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Question 1
Which is the best initial study for the diagnostic evaluation of diskogenic low back pain?
Explanation
Radiography is the best initial study for the evaluation of diskogenic low back pain. The normal degenerative process can be evaluated. Vacuum phenomenon may be found within the disk space. Other possible sources for back pain should also be evaluated. The other tests may be beneficial but represent later imaging options.
Question 2
A patient who is an observant Jehovah's Witness requires major surgery for scoliosis that will likely result in significant blood loss. Which of the following might the patient consider allowing the surgical team to use?
Explanation
Jehovah's Witnesses will not accept the transfusion of blood or blood products such as packed red or white cells, platelets, or plasma. However, many Jehovah's Witnesses will accept the use of a cell saver in a "closed circuit." Jimenez R, Lewis VO (eds): Culturally Competent Care Guidebook. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2007.
Question 3
Which of the following is a contraindication to laminoplasty in a patient with cervical spondylotic myelopathy?
Explanation
Laminoplasty or any posterior decompressive procedure is contraindicated in patients with cervical spondylotic myelopathy and cervical kyphosis. The residual kyphotic posture of the cervical spine results in persistent spinal cord compression. The other choices are not contraindications for laminoplasty. Concomitant cervical radiculopathy can be addressed at the time of laminoplasty with a keyhole foraminotomy. Emery SE: Cervical spondylotic myelopathy: Diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:376-388.
Question 4
A 44-year-old man reports persistent left leg pain following a L5-S1 hemilaminotomy and partial diskectomy. Examination shows a grade 4 weakness of the left extensor hallucis longus and a positive left straight leg raise. A radiograph is shown in Figure 1a, and sagittal and axial MRI scans are shown in Figures 1b and 1c. Nonsurgical management consisting of medication, physical therapy, and injections has failed to provide relief. Surgical management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1. He has an L5 radiculopathy with foraminal stenosis. Any further treatment needs to include an arthrodesis and foraminal decompression. Isolated interbody fusion is contraindicated in patients with spondylolisthesis, as is total disk arthroplasty. Therefore, the best procedure is a posterior fusion with instrumentation and bone graft along with a foraminal decompression. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 311-317.
Question 5
Bisphosphonates are indicated in the treatment of osteoporosis in patients who have a DEXA T-score of
Explanation
Bisphosphonates are indicated in the treatment of osteoporosis. They have been shown to reduce the incidence of vertebral and extremity fractures in patients with a T-score of less than -1.
Question 6
A 45-year-old man reports that he awoke 2 weeks ago with severe pain in his right arm. Examination reveals weakness in the biceps, brachialis, and wrist extensors. There is decreased sensation in the thumb and index finger and a diminished brachioradialis reflex. Assuming this patient has a posterolateral herniated nucleus pulposus, what level is involved?
Explanation
This is a classic C6 nerve injury, and it is most likely the result of a herniated nucleus pulposus at C5-6. The C5 nerve root controls the elbow flexors, shoulder abductors, and external rotators. The C7 nerve root controls the elbow extensors, wrist pronators, and the triceps reflex. Standaert CJ: The patient history and physical examination: Cervical, thoracic and lumbar, in Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Eismont FJ, et al (eds): Rothman-Simeone The Spine, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, vol 1, pp 171-186.
Question 7
A 42-year-old woman underwent an instrumented posterior spinal fusion at L3-S1 with transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion. She had an excellent clinical result with complete resolution of leg pain. Three months later she now reports increasing back pain and weakness in her legs. Examination reveals weakness in the quadriceps and tibialis anterior. Radiographs show no interval changes in the position of the hardware. MRI scans are shown in Figures 2a through 2c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The MRI scans reveal a postoperative infection. Observation and antibiotics are not appropriate choices. There is a large fluid collection and this requires decompression because the patient has neurologic changes. There is considerable debate regarding the removal of hardware. Many contend that biofilm on the implants can harbor the infection. However, these complications usually can be treated with serial irrigations, debridements, and IV antibiotics. The incidence of infection has been widely studied with varying rates in fusions with instrumentation. Rates appear to be increased with instrumentation, yet these infections usually can be managed without hardware removal. Glassman SD, Dimar JR, Puno RM, et al: Salvage of instrumental lumbar fusions complicated by surgical wound infection. Spine 1996;21:2163-2169.
Question 8
What is the primary reason for including the ilium in the distal fixation of long instrumentation constructs in adult scoliosis?
Explanation
Studies have shown that when compared with fixation to the sacrum alone, the success rate of fusion across the lumbosacral junction increases when both the sacrum and ilium are included in the posterolateral construct. Curve correction, coronal balance, and pelvic balance are all attended to within the thoracolumbar spine and are not directly related to the pelvic fixation. Fretting and corrosion are a byproduct of metal-to-metal connections. Islam NC, Wood KB, Transfeldt EE, et al: Extension of fusions to the pelvis in idiopathic scoliosis. Spine 2001;26:166-173.
Question 9
A 60-year-old man is evaluated in the ICU after a rollover motor vehicle accident 3 days ago. He has multiple upper and lower extremity trauma and was found unresponsive at the accident scene. Surgery is planned for the extremity trauma once the patient is medically stable. He remains intubated and the cervical spine is immobilized in a semi-rigid collar. Examination reveals mild erythema in the posterior occipital cervical region. Initial AP and lateral radiographs of the cervical spine have not revealed any obvious fracture. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this time?
Explanation
Ackland and associates demonstrated that the failure to achieve early spinal clearance in an unconscious blunt trauma patient predisposed the patient to increased morbidity secondary to the prolonged used of cervical immobilization. They demonstrated that the four significant predictors of collar-related ulcers were ICU admission, mechanical ventilation, the necessity for cervical MRI, and the time to cervical spine clearance and collar removal. The risk of pressure-related ulceration increased by 66% for every 1-day increase in Philadelphia collar time and this highlights the need for definitive C-spine clearance. Ackland HM, Cooper DJ, Malham GM, et al: Factors predicting cervical collar-related decubitus ulceration in major trauma patients. Spine 2007;32:423-428.
Question 10
A 46-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle accident reports a 4-month history of right-sided lower back pain and pain radiating into the right thigh. The patient underwent an extensive 3-month course of physical therapy and now is dependent on narcotic medication for pain control. Epidural injection therapy has failed to improve her symptoms. Examination is significant for weakness of hip flexion in the seated position and for decreased sensation to light touch in the medial anterior thigh region. Straight leg raise is negative, but the femoral stretch test reproduces anterior thigh pain. A CT myelogram image, at L3-L4, is shown in Figure 3. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
Explanation
The CT scan reveals a right-sided lateral disk protrusion at L3-4 that has been symptomatic for more than 4 months despite appropriate nonsurgical management. Relative surgical indications include persistent radiculopathy despite an adequate trial of nonsurgical management, recurrent episodes of sciatica, persistent motor deficit with tension signs and pain, and pseudoclaudication caused by underlying stenosis. Whereas studies have shown improvement in patients with sciatica from a lumbar disk herniation treated either nonsurgically or surgically, those undergoing surgical treatment had an overall greater improvement of symptoms. Weinstein JN, Lurie JD, Tosteson TD, et al: Surgical vs nonoperative treatment for lumbar disk herniation: The Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT) observational cohort. JAMA 2006;296:2451-2459.
Question 11
A 73-year-old woman reports a 4-month history of severe left-sided posterior buttock pain and left leg pain. The leg pain radiates into the left lateral thigh and posterior calf with cramping. Examination reveals mild difficulty with a single-leg toe raise on the left side and a diminished ankle reflex. There is also a significant straight leg raise test at 45 degrees which exacerbates symptoms. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 4. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
Explanation
Lumbar spinal stenosis with lumbar radiculopathy can be commonly caused by a synovial cyst arising from the facet joints. Lyons and associates reported on the surgical treatment of synovial cysts in 194 patients. Of the 147 with follow-up data, 91% reported good pain relief and 82% had improvement of their motor deficits. Epstein reported a 58% to 63% incidence of good/excellent results and a 38 to 42 point improvement on the SF-36 Physical Function Scale. It was also suggested that since the presence of a synovial cyst indicates facet pathology, possible fusion should be considered in these patients, especially those with underlying spondylolisthesis. Lyons MK, Atkinson JL, Wharen RE, et al: Surgical evaluation and management of lumbar synovial cysts: The Mayo Clinic Experience. J Neurosurg 2000;93:53-57. Khan AM, Synnot K, Cammisa FP, et al: Lumbar synovial cysts of the spine: An evaluation of surgical outcome. J Spinal Disord Tech 2005;18:127-131.
Question 12
Osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures are associated with
Explanation
Osteoporotic vertebral compression fractures are associated with neurologic complications in less than 1% of patients. After the initial fracture however, patients have a 20% risk of further fractures. The mortality rate of patients with vertebral fractures exceeds that of patients with hip fractures when they are followed beyond 6 months. Gass M, Dawson-Hughs B: Preventing osteoporosis-related fractures: An overview. Am J Med 2006;119:S3-S11. Lindsay R, Silverman SL, Cooper C, et al: Risk of new vertebral fracture in the year following a fracture. JAMA 2001;285:320-323.
Question 13
When compared to smokers who do not quit, an improvement in the rate of lumbar fusion is seen in patients who cease smoking for at least how many months postoperatively?
Explanation
The effects of cigarette smoking and smoking cessation on spinal fusion have been studied extensively. Although permanent smoking cessation is ideal, significant improvements in fusion rates are seen in patients who avoid smoking for greater than 6 months postoperatively.
Question 14
A 19-year-old woman reports persistent neck pain for 2 years. Pain is relieved with aspirin. A bone scan shows intense uptake in the superior, posterior portion of the C3 vertebral body. A sagittal CT reconstruction is shown in Figure 5. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The CT scan shows an osteoblastic nidus pathognomic for an osteoid osteoma. Surgical treatment should include an en bloc excision of the lesion. Surgical treatment is not mandatory because the lesion often becomes asymptomatic over time. This lesion is not amenable to radiofrequency ablation due to its proximity to the spinal cord. A complete corpectomy is not necessary to adequately resect the lesion, as only the nidus needs to be removed. Radiation therapy and antibiotics are not appropriate treatments for an osteoid osteoma. Posterior C2-C3 fusion will not address the pathology. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 351-366.
Question 15
A 56-year-old man with a history of chronic lower back pain from lumbar spondylosis reports a 2-day history of acute incapacitating back pain. He denies any history of acute trauma, although he reports the pain starting after a coughing spell. He also reports difficulty urinating and some fecal incontinence. Examination reveals generalized lower extremity weakness, saddle paresthesia, hyporeflexia in the lower extremities, and loss of rectal tone. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is a medical emergency that must be quickly diagnosed and treated to avoid long-term complications. Cauda equina syndrome typically presents with low back pain, unilateral or usually bilateral sciatica, saddle sensory disturbances, bladder and bowel dysfunction, and variable lower extremity motor and sensory loss. Although a number of pathologies can cause cauda equina syndrome, in a patient with a history of chronic back pain, disk pathology is the most common cause of acute onset cauda equina syndrome. Whereas radiographs may be useful in a traumatic onset of symptoms, MRI is the most appropriate study. Cauda equina syndrome should be evaluated on an emergent basis and admission for work-up is appropriate. Ahn UM, Ahn NU, Buchowski JM, et al: Cauda equina syndrome secondary to lumbar disc herniation: A meta-analysis of surgical outcomes. Spine 2000;25:1515-1522.
Question 16
A 55-year-old woman with a long history of low back and left lower extremity pain has failed to respond to exhaustive nonsurgical management. MRI scans show bulging and degeneration at L3-4 and L4-5 as well as a normal disk at L2-3 and L5-S1. She undergoes provocative lumbar diskography at L3-4, L4-5, and L5-S1. Post-diskography axial CT images of L3-4 and L4-5 are shown in Figures 6a and 6b, respectively. The injections at L3-4 and L4-5 produce no pain. The injection at L5-S1 produces 10/10 concordant back pain with radiation to the lower extremity. What is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
Explanation
The results of this patient's lumbar diskography are equivocal at best. The two disks most likely to be her pain generators, based on their MRI appearance, produced 10/10 pain, however it was nonconcordant and did not reproduce any of her typical left-sided radicular symptoms. The only disk that produced concordant back pain was the normal disk at the L5-S1 level and it reproduced radicular symptoms on the side opposite of her typical pain. Based on these findings, it would be difficult to select a level or levels to include in a lumbar fusion. As such, continued nonsurgical management is the safest treatment option at the current time. Brox and associates reported on a randomized clinical trial comparing lumbar fusion to cognitive intervention and exercise and found similar results in both groups, with significantly less risk in the latter. Brox JI, Sorensen R, Friis A, et al: Randomized clinical trial of lumbar instrumented fusion and cognitive intervention and exercises in patients with chronic low back pain and disc degeneration. Spine 2003;28:1913-1921.
Question 17
A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department intubated and sedated following a motor vehicle accident. She is moving her upper and lower extremities spontaneously. She cannot follow commands. CT scans are shown in Figures 7a through 7c. The initial survey does not reveal any other injuries. Initial management of the cervical injury should consist of immediate
Explanation
The patient has a bilateral facet dislocation of C6-C7 with preservation of at least some neurologic function. Urgent reduction is necessary. However, because she is sedated and unable to follow commands, an MRI scan is necessary before any closed or open posterior reduction to look for an associated disk herniation. If a disk herniation is present, it must be removed prior to any reduction maneuver to prevent iatrogenic neurologic injury. It is very unlikely that this injury can be reduced with an open anterior procedure alone. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 189-199.
Question 18
A 51-year-old woman with no preoperative neurologic deficit is undergoing elective anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF) with plating and fusion for a C5-6 disk herniation with right-sided neck pain. Thirty minutes into the surgery the neurophysiologic monitoring shows a rapid drop and then loss of amplitude in the right cortical somatosensory-evoked potential waveform. All other waveforms remained normal and unchanged, including right-sided cervical (subcortical) and peripheral (Erb's point), and those from the left-sided upper extremity and both lower extremities. What is the most likely cause of the change?
Explanation
The change noted is focal and confined to the cortex, sparing the opposite side, both lower extremities, and the subcortical waveforms, making all the choices unlikely with the exception of carotid compression with focal cortical ischemia. This may be associated with poor collateral flow from the opposite hemisphere due to an incomplete circle of Willis. Drummond JC, Englander RN, Gallo CJ: Cerebral ischemia as an apparent complication of anterior cervical discectomy in a patient with an incomplete circle of Willis. Anesth Analg 2006;102:896-899.
Question 19
A 68-year-old woman undergoes a complicated four-level anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion at C3-7 with iliac crest bone graft and instrumentation for multilevel cervical stenosis. Surgical time was approximately 6 hours and estimated blood loss was 800 mL. Neuromonitoring was stable throughout the procedure. The patient's history is significant for smoking. The most immediate appropriate postoperative management for this patient should include
Explanation
Airway complications after anterior cervical surgery can be a catastrophic event necessitating emergent intubation for airway protection. Multilevel surgeries requiring long intubation and prolonged soft-tissue retraction as well as preexisting comorbidities may predispose a patient to postoperative airway complications. Sagi and associates reported that surgical times greater than 5 hours, blood loss greater than 300 mL, and multilevel surgery at or above C3-4 are risk factors for airway complications. In surgical procedures with the aforementioned factors, serious consideration should be given to elective intubation for 1 to 3 days to avoid urgent reintubation. Sagi HC, Beutler W, Carroll E, et al: Airway complications associated with surgery on the anterior cervical spine. Spine 2002;27:949-953. Epstein NE, Hollingsworth R, Nardi D, et al: Can airway complications following multilevel anterior cervical surgery be avoided? J Neurosurg 2001;94:185-188.
Question 20
A 22-year-old woman reports a 4-year history of worsening low back and left lower extremity pain following a motor vehicle accident. Management consisting of physical therapy, chiropractic manipulation, and interventional pain management, including sacroiliac joint injections and epidural steroid injections, has failed to provide relief. A sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 8. No nerve root compression is seen on axial images. She is currently working and lives with her fiancé. She smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day and reports depression on her health history. She is being maintained on narcotic analgesics and is having increasing difficulty performing her activities of daily living secondary to pain. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a rudimentary disk at the L5-S1 level, suggesting transitional anatomy. There is a posterior disk bulge at L3-4. At L4-5, there is disk desiccation and loss of disk height, with a posterior disk bulge and a high intensity zone in the posterior annulus, suggesting an annular tear. While these and similar radiographic findings have been associated with the severity of a patient's pain, they are also commonly found in cross-sectional studies of asymptomatic subjects. Carragee and associates found 59% of symptomatic patients undergoing diskography have high intensity zones as compared to 25% of asymptomatic subjects of a similar patient profile. Diskographic injections provoked pain in disks with high intensity zones approximately 70% of the time whether the individual was previously symptomatic or not. This patient's non-specific pain pattern does not require further work-up as she is not a surgical candidate. Carragee EJ, Paragioudakis SJ, Khurana S: 2000 Volvo Award winner in clinical studies: Lumbar high-intensity zone and discography in subjects without low back problems. Spine 2000;25:2987-2992. Pneumaticos SG, Reitman CA, Lindsey RW: Diskography in the evaluation of low back pain. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2006;14:46-55. Brox JI, Sorensen R, Friis A, et al: Randomized clinical trial of lumbar instrumented fusion and cognitive intervention and exercises in patients with chronic low back pain and disc degeneration. Spine 2003;28:1913-1921.
Question 21
A 42-year-old man with a history of renal cell carcinoma has progressive weakness in the lower extremities for the past 3 weeks. The patient desires intervention. A sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 9a, and a sagittal contrast enhanced T1-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 9b. He currently ambulates minimal distances with a walker. His life expectancy is 8 months. Treatment of the spine lesion should consist of
Explanation
The MRI scans show a metastatic lesion in two contiguous vertebral bodies in the lower thoracic spine. Posterior laminectomy is not indicated because this does not adequately decompress the neural elements and will lead to progressive kyphosis. A posterior fusion may prevent progressive kyphosis but will not decompress the spinal cord. Renal cell carcinoma is not radiosensitive; therefore, radiation therapy would not be helpful in relieving neurologic compression. The lesion should be treated by an anterior corpectomy and reconstruction. This will allow for complete decompression as well as reconstruction of the anterior column. Kyphoplasty is not indicated in a lesion with disruption of the posterior cortex and neurologic impairment. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 351-366.
Question 22
A 40-year-old man has intractable pain following 2 years of nonsurgical management for high-grade spondylolisthesis. What is the best surgical option?
Explanation
Circumferential fusion is the preferred choice for patients undergoing revision surgery following failed posterolateral fusions for isthmic spondylolisthesis as well as for those patients having primary surgery for high-grade isthmic spondylolisthesis.
Question 23
An adult patient with a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5-S1 is most likely to have weakness of the
Explanation
Adult patients with isthmic spondylolisthesis most commonly have neurologic symptoms due to foraminal stenosis at the level of the spondylolisthesis. In this scenario, the patient is most likely to have weakness of the L5 myotome, which would cause weakness of the extensor hallucis longus. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 311-317.
Question 24
When performing a long fusion to the sacrum in an osteopenic patient in whom optimal sagittal balance is restored, which of the following is a benefit of extending the distal fixation to the pelvis, rather than the sacrum alone?
Explanation
In osteopenic individuals, even those with excellent obtained or maintained balance, long instrumented fusions to the sacrum impart a high degree of strain, and the sacrum may fail in a transverse fracture or fracture-dislocation pattern. The risk of proximal functional kyphosis is unrelated to distal fixation as are coronal plane correction and rod contouring. Pubic ramus fractures have been shown to be associated with both fixation to the sacrum alone as well as to the ilium.
Question 25
Which of the following statements describing chordomas is false?
Explanation
Casali and associates provided a recent review of the treatment options for chordomas. These tumors are not radiosensitive; however, modern intensity modulated radiosurgery techniques may be of value. The combination of surgery and radiotherapy compared to surgery alone results in the same disease-free survival time. Complete surgical resection of the chondroma with clean margins offers the best survival; however, its location may make total removal impossible. Thus subtotal resection followed by radiotherapy results in better survival despite the tumor's lack of radiosensitivity.