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Question 76
Figures 29a and 29b show the AP and lateral radiographs of a 30-year-old man who has increasingly worse back pain and stiffness. Examination shows painful, limited spinal range of motion. There is no neurologic deficit. What laboratory study would be most helpful in confirming the diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographs show ankylosing spondylitis with sclerosis of the sacroiliac joints and a "bamboo spine" in the lumbar region. HLA-B27 is positive in 80% to 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and in about 8% of the general population. The findings do not represent diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH), which is a radiographic diagnosis in which there are three consecutive levels of nonmarginated osteophytes without disk degeneration. Calin A: Ankylosing spondylitis. Clin Rheum Dis 1985;11:41-60. Booth R, Simpson J, Herkowitz H: Arthritis of the spine, in Herkowitz HH (ed): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, p 431.
Question 77
A 29-year-old man undergoes surgery for a grade I isthmic spondylolisthesis at L5. Following surgery, what type of brace will best immobilize the L5-S1 motion segment?
Explanation
The thoracolumbosacral orthosis with thigh extension best immobilizes the lumbosacral junction. Fidler and Plasmans have demonstrated increased motion at the lumbosacral junction with the standard chairback-type brace. Connolly PJ, Grob D: Bracing of patients after fusion for degenerative problems of the lumbar spine: Yes or no? Spine 1998;23:1426-1428.
Question 78
When examining a patient with marked hyperreflexia, which of the following findings best suggests that the condition is not caused by a cerivcal spine pathology?
Explanation
A positive jaw jerk reflex suggests that the problem is above the level of the pons. All of the other physical signs are exhibited in patients with cervical myelopathy. Although these signs also may be present in conditions affecting the brain, they do not help differentiate between a brain etiology and a cervical spine etiology. A jaw jerk reflex, however, is not present in patients with cervical myelopathy alone. Montgomery DM, Brower RS: Cervical spondylotic myelopathy: Clinical syndrome and natural history. Orthop Clin North Am 1992;23:487-493. Ono K, Ebara S, Fuji T, Yonenobu K, Fujiwara K, Yamashita K: Myelopathy hand: New clinical signs of cervical cord damage. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1987;69:215-219.
Question 79
The artery of Adamkiewicz (arteria radicularis, arteria magna) is most commonly found on the
Explanation
Approximately 75% of people have the artery on the left side between T9 and T11. Its relevance to iatrogenic spinal cord problems is still uncertain. Stambaugh J, Simeone F: Vascular complication in spine surgery, in Herkowitz HH (ed): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, p 1715.
Question 80
A 62-year-old man with a long history of ankylosing spondylitis has neck pain after lightly bumping his head on the wall. Examination reveals neck pain with any attempted motion; the neurologic examination is normal. Plain radiographs show extensive ankylosis of the cervical spine and kyphosis but no fracture. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
A high level of suspicion must be given for a fracture in any patient with ankylosing spondylitis who reports neck pain, even with minimal or no trauma. The neck should be immobilized in its normal position, which is often kyphotic, and plain radiographs should be obtained. If no obvious fracture is seen, CT with reconstruction should be obtained. The placement of in-line traction can have catastrophic effects because it may malalign the spine. Brigham CD: Ankylosing spondylitis and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, in Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 724-727.
Question 81
A young man sustains a lumbar strain in an on-the-job motor vehicle accident. Both he and his treating physician feel that he is capable of limited duty with appropriate restrictions shortly after the injury. What term best describes his work status?
Explanation
Because the man is only recently removed from his injury and is judged capable of returning to work with some restrictions, the term that best describes his work status is temporary partial disability.
Question 82
Based on the findings seen at C5-6 in Figure 30, the most likely deficit for this patient will be weakness of the
Explanation
A herniated cervical disk at C5-6 causes a C6 radiculopathy. There are eight cervical nerve roots and seven cervical vertebrae, and C8 exits between the C7 and T1 vertebrae. The C6 nerve root typically innervates the biceps and wrist extensor. The deltoid is predominantly innervated by C5. The wrist flexor and triceps are predominantly innervated by C7. Grip strength is predominantly a function of C8.
Question 83
A 40-year-old woman with no history of back problems has a symptomatic L4-5 disk herniation with an L5 radiculopathy that has failed to respond to 12 weeks of nonsurgical management. In the preoperative discussion, the surgeon advises the patient that the chance of recurrence of the herniation after successful diskectomy is what percent?
Explanation
The incidence of recurrent disk herniation after a successful diskectomy is approximately 5% to 10%. Indications for surgical diskectomy for a recurrence are the same as for a primary diskectomy. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 685-698.
Question 84
In the normal adult, the distance between the basion and the tip of the dens with the head in neutral position is how many millimeters?
Explanation
In the normal adult, the distance between the basion and the tip of the dens is 4 mm to 5 mm. Any distance greater than 5 mm is considered abnormal. This is one way to detect occipitocervical dissociation other than using the Power's ratio, which relies on an anterior dislocation. Wiesel SW, Rothman RH: Occipitoatlantal hypermobility. Spine 1979;4:187-191.
Question 85
The postoperative neurologic prognosis of a patient who has a tumor that is compressing the spinal cord and causing a neurologic deficit depends primarily on the
Explanation
The tumor biology, location, and pretreatment neurologic status are the best predictors of a patient's postoperative neurologic prognosis. Between 60% to 90% of patients who are ambulatory at the time of diagnosis will retain this ability after treatment. Location is important in that less space is available for the cord in the thoracic spine. Lesions located in vascular watershed regions may disrupt the vascular supply of the cord. Weinstein JN: Differential diagnosis and surgical treatment of primary benign and malignant neoplasms, in Frymoyer JW (ed): The Adult Spine: Principles and Practice. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1991, vol 1, pp 829-860.
Question 86
An otherwise healthy 32-year-old man who underwent an uneventful L5-S1 lumbar microdiskectomy 6 weeks ago now reports increasing and severe back pain that awakens him from sleep. Examination reveals a benign-appearing wound, and the neurologic examination is normal. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 90 mm/h and a WBC of 9,000/mm3. Plain radiographs are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient's history and laboratory studies are very suspicious for a postoperative diskitis. The predominant symptom often is back pain. An ESR of 90 mm/h is considered significantly elevated and normally would be expected to return to near baseline by 2 weeks postoperatively. A normal WBC result is not unusual with postoperative diskitis. Management should consist of an MRI with gadolinium to confirm the diagnosis, followed by a biopsy percutaneously to obtain tissues for pathology and microbiology. Surgical debridement is reserved for patients whose percutaneous biopsy results are negative and a high index of suspicion for diskitis remains, or when management consisting of IV antibiotics, bed rest, and spinal immobilization fails to provide relief. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 257-271.
Question 87
An 81-year-old man with severe low back pain reports right extensor hallucis longus and anterior tibialis weakness and difficulty urinating over the past 24 hours. He has a temperature of 101 degrees F (38.3 degrees C). MRI scans are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. Management should consist of
Explanation
An epidural abscess with neurologic deficit represents a medical and surgical emergency. The prognosis is related to the timeliness of diagnosis and treatment. Once identified, the primary treatment is surgical decompression of the abscess, followed by organism-specific antibiotics. In the absence of a significant anterior process such as diskitis or vertebral osteomyelitis, lumbar epidural abscesses generally can be drained through a posterior approach. Delayed stabilization usually is not required unless, in the course of decompression, removal of too much of the facets creates an instability; this is an uncommon occurrence. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 257-271.
Question 88
A 25-year-old man has chronic back pain that has been slowly worsening. He has no constitutional symptoms, and he denies any previous medical problems. Examination shows a tall lean build with no objective neurologic findings or skin lesions. Figure 32 shows a T2-weighted sagittal MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The MRI scan shows significant dural ectasia, which is seen in more than 60% of patients with Marfan syndrome. It is also relatively common in patients with neurofibromatosis, but this patient has no skin lesions. It has also been described in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome but is less common. Ahn NU, Sponseller PD, Ahn UM, Nallamshetty L, Kuszyk BS, Zinreich SJ: Dural ectasia is associated with back pain in Marfan' syndrome. Spine 2000;25:1562-1568.
Question 89
Which of the following factors has the most effect on the pullout strength of lumbar transpedicular screw fixation?
Explanation
Although all of the factors listed contribute to the pullout strength of transpedicular screw fixation, low bone density generally is felt to be the most influential. Wittenberg RH, Shea M, Swartz DE, Lee KS, White AA III, Hayes WC: Importance of bone mineral density in instrumented spine fusions. Spine 1991;16:647-652.
Question 90
Examination of a 34-year-old man who has had left leg pain for the past 6 weeks reveals minimal weakness of the left extensor hallucis longus and normal ankle jerk and patellar reflexes. Figure 33 shows an axial MRI scan of the L4-5 disk. Based on these findings, the MRI scan results are consistent with compression of the
Explanation
The patient has an L5 radiculopathy secondary to an L4-5 disk herniation that is compressing the traversing L5 nerve root.
Question 91
A 20-year-old college athlete is seen for follow-up after sustaining an injury at football practice 2 days ago. He reports that he tackled a player and felt neck pain and numbness in both arms. The numbness resolved within seconds, but his neck remains painful and stiff. He denies any history of neck pain or injury. Examination reveals limited neck motion. The neurologic examination and radiographs are normal. MRI scans of the cervical spine are shown in Figure 34. During counseling, the patient, his family, and his coach should be informed that he has an acute cervical disk herniation and cannot play
Explanation
A player who has an acute cervical disk herniation should not be allowed to return to play until the acute phase is over. Certain players with large herniations may require surgery before returning to play to eliminate the risk of disk-related stenosis and cord compression. Morganti C, Sweeney CA, Albanese SA, Burak C, Hosea T, Connolly PJ: Return to play after cervical spine injury. Spine 2001;26:1131-1136.
Question 92
An Asian 45-year-old man has bilateral upper extremity dysfunction. Figure 35a shows a T2-weighted sagittal MRI scan of the cervical spine, and Figure 35b shows a T2-weighted axial MRI scan at the level of the C3 vertebral body. What is the most likely pathologic process?
Explanation
Although relatively common in people of Asian origin, OPLL has been reported in other races as well. The radiographic appearance can be variable as there are different types described, but some of the discerning characteristics are seen in these images. On the sagittal view, the bone posterior to the vertebral body extends along the entire length of C2 and C3. This is characteristic of OPLL, whereas cervical spondylosis and DISH more commonly are not confluent. Ankylosing spondylitis more commonly extends significantly into the spinal canal, and neurofibromatosis generally does not cause any bony growth. The axial view shows a large, oval bony projection into the spinal canal, a typical finding of OPLL. McAfee PC, Regan JJ, Bohlman HH: Cervical cord compression from ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament in non-orientals. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1987;69:569-575.
Question 93
A 36-year-old man has a moderate-sized left paracentral L5-S1 disk herniation with compression of the S1 nerve. Examination will most likely reveal sensory changes at what location?
Explanation
Because the left paracentral L5-S1 disk herniation is compressing the left S1 nerve root, the patient will have numbness along the lateral border and plantar surface of the foot. Numbness along the anterior thigh stopping at the knee is consistent with an L3 radiculopathy. Sensory changes at the dorsum of the foot and great toe normally signify an L5 distribution; the medial leg signifies an L4 distribution. Perianal numbness involves the S2-S5 nerve roots. Wisneski RJ, Garfin SR, Rothman RH, Lutz GE: Lumbar disk disease, in Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Balderston RA, Eismont FJ, Bell GR, Wiesel SW (eds): Rothman and Simeone The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1999, vol 1, pp 629-634.
Question 94
In a patient with a C5-6 herniation, the most likely sensory deficit will be in the
Explanation
A C5-6 herniation compresses the C6 root, which innervates the radial forearm, thumb, and index finger. The lateral shoulder is innervated by C5. The dorsal forearm and the middle finger typically are innervated by C7. The ulnar forearm, ring finger, and little finger are innervated by C8. There is no specific nerve associated with the volar forearm and palm.
Question 95
A 78-year-old woman has had activity-limiting cervical pain and occipital headaches for the past 4 years. Management consisting of injections, analgesics, and part-time collar wear has provided temporary relief. Examination reveals that her neck pain seems to be primarily located immediately below the skull and is aggravated by long periods of sitting and rotation of her head. Plain radiographs are shown in Figures 36a through 36c. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
Posterior atlantoaxial arthrodesis predictably relieves pain associated with arthrosis of the atlantoaxial joints. Typically, these patients have pain at the base of the occiput and in the most cephalad portion of the posterior aspect of the neck. Associated headache is common and often severe. Pain is aggravated by rotation but usually not by flexion and extension. Diagnostic blocks of the C1-C2 joint and the greater occipital nerve may be helpful to confirm the diagnosis preoperatively. Ghanayem AJ, Leventhal M, Bohlman HH: Osteoarthrosis of the atlanto-axial joints: Long-term follow-up after treatment with arthrodesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1300-1307.
Question 96
Contraindications to cervical laminectomy as a treatment for cervical spondylotic myelopathy include which of the following findings?
Explanation
Cervical laminectomy is an accepted treatment for multilevel cervical spondylotic myelopathy. When the compression is posterior, laminectomy addresses it directly; when the compression is anterior, it is addressed indirectly (the spinal cord floats posteriorly away from the anterior compression). Preexisting kyphosis is a contraindication to laminectomy because the cord is unable to float posteriorly away from the anterior compression, and the risk for increasing kyphosis is significant. Kyphosis after laminectomy is more likely to develop in younger patients who have fewer degenerative changes to stabilize the spine. Malone DG, Benzyl EC: Laminotomy and laminectomy for spinal stenosis causing radiculopathy or myelopathy, in Clark CR (ed.): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 817-825.
Question 97
What arterial vessel is most prone to injury during posterior iliac crest bone graft harvest?
Explanation
The superior gluteal artery is most at risk with a posterior iliac crest bone graft harvest. The artery leaves the pelvis through the sciatic notch and can be injured by retractors or other sharp instruments entering the sciatic notch area. The deep circumflex iliac, iliolumbar, and fourth lumbar arteries supply the iliacus and iliopsoas muscles and can be damaged during anterior bone graft harvest. The ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery is at risk during the anterior approach to the hip. Guyer RD, Delmarter RB, Fulp T, Small SD: Complications of cervical spine surgery, in Herkowitz HN, Garfin SR, Balderston RA, Eismont FJ, Bell GR, Wiesel SW (eds): Rothman-Simeone The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1999, p 547. Kurz LT, Garfin SR, Booth RE Jr: Iliac bone grafting: Techniques and complications of harvesting, in Garfin SR (ed): Complications of Spine Surgery. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1989, pp 330-331.
Question 98
A 30-year-old man who underwent an anterior lumbar diskectomy and fusion at L4-5 and L5-S1 through an anterior retroperitoneal approach 1 month ago now reports he is unable to obtain and maintain an erection. The most likely cause of this condition is
Explanation
Sexual dysfunction is a common condition after extensive anterior lumbar surgical dissection. Erectile dysfunction usually is nonorganic but may be related to parasympathetic injury. The parasympathetic nerves are deep in the pelvis at the level of S2-3 and S3-4 and usually are not involved in the surgical field for anterior L4-5 and L5-S1 procedures. Retrograde ejaculation is the result of injury to the sympathetic chain on the anterior surface of the major vessels crossing the L4-5 level and at the L5-S1 interspace. Erectile function and orgasm are not affected by sympathetic injury. The pudendal nerve is primarily a somatic nerve and is not located in the surgical field. Flynn JC, Price CT: Sexual complications of anterior fusion of the lumbar spine. Spine 1984;9:489-492.
Question 99
Which of the following statements about injury of the anterior vascular structures during lumbar disk surgery is true?
Explanation
Vascular injury most commonly occurs at L4-L5, followed by L5-S1 and are associated with use of the pituitary rongeur. Hohf reported that 17 of 58 patients died as a result. Early recognition and treatment of this complication is vital; unfortunately, intraoperative bleeding from the disk space may occur in up to 50% of these patients. Some may be first recognized in the recovery room. Common clinical findings include hypotension, tachycardia, and a rigid abdomen. Formation of an arteriovenous fistula is the most common vascular injury resulting from lumbar disk surgery but is usually not recognized until months after surgery. Cardiomegaly and high output cardiac failure are common presenting symptoms. Hohf RP: Arterial injuries occurring during orthopaedic operations. Clin Orthop 1963;28:21-37. Montorsi W, Ghiringhelli C: Genesis, diagnosis and treatment of vascular complications after intervertebral disk surgery. Int Surg 1973;58:233-235.
Question 100
The photomicrograph in Figure 37 shows a repaired dural tear 4 days after surgery. The material interposed between the dural edges (D) is composed of
Explanation
During the initial healing phases of a dural tear, pia and arachnoid from adjacent nerve roots migrate, fill the dural defect, and create a pia-arachnoid plug. It is this initial plugging of the defect that is believed to prevent further egress of cerebrospinal fluid through the defect. The plug has been shown to develop by the second postoperative day. Fibroblastic proliferation occurs within the dura itself and accounts for the bulbous ends of the dura seen in the photomicrograph. The appearance of the material within the dural edges is inconsistent with the appearance of neural elements, and scar tissue formation occurs later in the healing process. Cain JE Jr, Dryer RF, Barton BR: Evaluation of dural closure techniques: Suture methods, fibrin adhesive sealant, and cyanoacrylate polymer. Spine 1988;13:720-725.