Comprehensive Master Guide · Medically Reviewed

Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...

Test your knowledge with Dr. Hutaif's General Orthopedics Review. Features interactive MCQs, timed quizzes, and score tracking to boost your exam prep.

6 Detailed Chapters
45 min read
Updated: Apr 2026
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Medically Reviewed by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Quick Medical Answer

This interactive board review contains 100 randomly selected orthopedic surgery questions with clinical images, immediate feedback, and detailed references.

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Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 4-month-old infant presents with recurrent fractures, cranial nerve palsies, and diffuse skeletal sclerosis on radiographs. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the TCIRG1 gene. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this condition?





Explanation

TCIRG1 mutation is the most common cause of infantile malignant osteopetrosis. It encodes the a3 subunit of the V-ATPase, which is essential for acidifying the resorption lacuna. Defective ruffled border and proton pump function prevents bone resorption, leading to dense but brittle bone.

Question 2

A 25-year-old male presents following a high-speed MVC with a closed midshaft femur fracture, bilateral pulmonary contusions, and a GCS of 7. His arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.21, lactate of 4.5 mmol/L, and PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 180. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of his femur fracture?





Explanation

This patient is in an 'in extremis' or 'unstable' physiological state based on his acidosis, high lactate, severe head injury, and pulmonary contusions. Damage control orthopedics (DCO), which involves rapid external fixation, is indicated to minimize the second hit phenomenon and inflammatory burden.

Question 3

A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain 5 years after undergoing an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty utilizing a large diameter CoCr head on a titanium stem. Radiographs show a well-fixed stem and cup with no osteolysis. Laboratory tests show elevated serum cobalt levels, normal ESR, and normal CRP. Joint aspiration yields opaque fluid with negative cultures. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Trunnionosis refers to mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction. It is more common with large diameter CoCr heads on titanium stems. It presents with elevated serum cobalt (disproportionately higher than chromium), adverse local tissue reaction (pseudotumors), and pain without signs of clinical infection.

Question 4

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with 3 weeks of insidious onset left groin and thigh pain. He walks with a limp and exhibits an externally rotated foot progression angle. On examination, as the left hip is flexed, it obligately externally rotates. Radiographs confirm a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following represents the primary mechanism of displacement?





Explanation

In SCFE, the epiphysis actually remains relatively tethered within the acetabulum while the femoral neck (metaphysis) displaces anteriorly and superiorly relative to the epiphysis.

Question 5

During an electrodiagnostic study, a patient's median nerve is stimulated at the elbow and wrist, recording over the abductor pollicis brevis, showing normal amplitude. However, when recording over the first dorsal interosseous (FDI), stimulating the median nerve at the elbow produces a compound muscle action potential (CMAP), but stimulating it at the wrist does not. Which anatomical variant explains this finding?





Explanation

The Martin-Gruber anastomosis is a common motor crossover from the median nerve to the ulnar nerve in the forearm. When present, median nerve stimulation at the elbow will capture these crossover fibers to ulnar-innervated muscles like the FDI, whereas wrist stimulation will not.

Question 6

A 15-year-old male presents with persistent distal thigh pain. Radiographs reveal a poorly defined, mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis with a 'sunburst' periosteal reaction. Biopsy confirms high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma. Which of the following genetic alterations is most frequently associated with the pathogenesis of this tumor?





Explanation

Osteosarcoma is highly associated with mutations in tumor suppressor genes, specifically RB1 (associated with familial retinoblastoma) and TP53 (associated with Li-Fraumeni syndrome). t(11;22) is Ewing sarcoma, EXT1 is osteochondroma, MDM2 is parosteal osteosarcoma, and t(X;18) is synovial sarcoma.

Question 7

A 28-year-old male sustains a dashboard injury in a motor vehicle collision. Examination reveals a positive posterior drawer test. The dial test shows a 15-degree increase in external rotation at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral normal knee. Which of the following structures are most likely injured?





Explanation

The Dial test evaluates for injuries to the posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). An asymmetric increase of >10 degrees of external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion indicates a PLC injury. If the asymmetry persists or increases at 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 8

A 55-year-old poorly controlled diabetic male presents with a swollen, warm, and erythematous right foot. He denies any systemic symptoms. Radiographs show fragmentation of the navicular and cuneiforms with early subluxation at the midtarsal joints. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?





Explanation

The patient is presenting with acute Eichenholtz stage I Charcot neuroarthropathy. The mainstay of initial treatment is immobilization and offloading, typically with a total contact cast (TCC), to prevent further deformity until the acute inflammatory phase resolves and coalescence occurs.

Question 9

A 68-year-old male with pre-existing cervical spondylosis presents after a hyperextension injury to his neck from a fall. He has 2/5 motor strength in his upper extremities and 4/5 motor strength in his lower extremities. He has patchy sensory loss and urinary retention. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Central cord syndrome classically occurs in older patients with cervical spondylosis following a hyperextension injury. It presents with motor weakness that is disproportionately more severe in the upper extremities than the lower extremities, along with variable sensory loss and potential bladder dysfunction.

Question 10

In total joint arthroplasty, which of the following modifications to ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) most effectively increases its resistance to adhesive and abrasive wear?





Explanation

Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) is created by exposing UHMWPE to ionizing radiation, which creates free radicals that recombine to form strong cross-links. This significantly increases wear resistance and reduces particulate debris, though it necessitates subsequent thermal treatment to extinguish residual free radicals.

Question 11

A 6-year-old girl sustains a displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. On presentation, her hand is pale with an absent radial pulse. After rapid closed reduction and percutaneous pinning, her hand becomes pink and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds, but the radial pulse remains unpalpable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?





Explanation

A 'pink, pulseless' hand following reduction and stabilization of a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture indicates adequate collateral circulation. Current orthopedic guidelines recommend close observation for 24-48 hours rather than immediate vascular exploration, provided the hand remains well-perfused with brisk capillary refill.

Question 12

A 32-year-old male sustains a closed tibia fracture and undergoes intramedullary nailing. Postoperatively, he complains of severe pain out of proportion to the injury, not relieved by opioids. Which of the following clinical signs is considered the most sensitive early indicator of acute compartment syndrome?





Explanation

Pain out of proportion to the injury and pain with passive stretch of the muscles traversing the affected compartment are the earliest and most sensitive clinical signs of acute compartment syndrome. Pulselessness, pallor, and paralysis are late, ominous signs of irreversible ischemia.

Question 13

A 24-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of vague, deep shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. He has a positive active compression test (O'Brien's). MR arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. What is the defining anatomical feature of a Type II SLAP tear?





Explanation

According to Snyder's classification: Type I is fraying of the superior labrum with an intact biceps anchor. Type II is detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor. Type III is a bucket-handle tear of the labrum with an intact biceps anchor. Type IV is a bucket-handle tear extending into the biceps tendon.

Question 14

A 21-year-old male falls onto an outstretched hand and presents with anatomic snuffbox tenderness. Initial radiographs are negative, but repeat imaging 2 weeks later shows a non-displaced fracture of the proximal pole of the scaphoid. What is the primary reason this fracture pattern is at a high risk for avascular necrosis?





Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid comes from branches of the radial artery that enter the dorsal ridge distally and flow in a retrograde fashion to supply the proximal pole. Fractures at the proximal pole completely disrupt this retrograde supply, leading to a high rate of avascular necrosis and nonunion.

Question 15

When designing a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty implant, the interaction between the femoral cam and the tibial post is engineered to replicate the function of which native structure?





Explanation

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA, the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is sacrificed. The implant substitutes for the PCL's function (preventing excessive posterior translation of the tibia and inducing femoral rollback during flexion) via the interaction between a cam on the femoral component and a vertical post on the polyethylene tibial insert.

Question 16

A 65-year-old female presents with persistent, dull, aching back pain. Radiographs show a compressive fracture of L4 and multiple 'punched-out' lytic lesions in her skull. Serum protein electrophoresis reveals a monoclonal spike. Which of the following factors is primarily responsible for the osteolytic bone destruction seen in this disease process?





Explanation

Multiple myeloma cells secrete various factors (such as MIP-1 alpha and IL-6) that upregulate RANKL expression by marrow stromal cells and downregulate OPG. This leads to profound osteoclast activation and the characteristic lytic bone lesions. The myeloma cells do not directly resorb bone.

Question 17

A 12-year-old premenarchal female presents with a right thoracic scoliosis curve of 35 degrees. Her Risser stage is 0. Which combination of factors indicates the highest risk for curve progression in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis?





Explanation

Risk factors for progression in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) include female gender (females are up to 10 times more likely to have curves progress to surgical magnitude), substantial remaining skeletal growth (premenarchal status, open triradiate cartilage, Risser 0), and double curve patterns.

Question 18

An infant born with idiopathic congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot) is undergoing serial casting using the Ponseti method. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of deformity correction?





Explanation

The mnemonic CAVE dictates the correct physiological sequence of correction in the Ponseti method: Cavus (corrected by supinating the forefoot to align with the hindfoot), Adductus, Varus, and finally Equinus (which often requires a percutaneous Achilles tenotomy as the final step).

Question 19

A 35-year-old female presents with knee pain. Radiographs reveal an eccentrically located, lytic epiphyseal lesion extending to the subchondral bone in the proximal tibia. Biopsy shows multinucleated giant cells interspersed with mononuclear stromal cells. Treatment with Denosumab is considered. Denosumab targets which of the following to arrest tumor progression?





Explanation

Giant Cell Tumor of Bone consists of neoplastic mononuclear stromal cells and reactive multinucleated giant cells. The neoplastic stromal cells produce excessive RANKL, which recruits and activates the osteoclast-like giant cells. Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to RANKL, preventing it from activating the RANK receptor on the giant cells.

Question 20

A 40-year-old male sustains an anteroposterior compression (APC-III) pelvic ring injury and an associated perineal laceration with gross fecal contamination after a crushing industrial accident. Following application of a pelvic external fixator, his hemodynamics stabilize. What is the next most critical step in his management to reduce mortality?





Explanation

Open pelvic fractures with perineal or rectal involvement carry a very high risk of fatal sepsis. Once gross hemorrhage is controlled and the pelvic volume is stabilized, aggressive management of the contaminated wound via a diverting colostomy and thorough perineal debridement is critical to prevent overwhelming pelvic sepsis.

Question 21

Which of the following metal combinations represents the highest risk for galvanic corrosion when used together in an orthopaedic implant construct?





Explanation

Mixing stainless steel with either titanium or cobalt-chromium alloys is contraindicated due to a high risk of galvanic corrosion. Because stainless steel is significantly less noble (more anodic) than titanium, the stainless steel component will undergo rapid and severe corrosion when coupled with titanium in the body's electrolytic environment. Titanium and cobalt-chromium are more compatible with each other due to similar nobility profiles, though mixing them is still generally minimized.

Question 22

Which of the following vessels provides the predominant blood supply to the body of the talus?





Explanation

The artery of the tarsal canal, which is a branch of the posterior tibial artery, provides the majority of the blood supply to the talar body. It forms an anastomotic sling with the artery of the tarsal sinus (derived from the anterior tibial and peroneal arteries) beneath the talar neck.

Question 23

In the biomechanical evaluation of viscoelastic materials such as ligaments and tendons, which of the following best defines the phenomenon of 'creep'?





Explanation

Creep is the progressive deformation of a viscoelastic material over time when it is subjected to a constant load. Stress relaxation (Option A) is the gradual decrease in stress over time when the material is held at a constant deformation. Hysteresis (Option C) is the energy lost during the loading and unloading cycle.

Question 24

Which zone of articular cartilage is characterized by the highest concentration of water, the lowest concentration of proteoglycans, and collagen fibers aligned parallel to the joint surface?





Explanation

The superficial (tangential) zone of articular cartilage has the highest water content and the lowest proteoglycan concentration. Its collagen fibers (primarily Type II) are oriented parallel to the articular surface to strongly resist shear forces.

Question 25

What is the most important independent prognostic factor for long-term survival in a patient with localized, high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma?





Explanation

The degree of tumor necrosis after neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic indicator for localized osteosarcoma. A 'good response' is typically defined as greater than 90% tumor necrosis, which correlates highly with improved long-term disease-free survival.

Question 26

A 24-year-old overhead athlete undergoes shoulder arthroscopy. The surgeon identifies a bucket-handle tear of the superior labrum that extends into the long head of the biceps tendon. According to the Snyder classification, what type of SLAP lesion is this?





Explanation

According to the Snyder classification: Type I is fraying of the superior labrum; Type II is detachment of the superior labrum and biceps anchor from the glenoid; Type III is a bucket-handle tear of the labrum with an intact biceps anchor; Type IV is a bucket-handle tear of the labrum that extends into the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 27

A patient presents with an inability to form an 'OK' sign with their thumb and index finger. Examination reveals weakness in flexing the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger. Which of the following muscles is additionally denervated in this syndrome?





Explanation

The patient has Anterior Interosseous Nerve (AIN) syndrome. The AIN is a pure motor branch of the median nerve that innervates the flexor pollicis longus (FPL), the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP to the index and middle fingers), and the pronator quadratus.

Question 28

During the ilioinguinal approach to the pelvis, the surgeon must carefully identify and ligate the 'corona mortis' to prevent catastrophic hemorrhage. This structure typically represents an anastomosis between which two vascular systems?





Explanation

The corona mortis ('crown of death') is a retropubic vascular anastomosis between the obturator vessels and the external iliac or inferior epigastric vessels. It is located over the superior pubic ramus and is at high risk of injury during anterior pelvic approaches.

Question 29

Which of the following is a recognized unique complication specific to ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty bearing surfaces compared to other bearing options?





Explanation

Squeaking is a unique, well-documented complication of ceramic-on-ceramic THA, occurring in up to 10-24% of cases. Ceramic bearings offer excellent resistance to volumetric wear and do not undergo creep or release allergenic metal ions, but they can be noisy and carry a small risk of catastrophic fracture.

Question 30

Which of the following pressure measurements is generally accepted as an absolute indication for emergent fasciotomy in a patient with a suspected acute compartment syndrome of the leg?





Explanation

The most reliable threshold for diagnosing acute compartment syndrome is a Delta P (diastolic blood pressure minus the measured compartment pressure) of less than 30 mmHg. Relying purely on absolute compartment pressures can lead to over-treatment in hypotensive patients or missed diagnoses in hypertensive patients.

Question 31

Tranexamic acid (TXA) is widely used in orthopedic surgery to reduce perioperative blood loss. Which of the following best describes its mechanism of action?





Explanation

Tranexamic acid is a synthetic analog of the amino acid lysine. It functions as an antifibrinolytic by reversibly binding to the lysine-binding sites on plasminogen, which prevents its activation into plasmin. This stabilizes existing fibrin clots and reduces bleeding.

Question 32

A 7-year-old boy from an endemic area presents with an acute, massive effusion of his right knee. He is afebrile and tolerating weight-bearing. Joint aspiration yields 45,000 WBCs/mm3 with 80% neutrophils. Serology for Borrelia burgdorferi is positive. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?





Explanation

The clinical presentation describes Lyme arthritis. Despite high synovial fluid cell counts that mimic septic arthritis, a patient who is systemically well and positive for Lyme in an endemic area should be treated initially with a 28-day course of oral antibiotics (amoxicillin for young children, doxycycline for adults/older children). Operative intervention is not initially indicated.

Question 33

A 28-year-old male presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near his knee. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is pathognomonic for this soft tissue sarcoma?





Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the pathognomonic t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. t(11;22) is seen in Ewing sarcoma, t(12;16) in myxoid liposarcoma, and t(2;13) in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma.

Question 34

A 35-year-old male is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture). What is the classic mechanism of injury for this specific fracture pattern?





Explanation

A classic 'Hangman's fracture' (traumatic spondylolisthesis of C2) usually occurs from high-energy trauma (such as hitting the chin on a dashboard during an MVA), resulting in a combination of axial loading and hyperextension. (Note: Judicial hanging causes hyperextension and distraction).

Question 35

According to the Hueter-Volkmann law, which of the following biomechanical principles explains the progressive genu varum deformity seen in infantile Blount's disease?





Explanation

The Hueter-Volkmann law states that increased compressive forces across a physis inhibit growth, while tensile forces stimulate growth. In Blount's disease, pathological compressive forces on the medial proximal tibial physis inhibit its growth, leading to a progressive varus deformity.

Question 36

A 55-year-old diabetic patient presents with a red, hot, swollen right foot and ankle. Radiographs show periarticular debris, fragmentation of the navicular, and subluxation of the midtarsal joints. According to the Eichenholtz classification, what is the most appropriate management at this stage?





Explanation

The patient is in Eichenholtz Stage I (Development/Fragmentation) of Charcot arthropathy. The mainstay of treatment in the acute, active phase is rigid immobilization and offloading, which is most effectively achieved with a total contact cast. Surgical reconstruction is generally contraindicated in the acute phase.

Question 37

In a 12-year-old male presenting with a unilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), which of the following is an established indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the asymptomatic contralateral hip?





Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is highly recommended in patients with an underlying endocrinopathy (such as hypothyroidism or panhypopituitarism), renal osteodystrophy, or prior radiation therapy, due to a significantly elevated risk of developing bilateral disease compared to idiopathic SCFE.

Question 38

In a patient with an L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis and associated lumbar spinal stenosis, which nerve root is most commonly compressed, and where does the compression typically occur?





Explanation

In L4-L5 degenerative spondylolisthesis, the neural arch is intact. The traversing L5 nerve root is most commonly compressed in the lateral recess due to a combination of facet joint hypertrophy, ligamentum flavum buckling, and disc bulging.

Question 39

Which of the following conditions is an absolute requirement for primary (direct) bone healing to occur without the formation of a cartilaginous callus?





Explanation

Primary (direct) bone healing bypasses endochondral ossification (callus formation) and requires absolute mechanical stability (strain < 2%) alongside anatomic reduction (gap < 0.1 mm). It occurs via osteonal cutting cones directly crossing the fracture line. Relative stability results in secondary bone healing via callus formation.

Question 40

A 14-year-old boy presents with fever, weight loss, and a painful diaphyseal lesion of the femur. Radiographs reveal a permeative destructive lesion with an 'onion-skin' periosteal reaction. Histopathology shows small round blue cells. Which cell surface marker is characteristically highly expressed in this tumor?





Explanation

The clinical and radiographic presentation strongly suggests Ewing sarcoma. Histologically, it is a small round blue cell tumor that characteristically exhibits strong, diffuse membranous staining for CD99 (MIC2). CD45 is a marker for lymphoma, and CD31/CD34 are markers for vascular tumors.

Question 41

A 24-year-old athlete undergoes an osteochondral autograft transfer for a femoral condyle defect. Which zone of articular cartilage is primarily responsible for resisting sheer stress and contains the highest concentration of collagen?





Explanation

The superficial (tangential) zone of articular cartilage has the highest concentration of Type II collagen fibers arranged parallel to the joint surface. This configuration allows it to primarily resist shear stress. The deep zone primarily resists compressive forces.

Question 42

In modern total hip arthroplasty, highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) is commonly used to reduce wear rates. Which of the following manufacturing processes is utilized to eliminate free radicals generated during the cross-linking process and prevent subsequent in vivo oxidation?





Explanation

Gamma irradiation induces cross-linking, which improves wear resistance but generates free radicals that can lead to oxidation and embrittlement. To eliminate these free radicals, the polyethylene is either melted or annealed post-irradiation. Vitamin E can also be added as an antioxidant to quench free radicals without thermal treatment.

Question 43

A 38-year-old male is brought to the trauma bay after a motorcycle collision. He has a heart rate of 130 bpm and blood pressure of 75/40 mmHg. Pelvic radiographs show an anteroposterior compression type III (APC III) injury. After initiating massive transfusion protocols, what is the most appropriate initial mechanical intervention?





Explanation

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with an open-book pelvic ring injury, the initial mechanical intervention is the application of a pelvic binder to reduce pelvic volume and promote tamponade. The binder must be centered over the greater trochanters, not the iliac crests, to effectively close the pelvic ring.

Question 44

A 32-year-old female presents with knee pain and swelling. Radiographs show an eccentric, lytic epiphyseal lesion in the distal femur without a sclerotic rim. Biopsy confirms a giant cell tumor of bone. If medical therapy is considered, which of the following describes the mechanism of the most appropriate targeted agent?





Explanation

Giant cell tumor of bone is driven by neoplastic stromal cells that express high levels of RANKL, which recruits and activates reactive multinucleated osteoclast-like giant cells. Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds directly to RANKL, inhibiting this process and reducing tumor-related bone destruction.

Question 45

A 3-month-old female is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). During a follow-up visit, the parents note that the infant has stopped kicking her left leg. Examination reveals active hip flexion is absent, but hip adduction and ankle movements are intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this complication?





Explanation

Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of the Pavlik harness and presents with decreased active hip flexion and knee extension. It is typically caused by excessive hip flexion in the harness, and management involves adjusting the straps to reduce flexion or temporarily discontinuing the harness.

Question 46

A 45-year-old male undergoes a spinal fusion using a structural cortical freeze-dried allograft. Which of the following best describes the predominant mechanism of initial graft incorporation?





Explanation

Cortical allografts incorporate primarily through osteoconduction and creeping substitution. The graft acts as a scaffold, but incorporation is slow and often remains incomplete centrally.

Question 47

A 14-year-old boy presents with a permeative lytic lesion in the femoral diaphysis with a periosteal "onion skin" reaction. Biopsy reveals small blue round cells. Which of the following translocations is most characteristic of this tumor?





Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is typically characterized by the t(11;22) chromosomal translocation, resulting in the EWS-FLI1 fusion protein. This drives the pathogenesis of this aggressive small blue round cell tumor.

Question 48

During the Ponseti method of serial casting for idiopathic clubfoot, what is the correct biomechanical sequence of deformity correction?





Explanation

The mnemonic CAVE dictates the correct order of correction in the Ponseti method: Cavus, Adductus, Varus, and finally Equinus. The cavus is corrected first by supinating the forefoot to align it with the hindfoot.

Question 49

A 68-year-old female presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 2 years postoperatively. Aspiration reveals a synovial fluid WBC count of 35,000 cells/mcL with 92% PMNs. Components are well-fixed on radiographs. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?





Explanation

Chronic periprosthetic joint infections (occurring >4 weeks post-op) are classically treated with a two-stage exchange arthroplasty. Irrigation and debridement with poly exchange is reserved for acute infections (symptoms <3 weeks or <4 weeks post-op).

Question 50

A 72-year-old man presents with bilateral leg pain and heaviness that worsens with walking and is relieved by leaning over a shopping cart. MRI shows severe L4-L5 central canal stenosis. Which ligament hypertrophies and primarily contributes to this stenosis?





Explanation

Lumbar spinal stenosis is commonly caused by a combination of facet arthropathy, disc bulging, and hypertrophy of the ligamentum flavum. Flexion relieves symptoms by stretching the ligamentum flavum and increasing the canal diameter.

Question 51

During an open carpal tunnel release, the surgeon must be careful to avoid injuring the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve. Through which of the following muscles does the transmuscular variant of this nerve pass?





Explanation

The recurrent motor branch of the median nerve usually takes an extraligamentous course. In its transmuscular variant, it pierces the flexor retinaculum or the flexor pollicis brevis muscle.

Question 52

A 35-year-old male is brought to the ED after a motorcycle crash. Pelvic radiographs show an APC-III pelvic ring injury. He remains hemodynamically unstable despite a pelvic binder and massive transfusion protocols. What is the most appropriate next step in surgical management?





Explanation

In a hemodynamically unstable patient with a mechanically stabilized pelvic ring injury, preperitoneal pelvic packing or angioembolization is indicated. Hemorrhage in APC injuries is most commonly venous from the presacral plexus, making packing highly effective.

Question 53

A 24-year-old football player sustains a hyperplantarflexion injury to his foot. Radiographs show a "fleck sign" at the base of the second metatarsal. The primary stabilizing ligament of this joint connects which two structural bones?





Explanation

The Lisfranc ligament is an interosseous ligament that connects the medial cuneiform to the base of the second metatarsal. It provides critical stability to the midfoot articulation, and avulsion results in the pathognomonic "fleck sign."

Question 54

A 12-year-old obese male presents with left knee pain and an antalgic gait. Exam reveals obligatory external rotation of the hip upon passive flexion. Following in situ pinning of a severe slipped capital femoral epiphysis, the patient develops a rapid loss of joint space and progressive stiffness. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

Chondrolysis is a devastating complication of SCFE characterized by rapid loss of articular cartilage and joint stiffness. It is strongly associated with unrecognized intra-articular hardware penetration during pinning.

Question 55

Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) are osteoinductive growth factors belonging to the TGF-beta superfamily. Which of the following BMPs is an FDA-approved biologically active protein used as an adjunct in acute open tibia fractures?





Explanation

Recombinant human BMP-2 (rhBMP-2) is FDA approved for use in acute open tibial shaft fractures and anterior lumbar interbody fusions. BMP-3 actually acts as an antagonist to osteogenesis.

Question 56

A 55-year-old laborer undergoes an arthroscopic massive rotator cuff repair. Six months postoperatively, MRI reveals a retear. Which of the following preoperative MRI findings is most strongly associated with structural failure of rotator cuff healing?





Explanation

Advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier grade 3 or 4) and muscle atrophy are irreversible changes. They are strongly predictive of poor clinical outcomes and structural failure after rotator cuff repair.

Question 57

A 30-year-old man sustains a closed high-energy tibial shaft fracture. Eight hours later, he develops excruciating pain out of proportion to the injury. Which of the following is the most sensitive and earliest clinical finding for acute compartment syndrome?





Explanation

Pain with passive stretch of the muscles in the involved compartment is the most sensitive and earliest clinical indicator of acute compartment syndrome. Pulselessness and paralysis are late, often irreversible signs.

Question 58

In total hip arthroplasty, the use of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) has significantly reduced wear rates. Which of the following mechanical trade-offs is a direct consequence of increasing the radiation dose to maximize cross-linking?





Explanation

While irradiation creates cross-links that dramatically reduce adhesive wear, it also degrades the mechanical properties of the polyethylene. Specifically, it reduces fracture toughness, ultimate tensile strength, and fatigue resistance.

Question 59

A 45-year-old male sustains a traumatic spondylolisthesis of the axis (Hangman's fracture) following an MVC. Radiographs show a 4mm displacement and 12 degrees of angulation. According to the Levine and Edwards classification, which of the following is the mechanism of this Type II injury?





Explanation

A Type II Hangman's fracture typically results from hyperextension and axial loading followed by severe flexion and compression. This combined mechanism disrupts the C2-C3 disc, leading to displacement and angulation.

Question 60

A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with a high-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma of the distal femur. He undergoes neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by wide surgical resection. Pathological analysis of the resected specimen shows 95% tumor necrosis. What does this percentage primarily indicate?





Explanation

The degree of tumor necrosis following neoadjuvant chemotherapy is the single most important prognostic factor in osteosarcoma. Necrosis of 90% or greater designates a "good responder" and is associated with significantly better long-term survival.

Question 61

A 28-year-old female falls from a height and sustains a Hawkins Type III fracture of the talar neck. Which of the following best describes the articulations dislocated in this injury pattern?





Explanation

In the Hawkins classification of talar neck fractures, a Type III injury involves displacement of the fracture with dislocation of the subtalar, tibiotalar, and talonavicular joints. It carries a nearly 100% risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 62

Regarding the ultrastructure of hyaline articular cartilage, which zone contains the highest concentration of proteoglycans, the lowest concentration of water, and chondrocytes arranged in columns?





Explanation

The deep (radial) zone of articular cartilage is responsible for providing the greatest resistance to compressive forces. It contains the highest concentration of proteoglycans, the lowest water content, and vertically aligned chondrocytes.

Question 63

An 8-month-old female with neglected developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) undergoes closed reduction and spica casting. Postoperatively, what is the most significant risk associated with casting the hip in excessive abduction (greater than 60 degrees)?





Explanation

Immobilizing a dysplastic hip in excessive abduction significantly increases tension on the medial circumflex femoral artery. This compromises blood supply and poses a severe iatrogenic risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 64

A 30-year-old carpenter sustains a volar laceration over the proximal phalanx of his index finger, transecting both the FDS and FDP tendons. According to the Verdan classification, which zone of flexor tendon injury does this represent?





Explanation

Zone II, historically known as "no man's land," extends from the A1 pulley (distal palmar crease) to the insertion of the flexor digitorum superficialis. Injuries here are notoriously difficult to treat due to adhesions between both tendons in the tight fibro-osseous sheath.

Question 65

Which cytokine is secreted by osteoblasts to directly stimulate osteoclast differentiation by binding to its specific receptor on the surface of osteoclast precursors?





Explanation

RANKL is secreted by osteoblasts and binds to RANK on osteoclast precursors, stimulating their differentiation and activation. OPG acts as a decoy receptor to inhibit this process.

Question 66

Which zone of articular cartilage is characterized by the highest concentration of water and collagen fibers that are oriented parallel to the articular surface?





Explanation

The superficial zone of articular cartilage contains the highest water content and has collagen fibers oriented parallel to the joint surface to resist shear forces. Deep zone fibers are perpendicular to resist compressive loads.

Question 67

A 68-year-old male presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 3 years post-operatively. Which biomarker, measured in synovial fluid, directly binds to and neutralizes microbial cell membranes and is highly specific for periprosthetic joint infection?





Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils that integrates into and destroys microbial cell membranes. It is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 68

A 32-year-old male sustains a closed tibia fracture and develops worsening leg pain. Compartment pressures are measured. What pressure threshold is most universally accepted as an absolute indication for emergency fasciotomy?





Explanation

A delta pressure (diastolic blood pressure minus compartment pressure) of less than 30 mmHg is the most reliable threshold and indication for fasciotomy in acute compartment syndrome.

Question 69

A 13-year-old obese male presents with an obligatory external rotation of the hip during active flexion. Radiographs confirm a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). This physical exam finding is due to the displacement of the femoral neck in which direction relative to the epiphysis?





Explanation

In a SCFE, the epiphysis stays securely in the acetabulum while the femoral neck displaces anteriorly and superiorly. This alters the mechanical axis, causing the thigh to externally rotate during flexion.

Question 70

A 55-year-old female with short bowel syndrome presents with diffuse bone pain and symmetric Looser zones on radiographs. What is the expected laboratory profile for her condition?





Explanation

The patient has osteomalacia secondary to malabsorption. This causes poor vitamin D absorption, leading to low calcium and phosphate, which triggers secondary hyperparathyroidism (high PTH) and elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP).

Question 71

A 24-year-old male sustains a displaced proximal pole scaphoid fracture. The primary blood supply at highest risk of disruption enters the scaphoid at which anatomic location?





Explanation

The primary blood supply to the scaphoid is retrograde, entering via branches of the radial artery at the dorsal ridge. Proximal pole fractures therefore carry a high risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 72

According to Perren's strain theory, providing absolute fracture stability with less than 2% interfragmentary strain will promote which specific type of bone healing?





Explanation

Absolute stability (strain less than 2%) allows for primary bone healing without callus formation. This is achieved via Haversian remodeling where osteoclasts create cutting cones followed immediately by osteoblast bone deposition.

Question 73

During a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon uses spacer blocks and notes that the knee is tight in flexion but balanced and stable in extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?





Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension has an isolated tight flexion gap. Decreasing the femoral component size (with an anterior referencing guide) will increase the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.

Question 74

A 15-year-old male presents with a distal femur destructive lesion with a Codman triangle. Biopsy reveals malignant spindle cells producing osteoid. What is the most significant prognostic factor for overall survival in this condition?





Explanation

In osteosarcoma, the most significant prognostic indicator for long-term survival is the histologic response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy, specifically greater than 90% tumor necrosis.

Question 75

A 6-week-old female treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip lacks active knee extension on the affected side at a 2-week follow-up. This complication is most likely caused by which positioning error?





Explanation

Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of the Pavlik harness, typically caused by hyperflexion of the hips (excessive hip flexion). Treatment involves adjusting the anterior straps to reduce flexion.

Question 76

A 40-year-old hypotensive male presents with an anteroposterior compression type III (APC-III) pelvic ring injury. To be most effective in reducing pelvic volume and venous bleeding, a pelvic binder must be centered directly over which anatomic landmarks?





Explanation

Pelvic binders provide the most effective mechanical reduction of pelvic volume when centered directly over the greater trochanters. Placing them higher (e.g., over the iliac crests) is less effective and may exacerbate the injury.

Question 77

A 45-year-old male presents with acute urinary retention, saddle anesthesia, and bilateral leg weakness secondary to a massive L4-L5 disc herniation. Current literature indicates that to maximize the chance of urologic recovery, surgical decompression should ideally be performed within what time frame from symptom onset?





Explanation

Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. The best neurologic and urologic outcomes are associated with surgical decompression within 48 hours of symptom onset.

Question 78

The introduction of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) in total hip arthroplasty has drastically reduced the incidence of osteolysis primarily by decreasing which specific mechanism of wear?





Explanation

Adhesive wear produces the millions of submicron particles that cause macrophage-mediated osteolysis. The cross-linking process severely limits the polymer chains from being pulled off the surface, thus drastically reducing adhesive wear.

Question 79

During an in-situ decompression of the ulnar nerve for cubital tunnel syndrome, the surgeon releases the fascial band spanning the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. What is the eponym for this anatomic structure?





Explanation

Osborne's ligament forms the roof of the cubital tunnel and connects the olecranon and medial epicondylar heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris. It is a primary site of ulnar nerve compression.

Question 80

Following anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the graft undergoes ligamentization. During which phase is the graft structurally and mechanically at its weakest?





Explanation

The graft is mechanically weakest during the proliferation/revascularization phase (typically 4-12 weeks post-op) due to cellular necrosis and the early ingrowth of new blood vessels and fibroblasts.

Question 81

A 28-year-old male sustains a Gustilo-Anderson type IIIB open tibia fracture in a motorcycle collision. According to established trauma guidelines, what is the single most critical modifiable factor in reducing the risk of deep infection?





Explanation

Extensive literature demonstrates that the time to the first dose of systemic intravenous antibiotics is the most important determinant in reducing infection rates in open fractures. Administration within 1 hour of injury is recommended.

Question 82

In a 7-year-old boy diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, which of the following classification systems is considered the most reliable radiographic prognostic indicator when assessed at the time of maximal epiphyseal fragmentation?





Explanation

The Herring Lateral Pillar classification is the most reliable prognostic indicator for Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. It assesses the height of the lateral third of the epiphysis during the fragmentation phase.

Question 83

Bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs) initiate intracellular signaling by binding to specific membrane-bound serine/threonine kinase receptors. This directly leads to the phosphorylation and nuclear translocation of which intracellular transcription factors?





Explanation

BMPs signal through cell-surface serine/threonine kinase receptors, which phosphorylate intracellular SMAD proteins. The activated SMAD complexes then translocate to the nucleus to regulate target gene transcription for osteoblast differentiation.

None

Detailed Chapters & Topics

Dive deeper into specialized chapters regarding orthopedic-mcqs-online-bank-oite-22

6 Chapters
01
Chapter 1 14 min

Perioperative & Orthopaedic Medicine: Preventing Dangerous Blood Clots

Thromboprophylaxis ‌ Thromboembolic disease Common orthopaedic complication Thrombosis: clotting at improper site Embol…

02
Chapter 2 70 min

HIV in Orthopedic Surgery: Epidemiology, Transmission, & Modern Safety Protocols

Discover the epidemiology and transmission risks of HIV in orthopedic surgery. Learn evidence-based safety protocols to…

03
Chapter 3 22 min

Mastering Infection and Microbiology: A Guide to Diagnosis & Treatment

Infection and Microbiology Musculoskeletal infections overview Treatment overview Empirical treatment: based on the pre…

04
Chapter 4 15 min

Unlock Joint Health: Essential range of movements assessment

In practice, the primary area of interest of the orthopaedic surgeon is in the joints of the limbs and spine, and how w…

05
Chapter 5 21 min

Principles of Surgical Treatment in Operative Orthopaedics

Master the principles of orthopaedic surgical treatment, including indications, AO-ASIF guidelines, biomechanics, and o…

06
Chapter 6 12 min

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome in Orthopaedic Surgery: Pathophysiology, Diagnosis, and Interventional Management

Master the diagnosis and management of Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS) in orthopaedic surgery. Learn why early re…

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Medically Verified Content by
Prof. Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
Guide Overview