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Upper Extremity Orthopedic MCQs (Set 2): Shoulder, Elbow, Wrist & Hand | ABOS & AAOS Board Review

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Upper Extremity Orthopedic MCQs (Set 2): Shoulder, Elbow, Wrist & Hand | ABOS & AAOS Board Review
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Question 26
A 31-year-old man sustained a closed injury to his arm in a motor vehicle accident 16 months ago. Treatment of the fracture consisted of intramedullary nailing of the humerus. He now reports pain with minimal activities. Clinical examination and laboratory studies suggest no signs of infection. Radiographs are seen in Figures 12a through 12c. Treatment should now consist of
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1 Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 2 Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 3
Explanation
The use of locked nailing for the treatment of established nonunion of the humerus has produced poor results. Since humeral nailing has already failed, exchange humeral nailing without bone grafting has an even less change of success. To increase the likelihood of achieving bony union, the treatment of choice is removal of the humeral nail, dynamic compression plating, and bone grafting. Zuckerman J, Giordanno C, Rosen H: Treatment of humeral shaft non-unions, in Bigliani L (ed): Complications of shoulder surgery. Baltimore, MD, William & Wilkins, 1993, pp 173-190.
Question 27
A well-developed college football player reports swelling and a heaviness in the arm after lifting weights. Examination reveals that distal pulses are normal and equal in both arms. A venogram is shown in Figure 13. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 4
Explanation
The clinical findings indicate venous obstruction without arterial compression, and the venogram reveals occlusion of the subclavian vein, which is most likely the result of thoracic outlet compression. In the developed athlete, scalene muscle hypertrophy (Paget-Schroetter syndrome) causes compression of the subclavian vein. Treatment should consist of thrombolysis followed by decompressive surgery. Angle N, Gelabert HA, Farooq MM, et al: Safety and efficacy of early surgical decompression of the thoracic outlet for Paget-Schroetter syndrome. Ann Vasc Surg 2001;15:37-42.
Question 28
Figure 14 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who underwent prosthetic arthroplasty 8 years ago and has now become symptomatic again over the past 18 months. A WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are within normal limits, and aspiration of the glenohumeral joint yields a negative Gram stain and cultures. Which of the following procedures will most likely provide the best pain relief and function?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 5
Explanation
Simple removal of the loose glenoid component or removal of the loose component followed by implantation of a new glenoid component are both appropriate treatment choices, depending on the remaining glenoid bone stock. However, removal and reimplantation appears to provide the most predictable pain relief and better function than removal alone. Antuna SA, Sperling JW, Cofield RH, et al: Glenoid revision surgery after total shoulder arthroplasty. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:217-224.
Question 29
A 52-year-old woman reports the sudden onset of intense pain in the right shoulder. She denies any history of injury or previous shoulder problems. At a 2-week follow-up examination, she notes that the pain has decreased, but she now has severe weakness of the external rotators and abductors. Her cervical spine and remaining shoulder examination are otherwise unremarkable. Radiographs of the shoulder and neck are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 6
Explanation
Patients with brachial neuritis or Parsonage-Turner syndrome usually report the sudden onset of intense pain that subsides in 1 to 2 weeks, followed by weakness for a period of up to 1 year in the muscle that is supplied by the involved nerve. Calcific tendinitis usually can be diagnosed radiographically, with calcium deposits seen in the rotator cuff. Bursitis and rotator cuff tendinosis usually are seen after an increase in activity, and both decrease with rest and medication. Glenohumeral arthritis is a slow, progressive problem that results in a loss of range of motion. Misamore GW, Lehman DE: Parsonage-Turner syndrome (acute brachial neuritis). J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1405-1408.
Question 30
What is the most commonly reported complication following elbow arthroscopy?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 7
Explanation
The complication rate following elbow arthroscopy is reported at 5%. The most commonly reported complication is transient neurapraxia, with nerve transection remaining an unfortunate and rare event. While infection remains the most common serious complication, it is uncommon (0.8%). Synovial cutaneous fistula and compartment syndrome, while reported, are the least frequent complications of elbow arthroscopy. Kelly EW, Morrey BF, O'Driscoll SW: Complications of elbow arthroscopy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:25-34.
Question 31
When an acute infection of a total elbow arthroplasty is managed with irrigation and debridement, which of the following organisms is associated with the highest risk of persistent infection?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 8
Explanation
Salvage of a total elbow arthroplasty is possible with early aggressive management of acute infection (symptoms for less than 30 days) with serial irrigation and debridement and antibiotic bead placement. This form of treatment is indicated when there are no radiographic or intraoperative signs of loosening. However, successful treatment is largely dependent on the organism. Staphylococcus epidermidis is associated with persistent infection because it is an encapsulating organism, and it is best treated with implant removal and IV antibiotics. Yamaguchi K, Adams RA, Morrey BF: Infection after total elbow arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:481-491.
Question 32
A professional baseball player has had intermittent, mild shoulder pain for the past 2 years. Nonsurgical management has consisted of anti-inflammatory drugs. Examination reveals atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle but not the supraspinatus. There is weakness in external rotation with the arm at his side but not at 90 degrees of abduction. He has no weakness or pain with resisted abduction. Electromyography confirms an isolated lesion of the suprascapular nerve branch to the infraspinatus. He is otherwise neurologically intact. An MRI scan of the shoulder shows no cysts but confirms atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 9
Explanation
Suprascapular nerve injuries are more commonly seen in athletes who participate in overhead activities. When a patient is evaluated for posterior shoulder pain and infraspinatus muscle weakness or atrophy, electrodiagnostic studies are an essential part of the evaluation. In addition, imaging studies are indicated to exclude other diagnoses that can mimic a suprascapular nerve injury. Initial management should consist of cessation of the aggravating activity along with an organized shoulder rehabilitation program. If nonsurgical management fails to provide relief within 6 months to 1 year, surgical exploration of the suprascapular nerve should be considered. Release of the spinoglenoid ligament with resultant suprascapular nerve decompression may result in pain relief and a return of normal shoulder function. In this patient, who has a chronic neuropathy and mild symptoms, surgery is indicated only if nonsurgical management fails to provide relief and he is unable to perform at his position. Cummins CA, Bowen M, Anderson K, et al: Suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch in a professional baseball pitcher. Am J Sports Med 1999;27:810-812. Cummins CA, Messer TM, Nuber GW: Suprascapular nerve entrapment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:415-424.
Question 33
A 66-year-old woman who requires a cane for ambulation now notes increasing difficulty in using the cane after undergoing total elbow arthroplasty 3 months ago. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 15a and 15b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10 Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11
Explanation
The lateral radiograph reveals a triceps avulsion with a small portion of bone. Triceps weakness and insufficiency can be a symptomatic problem after total elbow arthroplasty and is probably underreported. Ulnar nerve neuritis, aseptic loosening, instability, and infection are all complications of total elbow arthroplasty but would not account for the radiographic findings. Koval K (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orhthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 323-327.
Question 34
The mother of a healthy 8-month-old boy reports that her son refuses to use his left arm. Examination reveals that the arm hangs limp at his side in an adducted and internally rotated position, and the affected shoulder subluxates posteriorly. Passive external rotation measures 15 degrees. Management should consist of
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 12
Explanation
Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus during birth (Erb's palsy) occurs in approximately 1 in 3,000 births. In a complete lesion, paralysis of the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, and brachioradialis results in the findings described above. Spontaneous recovery may occur for up to 2 years. Passive exercises administered daily by the parents are the initial recommended treatment at this age. If significant contracture results in posterior dislocation, surgical correction may be considered. Neer CS: Shoulder Reconstruction. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 452-454. Pearl ML: Arthroscopy release of shoulder contracture secondary to birth palsy: An early report on findings and surgical technique. Arthroscopy 2003;19:577-582.
Question 35
During shoulder motion with the elbow controlled in a brace, electromyographic studies of the supraspinatus show significant activity with all range-of-motion testing. Concurrent electromyographic studies of the long head of the biceps will most likely show
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 13
Explanation
During electromyographic studies, the long head of the biceps has been shown to have little activity throughout a wide range of shoulder motion as long as the elbow is immobilized. The supraspinatus is active throughout the range of shoulder motion. Rotator cuff tears do not influence biceps activity as long as the elbow is controlled. Yamaguchi K, Riew KD, Galutz LM, et al: Biceps activity during shoulder motion: An electromyographic analysis. Clin Orthop 1997;336:122-129.
Question 36
A right-handed 24-year-old professional baseball player injured his left shoulder 6 weeks ago when he dove forward and landed hard with the arm extended. He reports that the shoulder "slipped out" and "went back in." The shoulder did not need to be reduced. He now reports deep pain in the front of the shoulder when batting on either side and is hesitant to raise his left arm up over his head to catch a ball. Examination reveals no obvious deformities of the shoulder and a somewhat guarded, limited range of motion in all planes. Provocative tests for the rotator cuff and labrum are equivocal. MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What is the best course of action?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 14 Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 15
Explanation
A hard fall on an outstretched arm often results in injury to the glenoid labrum. A significant tear of the anterior/inferior labrum often leads to instability, pain, and mechanical symptoms of the shoulder. The MRI scan shows no obvious labral tear or Hill-Sachs lesion to suggest an anterior dislocation. Recent clinical studies have suggested that early stabilization of initial anterior dislocations may lead to better results than nonsurgical management in young, athletic patients. However, there are no data to support early surgery for anterior labral tears resulting from traumatic subluxation without dislocation. Initial treatment should consist of a short period of rest and immobilization, followed by a physical therapy rehabilitation program designed to restore motion, strength, and dynamic stability to the shoulder. If the athlete cannot return to play following nonsurgical management, surgical repair of the labrum, either through an open or arthroscopic approach, is indicated. There is no role for immediate thermal capsular shift in this setting. Abrams JS, Savoie FH III, Tauro JC, et al: Recent advances in the evaluation and treatment of shoulder instability: Anterior, posterior and multidirectional. Arthroscopy 2002;18:1-13.
Question 37
A 35-year-old woman dislocated her right shoulder in a fall from a step stool several months ago. She now reports several painful recurrences. Examination reveals anterior and inferior apprehension that reproduces her symptoms. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 17. Management should consist of
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 16
Explanation
The MRI findings reveal a disruption of the humeral insertion of the glenohumeral ligaments and joint capsule (humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament). This lesion has been reported to account for an 8% rate of recurrent dislocation in a subset of patients who are typically older than those with the more common lesions of the glenoid labrum (Bankart lesion). Open repairs have been reported to be successful in the prevention of recurrent instability. Since there is no Bankart lesion, open or arthroscopic labral repairs are not indicated. Nonsurgical management is possible if the patient does not want to undergo surgery; however, the recurrence rate is very high. Wolf EM, Cheng JC, Dickson K: Humeral avulsion of glenohumeral ligaments as a cause of anterior shoulder instability. Arthroscopy 1995;11:600-607. Bokor DJ. Conboy VB. Olson C: Anterior instability of the glenohumeral joint with humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament: A review of 41 cases. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:93-96.
Question 38
A 20-year-old man sustained an injury to his arm during a tug-of-war contest. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 18. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 17
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a transection of the biceps muscle. The underlying brachialis is intact. This injury can occur as a result of a cord wrapped around the upper arm. Care should be taken to ensure that there is no concurrent vascular injury. A posterior subcutaneous lipoma appears as a well-encapsulated mass on T2-weighted images. Heckman JD, Levine MI: Traumatic closed transection of the biceps brachii in the military parachutist. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1978;60:369-372.
Question 39
When the elbow is extended and an axial load is applied, what percent of stress distribution occurs across the ulnohumeral and radiohumeral articular surface, respectively?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 18
Explanation
When load is applied to the wrist, most of the stress is absorbed by the radius. As the load is transferred through the forearm, the interosseous membrane transfers some of the load from the radius to the ulna. The load at the elbow is distributed with 40% at the ulnohumeral articulation and 60% at the radiohumeral articulation. Halls AA, Travill R: Transmission of pressure across the elbow joint. Anat Rec 1964;150:243.
Question 40
Which of the following is most frequently associated with heterotopic ossification about the shoulder?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19
Explanation
Multiple attempts at closed reduction, delayed surgery for proximal humeral fractures, and associated closed head injury all have been associated with a higher incidence of heterotopic ossification. Rockwood CA Jr, Matsen FA III (eds): The Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, vol 1, p 291.
Question 41
A 55-year-old woman with a 15-year history of systemic lupus erythematosus has had left shoulder pain for the past 3 months. She reports that the pain has grown progressively worse over the past few months, and her shoulder function is severely limited. She is presently being treated with azathioprine and has used corticosteroids in the past. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 19a and 19b, and MRI scans are shown in Figures 19c and 19d. Which of the following forms of management will yield the most predictable pain relief and return of shoulder function?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20 Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 21 Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 22 Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 23
Explanation
Prosthetic shoulder arthroplasty has been shown to provide predictable results for treating stage III and stage IV osteonecrosis of the humeral head. The decision to resurface the glenoid (total shoulder arthroplasty versus humeral hemiarthroplasty) usually is made based on the radiographic and intraoperative appearance of the glenoid. Core decompression of the humeral head has been reported to be effective for earlier stages (pre collapse) but would not be appropriate for a patient with stage IV disease. Hattrup SJ, Cofield RH: Osteonecrosis of the humeral head: Results of replacement. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:177-182. L'Insalata JC, Pagnani MJ, Warren RF, et al: Humeral head osteonecrosis: Clinical course and radiographic predictors of outcome. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1996;5:355-361.
Question 42
A 45-year-old man sustains an acute closed posterolateral elbow dislocation. The elbow is reduced, and examination reveals that the elbow dislocates posteriorly at 35 degrees with the forearm placed in supination. What is the best course of action?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24
Explanation
Most closed simple dislocations are best managed with early range of motion. Posterior dislocation typically occurs through a posterolateral rotatory mechanism. When placed in pronation, the elbow has greater stability when the medial ligamentous structures are intact. In traumatic dislocations, MRI rarely provides additional information that will affect treatment. In elbows that remain unstable, primary repair is preferred over ligament reconstruction. Cast immobilization increases the risk of arthrofibrosis.
Question 43
Figure 20 shows the MRI scan of a 20-year-old athlete who has a painful shoulder. This pathology is most commonly seen in
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 25
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a posterior labral detachment. This injury is the result of a posteriorly directed force and is common to football players in blocking positions. Although this injury can occur with trauma in all types of athletes, it is seen with relative frequency in football. Treatment is aimed at labral repair with posterior capsulorrhaphy. Both open and arthroscopic techniques can be used. Misamore GW, Facibene WA: Posterior capsulorrhaphy for the treatment of traumatic recurrent posterior subluxations of the shoulder in athletes. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;9:403-408.
Question 44
Figure 21 shows the radiograph of an 18-year-old man who was brought to the emergency department with shoulder pain following a rollover accident on an all-terrain vehicle. Examination reveals a fracture with massive swelling; however, the skin is intact and not tented over the fracture. Based on these findings, initial management should consist of
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26
Explanation
The radiographic and clinical findings suggest a scapulothoracic dissociation with a widely displaced clavicular fracture and a laterally displaced scapula. These injuries have a high association with neurovascular injuries to the brachial plexus and subclavian artery. Emergent vascular evaluation with arteriography and possible vascular repair are indicated. This repair can be combined with open reduction and internal fixation of the clavicle to improve stability. Delay in treatment of these vascular injuries can be devastating. Iannotti JP, Williams GR (eds): Disorders of the Shoulder. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, 1999, pp 632-635.
Question 45
A 55-year-old man reports increasing weakness in his arms that has progressed to his lower limbs, resulting in frequent tripping and falling. Examination reveals weakness in shoulder abduction and external and internal rotation bilaterally. Fasciculation is noted. He also has weakness in elbow flexion and extension bilaterally, and his grip strength is diminished. An electromyogram and nerve conduction velocity studies show decreased amplitude of compound motor action potential, slightly slowed motor conduction velocity, and denervation signs with decreased recruitment in all extremities. The sensory study is normal. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 27
Explanation
The major determinant of ALS (Lou Gehrig disease) is progressive loss of motor neurons. The loss usually begins in one area, is asymmetrical, and later becomes evident in other areas. The first signs of ALS may include either upper or lower motor neuron loss. Recognition of upper motor neuron involvement depends on clinical signs, but electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies can help identify lower motor neuron involvement. Electrodiagnostic abnormalities in three or more areas are required to make a definitive diagnosis. The motor unit potentials (MUPs) changes in ALS include impaired MUPs recruitment, unstable MUPs, and abnormal MUPs size and configuration. A number of abnormal spontaneous discharges can occur with ALS, especially fibrillation potentials and fasciculation potentials. In ALS, the motor nerve conduction study will be abnormal, but a co-existing normal sensory study is definitive for this disease. de Carvalho M, Johnsen B, Fuglsang-Frederiksen A: Medical technology assessment: Electrodiagnosis in motor neuron diseases and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Neurophysiol Clin 2001;31:341-348. Daube JR: Electrodiagnostic studies in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and other motor neuron disorders. Muscle Nerve 2000;23:1488-1502.
Question 46
Which of the following positions of immobilization has been shown to best approximate the anterior labrum against the glenoid rim following anterior dislocation of the shoulder?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 28
Explanation
Following anterior dislocation of the shoulder, the affected arm is typically placed in a sling with the shoulder in adduction and internal rotation. A recent study has shown that placement in this position actually results in laxity of the anterior supporting structures of the shoulder, allowing the postinjury hemarthrosis to push the labrum and capsular ligaments away from the anterior glenoid rim. Thus, immobilization in this position may actually impede healing of these structures. Alternatively, resting the arm in a position of adduction and external rotation allows the anterior supporting structures to abut against the anterior glenoid rim by forcing the hemarthrosis posteriorly. Placing the arm in this position following anterior dislocation is believed to allow for better healing of the anterior labrum and ligaments.
Question 47
What is the most common complication following arthroscopic capsular release in a patient with adhesive capsulitis of the shoulder?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 29
Explanation
Although all of the above are potential complications after arthroscopic capsular release for adhesive capsulitis, the most common problem is the failure to regain normal glenohumeral motion. An immediate physical therapy program is critical to prevent this complication. Ghalambor N, Warner JJP: Arthroscopic capsular release: Evolution of the technique and its applications. Tech Shoulder Elbow Surg 2000;1:52-60.
Question 48
What is the most common complication following surgical fixation of a distal humeral fracture?
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 30
Explanation
In most series, elbow stiffness is the most common complication and can be overcome by achieving stable fixation and initiating early motion after surgery. All of the other complications are seen but to a lesser degree than elbow stiffness. Sanders RA, Raney EM, Pipkin S: Operative treatment of bicondylar intra-articular fractures of the distal humerus. Orthopedics 1992;15:159-163.
Question 49
A 16-year-old female swimmer reports several episodes of atraumatic glenohumeral instability that occur with different arm positions. Examination reveals generalized ligamentous laxity and a positive sulcus sign, and her shoulder can be subluxated both anteriorly and posteriorly. Initial management should consist of
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 31
Explanation
The patient has multidirectional instability (MDI). It has been reported that a high percentage of patients with MDI respond to a properly structured exercise program that is continued for at least 3 to 6 months. If nonsurgical management fails to provide relief, stabilization with an inferior capsular shift procedure has been effective in a high percentage of patients. Unidirectional repairs, such as the Putti-Platt procedure, are unsuitable for correcting MDI. Thermal capsulorrhaphy has been reported to have a very high failure rate (greater than 50%) for treating MDI. Burkhead WZ Jr, Rockwood CA Jr: Treatment of instability of the shoulder with an exercise program. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:890-896. Neer CS II, Foster CR: Inferior capsular shift for involuntary inferior and multidirectional instability of the shoulder: A preliminary report. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1980;62:897-908. Pollock RG, Owens JM, Flatow EL, et al: Operative results of the inferior capsular shift procedure for multidirectional instability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:919-928.
Question 50
A 13-year-old boy has a mild deformity of the left sternoclavicular joint after being involved in a rollover accident while riding an all-terrain vehicle. Examination in the emergency department reveals that he is hemodynamically stable, and his neurovascular examination is normal. The CT scan shown in Figure 22 was obtained because radiographs were inconclusive. Management should consist of
Upper Extremity Board Review 2005: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 32
Explanation
The CT scan reveals a completely displaced physeal fracture of the medial clavicle with marked posterior displacement of the distal fragment. This fracture pattern is associated with potential injury to the vascular structures of the mediastinum. Reduction should be performed for this fracture and generally can be done closed with shoulder retraction and upward pull on the clavicle with a towel clip. Once reduced, the fracture is relatively stable and typically will heal in good position. Reduction should be performed in the operating room in the event that a vascular injury is detected once compression is removed from the clavicle. Open reduction may be necessary if closed reduction is not possible; however, pinning or ligament reconstruction usually is not necessary. Rockwood CA, Matsen FA (eds): The Shoulder, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, p 581.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon