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AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 3): Knee Ligament Injuries & Shoulder Instability | ABOS Review

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AAOS Sports Medicine MCQs (Set 3): Knee Ligament Injuries & Shoulder Instability | ABOS Review
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Question 51
A 22-year-old professional baseball catcher has posterior shoulder pain and severe external rotation weakness with the arm in adduction. Radiographs are normal. MRI scans are shown in Figures 15a through 15c. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 1 Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 2 Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
The MRI scans reveal a large posterior paralabral cyst associated with a posterior-superior labral tear. The cyst appears as a well-defined, smoothly marginated mass with low signal intensity on T1-weighted MRI scans and with high signal intensity on T2-weighted MRI scans. MRI also reveals changes in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles secondary to denervation, including decreased muscle bulk and fatty infiltration. MRI has the added advantage, compared with other imaging modalities, of detecting intra-articular lesions, such as labral tears, which are frequently associated with ganglion cysts of the shoulder. In this case of a professional baseball player with a space-occupying lesion causing nerve compression with an associated labral tear, the treatment of choice is arthroscopic decompression of the cyst and repair of the tear. Acromioplasty would not address the primary pathology in this patient. Cummins CA, Messer TM, Nuber GW: Suprascapular nerve entrapment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:415-424.
Question 52
A 21-year-old collegiate scholarship football player has an episode of transient quadriplegia. An MRI scan of the cervical spine reveals cord edema and severe congenital spinal stenosis. The athlete has aspirations of playing on a professional level and demands that he be allowed to play. The team physician should give what recommendation to the college?
Explanation
Federal courts have ruled that a student-athlete does not have a constitutional right to participate in athletics against medical advice. As long as the student retains his scholarship, the college is under no legal or ethical obligation to allow the student to participate in sports. A waiver would not hold up in court and would not indemnify the college or the team physician against suit. No equipment has been shown to be effective in preventing transient quadriplegia. Mathias MB: The competing demands of sport and health: An essay on the history of ethics in sports medicine. Clin Sports Med 2004;23:195-214.
Question 53
When performing a posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with a tibial inlay-type approach, what is the approximate anatomic distance of the popliteal artery from the screws used for fixation of the bone block?
Explanation
Miller and associates reported the results of a cadaveric study of the vascular risk of a posterior approach for posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using the tibial inlay technique. The average distance from the screw to the popliteal artery was 21.1 mm (range, 18.1 mm to 31.7 mm). Other approaches, such as the transtibial tunnel technique which involves drilling an anterior-posterior tunnel, have also been studied in cadavers. Matava and associates noted that increasing flexion reduces but does not completely eliminate the risk of arterial injury during arthroscopic posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. However, this study did not use the small, medial utility incision recommended by Fanelli and associates, which creates an interval for the surgeon's finger between the medial gastrocnemius and the posteromedial capsule so that any migration of the guidepin can be palpated and changed prior to any injury to the posterior neurovascular bundle. Matava MJ, Sethi NS, Totty WG: Proximity of the posterior cruciate ligament insertion to the popliteal artery as a function of the knee flexion angle: Implications for posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. Arthroscopy 2000;16:796-804. Miller MD, Kline AJ, Gonzales J, et al: Vascular risk associated with posterior approach for posterior cruciate ligament reconstruction using the tibial inlay technique. J Knee Surg 2002;15:137-140.
Question 54
Which of the following knee ligament injury patterns is most associated with an increase in external tibial rotation with the knee at 90 degrees of flexion?
Explanation
Cadaveric studies have shown that external rotation of the tibia is most pronounced following transection of the posterior cruciate and lateral collateral ligaments with the knee at 90 degrees of flexion. Isolated release of the lateral collateral ligament results in increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees. Gollehon DL, Torzilli PA, Warren RF: The role of the posterolateral and cruciate ligaments in the stability of the human knee: A biomechanical study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:233-242. Cooper DE: Tests for posterolateral instability of the knee in normal subjects: Results of examination under anesthesia. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:30-36.
Question 55
A 28-year-old professional dancer reports a 3-month history of progressive pain in the posterior aspect of the left ankle. Her symptoms are worse when she assumes the en pointe position. Examination reveals tenderness to palpation at the posterolateral aspect of the ankle posterior to the peroneal tendons which is made worse with passive plantar flexion. There is no nodularity, fluctuance, or tenderness of the Achilles tendon. The neurovascular examination is unremarkable. A lateral radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 16a and 16b, respectively. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 4 Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 5
Explanation
The imaging studies reveal findings typical of the os trigonum syndrome. This condition results from inflammation between the os trigonum and the adjacent talus. The symptoms of posterior ankle pain are exacerbated by plantar flexion, which stresses the fibrous union between these two bones. Definitive management of the high-level athlete involves excision of the os trigonum from a medial approach, although arthroscopic excision has also been described. The os trigonum is not an intra-articular structure; therefore, ankle arthroscopy is neither diagnostic nor therapeutic. Abramowitz Y, Wollstein R, Barzilay Y, et al: Outcome of resection of a symptomatic os trigonum. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:1051-1057. Mouhsine E, Crevoisier X, Leyvraz P, et al: Post-traumatic overload or acute syndrome of the os trigonum: A possible cause of posterior ankle impingement. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc 2004;12:250-253.
Question 56
A professional pitcher reports pain localized to the medial aspect of his throwing elbow. History reveals that he was pitching in a playoff game and heard and felt a pop in his elbow. MRI reveals a complete ulnar-sided avulsion of the medial collateral ligament (MCL). Examination reveals valgus instability and ulnar nerve involvement. What recommendations should be made based on the patient's desire to return to sport?
Explanation
Injuries to the MCL usually result from repetitive high valgus stress on the medial aspect of the elbow joint due to overhead throwing or racquet sports. Excessive stresses during the late cocking and acceleration phase of throwing can injure the anterior band of the MCL. Clinically, the injuries may present as chronic or acute, and a pop may be noted in the latter. Associated ulnar nerve involvement is common. Valgus instability is present in about 25% of patients. Patients typically are athletes who participate in throwing and have localized medial elbow pain and tenderness along the course of a ligament that extends from the medial epicondyle of the distal humerus to the sublime tubercle of the ulna. Surgical reconstruction is the procedure of choice in an athlete desiring a return to a high level of throwing. Miller MD, Cooper DE, Warner JJP (eds): Review of Sports Medicine and Arthroscopy. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, p 230. Arendt EA (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, p 227.
Question 57
A 20-year-old collegiate football player who sustained blunt head trauma during the first half of a game is emotional and confused. During the halftime intermission, his affect, memory, and disorientation are totally resolved and have returned to preinjury baseline. The only residual finding is a very mild headache. He wants to play the second half. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Explanation
There is almost universal acceptance that an athlete may return to play after blunt head trauma only if he or she is totally asymptomatic. Mild residual symptoms are considered an absolute contraindication for return to play. Returning to play after a cardiovascular challenge or sport-specific activities is permitted on the pretext that the athlete is totally asymptomatic prior to these maneuvers. Neuropsychiatric testing is being used more frequently to monitor residual cognitive effects after head trauma. It has not been used as a return to play criterion. Garrick J (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 29-48.
Question 58
Which of the following actions best enhances performance when an athlete is participating in a 10K race?
Explanation
Proper hydration prior to an athletic event is the most important determinant of performance. It is virtually impossible to keep pace with fluid loss during an athletic competition. When a net loss of fluid occurs and the athlete is properly prehydrated, this fluid loss will not adversely affect performance. It is not necessary to load up on carbohydrates prior to a 10K race, or to replace calories burned during the race. Hyponatremia can develop in ultra-endurance athletes, especially marathoners, if they hydrate without replacing electrolytes lost through sweating; however, this is highly unlikely for a 10K race. Newmark SR, Toppo FR, Adams G: Fluid and electrolyte replacement in the ultramarathon runner. Am J Sports Med 1991;19:389-391.
Question 59
A 25-year-old competitive skier sustains a twisting injury to the right ankle while skiing. She is unable to continue the activity secondary to severe lateral ankle pain. Examination reveals ecchymosis and fullness over the lateral malleolus with pain and weakness on active ankle dorsiflexion and external rotation. There is no medial-sided pain. Neurovascular examination is normal. An AP radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 17a and 17b, respectively. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 6 Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 7
Explanation
The MRI scan shows a dislocated peroneus brevis tendon with disruption of the peroneal retinaculum. This injury is commonly seen in skiers and is the result of peroneal contraction with the ankle everted and dorsiflexed. Nonsurgical management is rarely successful; therefore, repair of the peroneal retinaculum is the treatment of choice. Eckert WR, Davis EA Jr: Acute rupture of the peroneal retinaculum. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1976;58:670-672. Murr S: Dislocation of the peroneal tendons with marginal fracture of the lateral malleolus. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1961;43:563-565.
Question 60
Nonsurgical management of pectoralis major tears is likely to result in weakness of glenohumeral
Explanation
Nonsurgical management is considered for proximal tears as well as partial tears in some individuals. Surgical management is often not appropriate in older or sedentary patients. However, patients treated nonsurgically will have a significant cosmetic defect, as well as weakness in adduction and internal rotation. Schepsis AA, Grafe MW, Jones HP, et al: Rupture of the pectoralis major muscle: Outcome or repair of acute and chronic injuries: Am J Sports Med 2000;28:9-15.
Question 61
A 20-year-old man reports painless snapping about the lateral aspect of the right hip. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals no limp or tenderness. Hip range of motion is full, and there is good strength. Radiographs are normal. What anatomic structure is most likely causing these symptoms?
Explanation
Coxa saltans (snapping hip syndrome) can occur in two forms: external/lateral or interior/medial/anterior. This patient has the external/lateral form. The external/lateral form involves the iliotibial band, tensor fascia, or gluteus medius, which snaps over the greater trochanter. The external form usually can be treated with physical therapy alone; however, several recent studies report satisfactory results with surgical treatment. Faraj and associates reported good results from surgical Z-plasty in a series of 10 patients. White and associates reported good results in a series of 16 patients with 17 hips who underwent surgical release of an external snapping hip. The interior/medial/anterior form can involve the iliopsoas tendon, acetabular labrum, subluxation of the hip, and loose bodies. White RA, Hughes MS, Burd T, et al: A new operative approach in the correction of external coxa saltans: The snapping hip. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:1504-1508. Faraj AA, Moulton A, Sirivastava VM: Snapping iliotibial band: Report of ten cases and review of the literature. Acta Orthop Belg 2001;67:19-23.
Question 62
Which of the following statements correctly describes the results of gamma irradiation of musculoskeletal allograft?
Explanation
Low dose gamma irradiation (less than 3.0 megarads) with antibiotic soaks is one of the most common techniques for secondary sterilization. Elimination of HIV with gamma irradiation requires doses estimated to be greater than 3.5 megarads. Gamma irradiation levels of 4 megarads have been shown to alter the mechanical properties of human infrapatellar tendons. Ethylene oxide, also used for allograft sterilization, has been associated with a chronic inflammatory process that resolved after graft removal. Jackson DW, Windler GE, Simon TM: Intraarticular reaction associated with the use of freeze-dried, ethylene oxide-sterilized bone-patella tendon-bone allografts in the reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament. Am J Sports Med 1990;18:1-10. Conway B, Tomford W, Mankin HJ, et al: Radiosensitivity of HIV-1: Potential application to sterilization of bone allografts. AIDS 1991;5:608-609.
Question 63
A 35-year-old woman who is a recreational runner reports posterior knee pain and tightness in the knee with flexion during running. She denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals normal patellar glide and tilt and no patellar apprehension. Range of motion is 5 degrees to 120 degrees, and quadriceps function and knee ligamentous examination are normal. Radiographs are normal. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 18. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 8
Explanation
Ganglia involving the cruciate ligaments have been recently reported as a cause of knee pain that interferes with knee flexion and extension. The symptoms are poorly localized in this patient and not along the medial joint line, making the diagnosis of a torn medial meniscus less likely. In addition, the MRI findings do not show a significant medial meniscal lesion. A Baker's cyst is usually posteromedial and extends posterior to the interval between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and semimembranosus. MRI scans show a fluid-filled lesion with an increased signal on T1- and T2-weighted images. A lipoma would be bright on the T1-weighted image only. Deutsch A, Veltri DM, Altchek DW, et al: Symptomatic intraarticular ganglia of the cruciate ligaments of the knee. Arthroscopy 1994;10:219-223.
Question 64
A 12-year-old boy who pitches on two "select" baseball teams has had pain in his dominant right shoulder for the past 6 weeks. The pain is present only with throwing and is associated with decreased throwing velocity and control. He has no radiation of pain or paraesthesias of the upper extremity. An AP radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 19a and 19b, respectively. Management should consist of
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 9 Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 10
Explanation
The imaging study demonstrates characteristics of Little Leaguer's shoulder, including physeal widening. This condition is secondary to overuse (typically throwing) and responds well to rest from the inciting activity. There is no evidence from the patient's history or examination that he has an impingement syndrome, nor is there any indication of labral pathology on the MRI scan. The changes in the proximal humerus are classic for this condition and are not suggestive of a neoplastic process requiring biopsy for definitive diagnosis. Lipscomb AB: Baseball pitching injuries in growing athletes. J Sports Med 1975;3:25-34. Cahill BR, Tullos HS, Fain RH: Little league shoulder: Lesions of the proximal humeral epiphyseal plate. J Sports Med 1974;2:150-152.
Question 65
An 18-year-old man underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a tibial spine avulsion and a posterolateral corner repair. Two years later, he underwent lateral collateral ligament (LCL) and posterolateral corner reconstruction because of instability. Examination reveals a pronounced lateral varus knee thrust when ambulating. Varus stress in 30 degrees of flexion produces a 10-mm opening that is eliminated in extension. The Lachman's test is 2 mm with a firm end point, and the posterior drawer test is negative. Standing radiographs show widening of the lateral joint space and a 5-degree mechanical varus alignment. What is the most effective course of treatment?
Explanation
The patient has chronic posterolateral instability with a varus knee alignment; therefore, the most effective treatment is a valgus-producing HTO. A repeat soft-tissue reconstruction without correction of the varus alignment will most likely fail. An ACL reconstruction is not indicated with a normal Lachman's test. Physical therapy and bracing will have little effect. Naudie DD, Amendola A, Fowler PJ: Opening wedge high tibial osteotomy for symptomatic hyperextension-varus thrust. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:60-70.
Question 66
As a baseball player dives to catch a line drive in the outfield, the ball strikes the tip of the player's finger when extended, causing forcible flexion to avulse the extensor tendon from the distal phalanx. Following evaluation and normal radiographic findings, initial management should include
Explanation
Avulsion of the terminal extensor tendon from the distal phalanx (mallet or baseball finger) may or may not be associated with a bony avulsion. The injury is caused by forcible flexion of the DIP joint while catching a ball or hitting an object with the finger extended. Most authorities recommend continuous extension splinting to the DIP joint for 6 weeks, followed by nighttime splinting for an additional 6 weeks. It must be emphasized to the patient that at no time during the initial 6 weeks of treatment should the DIP joint be allowed to fall into flexion or an additional 6 weeks of continuous splinting is required. Miller MD, Cooper DE, Warner JP (eds): Review of Sports Medicine and Arthroscopy. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, p 255. Rettig AC: Closed tendon injuries of the hand and wrist in the athlete. Clin Sports Med 1992;11:77-99.
Question 67
A favorable outcome following nonsurgical management of a partial tear of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is best associated with
Explanation
Rehabilitation of the quadriceps muscle following a partial tear of the PCL has been associated with a favorable outcome. The quadriceps acts an antagonist to the PCL because its contraction results in anterior tibial translation, which reduces the tensile stress on the injured ligament. Strengthening of the hamstring musculature increases posterior tibial translation and is contraindicated during the early rehabilitative phase following a PCL injury. Brace use has not been found to significantly alter the outcome following nonsurgical management of PCL tears. Parolie JM, Bergfeld JA: Long-term results of nonoperative treatment of isolated posterior cruciate ligament injuries in the athlete. Am J Sports Med 1986;14:35-38.
Question 68
A player on a professional football team sustains a knee injury and is diagnosed with an anterior cruciate ligament rupture. When employed as the team physician, your ethical obligation is to inform
Explanation
When you are employed as a team physician, you are obligated to inform the players and the team organization of all athletically relevant medical issues. This differs significantly from the normal rule of patient confidentiality. If the player came to see you and you were not the team physician, you may not inform the team unless the player so desires. As the team physician, you are not obligated to inform the media. Tucker AM: Ethics and the professional team physician. Clin Sports Med 2004;23:227-241.
Question 69
A 20-year-old basketball player reports a 6-month history of right groin pain that radiates into his testicles with activities of daily living. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals tenderness about the groin, and he has full hip range of motion. The abdomen is soft. Radiographs are normal. Nonsurgical management has consisted of rest and physical therapy, but he continues to have pain. What is the next step in management?
Explanation
Sports hernias may be one of the most common causes of groin pain in athletes. Resisted hip adduction is painful in the case of groin disruption. Radiation of pain into the testicles and/or adductor region is often present. Sports hernias are associated with weakening of the posterior inguinal wall. In contrast with sports hernias, traditional or classic hernias can be readily detected on physical examination. Diagnostic imaging studies are not helpful and only serve to help exclude other diagnoses. Systemic high-dose steroids or sacroiliac joint injections have no role in treatment. High success rates have been reported for laparoscopic hernia repair in athletes. Kluin J, den Hoed PT, van Linschoten R, et al: Endoscopic evaluation and treatment of groin pain in the athlete. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:944-949. Genitsaris M, Goulimaris I, Sikas N: Laparoscopic repair of groin pain in athletes. Am J Sports Med 2004;32:1238-1242.
Question 70
A 45-year-old tennis player undergoes surgery for chronic lateral epicondylitis. After returning to play, he notes increasing lateral elbow pain with mechanical catching and locking. Examination shows positive supine posterolateral rotatory instability. What ligament has been injured?
Explanation
The patient has sustained an iatrogenic injury to the lateral ulnar collateral ligament. This injury has been reported after lateral approaches to the elbow. The orbicular, annular, and lateral radial collateral ligaments have a much less important role in lateral elbow stability. The anterior band of the ulnar collateral ligament is on the medial side of the elbow and is important for valgus stability. O'Driscoll SW, Bell DF, Morrey BF: Posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:440-446.
Question 71
A female cross-country runner has an insidious onset of right groin pain. Radiographs of the right hip reveal a tension-side stress fracture. History reveals that she was treated for a "foot" fracture 1 year ago. In addition to performing internal fixation of the femoral neck, which of the following should be obtained?
Explanation
Stress fractures in female long distance runners are frequently associated with the Female Athletic Triad. The triad consists of osteoporosis, amenorrhea, and altered eating habits. A thorough menstrual history, including age of menarche, history of amenorrhea, and use of oral contraceptives, is imperative. Amenorrhea leads to osteoporosis and predisposes the athlete to fractures. An MRI of the hip is not necessary because a fracture is evident on the radiograph. Serum calcium levels are normal in osteoporosis, a family history would be noncontributory, and it is highly unlikely that a contralateral hip radiograph will yield useful information. Bennell KL, Malcolm SA, Thomas SA, et al: Risk factors for stress fractures in track and field athletes: A twelve-month prospective study. Am J Sports Med 1996;24:810-818.
Question 72
An 18-year-old gymnast has had a 1-year history of foot pain. Examination reveals medial midfoot tenderness without swelling. Non-weight-bearing in a cast for 6 weeks has failed to provide relief. An axial CT scan of the midfoot is shown in Figure 20. What is the optimal treatment for this condition?
Sports Medicine 2007 Practice Questions: Set 3 (Solved) - Figure 11
Explanation
Stress fractures of the navicular are often seen in running and jumping sports. Whereas most individuals heal with nonsurgical management consisting of 6 weeks of casting, this gymnast has had pain for 1 year and nonsurgical management has failed. Open reduction with bone grafting is the preferred treatment. Quirk RM: Stress fractures of the navicular. Foot Ankle Int 1998;19:494-496.
Question 73
A 20-year-old soccer player who collapsed after a goal kick reports weakness and nausea. He appears slightly confused. Examination reveals that he is not sweating. His skin is warm and dry. The outdoor temperature is 80 degrees F (26.6 degrees C) with a relative humidity of 80%. Management should consist of
Explanation
There is a spectrum of heat-related conditions. Heat cramps are the mildest form of heat illness. In heat exhaustion, cramps are associated with headache and weakness, and the skin is pale and moist. Treatment of heat cramps or heat exhaustion consists of removing and loosening excess clothing, applying ice to the axilla and groin, ingestion of cool water, and cool water sprays. This patient demonstrates symptoms of heat stroke which is a medical emergency. The core body temperature may be as high as 106 to 110 degrees F (41.1 to 43.3 degrees C). In heat stroke, the patient may no longer be sweating, and the skin may be hot and red. The athlete is usually confused, weak, nauseated, and may have seizure activity. Central nervous system depression has been called the most important marker of heat stroke, and progresses from confusion and bizarre behavior to collapse, delirium, and coma. Bizarre behavior is often the first sign of heat stroke. The patient needs to be treated and moved to a medical facility rapidly. During transfer, IV fluids and cooling of the athlete should be initiated. The best treatment of heat-related illness appears to be prevention with adequate hydration and monitoring of conditions (temperature and humidity), with cancellation of competition when conditions do not comply with guidelines. Griffin LY: Emergency preparedness: Things to consider before the game starts. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:894-902. Barker TA, Motz HA, Gersoff WK: Environmental factors in athletic performance, in Fu FH, Stone DA (eds): Sports Injuries, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, 2001, pp 67-68.
Question 74
What is the most accurate description of the relationship between gender and knee loading during landing while playing basketball?
Explanation
Ford and associates studied 81 high school basketball players and found that females landed with greater total valgus knee loading and a greater maximum valgus knee angle than male athletes. Hewett and associates reported in a study of 205 female athletes that those with increased dynamic valgus and high abduction loads were at increased risk of anterior cruciate ligament injury. Hewett TE, Myer GD, Ford KR, et al: Biomechanical measures of neuromuscular control and valgus loading of the knee predict anterior cruciate ligament injury risk in female athletes: A prospective study. Am J Sports Med 2005;33:492-501.
Question 75
What is the most common cause of the new onset of amenorrhea in a female endurance athlete who is not sexually active?
Explanation
Insufficient caloric intake caused by either a poor diet or an eating disorder is the most common cause for the loss of menses in a female athlete. In the face of adequate caloric intake, stress is unlikely to cause amenorrhea. Oral contraceptives control menses but do not eliminate it. Diabetes mellitus does not cause the new onset of amenorrhea. Pregnancy can be a cause in a sexually active athlete. Chromosomal abnormalities can result in delayed or absent menarche but not the onset of amenorrhea in a postmenarchal female. Constantini NW: Clinical consequences of amenorrhea. Sports Med 1994;17:213-223.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon