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Question 76
Closure of the rotator cuff interval results in elimination of which direction of shoulder instability?
Explanation
The rotator cuff interval consists of the superior glenohumeral and coracohumeral ligaments. Injury to this ligament complex leads to posteroinferior shoulder instability. Tightening of these tissues through surgical means has been shown to result in a significant reduction in posteroinferior translation of the humerus in relation to the glenoid. Harryman DT II, Sidles JA, Harris SL, et al: The role of the rotator interval capsule in passive motion and stability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:53-66. O'Brien SJ, Schwartz RS, Warren RF, et al: Capsular restraints to anterior-posterior motion of the abducted shoulder: A biomechanical study. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:298-308.
Question 77
In overhead athletic activities, the kinetic chain generates what percentage of force from the leg and trunk segments of the chain?
Explanation
The leg and trunk provide a stable base for arm motion, supply rotational momentum for force generation, and generate 50% to 55% of the total force and kinetic energy in the tennis serve. Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, p 47. McClure PW, Michener LA, Sennett BJ, et al: Direct 3-dimensional measurement of scapular kinematics during dynamic movements in vivo. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:269-277.
Question 78
A 40-year-old right-handed professional football player reports persistent right wrist pain after falling during a game 5 days ago. A radiograph is shown in Figure 21. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph reveals an increased distance between the scaphoid and the lunate, which is indicative of scapholunate disassociation. A ring sign is also present, which represents the distal pole of the scaphoid viewed end on in a palmarly flexed position. In the acute setting, the scapholunate can be repaired. Open repair and percutaneous pinning is the treatment of choice. Dorsal capsulodesis is performed in the chronic setting if such an injury is initially missed. Cohen MS: Ligamentous injuries of the wrist in the athlete. Clin Sports Med 1998;17:533-552.
Question 79
A 29-year-old ultramarathoner, who is halfway into a 50-mile race, is sweating profusely. He suddenly collapses, is unresponsive, and has violent muscle contractions. Prior to these symptoms, he had been drinking water at every water stop (every 1 mile). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Hyponatremia ("water intoxication") can occur in endurance athletes such as ultramarathoners who are sweating profusely and drinking only water as fluid replacement. Sports drinks which contain electrolytes are a better replacement in this group of athletes. Sodium is the mineral most commonly affected by physical exercise. Sodium concentration in sweat depends on diet, hydration, and heat acclimation. In most cases, sodium lost in sweat can be replaced by regular diet. Potassium plays an important role in nerve conduction and muscle contraction but is not lost in excessive amounts in sweat during exercise. The most frequent loss of potassium is through gastrointestinal disorders or excessive loss from the kidneys. Rehrer reported that overhydrating during very long-lasting exercise in the heat with low or negligible sodium intake can result in reduced performance and hyponatremia. With hyponatremia, the serum sodium is abnormally low, resulting in brain swelling, seizures, coma, and potentially death. Interestingly, hyponatremia is rarely seen in adolescent athletes and young children. Griffin LY: Emergency preparedness: Things to consider before the game starts. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:894-902.
Question 80
A 12-year-old Little League pitcher reports lateral elbow pain and "catching." Examination reveals painful pronation and supination and tenderness over the lateral elbow. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Osteochondritis of the capitellum is a common problem in young throwing athletes and gymnasts. The mechanism of injury involves lateral compression and axial loading of the capitellum. Repetitive trauma causes ischemia with resultant osteochondral necrosis and sometimes eventual separation. Initial management includes rest for a minimum of 6 weeks; occasionally bracing is used. At long-term follow-up, there is typically an observed radiographic abnormality indicating incomplete healing even in asymptomatic patients. Arthroscopy with in situ drilling is reserved for symptomatic lesions that have an intact articular surface. Lesions with partial separation often require fixation. Lateral column osteotomy is a new investigational procedure designed to relieve lateral compression forces and may be used in salvage cases. Kobayashi K, Burton KJ, Rodner C, et al: Lateral compression injuries in the pediatric elbow: Panner's disease and osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2004;12:246-254.
Question 81
Medial dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is most commonly caused by a
Explanation
Medial dislocation of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is commonly associated with subscapularis tendon tears. Although type II SLAP tears can result in bicipital instability, type I SLAP lesions do not. Congenitally shallow grooves and tears of the transverse ligaments usually do not lead to dislocation of the biceps tendon. Supraspinatus tendon tears are associated with long head of the biceps tendon ruptures but do not cause biceps tendon dislocations. Werner A, Mueller T, Boehm D, et al: The stabilizing sling for the long head of the biceps tendon in the rotator cuff interval: A histoanatomic study. Am J Sports Med 2000;28:28-31.
Question 82
Tension force in the anterior cruciate ligament during passive range of motion is highest at
Explanation
Tension forces in the healthy, as well as the reconstructed, anterior cruciate ligament were measured and found to be highest with the knee in full extension and decreased as the flexion increased. Markolf KL, Burchfield DM, Shapiro MM, et al: Biomechanical consequences of replacement of the anterior cruciate ligament with a patellar ligament allograft. Part II: Forces in the graft compared with forces in the intact ligament. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1728-1734.
Question 83
Compared to eumenorrheic athletes, amenorrheic athletes have more frequent occurrences of
Explanation
In secondary amenorrhea, women do not receive the estrogen needed to maintain adequate bone mineralization. This hypoestrogenic state affects bone density, and there is evidence that stress fractures are more frequent in amenorrheic than eumenorrheic athletes. The other conditions are not seen with increased frequency in amenorrheic athletes. Warren MP: Health issues for women athletes: Exercise-induced amenorrhea. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 1999;84:1892-1896.
Question 84
Figure 23 shows the postoperative radiograph of a patient who underwent an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction (with bone-patella tendon-bone autograft) that failed. He initially had loss of flexion postoperatively. What is the most likely cause of this failure?
Explanation
The key to this question is the fact that the patient initially lost flexion postoperatively and this relates to anterior placement of the femoral tunnel, thus capturing the knee. The bone plug seen on the radiograph is actually from the tibial tunnel, but this occurred as the patient forced flexion until failure of the ACL graft and pullout of the plug from the tunnel. Although it could be argued that better tibial fixation would have prevented this failure, poor placement of the femoral tunnel led to the failure of this ACL reconstruction. Fu FH, Bennett CH, Latterman C, et al: Current trends in anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction: Part 1. Biology and biomechanics of reconstruction. Am J Sports Med 1999;27:821-830.
Question 85
A 22-year-old man reports anterior knee pain, swelling, and is unable to perform a straight leg raise after undergoing endoscopic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft 1 week ago. He is afebrile. Examination reveals a clean incision, moderate effusion, a weak isometric quadriceps contraction, active knee range of motion of 5 degrees to 45 degrees, and the patella is ballottable. Knee radiographs show postoperative changes with good femoral and tibial tunnel placements, and normal patellar height. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Knee pain and swelling in the first week after ACL reconstruction is usually related to a postoperative hemarthrosis. A large hemarthrosis creates capsular distension, which inhibits active quadriceps contraction by a neurologic reflex, the H. reflex. Kennedy and associates reported that an experimentally induced knee effusion at 60 mL was found to result in profound inhibition of reflexly evoked quadriceps contraction. Removal of the hemarthrosis by aspiration will improve strength and often instantaneously restore the ability to contract the quadriceps muscle. A large effusion will also limit knee flexion. EMG and NCVS are not necessary unless there is a high index of suspicion of a femoral neuropathy. Diagnostic ultrasonography is not necessary in this patient but can be useful in the assessment of patellar tendon integrity. MRI is not indicated and would most likely be limited by artifact and postoperative changes. Continuous passive motion is not indicated and would most likely worsen the patient's symptoms. Kennedy JC, Alexander IJ, Hayes KC: Nerve supply of the human knee and its functional importance. Am J Sports Med 1982;10:329-335.
Question 86
A 46-year-old woman fell from her bicycle and sustained the injury shown in Figure 24. Which of the following ligaments has been disrupted?
Explanation
The radiograph shows a type V acromioclavicular joint injury. Type V injuries involve disruption of the acromioclavicular and coracoclavicular ligaments. Type I injuries involve a sprain of the acromioclavicular joint ligaments. Type II injuries involve disruption of the acromioclavicular joint ligaments; the coracoclavicular ligaments are partially injured. Sternoclavicular ligaments stabilize the medial clavicle and the sternum; they are not damaged with acromioclavicular joint dislocations. Fukuda K, Craig EV, An KN, et al: Biomechanical study of the ligamentous system of the acromioclavicular joint. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:434-439.
Question 87
The use of knee arthroscopy following total knee arthroplasty is most effective in treating which of the following conditions?
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome is associated with certain types of posterior stabilized knee arthroplasties. Arthroscopic resection of the band of inflammatory tissue inferior to the patellar component is effective in treating this condition. Arthroscopic lavage of infected knee arthroplasties is not associated with an acceptable success rate. Diagnostic arthroscopy for nonspecific pain following arthroplasty is not uniformly successful. Patellar component maltracking is frequently associated with component malposition and is not alleviated by an arthroscopic lateral release. Synovitis secondary to polyethylene wear is best treated by exchange of the polyethylene spacer and not arthroscopic synovectomy. Lucas TS, DeLuca PF, Nazarian DG, et al: Arthroscopic treatment of patellar clunk. Clin Orthop 1999;367:226-229.
Question 88
Significant anterior tibial translation occurs during which of the following rehabilitation exercises?
Explanation
Terminal non-weight-bearing knee extension exercises from 60 degrees to 0 degrees of flexion increase anterior tibial translation. It is for this reason that this type of exercise should be avoided in the early phase of rehabilitation following anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction so as not to place a tensile strain on the graft. The other rehabilitation exercises either lead to posterior tibial translation in relation to the femur or have no significant effect on tibial translation. Grood ES, Suntay WJ, Noyes FR, et al: Biomechanics of the knee extension exercise: Effect of cutting the anterior cruciate ligament. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:725-734. Lutz GE, Palmitier RA, An KN: Comparison of tibiofemoral joint forces during open-kinetic-chain and closed-kinetic-chain exercises. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:732-739.
Question 89
A 22-year-old volleyball player reports the insidious onset of superior and posterior shoulder pain. Radiographs are normal. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 25. What is the most specific physical examination finding?
Explanation
Overhead athletes are prone to a number of problems involving the shoulder. Pitchers and volleyball players are susceptible to posterior superior labral tears and internal impingement. These patients will have posterior superior shoulder pain, a positive relocation sign, and a positive active compression test. Occasionally, these posterior superior labral tears are associated with a spinoglenoid cyst as seen in the MRI scan. These cysts cause compression of the suprascapular nerve which manifests primarily as weakness of the infraspinatus, resulting in weakness of external rotation. Romeo AA, Rotenberg DD, Bach BR Jr: Suprascapular neuropathy. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:358-367.
Question 90
A 20-year-old male lacrosse player sustains an anterior dislocation of the shoulder. He is extremely concerned about recurrent dislocations. Which of the following treatments has been shown to reduce the risk of recurrent dislocation?
Explanation
Recent evidence has shown that the position of immobilization of the shoulder after a dislocation influences the reduction of the Bankart lesion. In an MRI study in patients who sustained an anterior dislocation, the Bankart lesion was reduced to the glenoid anatomically with the arm in 30 degrees of external rotation. Subsequently, a clinical follow-up study has shown a reduction in recurrence rates when the arm is immobilized in external rotation compared to internal rotation. Itoi E, Hatakeyama Y, Kido T, et al: A new method of immobilization after traumatic anterior dislocation of the shoulder: A preliminary study. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2003;12:413-415.
Question 91
A 43-year-old soccer player who had knee pain following a twisting injury underwent an arthroscopic meniscectomy 6 months ago. He continues to report posterior knee pain. Examination reveals soft-tissue fullness and tenderness just above the popliteal fossa, trace knee effusion, full range of knee motion, no instability, and negative meniscal signs. Radiographs show some mild medial joint space narrowing but no other bony changes. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The phenomenon of tumors misdiagnosed as athletic injuries has been termed "sports tumors." Lewis and Reilly presented a series of 36 patients who initially were thought to have a sports-related injury but ultimately were diagnosed with a primary bone tumor, soft-tissue tumor, or tumor-like condition. Muscolo and associates presented a series of 25 tumors that had been previously treated with an intra-articular procedure as a result of a misdiagnosis of an athletic injury. Initial diagnoses included 21 meniscal lesions, one traumatic synovial cyst, one patellofemoral subluxation, one anterior cruciate ligament tear, and one case of nonspecific synovitis. The final diagnoses were a malignant tumor in 14 patients and a benign tumor in 11 patients. The authors noted that oncologic surgical treatment was affected in 15 of the 25 patients. The most frequent causes of erroneous diagnosis were initial poor quality radiographs and an unquestioned original diagnosis despite persistent symptoms. Persistent symptoms warrant further diagnostic studies, not additional treatment such as physical therapy, corticosteroid injection, or an unloader brace. Although a bone scan may be helpful in this case and confirm arthrosis of the medial compartment, the suspicion of a soft-tissue mass makes MRI the imaging modality of choice. Muscolo DL, Ayerza MA, Makino A, et al: Tumors about the knee misdiagnosed as athletic injuries. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:1209-1214.
Question 92
Figures 26a through 26c show the MRI scans of a 47-year-old man who underwent arthroscopic shoulder surgery 6 months ago and continues to have pain despite a prolonged course of rehabilitation. Management should now consist of
Explanation
The MRI scans show an os acromiale of the mesoacromion type. This represents an unfused acromial apophysis. Pain is thought to be caused by either motion at the site or downward displacement of the anterior aspect of the acromion onto the rotator cuff, causing impingement. Most patients can be treated nonsurgically as they are usually asymptomatic. In those patients with persistent symptoms of pain and tenderness over the acromion, surgery consisting of rigid internal fixation and bone grafting has yielded satisfactory results. Excision may be a viable treatment option for the preacromion type. Herzog RJ: Magnetic resonance imaging of the shoulder. Instr Course Lect 1998;47:3-20. Warner JP, Beim GM, Higgins L: The treatment of symptomatic os acromiale. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:1320-1326.
Question 93
An 18-year-old rugby player has had pain in his ring finger after missing a tackle 1 week ago. Examination reveals tenderness in the distal palm, and he is unable to actively flex the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. Radiographs are normal. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
Flexor digitorum profundus rupture or "rugger jersey finger" often occurs in the ring finger after the player misses a tackle and catches the digit on the shirt of the opposing player. Surgical repair is required for zone I-type injuries. Moiemen NS, Elliot D: Primary flexor tendon repair in zone I. J Hand Surg Br 2000;25:78-84.
Question 94
Storage of musculoskeletal allografts by cryopreservation is achieved by
Explanation
Cryopreservation uses chemicals to remove cellular water and controlled rate freezing to prevent ice crystal formation. The tissue is procured, cooled to wet ice temperature for quarantine, and then stored in a container with cryoprotectant solution of dimethyl sulfoxide or glycerol which displaces the cellular water. The controlled rate freezing is then done to prevent ice crystal formation. Fresh allografts are not frozen in order to maintain maximum cellular viability, and this process limits the shelf life of osteochondral allografts. Freeze-drying involves replacement of water in the tissue with alcohol to a moisture level of 5% and then uses a vacuum process to remove the alcohol from the tissue. Preparation of fresh frozen grafts involves freezing the graft twice and packaging the tissue without solution at minus 80 degrees C. American Association of Tissue Banks: Standards for Tissue Banking. MacLean, VA, American Association of Tissue Banks, 1999. Vangsness CT Jr, Triffon MJ, Joyce MJ, et al: Soft tissue allograft reconstruction of the human knee: A survey of the American Association of Tissue Banks. Am J Sports Med 1996;24:230-234.
Question 95
A 15-year-old wrestler sustains an abduction, hyperextension, and external rotation injury to his right shoulder. The MRI scan findings shown in Figures 27a and 27b are most consistent with
Explanation
An isolated avulsion of the lesser tuberosity occurs very rarely and usually is found in 12- and 13-year-old adolescents. The MRI scans reveal a tear of the humeral attachment of the inferior glenohumeral ligament, a so-called HAGL lesion. This injury to the inferior glenohumeral ligament occurs much less commonly than the classic Bankart lesion (anterior inferior labral tear). A tear of the subscapularis occurs with a similar mechanism of injury but generally occurs in older individuals. Bokor DJ, Conboy VB, Olson C: Anterior instability of the glenohumeral joint with humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament: A review of 41 cases. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:93-96.
Question 96
Closed-chain exercise differs from open-chain exercise in which of the following ways?
Explanation
Closed-chain exercise requires the distal portion of the extremity to be fixed. It is more commonly used in lower extremity exercise, and movement is produced by co-contraction of muscles. Joint compression is increased, and multiple joints are involved with closed-chain exercise. In open-chain exercise, the distal portion of the extremity is free. Braddom RL (ed): Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders, 2000, pp 975-976.
Question 97
What procedure can eliminate a sulcus sign?
Explanation
A sulcus sign represents inferior subluxation of the shoulder. The elimination of this sign and correction of the inferior subluxation is best achieved through either an open or arthroscopic rotator interval closure. A SLAP repair stabilizes the biceps anchor but does not affect the sulcus sign. A Bankart repair, which corrects anterior-inferior laxity, is not sufficient to eliminate a sulcus sign. Subacromial decompression and supraspinatus repairs have no effect on inferior subluxation. Field LD, Warren RF, O'Brien SJ, et al: Isolated closure of rotator interval defects for shoulder instability. Am J Sports Med 1995;23:557-563.
Question 98
An eversion mechanism of injury is associated with which of the following ankle conditions?
Explanation
An inversion ankle injury typically involves ligamentous damage to the lateral ligaments of the ankle to include the anterior talofibular ligament and calcaneofibular ligament. Acute and particularly chronic ankle sprains also can have associated injuries. The inversion mechanism has been implicated in osteochondral and transchondral talar dome lesions, producing splits in the peroneus tendons, and in the development of meniscoid and soft-tissue impingement lesions in the anterolateral ankle. An inversion mechanism can also stretch the superficial peroneal nerve, leading to pain and paresthesias along its distribution. A fracture of the anterior colliculus is typically the result of an eversion mechanism resulting in a bony avulsion of the deltoid ligament from the anterior colliculus of the medial malleolus. Casillas MM: Ligament injuries of the foot and ankle in the athlete, in DeLee JC, Drez D, Miller MD (eds): Orthopaedic Sports Medicine: Principles and Practice, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, pp 2323-2357.
Question 99
Which of the following anatomic structures are in contact with internal impingement in the throwing athlete?
Explanation
Internal impingement occurs in the late cocking phase of throwing with humeral head abduction and maximal external rotation. It is a physiologic phenomonon occurring in 85% of patients undergoing arthroscopy for various indications in one study. Internal impingement is defined as impingement of the posterior-superior rotator cuff between the humerus and posterior-superior glenoid rim. Symptomatic internal impingement is felt to be due to the frequency and magnitude of the impingement in throwers. Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 252.
Question 100
Second impact syndrome (SIS) after head injury is characterized by which of the following?
Explanation
SIS is a devastating but preventable complication of head injury. It occurs when return to activities is allowed prior to complete resolution of the symptoms of the first head injury. A second, sometimes trivial, head injury can lead to a devastating series of events that can result in sudden death. The symptoms tend to progress rapidly and often involve the brain stem. The prognosis is poor. Cantu RC: Second-impact syndrome. Clin Sports Med 1998;17:37-44. Saunders RL, Harbaugh RE: Second impact in catastrophic contact-sports head trauma. JAMA 1984;252:538-539.