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Question 76
A still active 86-year-old pastry chef falls in her kitchen and notes pain and deformity of her little finger. There are no open wounds. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a and 49b. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
The fracture of the proximal phalanx is clearly displaced. There is slight comminution at the area of the fracture. Closed reduction is likely to fail due to the forces of the extensor, flexor, and intrinsic mechanisms. Percutaneous fixation, unlike open fixation techniques, avoids likely problems with stiffness. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 281.
Question 77
A 32-year-old man has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 and an open pelvic fracture. The patient's family reports that he is a Jehovah's Witness. Initial hemodynamic instability has resolved. In the operating room during a washout, the patient's blood pressure becomes unstable. What is the most appropriate action?
Explanation
Certain medical procedures involving blood are specifically prohibited in the belief system of a Jehovah's Witness whereas others are not doctrinally prohibited. For procedures where there is no specific doctrinal prohibition, a Jehovah's Witness should obtain the details from medical personnel and make his or her own decision. Transfusions of allogeneic whole blood or its constituents or preoperative donated autologous blood are prohibited. Other procedures, while not doctrinally prohibited, are not promoted such as hemodilution, intraoperative cell salvage, use of a heart-lung machine, dialysis, epidural blood patch, plasmapheresis, white blood cell scans (labeling or tagging of removed blood returned to the patient), platelet gel, erythropoietin, or blood substitutes. The patient should not be given blood. Plasma expanders should be used first to restore hemodynamic stability. Cell saver blood from an open would is not recommended nor would there likely be enough from an open tibial fracture to salvage. The patient's family may be expressing their own beliefs rather than the patient's beliefs and it would be better to ask the patient when he or she is more alert to determine what procedures they would allow. A consult with the ethics committee will unnecessarily delay an intervention that should restore hemodynamic stability. Jimenez R, Lewis VO (eds): Culturally Competent Care Guidebook. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2007.
Question 78
Figure 50 shows the radiograph of a 26-year-old man who sustained an isolated open injury to his foot. Examination reveals no gross contamination in the wound. There is a palpable dorsalis pedis pulse and sensation is present on the dorsal and plantar aspects of the foot. Initial treatment should consist of wound debridement, antibiotics, and
Explanation
The radiograph shows a complete extrusion of the talus. Reimplantation of the talus after wound debridement has been reported to be safe and successful, and provides for flexibility with any future reconstructive procedures. Smith CS, Nork SE, Sangeorzan BJ: The extruded talus: Results of reimplantation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:2418-2424.
Question 79
An 86-year-old woman sustained a fracture of the humerus and underwent surgical fixation 8 weeks ago. There was no radial nerve function below the elbow after surgery. Radiographs are shown in Figures 51a and 51b. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
Explanation
Most radial nerve palsies associated with closed fractures of the humerus resolve spontaneously, including Holstein-Lewis lesions (radial nerve palsy associated with oblique distal third fractures of the humerus). Initial sign of recovery at the brachioradialis may not occur for 4 months. There has been no evidence of deleterious effects occurring during this observation period. There are advocates of early exploration of the nerve. Exploration in the intermediate period between 1 and 4 months is not supported. As overall alignment of the fracture is acceptable, there is no need for hardware exchange until nonunion is clearly identified. Shao YC, Harwood P, Grotz MR, et al: Radial nerve palsy associated with fractures of the shaft of the humerus: A systematic review. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2005;87:1647-1652.
Question 80
Which of the following long bone fracture patterns occurs after a pure bending force is exerted to the bone?
Explanation
A pure bending force produces a transverse fracture pattern. Spiral fractures are mainly rotational, oblique are uneven bending, segmental are four-point bending, and comminuted are either a high-speed torsion or crush mechanism. Tencer AF, Johnson KD: Biomechanics in Orthopaedic Trauma: Bone Fracture and Fixation. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1994. Gonza ER: Biomechanical long bone injuries, in Gonza ER, Harrington IJ (eds): Biomechanics of Musculoskeletal Injury. Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1982, pp 1-30.
Question 81
A 20-year-old man sustained an isolated displaced type II odontoid fracture in a motor vehicle accident. He is neurologically intact. Treatment consists of placement in halo traction, and the fracture is reduced. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?
Explanation
The traditional treatment of a reduced type II fracture is a halo vest. A 20-year-old man will tolerate a halo vest better than the elderly or women. Anterior screw fixation has gained increasing support; however, it too has risks and requires a significant learning curve. More recently, C1 lateral mass screws have become more popular. The long-term results and benefits have not yet been determined. Spivak JM, Connolly PF (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, p 193. Kiovikko MP, Kiuru MJ, Koskinen SK, et al: Factors associated with nonunion in conservatively-treated type-II fractures of the odontoid process. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2004;86:1146-1151. Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Eismont FJ: Rothman-Simone The Spine, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, p 1091.
Question 82
A 38-year-old woman fell from a ladder onto her right hip. The radiographs and CT scan are shown in Figures 52a through 52d. What is the best surgical approach for this fracture?
Explanation
The fracture is an associated both column fracture. The best approach for this fracture is the ilioinguinal. The Kocher-Langenbeck is best for posterior injuries to the acetabulum and some transverse fractures. The iliofemoral alone is limited to high anterior column injuries. The extended iliofemoral and triradiate approaches although useful for this fracture, have a higher rate of complications. Letournel E: The treatment of acetabular fractures through the ilioinguinal approach. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1993;292:62-76.
Question 83
A 24-year-old man was thrown from a car and is seen in the emergency department with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8. A CT scan of the head shows no significant bleeding. The patient is hemodynamically stable. The left femur has the closed injury shown on the radiographs in Figures 53a and 53b. What is the best treatment for this patient?
Explanation
Treatment of patients with a closed head injury and a femoral fracture remains controversial but recent data suggest that intramedullary nails done acutely with avoidance of intraoperative hypotension did not compromise the outcome related to the head injury. This was especially true for high-level GCS scores. A GCS score of lower than 8 and intraoperative hypotension have been associated with worsening outcomes following acute intramedullary nailing of the femur. Skin traction and distal femur skeletal traction in a young adult man with a femoral fracture is not well tolerated secondary to spasm and pain. External fixation is an option but an unnecessary step in the treatment of this patient. Ventriculostomy is not necessary in stable patients with no significant bleeding on a CT scan of the head. Starr AJ, Hunt JL, Chason DP, et al: Treatment of femur fracture with associated head injury. J Orthop Trauma 1998;12:38-45. Nau T, Kutscha-Lissberg F, Muellner T, et al: Effects of a femoral shaft fracture on multiply injured patients with a head injury. World J Surg 2003;27:365-369. McKee MD, Schemitsch EH, Vincent LO, et al: The effect of a femoral fracture on concomitant closed head injury in patients with multiple injuries. J Trauma 1997;42:1041-1045.
Question 84
An otherwise healthy 26-year-old woman is involved in a high speed motor vehicle accident and sustains the injury shown in Figure 54 to her dominant right arm. Appropriate treatment of this injury complex includes
Explanation
This Galeazzi fracture is an injury that requires surgical treatment in an adult. The algorithm includes anatomic reduction of the radial shaft and closed reduction of the DRUJ with assessment of stability. If the DRUJ remains unstable, supination of the wrist may reduce the DRUJ. If not, either open or closed reduction with pinning is undertaken. The closer the radius fracture is to the DRUJ, the more likely it is to be unstable.
Question 85
A 38-year-old man caught his index finger in a volleyball net. He noted an angular deformity of the finger that was reduced when a teammate pulled on his finger. Three weeks later, he now reports trouble extending his finger. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 55. What anatomic structure is most likely injured?
Explanation
The clinical photograph shows a classic boutonniere deformity. It is likely that the patient sustained a volar dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joint, with a concomitant rupture of the central slip insertion of the extensor tendon. Peimer CA, Sullivan DJ, Wild DR: Palmar dislocation of the proximal interphalangeal joint. J Hand Surg Am 1984;9:39-48.
Question 86
A 40-year-old laborer sustains the injury shown in the radiograph and CT scan in Figures 56a and 56b. What is the most common complication associated with surgical intervention?
Explanation
The patient has a severe Sanders type 4 calcaneus fracture. By far the most common complication associated with surgical treatment of calcaneus fractures is wound dehiscence. Sanders R: Displaced intra-articular fractures of the calcaneus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:225-250.
Question 87
A 40-year-old woman sustains a flexion injury to her neck. Physical examination is normal. A lateral radiograph of the cervical spine is shown in Figure 57a. MRI scans of the cervical spine are shown in Figures 57b and 57c. Treatment should include
Explanation
This is a classic bilateral facet dislocation. When there is no evidence of a disk herniation, treatment should include careful skeletal traction, closed reduction, and posterior fusion. There is no role for anterior procedures. These fractures are unstable and require surgical intervention. Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Eismont FJ: Rothman-Simone The Spine, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, pp 1120-1128.
Question 88
Patients in compensated shock (normal vital signs) are thought to be at risk for which of the following?
Explanation
Patients who are in compensated shock have normal vital signs but still have hypoperfusion of organ beds such as the splanchnic circulation due to preferential perfusion of the heart and brain. The response to this continued hypoperfusion may be the development of a systemic inflammatory response that may lead to multiple organ failure. The patients are thought to be at risk for a "primed" immune system due to the ongoing stimulation of the immune system and may have an exaggerated response to a second stimulus such as surgery or infection. Other markers of resuscitation should be used besides vital signs to determine when resuscitation has been completed. The use of temporizing fixation has been shown to lower systemic complication rates, and the infection and union rate after staged fixation is not altered. Schulman AM, Claridge JA, Carr G, et al: Predictors of patients who will develop prolonged occult hypoperfusion following blunt trauma. J Trauma 2004;57:795-800.
Question 89
A 66-year-old woman was a restrained passenger in an automobile accident. She sustained a direct blow to her nondominant left hand as the airbag in her automobile deployed and she now reports pain, swelling, and difficulty moving her fingers. Radiographs are shown in Figures 58a and 58b. Appropriate definitive treatment should consist of
Explanation
While most isolated metacarpal fractures can be treated nonsurgically, multiple metacarpal fractures are inherently unstable due to the loss of support that an intact adjacent metacarpal provides; therefore, treatment should consist of surgical fixation of all three metacarpal fractures. Stern PJ: Fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 286.
Question 90
A 14-year-old boy sustains a right leg injury after being thrown from his motorcycle while racing. He reports diffuse right leg pain starting at his knee and proceeding distally to include his foot. After the injury the patient's mother reports the tibia moving posteriorly then anteriorly while she was supporting the leg. In the emergency department 4 hours after injury, examination reveals a large knee effusion, firm compartments of the leg, a palpable posterior tibialis pulse with a warm, pink foot, and capillary refill of 2 seconds at the toes. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg. Motor examination is intact, but there is decreased sensation in the dorsal first interspace and plantar aspect of the foot. Compartment pressure measurement reveals all four compartments with pressures of 33, 36, 33, and 38 mm Hg respectively. Radiographs are shown in Figure 59a and 59b. The remainder of the skeletal examination is normal. What is the optimal management for this injury?
Explanation
The patient has a compartment syndrome based on the firm compartments of the leg and the elevated compartment pressures measured at the diastolic pressure reading. Muscle ischemia occurs quickly when compartment pressures are elevated, and within 6 hours irreversible damage can occur. Emergent fasciotomies permit decompression of all four compartments and reestablishment of vascular supply to the muscles. Stabilization of the fracture prevents further soft-tissue injury.
Question 91
Resuscitation of a trauma patient who has been in hypovolemic shock is complete when which of the following has occurred?
Explanation
Shock can be defined as inadequate tissue perfusion. Resuscitation or the resolution of shock is defined as when oxygen debt has been repaid, tissue acidosis is eliminated, and aerobic metabolism has been restored in all tissue beds. The end points for resuscitation are not clearly defined, but occult shock can still be present in the setting of normal vital signs and normal urine output due to selective perfusion of organ systems. Tisherman SA, Barie P, Bokhari F, et al: Clinical practice guideline: End point of resuscitation. J Trauma 2004;57:898-912. Moore FA, McKinley BA, Moore EE, et al: Inflammation and the Host Response to Injury, a large-scale collaborative project: Patient-oriented research core--standard operating procedures for clinical care. III. Guidelines for shock resuscitation. J Trauma 2006;61:82-89.
Question 92
A 12-year-old girl falls in gymnastics and sustains comminuted midshaft radius and ulna fractures. Closed reduction and cast immobilization are attempted but fracture redisplacement with 20 degrees of angulation occurs. Surgical treatment includes closed reduction and intramedullary fixation of both bones. What is the most common long-term complication for this fracture?
Explanation
Healing of forearm fractures in skeletally immature patients is the usual outcome. The use of intramedullary fixation has been reported to result in a lower frequency of refractures when compared to plate osteosynthesis due to the absence of diaphyseal holes after plate removal, which are considered stress risers. Regardless of implant technique, malunion and infection are infrequent. Loss of forearm pronation and supination is a common occurrence in surgically treated fractures due to the higher degree of soft-tissue injury, and periosteal stripping leads to fracture site instability and fracture comminution. Luhmann SJ, Gordon JE, Schoenecker PL: Intramedullary fixation of unstable both-bone forearm fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:451-456.
Question 93
A 52-year-old woman who is right hand-dominant sustains an injury to her elbow in a fall. A radiograph is shown in Figure 60. The preferred treatment of this injury pattern should include
Explanation
The patient has a Bado type 2 variant Monteggia fracture with a radial head fracture. The type 2 variant is associated with a higher nonunion rate and poorer outcomes compared to other Bado-type Monteggia fractures. While it is potentially acceptable to repair the radial head, factors such as higher degrees of comminution and older age lead toward replacement as the treatment of choice. Plate and screw fixation is favored over Kirschner wire/tension band fixation because this is not a simple olecranon fracture. Plate placement in a type 2 fracture is dorsal to counteract very high tensile forces associated with fixation failure. Egol KA, Tejwani NC, Bazzi J, et al: Does a Monteggia variant lesion result in a poor functional outcome? A retrospective study. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;438:233-238. Jupiter JB, Leibovic SJ, Ribbans W, et al: The posterior Monteggia lesion. J Orthop Trauma 1991;5:395-402.
Question 94
The teardrop shape marked with an asterisk in Figure 61 represents what anatomic structure?
Explanation
The teardrop can be visualized on the obturator outlet view of the pelvis and represents a thick column of bone that runs from the AIIS to the PSIS. Half pins for eternal fixation frames or screws can be inserted into this column for fixation of fractures. Gardner MJ, Nork SE: Stabilization of unstable pelvic fractures with supra-acetabular compression external fixation. J Orthop Trauma 2007;21:269-273. Haidukewych GJ, Kumar S, Prpa B: Placement of half-pins for supra-acetabular external fixation: An anatomic study. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;411:269-273.
Question 95
A patient was treated with a revision reamed intramedullary nail for a nonunion 6 months ago. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 62. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
Nonunions after intramedullary nails are often treated with exchange reamed nailing. In a recent study, this resulted in a union rate of 53%. After failed exchange nailing, bone grafting and compression plating should be used. The other options resulted in less satisfactory results as compared to bone grafting and compression plating. Weresh MJ, Hakanson R, Stover MD, et al: Failure of exchange reamed intramedullary nails for ununited femoral shaft fractures. J Orthop Trauma 2000;14:335-338.
Question 96
Figure 63 shows the radiographs of a 23-year-old man who sustained a twisting injury at work. Swelling, tenderness, and ecchymosis are noted about the entire midfoot. What associated injury is most likely to be problematic?
Explanation
This cuboid compression fracture ("nutcracker" injury) is associated with subtle injury to the Lisfranc complex. This diagnosis must be made to ensure proper treatment.
Question 97
A 24-year-old man is ejected from his motorcycle and sustains a significant hip injury. The fracture shown in Figures 64a through 64e is best described as what type of fracture?
Explanation
The radiographs and CT scans reveal an anterior column acetabular fracture. The fracture has quadrilateral plate extension but does not exit out the posterior column. The CT scans confirm an intact posterior column and no wall fracture. A transverse fracture is best seen on the CT scan and runs in the sagittal plane, not the coronal plane. Letournel E, Judet R: Fractures of the Acetabulum, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1993, pp 115-140.
Question 98
A 71-year-old woman who reports long-term use of oral steroids for asthma is referred for treatment of a distal humerus fracture. Radiographs reveal diffuse osteopenia and a severely comminuted intra-articular fracture. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
Several studies have documented the satisfactory outcomes of total elbow arthroplasty when osteosynthesis is not feasible for fixation of a distal humerus fracture, particularly in the physiologically older patient with low functional demands. Total elbow arthroplasty should be considered when a comminuted intra-articular distal humerus fracture occurs in a woman older than age 65 years, particularly with such associated comorbidities as systemic steroid use, osteoporosis, or rheumatoid arthritis. Kamineni S, Morrey BF: Distal humeral fractures treated with noncustom total elbow replacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:940-947. Frankle MA, Herscovici D Jr, DiPasquale TG, et al: A comparison of open reduction and internal fixation and primary total elbow arthroplasty in the treatment of intraarticular distal humerus fractures in women older than 65. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:473-480.
Question 99
A 14-year-old boy sustained a 100% displaced distal radius Salter-Harris type II fracture. Neurologic examination demonstrates normal motor examination and two-point discrimination. He undergoes fracture reduction to the anatomic position with the application of a long arm cast. Postreduction he reports increasing hand and wrist pain with diminution of two-point discrimination to 10 mm over the index and middle fingers over the next several hours after surgery. The cast is bivalved and the padding released relieving all external pressure over the arm. Reevaluation reveals increasing sensory deficit over the affected area. What is the next most appropriate management intervention?
Explanation
The patient has an evolving acute carpal tunnel syndrome. Initial management for this injury is to relieve all external pressure that may elevate the neural compression. Surgical decompression of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel is the optimal intervention. Further nonsurgical interventions (cast removal or further bivalving) are insufficient to alleviate the neural compression. Waters PM, Mih AD: Fractures of the distal radius and ulna, in Beaty JH, Kasser JR (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 6. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, 2006, p 361.
Question 100
A 25-year-old male polytrauma patient undergoes initial temporary external fixation for a femoral shaft fracture. He is converted to a femoral nail at 7 days. This management can be expected to result in
Explanation
Recently Harwood and associates investigated the principles of damage control orthopaedics (DCO) as they apply to patients with femoral shaft fractures. When they compared those who underwent initial external fixation of femoral shaft fractures with conversion to an intramedullary nail to those who underwent intramedullary nailing as their initial treatment, they found the following: overall infection rates were comparable in patients receiving DCO versus primary intramedullary fixation; open fracture was an independent risk factor for infection regardless of the treatment method; contamination rates in external fixator pin sites rose considerably when left in place more than 2 weeks and logistic regression analysis suggests that infection rates may increase when conversion to an intramedullary nail occurs after 2 weeks following external fixation; and there was no significant difference in time to union among treatment groups. Harwood PJ, Giannoudis PV, Probst C, et al: The risk of local infective complications after damage control procedures for femoral shaft fracture. J Orthop Trauma 2006;20:181-189.