder. His MRI scan shows supraspinatus and infraspinatus tears with retraction to the glenoid. He cannot actively raise his arm away from his side. He denies prior shoulder symptoms before his fall. Three weeks of physical therapy have failed to improve his function. Which factor has been demonstrated to result in a poor clinical outcome following surgical intervention?




Explanation

Several studies have demonstrated that patients with work-related injuries do not do as well as those whose injuries are not work-related after repair of the rotator cuff. This patient’s age and gender are not negative prognostic indicators. The acute nature of the tear does not lead to an inferior outcome.

Question 81

A 54-year-old woman reports worsening pain in her buttock, especially when sitting for long periods of time. She has occasional pain and paresthesias radiating down her posterior leg. She has no significant medical history. MRI scans are shown in Figures 15a and 15b and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 15c. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The biopsy specimen shows a wavy collagenous matrix with elongated cells; this is most consistent with neurofibroma.  The patient has a mass in the region of the sciatic nerve.  Imaging characteristics, homogeneous and very low signal on T1-weighted and very high signal on the T2-weighted sequences, are consistent with a myxoid-type lesion.  These include myxoma, myxoid sarcomas, and nerve sheath tumors. 
REFERENCES: Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2.  New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 1135-1136
Menendez LR: Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 251.

Question 82

A 35-year-old construction worker has developed isolated lateral compartment arthritis. He has lost 50 pounds, now has a body mass index of 30, and still has pain that limits his activities of daily living and work despite receiving a 4-month course of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications and 2 intra-articular cortisone injections. His range of motion is 5 to 110 degrees, and his mechanical axis is 18 degrees of valgus. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this patient?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Knee arthritis in a young laborer is challenging to address. A surgeon could perform an arthroplasty, but there is concern for early failure and the subsequent need for multiple revisions during this patient’s lifespan. Indications for distal femoral varus osteotomy include at least a 12- to 15-degree valgus mechanical axis and range of motion of at least 15 to 90 degrees. Contraindications for this procedure include inflammatory arthritis and restricted knee motion.
RESPONSES FOR QUESTIONS 138 THROUGH 141
Acute periprosthetic infection
Chronic periprosthetic infection
Joint dislocation
Periprosthetic fracture
Pseudotumor
Femoral nerve palsy
Sciatic nerve palsy
Aseptic prosthetic loosening
Select the total hip arthroplasty (THA) complication listed above that most commonly is associated with the clinical scenario described below.

Question 83

Figure 1 is the right hand of a 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and rheumatoid arthritis. He is taking immunosuppressive disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) and is seen in the emergency department with rapid progression of erythema from his right thumb to his right arm during the last 12 hours. He is confused, lethargic, and has these vital signs: blood pressure 92/40, respiratory rate 45, temperature 39.7°C, pulse 135, and oxygen saturation 90% on 4 liters of oxygen by face mask. An examination of his right upper extremity reveals black bulla extending from the metacarpophalangeal down to the tip and no capillary refill at the pulp. Immediate treatment should consist of




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
This patient has multiple criteria for necrotizing soft-tissue infection (NSTI, also known as necrotizing fasciitis) including rapidly progressive infection, black bulla, hypotension and hypoxia, and a history of immune compromise. Aggressive emergent debridement including the removal of all necrotic tissue and IV antibiotics can decrease morbidity and mortality. Not all patients will have such obvious NSTI findings. In less clear cases, a scoring system using laboratory values (the Laboratory Risk Indicator for Necrotizing Fasciitis) can help clarify the diagnosis. IV antibiotics are key to treatment as well, but any delay in surgical treatment can increase morbidity and mortality. The black bulla and necrotic-appearing thumb indicate that this infection is not confined to the flexor sheath, therefore irrigation of the tendon sheath alone would be insufficient treatment. Although the thumb is dysvascular, this is because of an infection, and revascularization is not indicated.                     

Question 84

A 50-year-old woman who underwent a joint replacement of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint 6 months ago now has pain and swelling about the great toe. Radiographs are shown in Figures 39a and 39b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show displacement of the prosthesis, and there has been large amounts of bone resected to insert the implant.  Arthrodesis is indicated with interposition bone graft to stabilize the joint and restore length to the first ray.
REFERENCE: Myerson MS: Foot and Ankle Disorders.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 265-266.

Question 85

A 31-year-old woman has increasing pain and tightness in her right knee, with occasional stiffness and recurrent hemorrhagic effusions. MRI scans are shown in Figures 2a and 2b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: PVNS is a rare inflammatory granulomatous condition of unknown etiology, and causes proliferation of the synovium of joints, tendon sheaths, or bursa. The disorder occurs most commonly in the third and fourth decades but can occur at any age.  MRI provides excellent delineation of the synovial disease.  Characteristic features of PVNS on MRI include the presence of intra-articular nodular masses of low signal intensity on T1- and T2-weighted images and proton density-weighted images.  Synovial biopsy should be performed if there is any doubt of the diagnosis.  Total synovectomy (open or arthroscopic) is required for the diffuse form, although recurrence is common.  Rheumatoid arthritis and synovial chondromatosis are not typically associated with hemorrhagic effusions.
REFERENCES: De Ponti A, Sansone V, Malchere M: Result of arthroscopic treatment of pigmented villonodular synovitis of the knee.  Arthroscopy 2003;19:602-607.
Chin KR, Barr SJ, Winalski C, et al: Treatment of advanced primary and recurrent diffuse pigmented villonodular synovitis of the knee.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:2192-2202.
Bhimani MA, Wenz JF, Frassica FJ: Pigmented villonodular synovitis: Keys to early diagnosis. Clin Orthop 2001;386:197-202.

Question 86

What is the most common cause of rotator cuff injury in high school athletes?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A large number of etiologies of rotator cuff injury have been proposed.  Both intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms have been suggested.  In the young athlete the common underlying mechanism is overuse.  Contributing factors include increased laxity, anatomic variation in the coracoacromial arch, and altered kinematics. 
REFERENCES: Wilkins KE: Shoulder injuries: Epidemiology, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, pp 175-182.
Sher JS: Anatomy, biomechanics, and pathophysiology of rotator cuff disease, in Iannnotti JP, Williams GR (eds): Disorders of the Shoulder: Diagnosis and Management. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1999, pp 3-30.

Question 87

Which of the following medications has been shown to improve skeletal muscle regeneration and decrease fibrosis following muscle injury in an animal model? Review Topic





Explanation

Angiotensin II receptor blockade (e.g. losartan) administered after injury has been shown to improve muscle regeneration and decrease fibrosis in normal skeletal muscle.
Skeletal muscle undergoes a natural process of healing and regeneration after injury. The formation of fibrous tissue in place of normal muscle is also part of this process. However, fibrous tissue in place of muscle can predispose the area to re-injury and impaired function. Administration of angiotensin II receptor blockade medications (e.g. losartan) after skeletal muscle injury has been shown to decrease the apoptotic cascade response and the formation of fibrous tissue. The mechanism of benefit is thought to be associated with blockade of insulin-like growth factor.
Terada et al. looked at the affect of platelet-rich plasma (PRP) and losartan on muscle healing after contusion injuries. They showed that PRP plus losartan combination
therapy improved overall skeletal muscle healing by enhancing angiogenesis and follistatin expression as well as reducing the expression of phosphorylated Smad2/3 and the development of fibrosis.
Bedair et al. used a rat model to investigate the effect of angiotensin receptor blockade on muscle fibrosis after injury. They found that angiotensin receptor blockade therapy significantly reduced fibrosis and led to an increase in the number of regenerating myofibers in acutely injured skeletal muscle.
Incorrect

Question 88

What is the most consistent finding regarding glenohumeral kinematics in patients with symptomatic tears of the rotator cuff?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Normal glenohumeral kinematics are represented by ball-and-socket modeling when the rotator cuff is intact.  This is true for motion that involves more than 30 degrees of abduction.  In patients with shoulder pain and symptomatic rotator cuff tears, superior translation occurs with abduction beyond 30 degrees.  This is quite evident in massive tears but is seen consistently to a lesser degree with smaller tears. 
REFERENCES: Yamaguchi K, Sher JS, Anderson WK, et al: Glenohumeral motion in patients with rotator cuff tears: A comparison of asymptomatic and symptomatic shoulders.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:6-11.
Poppen NK, Walker PS: Normal and abnormal motion of the shoulder.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1976;58:195-201.

Question 89

A coach of three football teams—the B team, junior varsity team, and varsity team—wants to study the average times in the 40-yard dash for his players. Which test would help him determine if the mean 40-yard dash times for the athletes on one team are different from those on the other teams?




Explanation

Data collected in research studies fall into one of two categories—continuous or discrete. Continuous data can be displayed on a curve. Examples include height, weight, and time recorded in a 40-yard dash. Discrete data represent data that fall into specific categories such as gender or the presence or absence of a risk factor. ANOVA is used to determine statistical significance in mean values of continuous data when there are more than two independent samples. The 2-sample test compares mean values of continuous data between two independent groups. The Chi-square test and Fisher's exact tests are tests used to analyze discrete data.

Question 90

What is the most likely contributory factor to this patient's problem?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Proximal humeral epiphysiolysis (little leaguer’s shoulder) is an overuse condition of the proximal humeral physis. Patients report diffuse pain that is worse with throwing. Little leaguer’s shoulder is caused by rotational stress placed on the proximal humeral epiphysis during overhead throwing. The growth plate is weakest to torsion stress and is most susceptible to injury during periods of rapid growth commonly seen during puberty. Most chronic shoulder injuries occur in throwing athletes between 13 and 16 years of age. Factors that contribute to the condition include excessive throwing, improper throwing mechanics, and muscle-tendon imbalance. Radiographic findings typically are normal but may indicate subtle widening of the proximal humeral physis, and, in more severe cases, metaphyseal demineralization or fragmentation. Surgical fixation is not required for healing. An initial 3-month period of rest and activity modification will typically result in resolution of symptoms. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be used as needed. After the rest period, a gradual return to throwing is implemented until the patient’s condition returns to baseline. This protocol has a long-term success rate exceeding 90%. Pitching coaches should evaluate throwing mechanics and maintain pitch counts. The most common cause of this condition is overuse, as is seen in pitchers who throw all year. Internal rotation deficit and internal impingement is typically a finding in older athletes without open physes. This patient had no evidence of rotation deficit upon examination, making this diagnosis unlikely.

Question 91

A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus has been treated for the past 2 years at a wound care center for persistent bilateral fifth metatarsal head ulcers. Management has consisted of shoe wear modifications, treatment with multiple enzymatic ointments, and a fifth metatarsal head resection on the left side. Physical examination reveals intact pulses, minimal ankle dorsiflexion, neutral hindfoot, and a persistent ulcer under the fifth metatarsal heads. What treatment will best help heal the ulcers?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient likely has a significant Achilles contracture that causes her to always bear more weight on her forefoot.  A gastrocnemius recession takes the ankle out of plantar flexion and she will be able to return to a normal gait and reduce the pressures on her forefoot.  A forefoot amputation is a salvage option.  The other choices are appropriate; however, the patient has had this problem for 2 years and she has already had multiple attempts at shoe wear modification. 
REFERENCES: Laughlin RT, Calhoun JH, Mader JT: The diabetic foot.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:218-225.
Aronow MS, Diaz-Doran V, Sullivan RJ, et al: The effect of triceps surae contracture force on plantar foot pressure distribution.  Foot Ankle Int 2006;27:43-52.

Question 92

The most appropriate surgical approach includes which of the following? Review Topic





Explanation

Intra-articular distal humerus fractures are best approached through a posterior elbow approach, including an olecranon chevron osteotomy to clearly visualize the reduction of the articular surface. The other stated approaches will not provide sufficient visualization of the joint surface to allow stable reduction. A closed reduction and screw fixation will not offer optimal fracture stability.

Question 93

What is the most common causative bacteria in septic arthritis in children? Review Topic





Explanation

The spectrum of causative bacteria and frequency of occurrence of specific pathogens in septic arthritis are similar to those seen in osteomyelitis, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common. Other common causative organisms include Kingella Kingae, Streptococcus pneumonia, Klebsiella species, Salmonella, Brucella melitensis, and Haemophilus influenzae.

Question 94

The essential lesion in recurrent or posterior instability following simple dislocation of the elbow typically involves which of the following structures?





Explanation

The lateral ulnar collateral ligament is the essential lesion in recurrent or persistent instability following simple dislocations of the elbow. Simple elbow dislocations are usually stable and may be managed by a short period of immobilization followed by early range of motion. Treatment of dislocations resulting in persistent instability frequently involves focusing on the lateral ulnar collateral ligament. The medial collateral ligament is repaired only if treatment of associated fractures and lateral collateral ligament injury does not restore stability.

Question 95

Which of the following is the most sensitive parameter to detect the increased inflammatory response seen with both postoperative infection and the use of instrumentation in spinal surgery?





Explanation

CORRECT
DISCUSSION: The most sensitive parameter to detect inflammation elicited by implants and infection is the C-reactive protein (CRP).
CRP is an acute phase reactant that increases sharply immediately after surgery within 6 hours after tissue damage. CRP then peaks 2-3 days later and returns to normal levels 5-21 days after the inciting event. In contrast, ESR reaches its peak on days 4-11, then remains elevated for a prolonged period of time.
Takahashi et al performed a Level 3 study of patients who had undergone spinal surgery with and without instrumentation, with a primary outcome of infection. They concluded that renewed elevation of C-reactive protein, white blood cell count, and body temperature after postoperative days 4 to 7 may be a key indicator of postoperative infection.


Question 96

A 17-year-old high school track athlete has had progressive midfoot pain for the past 3 weeks that prevents him from running. Examination reveals pain over the tarsal navicular. Radiographs are normal, but a CT scan reveals a nondisplaced sagittally oriented fracture line. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a nondisplaced stress fracture of the tarsal navicular.  Weight bearing is associated with a high rate of nonunion; therefore, management should consist of immobilization and no weight bearing for 8 weeks.  Delayed union or nonunion is treated by excision of sclerotic fracture margins and bone grafting, with or without internal fixation.  Generally, CT should be repeated to document healing before permitting a return to sports.
REFERENCES: Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 597-612.
Torg J, Pavlov H, Cooley LH, et al: Stress fractures of the tarsal navicular: A retrospective review of twenty-one cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1982;64:700-712.

Question 97

A 23-year-old man sustained an injury to his left foot when a forklift rolled over it at work. Examination reveals marked swelling of the midfoot and forefoot, with tenderness to palpation over the medial hindfoot and dorsomedial forefoot. The distal dorsalis pedis pulse is audible on Doppler examination, and his sensation is intact to touch. Radiographs are shown in Figures 33a and 33b. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The best results after dislocations of the tarsometatarsal joints are seen with anatomic reduction; this is best achieved by open reduction and maintained with internal fixation with either pins or screws.  Open reduction provides a means of debriding small bony fragments from the joint and allowing direct inspection of the reduction.  Associated crush or shearing fractures of the cuboid or tarsal navicula are signs that suggest a Lisfranc injury.  Because patients can function quite well despite the development of arthrosis in the Lisfranc joint, primary arthrodesis is not indicated in the management of this injury.
REFERENCES: Resch S, Stenstrom A: The treatment of tarsometatarsal injuries.  Foot Ankle 1990;11:117-123.
Schenck RC Jr, Heckman JD: Fractures and dislocations of the forefoot: Operative and nonoperative treatment.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1995;3:70-78.
Kuo RS, Tejwani NC, Digiovanni CW, et al: Outcome after open reduction and internal fixation of Lisfranc joint injuries.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1609-1618.

Question 98

A right-handed 14-year-old pitcher has had a 3-month history of shoulder pain while pitching. Examination reveals full range of motion, a mildly positive impingement sign, pain with rotational movement, and no instability. Plain AP radiographs of both shoulders are shown in Figures 25a and 25b. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has the classic signs of Little Leaguer’s shoulder, with findings that include pain localized to the proximal humerus during the act of throwing and radiographic evidence of widening of the proximal humeral physis.  Examination usually reveals tenderness to palpation over the proximal humerus, but the presence of any swelling, weakness, atrophy, or loss of motion is unlikely.  The treatment of choice is rest from throwing for at least 3 months, followed by a gradual return to pitching once the shoulder is asymptomatic.
REFERENCES: Carson WG Jr, Gasser SI: Little Leaguer’s shoulder: A report of 23 cases.  Am J Sports Med 1998;26:575-580.
Barnett LS:  Little League shoulder syndrome: Proximal humeral epiphyseolysis in adolescent baseball pitchers.  A case report.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:495-496.

Question 99

In the nonsurgical management of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction with flexible deformity, a common strategy is to prescribe an ankle-foot orthosis or a University of California Biomechanics Laboratory (UCBL) orthosis with medial posting. A high patient satisfaction rating and favorable outcome with this nonsurgical management is most likely in which of the following situations?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most authors recommend an initial trial of nonsurgical management in the treatment of adult-acquired flatfoot deformity such as posterior tibial tendon dysfunction.  Chao and associates found that there is high patient satisfaction with ankle-foot orthoses and UCBL-type inserts in elderly patients with a relatively sedentary lifestyle.  Alternatively, there was a higher dissatisfaction rate in young active patients, those with balance and ambulation difficulties (Parkinson’s, severe arthritis of the hip or knee), and patients with inflammatory systemic disorders.
REFERENCES: Chao W, Wapner KL, Lee TH, et al: Nonoperative management of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction.  Foot Ankle Int 1996;17:736-741.
Noll KH: The use of orthotic devices in adult acquired flatfoot deformity.  Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:25-36.

Question 100

A knock-out mouse for the Vitamin D receptor has which of the following phenotypes?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A knock-out mouse to the Vitamin D receptor would cause loss of vitamin D function, resulting in rickets. Renal failure would not occur; although Vitamin D is converted from 25 (OH) D to 1,25 (OH) D in the kidney, the active hormone acts on the gut and bone.  Osteopetrosis can be seen as the phenotype for the c fos knock-out mouse; the Jansen-type metaphyseal dysplasia phenotype results from overactivation of the PTH/PTHrp receptor.  Although compensatory hyperparathyroidism would occur, excessive PTH would not be able to rescue the skeletal loss and instead phosphoturia and phosphotasia would result.
REFERENCES: Glowacki J, Hurwitz S, Thornhill TS, et al: Osteoporosis and vitamin-D deficiency among postmenopausal women with osteoarthritis undergoing total hip arthroplasty.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:2371-2377.
Buckwalter JA, Einhorn TA, Simon SR (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Biology and Biomechanics of the Musculoskeletal System, ed 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, p 51.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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