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AAOS Spine Surgery MCQs (Set 2): Lumbar Stenosis & Thoracolumbar Fractures | Board Review

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AAOS Spine Surgery MCQs (Set 2): Lumbar Stenosis & Thoracolumbar Fractures | Board Review
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Question 26
A patient with myelopathy underwent a one-level corpectomy 1 day ago and is now home. In the middle of the night he calls to report markedly increased difficulty in swallowing, diaphoresis, a change in his voice, and difficulty lying flat. What is the best course of action?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1
Explanation
The patient has respiratory distress as manifested by his difficulty in lying flat. In addition, the diaphoresis and the change in his voice indicate retropharyngeal edema or hematoma that is compressing his larynx. The only appropriate treatment is hospital admission and elective intubation. During intubation it is possible to cause laryngospasm in a patient with a hyperacute airway; therefore, the surgeon should be prepared to perform a cricothyroidotomy. Often a fiberoptically guided intubation is the only way to find the airway in the presence of retropharyngeal edema or hematoma. Emery SE, Smith MD, Bohlman HH: Upper-airway obstruction after multilevel cervical corpectomy for myelopathy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:544-551.
Question 27
Figure 10 shows the radiograph of an 18-year-old woman who sustained a spinal cord injury in a motor vehicle accident. Based on the radiographic findings, her injury is best described as
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 2
Explanation
The Allen and Ferguson mechanistic classification system is a useful tool for evaluating cervical spine injuries. Cervical fractures are classified as compressive extension, distractive extension, compressive flexion, distractive flexion, vertical compression, and lateral flexion. The patient has a distractive flexion injury.
Question 28
Examination of a 30-year-old professional singer who has persistent neck and shoulder pain reveals a positive Hoffman's sign and clonus because of anterior C2-3 cord compression. The MRI scan shown in Figure 11a and the cervical CT scan shown in Figure 11b reveal focal anterior cord compression at the C2-3 level. Which of the following surgical approaches would least affect her professional career?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 3 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 4
Explanation
Protection of the superior laryngeal nerve is critical in a professional singer. The nerve is easily injured with retraction when using vertical extension of common anterior surgical approaches to gain exposure to the C2-3 level. McAfee and associates reported on 17 patients with C1-2 and C2-3 pathology. They used a modified submandibular approach as an anterior retropharyngeal exposure with modification of the superior extension of the Smith-Robinson technique that allows visualization of the superior laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. No incidences of superior laryngeal nerve injury were recorded. The transoral approach should be avoided because of the high rate of infection and limited exposure. McAfee PC, Bohlman HH, Reilly LH Jr, Robinson RA, Southwick WO, Nachlas NE: The anterior retropharyngeal approach to the upper part of the cervical spine. J Bone Joint Surgery Am 1987;69:1371-1383.
Question 29
Figure 12 shows the lumbar CT scan of a 24-year-old man who was injured in a snowmobile accident. What is the mechanism of injury?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 5
Explanation
A true compression fracture is a single-column injury that does not create canal compromise. A burst fracture is a two- or three-column injury that disrupts the middle column and thereby narrows the spinal canal. This patient has a burst fracture. The mechanism of injury is usually vertical compression or flexion compression. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 197-217.
Question 30
Which of the following changes occur in the spinal cord and the spinal canal when the cervical spine moves from neutral to full flexion?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 6
Explanation
The spinal cord and spinal canal undergo dynamic changes during neck flexion and extension. In neck flexion, the spinal cord initially unfolds and then undergoes elastic deformation with full flexion; the spinal canal lengthens. This may explain the presence of Lhermitte's sign as the cord is pulled anteriorly over an anterior osteophyte or disk, generating a compressive force on the spinal cord. During neck extension, the spinal cord relaxes (folding like an accordion) and the spinal canal shortens. Breig A: Biomechanics of the Central Nervous System: Some Basic Normal and Pathologic Phenomena. Stockholm, Sweden, Almquist and Wiksell, 1960.
Question 31
A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident 2 days ago now reports neck pain. He denies any other symptoms. Radiographs reveal a type II odontoid fracture that is 2 mm anteriorly displaced. Management consists of halo vest immobilization in extension, and repeat radiographs reveal that the fracture is completely reduced. The patient is discharged to home, but later that evening he notes difficulty swallowing while trying to eat dinner. What is the most likely cause of this difficulty?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 7
Explanation
If the neck is immobilized in excessive extension, it can be difficult for the patient to swallow. If the patient had injured the recurrent or superior laryngeal nerve at the time of the accident, it is likely to have manifested itself earlier on. Esophageal trauma or retropharyngeal edema or hematoma from the fracture also should have manifested itself earlier. Because the fracture was completely reduced, it is unlikely that moving the small fragment posteriorly would have injured the esophagus. Garfin SR, Botte MJ, Waters RL, Nickel VL: Complications in the use of halo fixation device. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:320-325.
Question 32
A 64-year-old man who underwent an L4-5 decompression approximately 1 year ago reported relief of his claudicatory leg pain initially, but he now has increasing low back pain and recurrent neurogenic claudication despite nonsurgical management. Radiographs show new asymmetric collapse and spondylolisthesis at the decompressed segment, and MRI scans show lateral recess stenosis. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 8
Explanation
When radiographic findings reveal postlaminectomy instability, procedures that do not include some type of fusion will fail to solve the problem. In fact, wider decompression or diskectomy alone will only further destabilize the segment. Because there is radiographic evidence of recurrent lateral recess stenosis and symptomatic neurogenic claudication, a revision decompression should be included. Since access to the canal involves a posterior approach, the stabilization should be performed through that same approach. Herkowitz HN, Kurz LT: Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis with spinal stenosis: A prospective study comparing decompression with decompression and intertransverse process arthrodesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:802-808.
Question 33
A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident 2 weeks ago now reports neck pain. Work-up reveals no evidence of nerve root involvement or acute radiographic abnormality. The patient appears to have a hyperextension soft-tissue injury of the neck (whiplash). What is the best course of treatment at this time?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 9
Explanation
Early mobilization and resumption of normal activities immediately after neck sprain has been shown to improve functional outcome and decrease subjective symptoms as measured 6 months after injury. Borchgrevink GE, Kaasa A, McDonagh D, Stiles TC, Haraldseth O, Lereim I: Acute treatment of whiplash neck injuries: A randomized trial during the first 14 days after a car accident. Spine 1998;23:25-31.
Question 34
A 19-year-old man has had back pain with activity, especially running in soccer and baseball, for the past 4 months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals no motor weakness or sensory changes in the lower extremities. Range of motion shows increased pain with extension and mild limitation with flexion. A sitting straight leg raising test is limited at approximately 60 degrees bilaterally by back and buttocks pain. Plain radiographs are normal. MRI scans are shown in Figures 13a through 13e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 12 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 13 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 14
Explanation
The patient has an isthmic spondylolysis. The plain radiographs are normal, but the MRI scans show increased marrow edema and signal at the L5 pars interarticularis. Findings of bilateral hamstring tightness and increased pain with extension over flexion suggests spondylolysis. The MRI scans do not show any signs of the other conditions. Wiltse LL, Rothman SL: Spondylolisthesis: Classification, diagnosis and natural history. Sem Spine Surg 1993;5:264-280.
Question 35
A neurologic injury at T11-L2 with loss of bowel and bladder control is best described as what syndrome?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 15
Explanation
Conus medullaris syndrome describes isolated loss of bowel and bladder function, usually at T12-L1 but can include T11-L2. In central cord syndrome, lower extremity motor function is better than upper extremity function. Cauda equina syndrome generally involves injury at the lumbar levels, with some degree of lower extremity motor loss. Posterior cord syndrome is characterized by preservation of motor function below the level of injury and position/vibratory sensory loss. In anterior cord syndrome, the lower extremity findings include loss of light touch, sharp/dull, and temperature sensations below the level of injury, as well as motor function. Apple DF Jr: Spinal cord injury rehabilitation, in Rothman RH, Simeone FA (eds): The Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, Chapter 31.
Question 36
The space available for the cord is an important determinant in neurologic recovery. Recent analysis suggests that the most reliable radiographic predictor for neurologic recovery after surgery in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and paralysis is a preoperative
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 16
Explanation
Boden and associates' recent article presents significant evidence that patients with rheumatoid arthritis, neurologic deterioration, and C1-2 instability are more likely to improve after surgery if the posterior alanto-odontoid interval is greater than 10 mm preoperatively. The accepted safe range for the posterior atlanto-odontoid interval is 14 mm. This measurement is believed to better represent the space available for the cord than the anterior alanto-odontoid interval. Garfin SR, Vaccaro AR (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 273-279. Boden SD, Dodge LD, Bohlman HH, Rechtine GR: Rheumatoid arthritis of the cervical spine: A long-term analysis with predictors of paralysis and recovery. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1282-1297.
Question 37
A 21-year-old woman with scoliosis reports no pain, and her examination is unremarkable except for the scoliosis. Preoperative radiographs, including bending views, are shown in Figures 14a through 14e. The thoracic curve measures 62 degrees. Treatment should consist of
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 17 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 18 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 21
Explanation
The patient has a King type III curve with a very flexible lumbar spine that derotates and levels well on side bending. The fractional upper thoracic curve is also quite flexible and will not need to be addressed; therefore, treatment should consist of posterior spinal fusion from T4 to L1. An anterior spinal fusion at the very apex of the curve will not address the curve satisfactorily, and an approach across the diaphragm provides little benefit in this patient. King HA, Moe JH, Bradford DS, Winter RB: The selection of fusion levels in thoracic idiopathic scoliosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;65:1302-1313.
Question 38
Figure 15 shows possible locations of anterior pin sites for halo fixation. What location is considered most ideal?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 22
Explanation
The anterior pin should be placed just above and lateral to the eyebrow at the site labeled A. At site B, the supraorbital nerve can be damaged. At site C, the supratrochlear nerve or the frontal sinus can be damaged. The site labeled D is over the temporalis muscle; in this location the temple bone is thin and there is the risk of perforation. Site E is above the equator of the forehead; at this location there is a risk that the halo ring will slip off the head altogether. Garfin SR, Botte MJ, Waters RL, Nickel VL: Complications in the use of halo fixation device. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1986;68:320-325.
Question 39
A 30-year-old man requires surgical stabilization of a hypermobile spondylolisthesis of L5 on S1. History reveals that he has smoked one pack of cigarettes a day for 15 years. During preoperative counseling, the patient should be advised to
Explanation
Many studies have shown the negative effects of cigarette smoking on the success of lumbar arthrodesis. Some have suggested preoperative cessation is a significant factor for good results. However, Deguchi and associates, in a review of spondylolisthesis fusions, and Glassman and associates, in a review of scoliosis fusions, showed no significant benefit from preoperative cessation of smoking. In every report, however, postoperative smoking correlated with a significantly increased rate of pseudarthrosis. Cessation of smoking with the use of nicotine substitutes would not be beneficial because animal studies and human clinical trials have shown that nicotine is a major factor in failure of fusion in patients who continue to smoke. Silcox DH III, Daftari T, Boden SD, Schimandle JH, Hutton WC, Whitesides TE Jr: The effect of nicotine on spinal fusion. Spine 1995;20:1549-1553. Deguchi M, Rapoff AJ, Zdeblick TA: Posterolateral fusion for isthmic spondylolisthesis in adults: Analysis of fusion rate and clinical results. J Spinal Disord 1998;11:459-464.
Question 40
What is the most likely type of pathology seen in Figure 16?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 23
Explanation
The figure shows the missing pedicle or "winking owl" sign that is characteristic of tumor involvement of the cortical bone of the pedicle. None of the other pathologic processes commonly gives this radiographic picture. Thinned, but not missing pedicles, have been described as a normal variant. McLain R, Weinstein J: Tumors of the spine, in Herkowitz HH (ed): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, p 1173.
Question 41
In a retroperitoneal approach to the lumbar spine, what nerve is commonly found on the psoas muscle?
Explanation
The genitofemoral nerve and the sympathetic plexus consistently lie on the ventral surface of the psoas muscle. The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves are the most superior branches of the lumbar plexus and emerge along the upper lateral border of the psoas muscle traveling toward the quadratus lumborum. Both the obturator and femoral nerves are deep and lateral to the psoas muscle. Watkins RG (ed): Surgical Approaches to the Spine, ed 1. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1983, p 107. Johnson R, Murphy M, Southwick W: Surgical approaches to the spine, in Herkowitz HH (ed): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1992, p 1559.
Question 42
A 21-year-old man has had posterior neck discomfort for the past 6 months. Radiographs, an MRI scan, and a photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 17a through 17d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 25 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 27
Explanation
Forty percent of osteoblastomas occur in the spine, and they can become large and locally aggressive lesions. They generally occur in the posterior elements but can occur in the ribs and transverse processes. Microscopic analysis of the lesion will reveal hyperchromatic osteoblasts separated by incompletely mineralized bars of bone. Recommended treatment is en bloc excision. Fibrous dysplasia, giant cell tumor, and hemangioma can have similar radiographic appearances; therefore, biopsy may be required to differentiate them from more aggressive lesions. Osteochondromas are characterized by an osteocartilaginous growth arising from the cortex. Bridwell KH, Ogilvie JW: Primary tumors of the spine, in Bridwell KH, DeWald RL (eds): The Textbook of Spinal Surgery. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1991, vol 2, pp 1143-1174.
Question 43
An otherwise healthy 16-year-old boy who has had thoracolumbar pain with an increasingly worse deformity for the past 2 years now reports that the pain is worse at night. He responded well to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs initially, but they have become less effective. He denies any neurologic or constitutional symptoms. Examination is consistent with a mild thoracolumbar scoliosis and is otherwise normal. Laboratory studies show a normal CBC, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and C-reactive protein. Standing radiographs show a 20 degree left thoracolumbar scoliosis, and he has a Risser stage of 4. A bone scan shows increased uptake at L2; a CT scan through this level is shown in Figure 18. Management should now consist of
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 28
Explanation
The findings and radiographic appearance are most consistent with osteoid osteoma involving the medial pedicle. Scoliosis is commonly seen with this lesion and usually does not need surgical intervention. Excellent results have been reported with surgical excision as well as with percutaneous thermocoagulation. Nonsurgical treatment also has been described in peripheral osteoid osteoma but is not well described for lesions within the spine. Cove JA, Taminiau AH, Obermann WR, Vanderschueren GM: Osteoid osteoma of the spine treated with percutaneous computed tomography-guided thermocoagulation. Spine 2000;25:1283-1286. Kneisl JS, Simon MA: Medical management compared with operative treatment for osteoid-osteoma. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:179-185.
Question 44
Which of the following assessment tools most accurately reflects outcomes of well-being, daily function, and general health in a patient treated for cervical myelopathy?
Explanation
The short-form 36 is an excellent tool for measuring the patient's perception of treatment outcome because it is a patient-generated, validated assessment of physical, social, and role function, emotional and mental health, energy/fatigue, pain, health perception, and health change. The Nurick criteria is an evaluation of physical function with gradations of ambulation and daily function. The Japanese Orthopaedic Association score gives points for function in activities of daily living but does not assess perception of general health. The neck disability index assesses the impact of neck pain on daily life, and the Odom criteria are the surgeon's evaluations of degree of radicular pain and deficit. Albert TJ, Mesa JJ, Eng K, McIntosh TC, Balderston RA: Health outcome assessment before and after lumbar laminectomy for radiculopathy. Spine 1996;21:960-963. Swiontkowski MF, Buckwalter JA, Keller RB, Haralson R: The outcomes movement in orthopaedic surgery: Where we are and where we should go. J Bone Joint Surgery Am 1999;81:732-740.
Question 45
A 54-year-old man undergoes uneventful anterior cervical diskectomy and interbody fusion at C4-5 for focal disk herniation and C5 radiculopathy. At the 3-week follow-up examination, the patient reports a persistent cough. Pulmonary evaluation reveals a mild but persistent aspiration. Laryngoscopy reveals partial paralysis of the left vocal cord, most likely caused by
Explanation
The exact anatomic event responsible for vocal cord paralysis associated with anterior cervical surgery remains a question. Apfelbaum and associates, in an excellent review of 900 anterior cervical surgeries, identified 30 patients with vocal cord paralysis, 3 of which were permanent. They showed that retractors placed under the longus coli for anterior cervical exposures can compress the laryngeal-tracheal branches within the larynx against the tented endotracheal tube rather than the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which is extrinsic to the larynx. By releasing the endotracheal cuff and allowing the tube to recenter itself after placement of the retractors, they were able to decrease vocal cord injury from 6.4% to 1.7%. Jewett and associates suggested that a left-sided approach may result in a lower incidence of injury. Endotracheal intubation is the second most common cause of vocal cord injury, with an incidence of approximately 2%. Apfelbaum RI, Kriskovich MD, Haller JR: On the incidence, cause, and prevention of recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis during anterior cervical spine surgery. Spine 2000;25:2906-2912.
Question 46
A 32-year-old professional football player has disabling left arm pain in the C7 dermatome that has been increasing in severity for the past 2 months. Examination shows a positive Spurling test on the left side, but no changes in motor, sensory, or deep tendon reflexes. Because nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief, he has chosen surgery to allow him to complete his season. The MRI scan and myelogram shown in Figures 19a and 19b show minimal disk bulge, but a root cutoff is noted at the left C7 foramen. Electromyography demonstrates C7 nerve root irritation. Which of the following procedures will best optimize his chances for completing the season?
Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 29 Spine Surgery Board Review 2000: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 30
Explanation
Because the patient has chronic pain, a possible lateral recess stenosis of the C7 root, and no neurologic deficits, keyhole foraminotomy is the treatment of choice for decompressing the exiting nerve root and offering an early return to play, especially when using a muscle-splitting posterior approach. Henderson and associates reported excellent results with posterolateral foraminotomy in patients with radicular symptoms. Although anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion is equally effective in the long term, a period of 6 to 12 weeks is required to allow the anterior fusion to heal prior to a return to play. Chen and associates reported that keyhole foraminotomy maintains cervical motion segment dynamics better than compared to anterior limited diskectomy and foraminotomy or anterior diskectomy with fusion. Henderson, CM, Hennessy RG, Shuey HM Jr, Shackelford EG: Posterior-lateral foraminotomy as an exclusive operative technique for cervical radiculopathy: A review of 846 consecutively operated cases. Neurosurgery 1983;13:504-512. Dillin W, Booth R, Cuckler J, Balderston R, Simeone F, Rothman R: Cervical radiculopathy: A review. Spine 1986;11:988-991.
Question 47
The majority of severe cervical spine injuries occurring in contact sports evolve during axial loading and flexion of the cervical spine. At what minimum degree of flexion does axial loading place the cervical spine at risk during contact sports?
Explanation
The paravertebral musculature, the intervertebral disks, and the normal lordotic curvature of the cervical spine can absorb much of the imparted energy of collision. However, when the neck is flexed approximately 30 degrees, the normal lordotic curvature is flattened and the forces applied to the vertex of the head are directed at a straight segmented column. In this situation, the cervical spine is less able to absorb the applied force. With mounting axial load, compressive deformation occurs within the intervertebral disks, causing angular deformation and buckling. The spine will fail in flexion, with resultant fracture, subluxation, or dislocation. A rotatory component added to axial compression can cause concomitant extension, rotation, and shear injury patterns. The National Football Head and Neck Injury Registry has made two recommendations to the NCAA Football Rules Committee to minimize the risk of such injuries: (1) No player should intentionally strike an opponent with the crown or top of the helmet; and (2) No player should deliberately use his helmet to butt or ram an opponent. Thomas BE, McCullen GM, Yuan HA: Cervical spine injuries in football players. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:338-347.
Question 48
According to the Third National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study (NASCIS 3), what is the recommended protocol for a patient who sustained a spinal cord injury 7 hours ago?
Explanation
NASCIS 2 established the recommended doses of methylprednisolone for spinal cord injury. This included an initial bolus of 30 mg/kg over 1 hour, followed by an infusion of 5.4 mg/kg/h for an additional 23 hours. If the injury was more than 8 hours old, the methylprednisolone was not recommended. NASCIS 3 changed the dosing schedule based on the time from injury. If the time from injury to treatment was less than 3 hours, the standard protocol was followed (30 mg/kg bolus followed by 5.4 mg/kg/h for 23 hours). If the time from injury to treatment was between 3 and 8 hours, the infusion was continued at 5.4 mg/kg for an additional 23 hours (48 hours total). In this situation with a time of injury 7 hours ago, treatment should consist of a bolus and further steroid therapy for 48 hours. Bracken MB, Shepard MJ, Holford TR, et al: Administration of methylprednisolone for 24 or 48 hours or tirilazad mesylate for 48 hours in the treatment of acute spinal cord injury: Results of the Third National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Randomized Controlled Trial. National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study. JAMA 1997;277:1597-1604.
Question 49
Lumbar instability may be surgically induced by
Explanation
In cadaveric studies, unilateral facetectomy, or excision of 50% or more of both facets, significantly decreases the biomechanic integrity of the motion segment and may increase the risk of iatrogenic instability. Sacrifice of the spinous process, interspinous ligaments, and ligamentum flavum weakens the motion segment but does not increase the risk for instability. Facetectomy, even unilateral, predisposes the patient toward lumbar instability.
Question 50
A 19-year-old man who sustained a spinal cord injury in a motor vehicle accident 3 days ago has 5/5 full strength in the deltoids and biceps bilaterally, 4/5 strength in wrist extension bilaterally, 1/5 triceps function on the right side, and 2/5 triceps function on the left side. The patient has no detectable lower extremity motor function. Based on the American Spinal Injury Association's classification, what is the patient's functional level?
Explanation
By convention when determining the motor level, the key muscle must be at least 3/5. The next most rostral level must be 4/5. Therefore, this patient's functional level is C6.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon