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Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: Arthroplasty, Ligament & Spine | Part 149

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: Arthroplasty, Foot & Ankle, Trauma | Part 141

27 Apr 2026 212 min read 67 Views
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: AAOS Master Bank Part 141

Key Takeaway

This page offers Part 141 of a professional orthopedic surgery board review. It contains 100 verified, high-yield MCQs for AAOS and OITE exam preparation. Designed for orthopedic residents and surgeons, it features study and exam modes with detailed clinical explanations to ensure comprehensive certification readiness.

About This Board Review Set

This is Part 141 of the comprehensive OITE and AAOS Orthopedic Surgery Board Review series authored by Dr. Mohammed Hutaif, Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon.

This set has been strictly audited and contains 100 100% verified, high-yield multiple-choice questions (MCQs) modelled on the exact format of the Orthopaedic In-Training Examination (OITE) and the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) board examinations.

How to Use the Interactive Quiz

Two distinct learning modes are available:

  • Study Mode — After selecting an answer, you immediately see whether you are correct or incorrect, together with a full clinical explanation and literature references.
  • Exam Mode — All feedback is hidden until you click Submit & See Results. A live timer tracks elapsed time. A percentage score and detailed breakdown are displayed upon submission.

Pro Tip: Use keyboard shortcuts A–E to select options, F to flag a question for review, and Enter to jump to the next unanswered question.

Topics Covered in Part 141

This module focuses heavily on: Arthroplasty, Foot, Hip, Knee, Revision, Trauma.

Sample Questions from This Set

Sample Question 1: A 61-year-old man reports right hip pain and limited motion after undergoing total hip arthroplasty for posttraumatic arthritis 1 year ago. Figure 6 shows an AP radiograph of the pelvis. To improve motion and relieve pain, management should...

Sample Question 2: Figures 11a and 11b show the radiographs of a 50-year-old man who was struck by a car. Treatment should consist of...

Sample Question 3: A 17-year-old football player is injured during a play and reports abdominal pain that is soon followed by nausea and vomiting. What organ has most likely been injured?...

Sample Question 4: A 13-year-old patient has foot drop and lateral knee pain. AP and lateral radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 49a through 49c. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 49d. What is the preferred method of treatment?...

Sample Question 5: A further workup reveals elevations in serum cobalt and chromium levels and fluid collections surrounding the hip on MARS MR imaging. Revision THA is recommended. The most common complication following revision of a failed metal-on-metal hi...

Why Active MCQ Practice Works

Evidence consistently demonstrates that active recall through spaced MCQ practice yields substantially greater long-term retention than passive reading alone (Roediger & Karpicke, 2006). All questions in this specific module have been algorithmically verified for clinical integrity and complete explanations.

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 61-year-old man reports right hip pain and limited motion after undergoing total hip arthroplasty for posttraumatic arthritis 1 year ago. Figure 6 shows an AP radiograph of the pelvis. To improve motion and relieve pain, management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has symptomatic grade IV Brooker heterotopic ossification.  Once the bone has matured, it can be excised.  Surgical excision should be combined with postoperative irradiation to avoid recurrence.  Pharmacologic and irradiation intervention are not successful beyond the perioperative period unless they are combined with surgical excision of mature heterotopic ossification.
REFERENCES: Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 417-451.
Iorio R, Healy WL: Heterotopic ossification after total hip and total knee arthroplasty: Risk factors, prevention, and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2002;10:409-416.

Question 2

Figures 11a and 11b show the radiographs of a 50-year-old man who was struck by a car. Treatment should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a displaced femoral neck fracture.  Although the treatment remains controversial, most clinicians advocate either a closed or open reduction in younger active patients.  Achieving an anatomic reduction is necessary to avoid loss of reduction, nonunion, or osteonecrosis.  An acceptable reduction may have up to 15° of valgus angulation and 10° of posterior angulation.  Parallel multiple screws or pins are the most common method of internal fixation.  Prosthetic replacement is generally reserved for older and less active individuals.
REFERENCES: Callaghan JJ, Dennis DA, Paprosky WG, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1995, pp 97-108.
Asnis SE, Wanek-Sgaglione L: Intracapsular fractures of the femoral neck: Results of cannulated screw fixation.  J Bone Joint Surg 1994;76A:1793-1803.

Question 3

A 17-year-old football player is injured during a play and reports abdominal pain that is soon followed by nausea and vomiting. What organ has most likely been injured?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The spleen is the most common organ injured in the abdomen as the result of blunt trauma.  It is also the most common cause of death because of an abdominal injury. The liver is the second most commonly injured organ.  Injury to the other organs is rare.  The diagnosis can be made with CT.  Treatment ranges from observation to splenectomy, depending on the severity of injury.
REFERENCES: Green GA: Gastrointestinal disorders in the athlete.  Clin Sports Med 1992;11:453-470.
Kibler WB (ed): ACSM’s Handbook for Team Physician.  Philadelphia, PA,
Williams & Wilkins, 1996, p 151.

Question 4

A 13-year-old patient has foot drop and lateral knee pain. AP and lateral radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 49a through 49c. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 49d. What is the preferred method of treatment?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The “sunburst” radiographic appearance suggests an osteosarcoma, and the histologic findings confirm the diagnosis with malignant cells surrounded by pink osteoid.  MRI scans are not particularly helpful in the diagnosis of osteosarcoma but are mandatory for surgical planning.  Osteosarcomas are high-grade sarcomas that are best treated with chemotherapy and wide resection.  Even though the peroneal nerve is involved, limb salvage is indicated.  Survival after limb salvage is equivalent to amputation, with better function.
REFERENCES: Goorin AM, Abelson HT, Frei E: Osteosarcoma: Fifteen years later.  N Engl J Med 1985;313:1637.
Link MP, Goorin AM, Miser AW, et al: The effect of adjuvant chemotherapy on relapse-free survival in patients with osteosarcoma of the extremity.  N Engl J Med 1986;314:1600.
Davis AM, Bell RS, Goodwin PJ: Prognostic factors in osteosarcoma: A critical review.  J Clin Oncol 1994;12:423.

Question 5

A further workup reveals elevations in serum cobalt and chromium levels and fluid collections surrounding the hip on MARS MR imaging. Revision THA is recommended. The most common complication following revision of a failed metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty is




Explanation

DISCUSSION
THA has proven durable and reliable for pain relief and improving function for patients with end-stage arthritis. Appropriate bearing selection is critical to minimize wear and hip complications. A metal-on-metal articulation is associated with excellent wear rates in vitro. With its capacity to offer a low wear rate with large femoral heads, it is an attractive bearing choice for THA. However, local soft-tissue reactions, pseudotumors, and potential systemic reactions including renal failure, cardiomyopathy, carcinogenesis, and potential teratogenesis with potential transfer of metal ions across the placental barrier make metal-on-metal bearings less desirable and relatively contraindicated for younger women of child-bearing age.
The workup of a painful metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty necessitates a systematic approach. Several algorithms have been proposed. Routine laboratory studies including sedimentation rate, CRP, and serum cobalt and chromium ion levels should be obtained for all patients with pain. Advanced imaging including MARS MRI should be performed to evaluate for the presence of fluid collections, pseudotumors, and abductor mechanism destruction. Infection can coexist with metal-on-metal reactions, so, when indicated (if the CRP level is elevated), a hip arthrocentesis should be obtained. However, in this setting, a manual cell count and differential should be obtained because an automated cell counter may provide falsely elevated cell counts.
The results of revision surgery for a failed metal-on-metal hip prosthesis can be variable. The amount of local tissue destruction and the integrity of the hip abductor mechanism can greatly influence outcomes. Instability is the most common complication following revision of failed metal-on-metal hip replacements.

Question 6

03 A patient with carpometacarpal joint arthritis of the thumb undergoes trapezium excision and interposition arthroplasty. One year after treatment, radiographs reveal that there has been 25% subsidence of the thumb metacarpal compared with its preoperative height. This degree of subsidence will have what effect on the surgical outcome?





Explanation

Yang and Weiland, from New York studied subsidence after trapezium excision and interposition arthroplasty. They compared preoperative and postoperative x-rays at rest as well as with maximal lateral key pinch stress. Lateral key
pinch stress causes a large amount of axial compressive force through the CMC joint. They also compared preoperative and postoperative functional measurements, including key pinch strength, tipto-tip pinch strength, grip strength, and thumb ROM. Their findings were that postoperatively the first metacarpal subsided 21% at rest (p=0.001). and it subsided another 10.5% during maximal lateral key pinch. Even with this degree of subsidence, the patients experienced increases in pinch strength and grip strength. Also, all patients except for one who had bony impingement reported that they were subjectively much better and more functional.
Lin et. al. also studied trapezium excision and interposition arthroplasty and found no significant differences between results in patients with varying degrees of subsidence. Thus, subsidence does not affect the results of interposition arthroplasty for basal thumb arthritis.
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Question 7

A 70-year-old female presents with right thigh ache for 6 months. Except for a history of osteoporosis, she is otherwise healthy. She has been on antiresorptive therapy for 8 years. Her radiograph is shown in Figure A. Four months later, she trips over a rug and falls, sustaining the injury shown in Figures B and C. Which of these statements is TRUE regarding surgical fixation of this fracture compared with conventional fractures?





Explanation

This patient has a bisphosphonate-related (BP) fracture. There is increased risk of iatrogenic fracture with IM nailing of this fracture.
Subtrochanteric fractures are fractures extending from the lesser trochanter to 5cm distal to it. BP fractures are characterized by (1) focal lateral cortical thickening, (2) transverse fracture orientation, (3) medial spike and (4) lack of comminution. There is increased risk of iatrogenic fracture with IM nailing because BP fractures have thickened, brittle cortices and the mismatch between medullary diameter and increased proximal nail diameter results in iatrogenic fracture.
Weil et al. reviewed the outcome of surgically treated bisphosphonate fractures. IM nailing resulted in healing in 54% of bisphosphonate fractures with 98-99% of conventional fractures. In their study, 46% required revision procedures.
Prasarn et al. compared plate and nail treated bisphosphonate fractures with conventional fractures. They found that the bisphosphonate group had more major and minor complications (68%) than the conventional group (10%). The most common complications were intraoperative femoral shaft comminution (nail) and hardware failure (plate).
Figure A shows diffuse cortical thickening with an antero-lateral cortical ridge. Figure B shows a transverse subtrochanteric fracture extending through the middle of the cortical ridge seen previously. Note also healed fractures of the left superior and inferior rami. Figure C is a post-reduction radiograph showing the transverse fracture through the beak-shaped region of the previous insufficiency fracture. Illustration A shows a typical bisphosphonate-related fracture with transverse fracture orientation,
focal lateral cortical thickening (white arrows), medial beak (black arrow), and lack of comminution. Illustration B shows a conventional subtrochanteric fracture. Illustration C shows intraoperative iatrogenic fracture with anterolateral comminution during nailing. Illustration D shows fixation with a proximal femoral hook LCP Plate with late hardware failure at 3 months.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 8

Refers to the effectiveness of various antibiotics against a particular microorganism.






Explanation

DISCUSSION
Knowledge of the basic nomenclature of antibiotic use is important to effectively treat patients and communicate with colleagues. The effectiveness of an antimicrobial against an infecting organism is measured by the MIC, which refers to the concentration needed to prevent growth of a microorganism on culture medium, and MBC, which is the smallest concentration of the antibiotic necessary to kill the microorganism in culture. Typically, an antibiotic is considered bactericidal if the MBC is no more than 4 times the MIC. The spectrum of antimicrobial coverage refers to an agent’s effectiveness against a range of bacteria. An antibiogram refers to the tabulation of prevalence of different bacteria in a specific setting or specific patient population. Antibiotic susceptibility and resistance refers to the bacteria’s ability to be affected or unaffected by a given antibiotic.

Question 9

An obese patient undergoing total knee arthroplasty is at increased risk for which of the following complications?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The rate of wound complications is significantly increased after total knee arthroplasty in obese patients.  Knee scores and the rate of aseptic loosening or patellar subluxation do not appear to be significantly altered.
REFERENCES: Winiarsky R, Barth P, Lotke P: Total knee arthroplasty in morbidly obese patients.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:1770-1774.
Stern SH, Insall JN: Total knee arthroplasty in obese patients.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:1400-1404.
Griffin FM, Scuderi GR, Insall JN, Colizza W: Total knee arthroplasty in patients who were obese with 10 years follow-up.  Clin Orthop 1998;356:28-33.

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for nonunion of a type II odontoid fracture?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Although obesity can make brace or halo wear difficult, it has not been associated with an increased risk for nonunion.
REFERENCES: Carson GD, Heller JG, Abitbol JJ, et al: Odontoid fractures, in Levine AM, Eismont FJ, Garfin SR, et al (eds): Spine Trauma.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998,

pp 235-238.

Fardin DF, Garfin SR, Abitbol J, et al (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 247-262.

Question 11

What is the main benefit of using metal-backed tibial components in total knee arthroplasty?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a normal knee, the hard subchondral bone helps to distribute loads across the joint surface. A metal-backed tibial component in total knee arthroplasty decreases the compressive stresses on the underlying, softer cancellous bone by distributing the load over a larger surface area, particularly when one condyle is loaded.  Although metallic base plates also increase the tensile forces on the other condyle when one is loaded and may decrease the thickness of the polyethylene tray, these are not benefits. Compressive forces on the polyethylene tray are increased with metal backing.  The conformity of the articular surfaces is not affected by metal backing of the tibial component. 
REFERENCE: Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 265-274.

Question 12

What is the optimum position of immobilization of the foot and ankle immediately after Achilles tendon repair to maximize skin perfusion?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Achilles tendon tension is not affected by knee position when the ankle is in 20° to 25° of plantar flexion.  Skin perfusion overlying the Achilles tendon is maximal in 20° of plantar flexion and is reduced beyond 20° of plantar flexion.  Neutral flexion or any amount of dorsiflexion compromises the repair.
REFERENCE: Poynton AR, O’Rourke K: An analysis of skin perfusion over the Achilles tendon in varying degrees of plantar flexion.  Foot Ankle Int 2001;22:572-574.

Question 13

A 25-year-old man has ankle instability and a lateral foot callosity. Radiographs are shown in Figures 49a through 49c. Management options are best determined by the





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a cavovarus deformity that has resulted in lateral foot overload and stressing of the lateral ligaments.  Further treatment depends on the ability to correct the deformity.  The Coleman block test indicates whether a deformity is fixed or supple.  A supple deformity will respond to orthotic management or soft-tissue procedures, while a fixed deformity requires corrective osteotomy or fusion.  Physical therapy, casting, and injection will not address the underlying pathophysiology.  There is no indication that this is a neuropathic problem.
REFERENCE: Coleman SS, Chestnut WJ: A simple test for hindfoot flexibility in the cavovarus foot.  Clin Orthop 1977;123:60-62.

Question 14

Patient-specific instrumentation (PSI) reliably demonstrates which benefit over conventional intramedullary guidance systems?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Cost is usually increased with PSI because the theoretical decreased number of surgical trays and shortened surgical time do not offset cost of presurgical imaging and extra cost associated with the necessary jigs. Studies do not demonstrate a reliable improvement in functional outcomes or coronal alignment when PSI is compared to standard instrumentation. Evidence reveals that PSI necessitates fewer trays than standard instrumentation.

Question 15

What is the most common clinically significant preventable complication secondary to the treatment of a displaced talar neck fracture?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most important consequence of a displaced talar neck fracture after closed or open treatment is malunion.  Because displacement of the talar neck is associated with displacement of the subtalar joint, any malunion leads to intra-articular incongruity or malalignment of the subtalar joint.  Varus malunion is common when there is comminution of the medial talar neck.  This results in pain, osteoarthritis, and hindfoot deformity that requires further treatment.  Because of these complications, it is imperative that all displaced talar neck fractures are reduced anatomically; fragmented fractures may require bone grafting to maintain the length and rotation of the neck.
REFERENCES: Tile M: Fractures of the talus, in Schatzker J, Tile M (eds): Rationale of Operative Fracture Care, ed 2.  Berlin, Springer-Verlag, 1996, pp 563-588. 
Daniels TR, Smith JW, Ross TI: Varus malalignment of the talar neck: Its effect on the position of the foot and on subtalar motion.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1559-1567.
Raaymakers EL: Complications of talar fractures, in Tscherne H, Schatzker J (eds): Major Fractures of the Pilon, the Talus, and Calcaneus: Current Concepts of Treatment.  Berlin, Springer-Verlag, 1993, pp 137-142.

Question 16

Figure 49 shows an acute axial MRI scan of a left knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scan shows bone bruises in the medial aspect of the patella and the lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle.  Both of these signs are typical for a lateral dislocation of the patella with spontaneous reduction.  In addition, there may be associated tearing of the medial retinaculum or distal aspect of the vastus medialis. 
REFERENCES: Elias DA, White LM, Fithian DC: Acute lateral patellar dislocation at MR imaging: Injury patterns of medial patellar soft-tissue restraints and osteochondral injuries of the inferomedial patella.  Radiology 2002;225:736-743.
Sanders TG, Miller MD: A systematic approach to magnetic resonance imaging interpretation of sports medicine injuries of the knee.  Am J Sports Med 2005;33:131-148.
Miller TT: Magnetic resonance imaging of the knee, in Insall JN, Scott WN (eds): Surgery of the Knee, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, Churchill Livingstone, 2006, vol 1, pp 201-224. 

Question 17

-The Coleman block test is used to test for




Explanation

Question 18

Which of the following statements is true regarding articular cartilage?





Explanation

The one role of collagen in articular cartilage is to provide the structural framework to resist swelling under high osmotic tissue pressures created by aggrecan. Type II collagen is the predominant type in articular cartilage.
Proteoglycans, the most common of which is aggrecan, are produced by chondrocytes and give articular cartilage its hydrophilic properties. Multiple glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), such as chondroitin and keratin can attach to core proteins to form aggrecans. Link proteins then help aggrecans interact with hyaluronic acid. The negative charge of this complex helps create a strong osmotic gradient, which attracts water and increases tissue pressures. Normal aging involves a decrease in the water content of the extracellular matrix while osteoarthritis is associated with increased water content, which leads to loss of strength and elasticity.
Chen et al. evaluated the strain and depth related properties of articular cartilage in bovine models. They found that the zero-strain permeability, zero-strain equilibrium confined compression modulus, and deformation dependence constant differed among the layers of cartilage. They suggest that the complex strain-dependent properties of articular cartilage of different thickness and location have clinical implications for tissue engineering.
Illustration A is a diagram depicting the extracellular matrix of articular cartilage. Incorrect Answers:

Question 19

Figure 27 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who has late instability. The problem most likely occurred as a result of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Although dislocation can occur anytime after hip arthroplasty, the highest incidence is observed within the first few months.  Dislocation occurring many years after arthroplasty has also been described.  In contrast to early dislocation, it appears that late dislocation frequently requires surgical intervention.  Recent studies suggest that the incidence of late dislocation may be greater than initially appreciated and that the cumulative rate of dislocation rises with increasing follow-up.  The presumed etiologic factors for late instability include long-standing problems with the prosthesis (such as malpositioning of the components) with late manifestation, trauma, deterioration in the neurologic status of the patient, and polyethylene wear.  The eccentric position of the femoral head in this patient confirms polyethylene wear.  The femoral stem is well-fixed, and the greater trochanter osteotomy has united well.  The minor osteolysis observed around the proximal femur is also the consequence of wear and is not the cause of instability.  Infection, without component loosening and massive soft-tissue destruction, is not otherwise known to result in late instability.
REFERENCES: Berry DJ, von Knoch M, Schleck CD, et al: The cumulative long-term risk of dislocation after primary Charnley total hip arthroplasty.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:9-14.
Parvizi J, Wade FA, Rapuri VR, et al: Revision hip arthroplasty for late instability secondary to polyethylene wear.  Clin Orthop 2006, in press.

Question 20

-An infant was born with complex syndactyly involving all 4 fingers of both hands, short and deformed thumbs, and similar syndactyly involving both feet. In addition, an altered facial appearance was noted with protruding eyes, a towered cranium, and midface hypoplasia. This appearance is characteristic of which syndrome?





Explanation

Question 21

What is the most reproducible landmark for the accurate anatomic placement of the tibial tunnel for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The anterior border of the PCL is the most accurate and reproducible landmark for appropriate placement of the tibial tunnel for an ACL reconstruction.  The central sagittal insertion point of the ACL is consistently 10 to 11 mm anterior to the anterior border of the PCL ligament.  The anterior border of the tibia is not well visualized and does not serve as a reference point.  While the posterior border of the anterior horn of the lateral meniscus could be used as a reference point, it has twice the variability of the PCL reference point.  The posterior border of the tibia is difficult to identify and has greater variability than the PCL relative to the AP dimension of the proximal tibial surface.  The anterior horn of the medial meniscus is also more variable than the PCL.
REFERENCES: Hutchinson MR, Bae TS: Reproducibility of anatomic tibial landmarks for anterior cruciate ligament reconstructions.  Am J Sports Med 2001;29:777-780.
McGuire DA, Hendricks SD, Sanders HM: The relationship between anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction tibial tunnel location and the anterior aspect of the posterior cruciate ligament insertion.  Arthroscopy 1997;13:465-473.

Question 22

A 46-year-old man reports occasional squeaking of his hip 2 years after undergoing an uneventful total hip arthroplasty. History reveals no pain, physical examination cannot reproduce audible squeaking, and radiographs show appropriate implant position. What is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the absence of component malpositioning, hip pain, or other compelling reasons to reoperate, a squeaking ceramic bearing is not an indication for revision surgery. The patient can be reassured and observed.
Hopefully, with a better understanding of acoustic phenomena following ceramic total hip arthroplasty, this complication can be minimized.
REFERENCES: Yang CC, Kim RH, Dennis DA: The squeaking hip: A cause for concem-disagrees. Orthopedics
2007;30:739-742.
Walter WL, O’Toole GC, Walter WK, et al: Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips: The importance of acetabular component orientation. J Arthroplasty 2007;22:496-503.

Figure 80a Figure 80b

Question 23

Etanercept is a recombinant genetically engineered fusion protein used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. What is its mode of action?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Etanercept is a molecule consisting of the Fc portion of IgG fused to the extracellular domain of the p76 human THF-α receptor.  It is soluble and binds TNF-α.  Infliximab is the monoclonal antibody that binds TNF-α.  IL-1 receptor antagonists are still in development.  Leflunomide is a drug that inhibits pyrimidine synthesis and is similar to methotrexate as an antimetabolite.
REFERENCE: Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowlegde Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 193-199.

Question 24

A 22-year-old competitive volleyball player has shoulder pain, and rest and a cortisone injection have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals atrophy along the posterior scapula, but an MRI scan does not reveal a rotator cuff tear or labral cyst. What is the most likely cause for the shoulder weakness?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Repetitive overhead slams and serves may produce a traction injury to the distal branch of the suprascapular nerve.  Bankart, biceps, and superior labrum anterior and posterior injuries can occur but usually do not produce visible atrophy.  Muscle avulsion is uncommon.
REFERENCES: Ferretti A, Cerullo G, Russo G: Suprascapular neuropathy in volleyball players.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:260-263.
Bigliani LU, Dalsey RM, McCann PD, April EW: An anatomical study of the suprascapular nerve.  Arthroscopy 1990;6:301-305.

Question 25

Clinical staging of osteomyelitis using the Cierney-Mader classification system takes into account which of the following factors?





Explanation

The Cierney-Mader classification system takes into account three types of patients with osteomyelitis: (A) healthy, (B) those with comorbidities, and (C) a host in whom treatment will lead to greater morbidity than the infection. Furthermore, the disease is addressed based on its complexity: type I-medullary, type II-superficial, type III-localized, and type IV-diffuse.

Question 26

A 10-year-old boy has a painful thigh mass. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 42a through 42c. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A destructive mixed lytic and blastic metaphyseal lesion with a large soft-tissue mass in an adolescent is most likely an osteosarcoma until proven otherwise.  The epicenter of the tumor is on the surface of the bone, most likely involves the periosteum, and is more likely to be chondroblastic in nature.  Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade tumor, much more radiodense, usually smaller, and found in the posterior distal femur of middle-aged patients.  Chondrosarcomas are distinctly rare in childhood.
REFERENCE: Bertoni F, Bacchini P: Classification of bone tumors.  Eur J Radiol

1998;27:S74-S76.

Question 27

A 19-year-old man sustains a low-velocity gunshot wound to the forearm. What factor most strongly correlates with the development of compartment syndrome after this injury?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a multivariate analysis, the strongest factor for the development of compartment syndrome is fracture of the proximal third of the forearm.  However, compartment syndrome can still occur without a fracture.  Therefore, these patients should be followed with a high level of suspicion for the development of compartment syndrome.
REFERENCES: Moed BR, Fakhouri AJ: Compartment syndrome after low-velocity gunshot wounds to the forearm.  J Orthop Trauma 1991;5:134-137.
Hahn M, Strauss E, Yang EC: Gunshot wounds to the forearm.  Orthop Clin North Am 1995;26:85-93.

Question 28

Figure 25 shows an arthroscopic thermal capsular shrinkage device being used in the anterior inferior quadrant of a patient with a subluxating shoulder. Which of the following neurologic complications is most frequently reported with this technique?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The axillary nerve lies within millimeters of the anterior inferior capsule.  The inferior capsule is of varying thickness, and thermal energy used in shortening the ligament can cause damage to the sensory fibers of the axillary nerve.  Clinically, this is manifested as a burnt skin sensation in the axillary nerve distribution area.  The motor branch of the axillary nerve is usually spared.  The suprascapular nerve and the radial nerve are far from the shrinkage zone.  The musculocutaneous nerve, frequently at risk with open procedures, lies well anterior.
REFERENCES: Fanton GS: Arthroscopic electrothermal surgery of the shoulder.  Op Tech Sports Med  1998;6:157-160.
David TS, Drez DJ Jr: Electrothermally-assisted capsular shift.  IEEE Eng Med Biol Mag 1998;17:102-104. 

Question 29

A 61-year-old man has a symptomatic bunionette that is refractory to nonsurgical management. A radiograph is shown in Figure 6. What is the optimal surgical correction?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a bunionette with a large 4-5 intermetatarsal angle.  This requires not only ostectomy of the lateral prominence but metatarsal osteotomy to decrease the intermetatarsal angle.  Excising the head results in a flail joint and creates the possibility of a transfer lesion.  Condylectomy can reduce plantar pressures but does not address the bunionette.  The joint surface is well maintained, thus there are no indications for resection. 
REFERENCES: Coughlin MJ: Treatment of bunionette deformity with longitudinal diaphyseal osteotomy with distal soft tissue repair.  Foot Ankle 1991;11:195-203.
Koti M, Maffulli N: Bunionette.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1076-1082.

Question 30

A radiograph of a 27 month old child with bilateral genu valgum and internal tibial torsion shows the metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle of Levine and Drennen is 12 degrees on the right and 13 degrees on the left. Based on this finding, management should consist of





Explanation

This paper showed that the older the child was at the time of presentation the more likely it was that the angle would be smaller in a child who had physiological bowing and larger in a child who had Blount disease. Physiologic bowing is common in children who are less than 3 years old whereas Blount disease is reported to be less than 1% at this age. Corrective bracing is initiated for presumed early Blount disease only is the metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle is more than 16 degrees. If the angle is less than 9 degrees the patient is observed. Between 9 and 16 degrees, bracing is considered only if there is instability on walking. The patient is then evaluated on 4 month intervals.

Question 31

A 41-year-old right-hand-dominant man has been treated nonsurgically for right elbow arthritis. His radiographs reveal end-stage ulnohumeral arthritis with complete loss of the joint space. He reports pain during the mid-arc of elbow flexion and extension. During the last 8 years, he has attempted activity modification, medication, physical therapy, and multiple cortisone injections. His symptoms have progressed, resulting in constant pain, loss of a functional range of motion, and an inability to perform many activities of daily living. Secondary to his age and activity demands, he undergoes a soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty of his elbow with an Achilles allograft. Which presurgical finding correlates with elevated risk for postsurgical complications?




Explanation

End-stage posttraumatic or inflammatory elbow arthritis in active, high-demand patients remains difficult to treat. Traditional total elbow arthroplasty is discouraged in this demographic secondary to concerns about implant  longevity. Soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty does  not  necessitate the same activity and   weight
restrictions for patients after surgery and remains a reasonable salvage procedure. Larson and Morrey published their findings on 38 patients with a mean age of 39 years following soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty for posttraumatic and inflammatory end-stage elbow arthritis. These investigators reported a significant improvement in Mayo Elbow Performance Score in addition to improvement in the flexion- extension arc from 51° to 97° after surgery. They reported worse results and elevated incidence of complications for patients with presurgical elbow instability upon examination; retained hardware from prior
 surgery was not deemed a contraindication.

Question 32

A 15-year-old wrestler sustains an abduction, hyperextension, and external rotation injury to his right shoulder. The MRI scan findings shown in Figures 27a and 27b are most consistent with Review Topic





Explanation

An isolated avulsion of the lesser tuberosity occurs very rarely and usually is found in 12- and 13-year-old adolescents. The MRI scans reveal a tear of the humeral attachment of the inferior glenohumeral ligament, a so-called HAGL lesion. This injury to the inferior glenohumeral ligament occurs much less commonly than the classic Bankart lesion (anterior inferior labral tear). A tear of the subscapularis occurs with a similar mechanism of injury but generally occurs in older individuals.

Question 33

A 75-year-old man sustains an anterior dislocation of his reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. What activity places the arm in the position most commonly associated with reverse total shoulder dislocation?




Explanation

Proper soft-tissue tension is critical to prevent instability of a reverse total shoulder implanted with the deltopectoral approach; dislocation of the prosthesis is exceedingly rare if the superior approach is employed. The arm position implicated in reverse total shoulder instability is extension, adduction, and internal rotation,
 such as pushing out of a chair. The other positions described do not involve extension of the shoulder.

Question 34

What is the main function of collagen found within articular cartilage?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The main function of collagen in articular cartilage is to provide the tissue’s tensile strength.  It also immobilizes proteoglycans within the extracellular matrix.  Compressive properties are maintained by proteoglycans.  Cartilage metabolism is maintained by the indwelling chondrocytes.  The flow of water through the tissue promotes transport of nutrients and provides a source of lubricant for the joint.
REFERENCES: Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 3-44.
Mow VC, Ratcliffe A: Structure and function of articular cartilage and meniscus, in Mow VC, Hayes WC (eds): Basic Orthopaedic Biomechanics, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1997, pp 113-177.

Question 35

Intermittent daily administration of recombinant parathyroid hormone (rhPTH) is an FDA-approved treatment for osteoporosis. Intermittent rhPTH treatment targets which of the following cells in osteoporotic patients?





Explanation

PTH is an anabolic agent that enhances osteoblastic bone formation on both cortical and cancellous surfaces. It is synthesized in the parathyroid glands as a 115 amino acid precursor and is cleaved into the active 84 amino acid form. The biological activity in the clinically used recombinant PTH is in the 1-34 amino acid sequence at the N-terminus of the molecule. There are PTH receptors expressed by osteoblasts that mediate the anabolic bone response to intermittent PTH administration. Chronic elevation of PTH leads to stimulation of osteoclasts, producing bone loss.

Question 36

Sciatic nerve



Explanation

(999) Q1-1306:
The principal thrombogenic stimulus leading to the production of venous thromboembolic disease during total hip arthroplasty occurs at which time:

Question 37

Figure 23 shows the radiograph of a 7 year-old girl with a low thoracic-level myelomeningocele. She has a history of skin ulcers over the apex of the deformity, but her current skin condition is good. Management of the spinal deformity should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: This form of severe kyphosis results in intractable difficulties with sitting position, compression of internal organs, and chronic skin breakdown.  Kyphectomy and posterior fusion with instrumentation, while associated with a high rate of complications, provides one of the best solutions to this clinical dilemma.  The other choices are either completely ineffective or inadequate in managing this degree of deformity.
REFERENCES: Lindseth RE: Spine deformity in myelomeningocele.  Instr Course Lect 1991;40:273-279.
Sharrard J, Drennan JC: Osteotomy excision of the spine for lumbar kyphosis in older children with myelomeningocele.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1972;54:50-60.

Question 38

What is the most common associated pathology in patients who have suprascapular nerve entrapment secondary to ganglion cysts?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: It is well known that suprascapular nerve entrapment can be secondary to many entities, and its association with ganglion cysts and SLAP lesions has been well documented.  Because of a superior labral tear, synovial fluid will leak out of the joint underneath the labrum, causing the cyst and secondary compression of the nerve.
REFERENCES: Fehrman DA, Orwin JF, Jennings RM: Suprascapular nerve entrapment by ganglion cysts: A report of six cases with arthroscopic findings and review of the literature.  Arthroscopy 1995;11:727-734.
Iannotti JP, Ramesey ML: Arthroscopic decompression of a ganglion cyst causing suprascapular nerve compression.  Arthroscopy 1996;12:739-745.
Moore TP, Fritts HM, Quick DC, Buss DD: Suprascapular nerve entrapment caused by supraglenoid cyst compression.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1997;6:455-462.

Question 39

In total knee arthroplasty, in vitro testing has shown that cross-linking can diminish the rate of polyethylene wear by 30% to 80%. What other change in material properties is possible when polyethylene is highly cross-linked?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The most important concern regarding highly cross-linked polyethylene relates to decreased mechanical properties. Cross-linking results in reduced ductility, tensile strength, and fatigue crack propagation resistance. These problems have not been shown to cause implant failure in the most recent clinical trials, but they remain the most important mechanical issues associated with current material processing methods.

Question 40

Which of the following nerves is most likely responsible for symptoms associated with plantar fasciitis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The first branch of the lateral calcaneal nerve innervates the abductor digiti minimi.  It is reported to be trapped at the interval between the abductor hallucis and the quadratus plantae muscles.
REFERENCE: Baxter DE, Pfeffer GB, Thigpen M: Chronic heel pain: Treatment rationale.  Orthop Clin North Am 1989;20:563-569.

Question 41

A 28-year-old man sustained a shoulder dislocation 2 years ago. It remained dislocated for 3 weeks and required an open reduction. He now reports constant pain and has only 60 degrees of forward elevation and 10 degrees of external rotation. He desires to return to some sporting activities. An AP radiograph and intraoperative photograph (a view of the humeral head through a deltopectoral approach) are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. What is the best treatment option to decrease pain and improve function? Review Topic





Explanation

The radiograph and intraoperative photograph show osteonecrosis with near complete head loss/collapse. A stemmed implant is more appropriate in this patient because there is very little bone to support a resurfacing implant. In a younger patient, a glenoid implant should be delayed as long as possible because of the eventual need for revision secondary to glenoid loosening and wear, especially in a young active male. The hemiarthroplasty may be converted to a total shoulder arthroplasty in the future.

Question 42

A 72-year-old woman who is right hand-dominant has severe pain in the right shoulder that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. She reports night pain and significant disability. Examination reveals 30 degrees of active forward elevation. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 27. Which of the following treatment options will provide the best functional improvement?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has end-stage rotator cuff tear arthropathy.  The radiograph shows complete proximal humeral migration (acromiohumeral interval of 0 mm), severe glenohumeral arthritis, and acetabularization of the acromion.  In addition, she has "pseudoparalysis" with active elevation of only 30 degrees.  Reverse shoulder arthroplasty affords her the best opportunity for pain relief and functional improvement.  The other procedures have mixed results but typically are better for pain relief than they are for functional gains.
REFERENCES: Frankle M, Siegal S, Pupello D, et al: The reverse shoulder prosthesis for glenohumeral arthritis associated with severe rotator cuff deficiency: A minimum two-year follow-up study of sixty patients.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1697-1705.
Werner CM, Steinmann PA, Gilbart M, et al: Treatment of painful pseudoparesis due to irreparable rotator cuff dysfunction with the Delta III reverse-ball-and-socket total shoulder prosthesis.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1476-1486.

Question 43

A healthy, active 72-year-old man trips and falls, landing on his left hip 10 weeks after an uncomplicated left primary uncemented total hip replacement. A radiograph taken 6 weeks after surgery and before the fall is shown in Figure 1. A radiograph taken after the fall is shown in Figure 2. He is unable to bear weight and is brought to the emergency department. Examination reveals a slightly shortened left lower extremity and some mild ecchymosis just distal to the left greater trochanteric region, but his skin is intact, without abrasions or lacerations. What is the most appropriate treatment?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
This patient has a periprosthetic femoral fracture with a loose femoral stem and normal femoral bone stock, representing a Vancouver type B2 fracture. The most appropriate treatment is fixation of the fracture, along with revision of the stem. Considering his age, bone quality, and activity level, a longer uncemented stem is most predictable. Although a cylindrical stem may also be used, the fluted stem option is the only uncemented choice listed and is the most appropriate option. A cemented stem is a poorer choice because it is difficult to keep the cement out of the fracture site, which would pose a risk for nonunion at the fracture. Also, overall poorer results have been associated with long cemented stems in healthy, active people. Surgery does not need to be delayed to allow the ecchymosis to resolve, and simple open reduction and fixation does not address the loose stem.

Question 44

What structure is most at risk with anterior penetration of C1 lateral mass screws?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Posterior screw fixation of the upper cervical spine has gained a great deal of popularity due to its stable fixation, obviating the use of halo vest immobilization, and its high fusion rates.  The use of screws in this location, however, has introduced a whole new set of potential complications.  Vertebral artery injury is one of the most feared complications associated with screws in the C1/C2 region.  This structure, however, is lateral and posterior at the C2 level and then penetrates the foramen transversarium of C1 to lie cephalad to the arch of C1 before entering the foramen magnum.  It is the internal carotid artery that lies immediately anterior to the arch of C1 that is particularly at risk by anterior penetration of C1 lateral mass or C1-C2 transarticular screws as demonstrated by Currier and associates.  The internal carotid artery lies posterior to the pharynx.  The external carotid artery and the glossopharyngeal nerve are not at risk with this method of fixation.
REFERENCES: Currier BL, Todd LT, Maus TP, et al: Anatomic relationship of the internal carotid artery to the C1 vertebra: A case report of cervical reconstruction for chordoma and pilot study to assess the risk of screw fixation of the atlas.  Spine 2003;28:E461-E467.
Grant JC: Grant’s Atlas of Anatomy, ed 6.  Baltimore, MD, Williams & Wilkins, 1972.
Harms J, Melcher RP: Posterior C1-C2 fusion with polyaxial screw and rod fixation.  Spine 2001;26:2467-2471.

Question 45

-A 3-year-old child with achondroplasia is hypotonic, and sleep studies reveal central apneic episodes. An initial workup should evaluate for what diagnosis?




Explanation

RESPONSES FOR QUESTIONS 100 THROUGH 104
Borrelia titer
Calcium, phosporus, alkaline phosphatase, vitamin D
Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27
Complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein
Rheumatoid factor
Antinuclear antibody
Uric acid
The laboratory studies listed above are needed to diagnose the disorders listed below. Match theappropriate laboratory studies with each of these disorders.

Question 46

A patient with a 5-cm synovial sarcoma located in the distal portion of the rectus femoris muscle undergoes excision of the mass. The procedure is performed through a 10-cm longitudinal incision. Only a portion of the rectus femoris is removed; the vast majority of the muscle is preserved. The plane of dissection is beyond the reactive zone, and the pathology reveals that the margins are negative. This procedure is classified as





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient underwent a wide resection, which involves excision of the tumor along with a cuff of normal tissue that completely surrounds the tumor.  The plane of resection is beyond the reactive zone.  A radical resection involves removal of the entire affected muscle from origin to insertion.  In a marginal excision, the plane of dissection is through the reactive zone of the tumor.  A marginal excision is generally considered inadequate surgery for high-grade sarcomas.  In an intralesional resection, the plane of dissection is through the tumor.  Excision within the reactive zone but beyond the tumor is the same as a marginal excision.
REFERENCES: Enneking WF: Staging of musculoskeletal neoplasms, in Current Concepts of Diagnosis and Treatment of Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors.  Heidelberg, Germany, Springer-Verlag, 1984.
Simon MA, Springfield D: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998.

Question 47

CLINICAL SITUATION Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 35-year-old man who is brought into the emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. He is complaining of isolated knee pain. Examination reveals swelling, blood filled blisters, popliteal ecchymosis, joint line pain, and limited knee joint motion. His pulses and sensation are normal. The surgical approach for definitive reduction and stabilization of this pattern is




Explanation

Discussion: Posterior partial articular tibial plateau fractures are rare. Failure to recognize this pattern can lead to poor patient outcomes secondary to poor surgical decision making. Pathognomonic findings on the lateral radiograph include maintenance of continuity between the anterior articular surface and tibial shaft along with subluxation of the knee joint with excessively anterior tibial station (the femoral condyles remain with the fractured posterior articular pieces while the remainder of the tibia subluxes anteriorly).
Initial management of axially unstable tibial plateau fractures with soft tissue swelling should consist of spanning external fixation and closed manipulative realignment. This allows for soft tissue recovery with the knee joint provisionally stabilized in reduced station. It also provides time for pre-operative planning, which is typically empowered via a CT scan with reconstructions. If the pattern was initially misdiagnosed as a more typically bicondylar tibial plateau fracture, the CT scan will clarify the misconception and allow for better surgical decision making.
Attempting to visualize, reduce, and stabilize a posterior partial articular pattern in the supine position from an anterior approach is fraught with difficulties. Prone positioning is preferred for definitive fixation. Surgical approaches vary, but typically incorporate a posteromedial interval deep to the popliteus and soleus to provide buttress plating to the posterior column of the tibia.
Posterior partial articular tibial plateau fractures are rare. Failure to recognize this pattern can lead to poor patient outcomes secondary to poor surgical decision making. Pathognomonic findings on the lateral radiograph include maintenance of continuity between the anterior articular surface and tibial shaft along with subluxation of the knee joint with excessively anterior tibial station (the femoral condyles remain with the fractured posterior articular pieces while the remainder of the tibia subluxes anteriorly).
Initial management of axially unstable tibial plateau fractures with soft tissue swelling should consist of spanning external fixation and closed manipulative realignment. This allows for soft tissue recovery with the knee joint provisionally
stabilized in reduced station. It also provides time for pre-operative planning, which is typically empowered via a CT scan with reconstructions. If the pattern was initially misdiagnosed as a more typically bicondylar tibial plateau fracture, the CT scan will clarify the misconception and allow for better surgical decision making.
Attempting to visualize, reduce, and stabilize a posterior partial articular pattern in the supine position from an anterior approach is fraught with difficulties. Prone positioning is preferred for definitive fixation. Surgical approaches vary, but typically incorporate a posteromedial interval deep to the popliteus and soleus to provide buttress plating to the posterior column of the tibia.

Question 48

An 83-year-old woman with a long history of her foot slowly and progressively “turning out” now reports significant ankle pain. History reveals that she has significant cardiac disease and exercise-induced angina. Examination reveals a deficiency in the posterior tibial tendon; however, the hindfoot remains moderately supple. Radiographs reveal a valgus tilt of the tibiotalar joint and early arthrosis. What is the most appropriate orthotic management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient will continue to have pain secondary to the ankle arthrosis with both the UCBL and the molded articulated ankle-foot orthosis.  The total contact orthotic does not provide enough hindfoot control to support the progressive collapse of the ankle into valgus positioning.  A molded leather gauntlet will not only control tibiotalar motion but also control hindfoot motion and allow support of the longitudinal arch.
REFERENCE: Augustin JF, Lin SS, Berberian WS, et al: Nonoperative treatment of adult acquired flat foot with the Arizona brace.  Foot Ankle Clin 2003;8:491-502. 

Question 49

What type of cementless femoral fixation results in the highest rate of distal femoral osteolysis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Despite the relatively few problems with porous-coated cementless stems, stress shielding and thigh pain do occur.  One design feature of proximally coated stems that has been associated with a higher incidence of distal osteolysis is the presence of noncircumferential proximal porous coating.  Tapered, modular with sleeve, and hydroxyapatite proximally porous-coated stems have all performed well.  Fully porous-coated straight stems have a high survivorship rate as well. 
REFERENCES: Pellicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 175-180.
Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 417-451.
Emerson RH Jr, Sanders SB, Head WC, Higgins L: Effect of circumferential plasma-spray porous coating on the rate of femoral osteolysis after total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1291-1298.

Question 50

A 16-year-old female gymnast reports a 2-month history of back pain since falling off the parallel bars, and she has been unable to return to gymnastics. She has no numbness or tingling. Examination reveals lower back tenderness, some paravertebral muscle spasm, range of motion of the lumbosacral spine is 20 degrees of flexion and 20 degrees of extension, and an equivocal straight leg raise. Lumbosacral spine radiographs demonstrate Schomorl’s nodes but no evidence of spondylolisthesis. What is the next best step in management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Injuries to the anterior and middle column in gymnasts occur but are far less common than posterior column injuries such as spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis. The data on injuries to the anterior and middle columns are more limited. Long-term gymnastics exercise is associated with disk degeneration and other anterior and middle column abnormalities as reported by Katz and Scerpella. They identified a series of anterior and middle column abnormalities, including vertebral compression fractures, Schmorl’s nodes, disk degeneration, and disk herniation in young competitive female gymnasts with back pain. Therefore, the differential diagnosis of back pain in these athletes should include abnormalities of the anterior and middle column. Although diagnostic imaging should begin with radiographs, MRI is the best way to diagnosis these abnormalities. A bone scan is more useful for imaging bony abnormalities of the posterior elements. Flexion-extension radiographs are not indicated in this patient. Treatment such as physical therapy or a lumbosacral corset should not be initiated prior to a complete work-up.
REFERENCES: Katz DA, Scerpella TA: Anterior and middle column thoracolumbar spine injuries in young female gymnasts: Report of seven cases and review of the literature. Am J Sports Med 2003;31:611-616.
Tertti M, Paajanen H, Kujala UM, et al: Disc degeneration in young gymnasts: A magnetic resonance imaging study. Am J Sports Med 1990;18:206-208.

Question 51

The preferred surgical approach to the elbow of a child with an irreducible type III supracondylar distal humerus fracture and pulseless extremity is through which of the following muscle intervals?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a type III supracondylar distal humerus fracture of the elbow, the brachial artery can become incarcerated, yielding a pulseless extremity.  In this situation, closed reduction may not be effective; therefore, open management is often necessary.  The preferred surgical approach to the brachial artery and to this fracture is the anterior approach to the cubital fossa.  The lacertus fibrosis is incised, and the dissection is carried out between the brachialis (musculocutaneous nerve) and the pronator teres (median nerve), mobilizing the brachial artery.  Once the brachial artery is mobilized, the anterior elbow joint capsule may be exposed.  The interval between the brachialis and the biceps describes the anterolateral approach to the elbow more commonly used for exposure of the proximal aspect of the posterior interosseous nerve.  The dissection interval between the brachioradialis and the pronator teres describes the proximal extent of the anterior approach to the radius.
REFERENCES: Tubiana R, McCullough CJ, Masquelet AC: An Atlas of Surgical Exposures of the Upper Extremity.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1990, p 115.
Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1992, p 119.

Question 52

Figures 12a and 12b show the radiographs of a 50-year-old patient who reports acute knee pain after sustaining a twisting injury while playing tennis. Examination is unremarkable. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show localized diffuse cortical thickening that is characteristic of melorheostosis.  The condition may be monostotic or it may involve many bones in one extremity (monomelic) in the distribution of a sclerotome.  Bone scans will show increased uptake at the site or sites of skeletal involvement.  Long tubular bones are most commonly involved.  Melorheostosis is usually asymptomatic and requires no treatment.  On rare occasions, there may be associated soft-tissue contractures.
REFERENCES: Dorfman H, Czerniak B: Bone Tumors. St Louis, MO, Mosby Inc, 1998, pp 1105-1107.   
Campbell CJ, Papademetriou T, Bonfiglio M:  Melorheostosis: A report of the clinical, roentgenographic, and pathological findings in fourteen cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1968;50:1281-1304.  
Hove E, Sury B: Melorheostosis: Report on 5 cases with follow-up.  Acta Orthop Scand 1971;42:315-319.  

Question 53

The incidence of ipsilateral phrenic nerve blockade after an interscalene block approaches





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most common side effect of an interscalene block is ipsilateral phrenic nerve blockade.  The phrenic nerve arises chiefly from the fourth cervical ramus (with contributions from the third and fifth) and is the sole motor supply to the diaphragm.  Phrenic nerve palsy usually is well tolerated in healthy patients but should be avoided in patients with limited pulmonary function (severe restrictive or obstructive lung disease, myasthenia gravis, or contralateral hemidiaphragmatic dysfunction).  The incidence of ipsilateral phrenic nerve blockade afer interscalene block approaches 100%.
REFERENCES: Long T, Wass C, Burkle C: Perioperative interscalene blockade: An overview of its history and current clinical use.  J Clin Anesthesia 2002;14;546-556.
Norris T (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Shoulder and Elbow 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 433-442.

Question 54

A 69-year-old man sustains a traumatic amputation to the distal phalanx of his little finger while working with power tools. Radiographs are shown in Figures 27a and 27b. The patient was instructed how to perform wet-to-dry dressing changes in the emergency department. Clinical pictures taken in the office are shown in Figures 27c through 27e. What is the most appropriate management of this soft-tissue wound?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The clinical photographs and radiographs reveal a distal phalangeal amputation with soft-tissue coverage over nonexposed bone.  This is an ideal circumstance to allow healing by secondary intention with wet-to-dry dressing changes.  There are few complications and the aesthetics surpass that of any soft-tissue reconstruction procedure.  Volar advancement flaps (Moberg flaps) are limited to small defects about the thumb.  A thenar flap will provide good coverage; however, the results are not comparable to simple dressing changes.  A V-Y flap is useful when there is more tissue loss dorsally. 
REFERENCES: Jebson PL, Louis DS: Amputations, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green’s Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 1947.
Fassler PR: Fingertip injuries: Evaluation and treatment.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:84-92.

Question 55

What type of brace is shown in Figures 22a and 22b?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The figures show a Charcot restraining orthotic walker (CROW).  This brace has been used as a customized total contact fit removable brace to maintain foot alignment as the patient evolves from Eichenholz stage 1 to Eichenholz stage 3 Charcot arthropathy.
REFERENCES: Mehta JA, Brown C, Sargeant N: Charcot restraint orthotic walker.  Foot Ankle Int 1998;19:619-623. 
Morgan JM, Biehl WC III, Wagner FW Jr: Management of neuropathic arthropathy with the Charcot restraint orthotic walker.  Clin Orthop 1993;296:58-63. 

Question 56

Figures 113a and 113b are the radiographs of a 7-year-old girl who was evaluated for a visible elbow deformity by a foster parent. She thought the child fell, but her history was vague. On physical examination, a large prominence was seen over the posterolateral elbow, and the girl lacks the terminal 20 degrees of elbow extension. She has 75 degrees of elbow pronation and supination. She was nontender on examination. What is the most appropriate next treatment step? Review Topic




Explanation

The most appropriate management of this condition is observation. The patient most likely has a congenital dislocation of the radial head, although this may also represent a posttraumatic deformity. The absence of findings on physical examination speaks against an acute injury. The appearance of the radial head reveals the typical findings of a congenital dislocation, namely the convex appearance of the proximal radial articular surface. These children typically have very functional range of motion and do not require treatment unless they are symptomatic. There is nothing in this child's history to suggest abuse.

Question 57

An otherwise healthy 33-year-old man who works in construction reports a 3-month history of knee pain. Radiographs are shown in Figures 9a and 9b. An axial T 1 -weighted MRI scan with contrast, an angiogram, and histologies are shown in Figures 9c through 9f. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Dedifferentiated parosteal osteosarcoma designates high-grade transformation of conventional low-grade parosteal osteosarcoma.  Unlike conventional parosteal osteosarcoma, where wide surgical excision alone is considered adequate treatment, patients with dedifferentiated osteosarcoma are treated with neoadjuvant chemotherapy and wide local resection.  Recognition of dedifferentiated areas with angiography can localize the area that should be biopsied and thus render an accurate diagnosis.  Percutaneous biopsy of hypervascular areas should prompt the administration of chemotherapy and wide local excision to optimize patient outcome.
REFERENCES: Sheth DS, Yasko AW, Raymond AK, et al: Conventional and dedifferentiated parosteal osteosarcoma: Diagnosis, treatment, and outcome.  Cancer 1996;78:2136-2145. 
Lewis VO, Gebhardt MC, Springfield DS: Parosteal osteosarcoma of the posterior aspect of the distal part of the femur: Oncological and functional results following a new resection technique.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1083-1088.

Question 58

A college athlete has a knee injury requiring surgery. He has acne, gynecomastia, and well-developed muscles related to the use of anabolic steroids. What association with steroid use is concerning for surgery and anesthesia? Review Topic





Explanation

Anabolic steroids increase procoagulant factors VII and IX and thromboxane, all of which lead to hypercoagulability which would decrease bleeding time. Liver function is usually upregulated as oral steroids induce hepatic enzymes and patients are therefore less sensitive to anesthetic agents. Anabolic steroids have a mineralocorticoid effect and users frequently use diuretics to mask this effect. Both can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Cardiovascular effects include hypertension, left ventricular hypertrophy, impaired diastolic filling, and thrombosis. Large muscle mass and high calorie intake lead to high ventilatory requirements caused by increased oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production. Anabolic steroids have no effect on the spleen.

Question 59

The rate of complications after in situ pinning of a chronic slipped capital femoral epiphysis is highest with placement of the screw in what quadrant of the femoral head?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The rate of complications increases as the pin moves farther from the ideal position, which is the center of the head.  This is the strongest argument for the use of a single pin.  The highest rate of complications, primarily osteonecrosis and pin penetration, is associated with pin placement in the anterior superior quadrant.
REFERENCES: Raney EM, Ogden JA: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis.  Current Ortho 1995;9:111-116.
Stambough JL, Davidson RS, Ellis RD, et al: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis: An analysis of 80 patients as to pin placement and number.  J Pediatr Orthop 1986;6:265-273

Question 60

Figure 54 shows the preoperative radiograph of a 45-year-old woman who is considering total hip arthroplasty with her orthopaedic surgeon. What femoral characteristic is a typical concern in this patient?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) leads to early arthritis of the hip as seen in this patient.  Although DDH is believed to mostly affect the acetabulum, most patients with DDH also have anatomic aberrations of the femur.  Using three-dimensional computer models generated by reconstruction of CT scans, dysplastic femurs were shown to have shorter necks and smaller, straighter canals than the controls.  The shape of the canal became more abnormal with increasing subluxation.  The studies also have shown that the primary deformity of the dysplastic femur is rotational, with an increase in anteversion of 5 degrees to 16 degrees, depending on the degree of subluxation of the hip.  The rotational deformity of the dysplastic femur arises within the diaphysis between the lesser trochanter and the isthmus and is not attributable to a torsional deformity of the metaphysis.  Osteopenia is not a concern in a patient with an excellent cortical index (thick cortices and narrow canal).  Femoral varus or bowing of the femur is not a typical finding in patients with DDH.
REFERENCES: Noble PC, Kamaric E, Sugano N, et al: Three-dimensional shape of the dysplastic femur: Implications for THR.  Clin Orthop 2003;417:27-40.
Sugano N, Noble PC, Kamaric E, et al: The morphology of the femur in developmental dysplasia of the hip.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1998;80:711-719.

Question 61

As a diaphyseal fracture heals, peripheral callus forms about the shaft axis, creating a structure with a substantially larger diameter than the original diaphyseal shaft. What biomechanical properties does this callus impart to the healing fracture site?





Explanation

Callus formation is biomechanically benefecial because it increases the outer diameter of the bone, leading to an increase in stiffness, torsional strength, moment of inertia, and decreases resultant interfragmentary strain at the fracture site.
The biomechanical role of the peripheral callus is to provide initial stability to the fracture and to act as a scaffold for gradual mineralization. Because the bending stiffness of a structure is proportional to the 4th power of the diameter, a peripherally located callus provides substantial stability to the fracture, despite the relatively low stiffness and strength of callus. For example, doubling the diameter of the callus increases the resistance to bending by a factor of 16. As mineralization progresses, the bending stiffness and strength of the healed fracture eventually may be substantially greater than that of the original, intact bone.
Augat et al. review the mechanical and biological aspects of fracture healing. They report that increased diameter of periosteal callus formation benefits healing by enlarging the cross-sectional area of area of the bridging tissue and reducing interfragmentary motion. Patients with osteoporosis are known to have decreased callus mineralization and biomechanical properties.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 62

When performing a bunionectomy with a release of the lateral soft-tissue structures, the surgeon is cautioned against releasing the conjoined tendon that inserts along the lateral base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe. This conjoined tendon is made up of what two muscles?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Owens and Thordardson cautioned surgeons not to release the conjoined tendon from the base of the proximal phalanx of the great toe because of an increased risk of iatrogenic hallux varus.  Release of the transverse and oblique heads of the adductor hallucis is largely accomplished by releasing the soft tissue adjacent to the lateral sesamoid, without releasing tissue from the base of the proximal phalanx.  The conjoined tendon is made up of the flexor hallucis brevis and the adductor hallucis.
REFERENCES: Owens S, Thordardson DB: The adductor hallucis revisited.  Foot Ankle Int 2001;22:186-191.
Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1983, chapter 5.

Question 63

A 26-year-old male underwent statically locked intramedullary nail fixation for a comminuted left femur fracture. An early post-operative computed tomography (CT) scanogram was taken to check rotational alignment, as shown in Figure A. What would be the next best step in the management of this patient?





Explanation

The CT scanogram shows the operative left femur is 8 degrees externally rotated compared to the native right femur. No correction is required unless malalignment is
>15 degrees and symptomatic. Therefore, the most appropriate next step would be to continue with postoperative observation and close follow-up.
The primary purpose of CT scanogram is to measure the angle of rotation of the femoral neck relative to the femoral condyle. To do this, the right and left femurs must be scanned together using a 5mm helical slice scanner at the hip and knee. The first slice should reveal the alignment of the femoral neck, so as to allow for measurement of the femoral neck-to-horizontal (FNH) angle. The second slice should reveal the alignment of the posterior femoral condyles. This allows measurement of the posterior condyle-to-horizontal (PCH) angle. Finally, to calculate the rotational alignment (RA), the FNH angle and PCH angles are subtracted (e.g., RA = FNH -PCH). Normal RA is usually +5 to +20 degrees, which is also referred to as 5 to 20 degrees of femoral anteversion.
Lindsey et al. reviewed femoral malrotation following intramedullary nail fixation. They showed the incidence of rotational malalignment was ~28%. Normal femoral neck anteversion (angle of the femoral neck relative to the transverse axis through the femoral condyles) is ~11-13°. However, they noted that some patients have up to 15° difference in rotation in native limbs. Therefore <15 degrees of rotational difference after fixation is considered acceptable.
Gugala et al. examined the long-term functional implications for patients with iatrogenic femoral malrotation following femoral intramedullary nail fixation. They
showed that patients can compensate for even significant femoral malrotation (up to 30 degrees) and tolerate it well. However, external femoral malrotation (more common) appears to be better compensated/tolerated than internal malrotation.
Figure A shows that the left femoral neck is externally rotated (ER) by 15° to the horizontal (ER15). The right femoral neck is externally rotated (ER) by 4° to the horizontal (ER4). The left distal fragment is ER10. The right distal fragment is internally rotated (IR) by 9°. Thus, left femur has a total (ER15)-(ER10)= (+15)-(+10)=(+5), and right femur has (ER4)-(IR9)= (+4)-(-9)=(+13) to the horizontal. Therefore, the difference is 8 degrees.
Incorrect Answers:
>15 degrees and symptomatic.

Question 64

Hip pain of 1-month duration has developed in a 72-year-old man with a previous total hip arthroplasty. He underwent dental work 6 weeks ago. Aspiration shows a white blood cell count of more than 6,000 cells/μL (reference range 4,500 to 11,000 cells/μL) and the presence of gram-positive cocci in clusters on Gram stain. The orthopaedic surgeon recommends urgent debridement and irrigation. Fixation of the components is judged to be stable, and the surgeon elects to retain the implants. The patient has a final culture that reveals methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). If the attending physician recommends the two-stage protocol, including the use of an antibiotic-cement spacer, what is the most likely prognosis for this patient?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The patient has a late infection of at least 4 weeks symptomatic duration that most likely is hematogenous in etiology. This infection is not an acute hematogenous infection that can successfully be treated with irrigation and debridement. Retention of the implants with debridement and irrigation alone has been associated with a poor prognosis. In a recent study, the success rate was only 44% in a series of 104 patients at a mean 5.7-year follow-up. In one study of 50 infections attributable to MRSA or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis organisms treated with a two-stage protocol, the failure rate was 21%. Patients who experienced successful infection treatment had lower functional outcome measures using the Western Ontario and McMaster Universities Osteoarthritis Index, the University of California Los Angeles Activity Score, and the 12-item Oxford Knee Score, however.

Question 65

What antithrombotic agent is a selective factor I0a inhibitor? Review Topic




Explanation

Rivaroxaban is a selective factor I0a inhibitor. Aspirin is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor. Low-molecular-weight heparin is a nonspecific anticoagulant. Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist and reduces production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X.

Question 66

When counseling a patient with hypophosphatemic rickets, which of the following scenarios will always result in a child with the same disorder?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Hypophosphatemic rickets is an inherited disorder that is transmitted by a unique sex-linked dominant gene.  Therefore, if a male patient has a female offspring, his affected X chromosome will be transmitted and all of his female children will have hypophosphatemic rickets.  All male offspring of a male patient will be unaffected.  All offspring of a female patient have a 50% chance of having the disorder.  Understanding the inheritance of hypophosphatemic rickets facilitates early diagnosis and early treatment.  Medical treatment with phosphorus and some types of vitamin D (most authors recommend calcitriol) improves, but does not fully correct, the mineralization defect in hypophosphatemic rickets.  However, if medical treatment is begun before the child begins walking, the growth plate is then adequately protected and a bowleg deformity will most likely be prevented.
REFERENCES: Evans GA, Arulanantham K, Gage JR: Primary hypophosphatemic rickets: Effect of oral phosphate and vitamin D on growth and surgical treatment.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1980;62:1130-1138.
Greene WB, Kahler SG: Hypophosphatemic rickets: Still misdiagnosed and inadequately treated.  South Med J 1985;78:1179-1184.

Question 67

A 78-year-old woman falls onto her nondominant left elbow and sustains the injury shown in Figure A. What treatment option allows her the shortest recovery time and highest likelihood of good function and range of motion? Review Topic





Explanation

Total elbow arthroplasty has become the treatment of choice for complex, comminuted distal humeral fractures in patients older than age 70 years. It yields a faster recovery with more predictable functional outcomes, although limitations of lifting weight of more than 5 pounds must be followed to avoid loosening.

Question 68

A 21-year-old right hand-dominant male collegiate swimmer reports painful clicking in the right shoulder. He states that he can occasionally feel his shoulder “slip out” when he is working out. AP, true AP, and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 39a through 39c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show glenoid hypoplasia.  The common radiographic findings of glenoid hypoplasia include an inferior and posterior glenoid deficiency, enlargement of the distal end of the clavicle, and sometimes an indentation in the glenoid.  It is usually bilateral and rarely associated with other syndromes; therefore, an echocardiogram, abdominal ultrasound, or a skeletal survey is unnecessary unless the patient has stigmata of a syndrome such as Holt-Oram or Apert’s.  Although posterior instability has been reported, the results of glenoid osteotomy have been variable and should not be considered initially.  Physical therapy is the mainstay of initial management, but the patient should be counseled that this may be a recurrent problem with early osteoarthritis developing in many patients.  Radiographs of the contralateral side should be obtained because this is usually bilateral.
REFERENCES: Wirth MA, Lyons FR, Rockwood CA Jr: Hypoplasia of the glenoid: A review of sixteen patients.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1175-1184.
Smith SP, Bunker TD: Primary glenoid dysplasia: A review of twelve patients.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:868-872.

Question 69

Figure 65 is the lumbar spine MR image of a 63-year-old woman who has a 3-year history of increasingly bothersome back pain and bilateral buttock and leg pain. She has performed 6 weeks of physical therapy, received epidural injections, and experienced some good short-term results, but her leg pain continues to worsen. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
This patient has symptoms consistent with neurogenic claudication secondary to lumbar spinal stenosis and degenerative spondylolisthesis. Her symptoms are chronic and she has undergone an appropriate course of nonsurgical care. Nevertheless, her symptoms are worsening and surgical intervention is a
reasonable consideration. Studies have shown that patients with lumbar spinal stenosis with associated degenerative spondylolisthesis benefit most from decompression of the neural elements that are stenotic and subsequent fusion across the degenerative slip. Anterior lumbar interbody fusion likely will not address stenosis at the level of the slip and may not result in adequate neurologic decompression. Partial laminotomy and diskectomy likely will not provide adequate neural decompression because these procedures would only address unilateral compression and this patient has bilateral issues. Lumbar laminectomy without fusion could be performed but has been associated with results inferior to lumbar laminectomy with fusion when addressing stenosis with spondylolisthesis.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Weinstein JN, Lurie JD, Tosteson TD, Zhao W, Blood EA, Tosteson AN, Birkmeyer N, Herkowitz H, Longley M, Lenke L, Emery S, Hu SS. Surgical compared with nonoperative treatment for lumbar degenerative spondylolisthesis. four-year results in the Spine Patient Outcomes Research Trial (SPORT) randomized and observational cohorts. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2009 Jun;91(6):1295-304. PubMed PMID: 19487505. View Abstract at PubMed
Herkowitz HN, Kurz LT. Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis with spinal stenosis. A prospective study comparing decompression with decompression and intertransverse process arthrodesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 1991 Jul;73(6):802-8. PubMed PMID: 2071615. View Abstract at PubMed
Lombardi JS, Wiltse LL, Reynolds J, Widell EH, Spencer C 3rd. Treatment of degenerative spondylolisthesis. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 1985 Nov;10(9):821-7. PubMed PMID: 4089657. View Abstract at PubMed
RESPONSES FOR QUESTIONS 66 THROUGH 69
Deep surgical-site infection
Adjacent segment degeneration
Pressure ulcers
Iatrogenic neurologic injury
Incidental durotomy
Hardware failure
Match the frequently encountered complication listed above with the appropriate clinical scenario below.

Question 70

A favorable outcome following nonsurgical management of a partial tear of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is best associated with





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Rehabilitation of the quadriceps muscle following a partial tear of the PCL has been associated with a favorable outcome.  The quadriceps acts an antagonist to the PCL because its contraction results in anterior tibial translation, which reduces the tensile stress on the injured ligament.  Strengthening of the hamstring musculature increases posterior tibial translation and is contraindicated during the early rehabilitative phase following a PCL injury.  Brace use has not been found to significantly alter the outcome following nonsurgical management of PCL tears.
REFERENCES: Parolie JM, Bergfeld JA: Long-term results of nonoperative treatment of isolated posterior cruciate ligament injuries in the athlete.  Am J Sports Med 1986;14:35-38.
Griffin JR, Annunziata CC, Harner CD: Posterior cruciate ligament injuries in the adult, in Drez D, DeLee JD, Miller MD (eds): Orthopaedic Sports Medicine Principles and Practice, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, pp 2083-2106.

Question 71

A B C D E Figures 45a through 45c are the MR images of a 22-year-old woman who has had 6 months of ankle pain related to activities of daily living. She recently completed a course of cast immobilization and protected weight bearing without symptom resolution. Figures 45d and 45e are the intraoperative arthroscopy images after minimal probing. What is the most appropriate treatment?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The MR images reveal a large cystic medial talar dome osteochondral lesion (OCL) in a patient who has failed nonsurgical treatment. Ankle fusion is inappropriate because the patient has an otherwise normal ankle. Arthroscopic debridement and drilling are appropriate for smaller (< 1.5 cm sq) noncystic lesions. Retrograde drilling and bone grafting is an option in the treatment of cystic OCL if the cartilage surface is intact; however, intraoperative arthroscopy images show that this patient's cartilage surface is unstable. Osteochondral allografts and autografts are effective in the treatment of large cystic talar dome OCLs but are not appropriate for the initial surgical treatment of smaller lesions like this one.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Hannon CP, Smyth NA, Murawski CD, Savage-Elliott I, Deyer TW, Calder JD, Kennedy JG. Osteochondral lesions of the talus: aspects of current management. Bone Joint J. 2014 Feb;96-B(2):164-71. doi: 10.1302/0301-620X.96B2.31637. Review. PubMed PMID:

Question 72

A 4-month-old infant is unable to flex her elbow as a result of an obstetrical brachial plexus palsy. This most likely illustrates a predominate injury to what structure?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Erb’s palsy is the most common form of obstetrical plexus palsy resulting in C5, C6, or upper trunk deficits.  This causes loss of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion.  The biceps muscle and the brachialis muscles are predominately responsible for flexion of the elbow.  Each of these muscles is innervated by individual branches of the musculocutaneous nerve which are supplied predominately by axons from the C6 nerve root and the upper trunk of the brachial plexus.
REFERENCES: Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System, Part 1: Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders.  West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy Corporation, 1987, vol 8, pp 28-29.
Wolock B, Millesi H: Brachial plexus-applied anatomy and operative exposure, in Gelberman RH (ed): Operative Nerve Repair and Reconstruction.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1991,

pp 1255-1272.

Zancolli E: Reconstructive surgery in brachial plexus sequelae, in Gupta A, Kay S, Scheker L (eds): The Growing Hand.  London, England, Mosby, 1999, p 807.

Question 73

Figure 71 is the MRI scan of a 2-year-old girl who has been febrile for 1 week and has refused to bear weight on her left lower extremity for 3 days. Her entire left lower extremity is markedly swollen. Doppler ultrasound shows a deep venous thrombosis of the internal iliac vein. Her white blood cell count is 19000/ µL (reference range, 4500-11000/ µL) and her C-reactive protein level is higher than 20 mg/L (reference range, 0.08-3.1 mg/L). If blood cultures yield positive results, what is the most likely organism? Review Topic




Explanation

The clinical picture is one of infection and deep venous thrombosis. The MRI scan is consistent with osteomyelitis. Deep venous thrombosis in association with musculoskeletal infection is more common in osteomyelitis caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Presenting C-reactive protein levels generally are higher than 6 mg/L and are higher than with other causative organisms. The presence of the Panton-Valentine leukocidin gene encoded in strains of bacteria may explain the deep venous thrombosis.

Question 74

An year-old obese woman has left knee pain. She had surgery 5 years ago for a patellar nonunion after total knee arthroplasty that was complicated by infection, which was treated with implant removal and patellectomy. She has not been ambulatory since then. She states she is no longer on antibiotics. She has moderate pain, but her primary problem is instability of the knee. She has a 40° extensor lag. Darkening of the skin is present distal to the incision consistent with venous stasis changes. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 12 mm/h (reference range 0 to 20 mm/h) and her C-reactive protein level is 0 mg/L (reference range 08 to 1 mg/L). Left knee aspiration shows a white blood cell count of 800 and 20% neutrophils. What is the best next step?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
This  patient  is  elderly,  obese,  and  nonambulatory  and  has  a  chronic  quadriceps  tendon  rupture  after infected total knee arthroplasty. Her potential for ambulation after revision total knee arthroplasty is very low. Primary repair of the tendon is unlikely to be successful, even with augmentation, so revision total knee arthroplasty with primary quadriceps tendon repair and two-stage revision knee arthroplasty and quadricep repair with Achilles allograft are not the best management techniques. Extensor mechanism allograft could be done but would have a high failure rate in a patient of this size. No sign of infection is seen,  based  on  laboratory  studies,  so  a  two-stage  procedure  is  not  necessary.  The  best  management although not optimal, would be treatment in a drop-lock brace. Arthrodesis is also an option, but would have a high complication rate, and in a patient that is nonambulatory, a fused knee would be increasingly
difficult with activities of daily living and mobility.

Question 75

Figure  below  shows  the  abdominal  radiograph  obtained  from  a  70-year-old  woman  who  experiences nausea and abdominal tightness 48 hours following left total knee arthroplasty performed under general anesthesia. She received 24 hours of cefazolin antibiotic prophylaxis and a patient-controlled analgesia narcotic pump for pain management. She has been receiving warfarin for thromboembolic prophylaxis. Her severe abdominal distension and markedly decreased bowel sounds are most likely secondary to the administration of




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The  radiograph  reveals  severe  intestinal  dilatation,  which  has  occurred  as  the  result  of  acute  colonic pseudo-obstruction  and  is  associated  with  excessive  narcotic  administration  following  total  joint arthroplasty. Anesthetic type, antibiotic administration, and warfarin have not been associated with this obstruction. Electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia have been associated with postsurgical acute colonic pseudo-obstruction.

Question 76

If the structure marked by the tip of the probe in Figure 94 is repaired to the bony glenoid with suture anchors during an arthroscopic stabilization procedure, what is the most likely result? Review Topic





Explanation

The probe is on the middle glenohumeral ligament (MGHL), which, in this case, is a cord-like and robust structure, commonly known as a Buford complex. The space between the bony glenoid and the MGHL (in this case, a cord-like Buford complex) is a normal variant and should not be repaired or tightened to the bony glenoid with a soft-tissue anchor or other repair. If this structure is inadvertently repaired, the most common scenario is loss of external rotation with the arm at the side, as the MGHL/Buford complex becomes tight with the arm in this position. The loss of external rotation is more pronounced with the arm at the side than abducted at 90 degrees as the MGHL/Buford complex becomes tighter with the arm at the side than abducted.

Question 77

Which of the following medications has been shown to improve skeletal muscle regeneration and decrease fibrosis following muscle injury in an animal model? Review Topic





Explanation

Angiotensin II receptor blockade (e.g. losartan) administered after injury has been shown to improve muscle regeneration and decrease fibrosis in normal skeletal muscle.
Skeletal muscle undergoes a natural process of healing and regeneration after injury. The formation of fibrous tissue in place of normal muscle is also part of this process. However, fibrous tissue in place of muscle can predispose the area to re-injury and impaired function. Administration of angiotensin II receptor blockade medications (e.g. losartan) after skeletal muscle injury has been shown to decrease the apoptotic cascade response and the formation of fibrous tissue. The mechanism of benefit is thought to be associated with blockade of insulin-like growth factor.
Terada et al. looked at the affect of platelet-rich plasma (PRP) and losartan on muscle healing after contusion injuries. They showed that PRP plus losartan combination
therapy improved overall skeletal muscle healing by enhancing angiogenesis and follistatin expression as well as reducing the expression of phosphorylated Smad2/3 and the development of fibrosis.
Bedair et al. used a rat model to investigate the effect of angiotensin receptor blockade on muscle fibrosis after injury. They found that angiotensin receptor blockade therapy significantly reduced fibrosis and led to an increase in the number of regenerating myofibers in acutely injured skeletal muscle.
Incorrect

Question 78

Figures 1 through 5 are the MR images of a 12-year-old boy with left lateral-sided knee pain following a football injury. He has a several-year history of recurrent knee pain that improves with rest. An examination reveals a moderate effusion. Range of motion is 0° to 90° and is limited by pain in deep flexion. He has tenderness to palpation along the lateral joint line, and no instability is noted. What is the underlying cause of the pathology noted in the figures?




Explanation

The MR images show a tear through a discoid lateral meniscus. A discoid meniscus is caused by a failure of apoptosis during development in utero and is considered a congenital abnormality. Discoid menisci are prone to tearing and can be caused by minimal trauma. There is no known genetic cause for this condition. Radiographic findings that may be present in the setting of a discoid meniscus include lateral joint space widening, squaring of the lateral femoral condyle, and cupping of the lateral tibial plateau. Contralateral discoid menisci are noted in 20% of patients. There are no other known associated conditions. Treatment of a symptomatic discoid meniscus should include partial meniscectomy and saucerization or repair.

Question 79

A 12-year-old boy who pitches on two “select” baseball teams has had pain in his dominant right shoulder for the past 6 weeks. The pain is present only with throwing and is associated with decreased throwing velocity and control. He has no radiation of pain or paraesthesias of the upper extremity. An AP radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 19a and 19b, respectively. Management should consist of Review Topic





Explanation

The imaging study demonstrates characteristics of Little Leaguer’s shoulder, including physeal widening. This condition is secondary to overuse (typically throwing) and responds well to rest from the inciting activity. There is no evidence from the patient’s history or examination that he has an impingement syndrome, nor is there any indication of labral pathology on the MRI scan. The changes in the proximal humerus are classic for this condition and are not suggestive of a neoplastic process requiring biopsy for definitive diagnosis.

Question 80

A patient reports pain in the hip with functional positioning. With the patient supine, pain in which of the following positions would be typical for femoral acetabular impingement? Review Topic





Explanation

Patients with dysplasia often have a hypertrophic labrum. Abnormal contact between the femoral neck and the acetabular rim leads to labral injury, especially in the anterior-superior acetabular zone. Typically, young patients with the condition report pain with activity or long periods of sitting or driving. The hips often have limited motion, in particular in internal rotation and flexion. Forceful adduction with the maneuver causes pain.
(SBQ13PE.10) Which statement is true regarding discoid menisci? Review Topic
Most commonly involves the medial meniscus
Bilateral in >75% of cases
Asymptomatic discoid meniscus should undergo saucerization
Radiographs will commonly show a hyperplastic lateral intercondylar spine
Radiographs will commonly show squaring of affected condyle with cupping of tibial plateau
Radiographs of knees with discoid menisci will commonly show squaring of affected condyle (lateral>medial) with cupping of tibial plateau.
Discoid meniscus refers to the abnormal development of a hypertrophic and discoid shaped meniscus. It occurs in 3-5% of the population and it is considered the most common cause of a symptomatic clicking or clunking in a childs knee. The lateral meniscus is most commonly affected and it will occur bilaterally in 25% of affected
people. The Watanabe Classification describes the 3 types of discoid menisci. Type 1
= Incomplete, Type 2 = Complete, Type 3 = Wrisberg (lack of posterior meniscotibial attachment to tibia)
Kramer et al. looked at the presentation of pediatric knee pain. They showed that the lateral meniscus is more commonly affected than the medial meniscus. The majority of discoid tears occur in the posterior or middle aspect of the discoid meniscus.
Lee et al. retrospectively reviewed 36 patients aged less than 15 years who underwent arthroscopic procedures for torn discoid menisci. The mean patient age at the time of surgery was 9.5 years. They showed that partial meniscectomy yielded better radiologic results than subtotal/total meniscectomy for torn discoid menisci in this population.
Illustration A shows the 3 classifications of discoid menisus as originally described by Watanabe. Type 4 is a ring type discoid that was not originally described by Watanabe in his 1978 paper. Illustration B shows an AP and lateral radiograph of a discoid meniscus knee. Note squaring of affected lateral condyle in the presence of a lateral discoid meniscus. Illustration C shows 4 consecutive sagittal MRI images with meniscus continuity. It is important to note that the diagnosis of discoid menisci can be made when 3 or more 5mm sagittal images show meniscal continuity.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 81

Figure 10 shows the radiograph of a 7-year-old patient who has a bilateral Trendelenburg limp and limited range of hip motion but no pain. His work-up should include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows bilateral flattening of the femoral heads with mottling and “fragmentation” suggestive of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease.  However, when these changes occur bilaterally and are symmetric, multiple epiphyseal dysplasia or spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia should be suspected.  Skeletal survey will show irregularity of the secondary ossification centers.  With these conditions, there is no true osteonecrosis and no evidence that orthotic or surgical “containment” will alter the outcome of progressive degenerative arthritis.  Cardiac anomalies and coagulopathies are not associated with the epiphyseal dysplasias.
REFERENCES: Crossan JF, Wynne-Davies R, Fulford GE: Bilateral failure of the capital femoral epiphysis: Bilateral Perthes disease, multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, pseudoachondroplasia, and spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita and tarda.  J Pediatr Orthop 1983;3:297-301. 
Sponseller PD: The skeletal dysplasias, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter’s Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 5.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2001,

pp 269-270.

Question 82

use of a true lateral to assess the DRUJ, 4) beginning early range of motion of the wrist after stable fixation and 5) use vitamin C to help mitigate intractable pain.



Explanation

OrthoCash 2020
A 26-year-old male sustains a fall from a ladder onto his outstretched right hand. He is evaluated in the emergency room and is found to have a closed injury to his elbow without evidence of neurovascular compromise. Plain radiographs are obtained and are shown in Figures A and B. During surgery a sequential approach is used to treat each element of this injury. Which part of the procedure is felt to add the most to rotatory stability?

Radial head replacement
Radial head ORIF
Capsular plication
Lateral collateral ligament complex repair or reconstruction
Medial collateral ligament complex reconstruction Corrent answer: 4
The essential lesion that results in the most instability in a terrible triad injury of the elbow is rupture of the lateral collateral ligament. Repair of this lesion
results in the greatest increase in elbow rotatory stability.
The key components of a terrible triad injury are a radial head fracture, coronoid fracture, dislocation of the ulnohumeral joint and disruption of the lateral collateral ligament complex. While restoration of the bony anatomy is important for static stability, the key primary stabilizer that needs to be addressed is the lateral collateral ligament complex. In acute injuries LCL repair may be possible. In chronic injury, LCL reconstruction would need to be considered.
Forthman et al. reviewed 34 patients with an elbow dislocation, 22 of 34 of which were terrible triad injuries. Open reduction internal fixation or radial head replacement (as appropriate) along with LCL repair was completed; the MCL was not surgically addressed. Seventeen of 22 had good or excellent results, indicating that MCL repair is not necessary.
Pugh et al. discuss their surgical protocol for addressing terrible triad injuries with 28/36 of their patients obtaining good or excellent results. Their inside out protocol is described as follows: 1) coronoid fracture ORIF (capsular repair), 2) radial head fracture ORIF or replacement 3) LCL complex repair (isometric point is center of capitellum), 4) reevaluation of stability; MCL repair or hinged fixator application
Jensen et.al in cadaveric studies have demonstrated that radial head replacement alone decreases varus laxity and external rotatory laxity to 14.6 &

Question 83

What is the preferred treatment of a symptomatic curly toe deformity in a 6-year-old child?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: While some curly toe deformities spontaneously improve in younger children, the deformity is likely to persist in a 6-year-old child.  Taping techniques result in no change or only a temporary decrease in deformity.  Studies have shown that simple flexor tenotomy is as effective as flexor tendon transfer.  Arthrodesis is rarely indicated. 
REFERENCES: Hamer A, Stanley D, Smith TW: Surgery for curly toe deformity: A

double-blind, randomized, prospective trial.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:662-663.

Ross ER, Menelaus MB: Open flexor tenotomy for hammer toes and curly toes in childhood. 

J Bone Joint Surg Br 1984;66:770-771.

Question 84

Which of the following can be seen in the heart of a well-conditioned athlete? Review Topic





Explanation

The well-conditioned heart of an athlete leads to increased ventricular wall thickness which in turn increases the amount of blood ejected from the heart per given stroke (stroke volume). The increased parasympathetic (vagal) tone also leads to a lower (decreased) resting heart rate. Cardiac output is equal to stroke volume X heart rate and is increased during exercise in a well-conditioned athlete.

Question 85

A 74-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis reports shoulder pain that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 23a and 23b. Examination reveals active forward elevation to 120 degrees and external rotation to 30 degrees. What treatment option results in the most predictable pain relief and function? Review Topic





Explanation

Most studies have shown that total shoulder arthroplasties yield better pain relief and improved forward elevation when compared to hemiarthroplasty in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Although rotator cuff tears are more common in this patient population, this patient has good forward elevation and no significant superior migration of the humeral head; therefore, a reverse arthroplasty is not indicated. The arthritis is too advanced in this patient to consider arthroscopy, but in less advanced cases it can improve range of motion and decrease pain. Metal-backed glenoid components have shown higher rates of loosening.

Question 86

  • An MRI scan of the brain of a patient with spastic diplegia will most likely show





Explanation

Microcephaly literally means small brain. This is used to identify certain primary developmental anomolies as well as secondary changes seen in neonatal hypoxia and encephalomalacia. These individuals demonstrate long survival, but with moderate mental retardation and variable spastic weakness. Though they can show the physical characteristics of the question above, it is not a diagnostic feature in spastic diplegics. Unless, of course, their spastic diplegia is specifically related to developmental anoxic event (cerebral palsy) causing a compromise in total mass brain tissues.
Agnesis of the corpus callosum is a rare anomaly that is asymptomatic neurologically unless tests designed specifically to test the transfer of information from one cerebral hemisphere to another is employed. Additionally, the corpus callosum is intimately related to the development of the limbic system which governs major CNS roles as behavior, memory, and emotions. Therefore, this would not involve the neurologically challenged spastic diplegic individuals.

Question 87

A 30-year-old elite marathon runner reports chronic pain over the lateral aspect of the distal right leg and dysesthesia over the dorsum of the foot with active plantar flexion and inversion of the foot. Examination reveals a tender soft-tissue fullness approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral malleolus. The pain is exacerbated by passive plantar flexion and inversion of the ankle. There is also a positive Tinel’s sign over the site of maximal tenderness. There is no motor weakness, and deep tendon reflexes are normal. Radiographs and MRI of the leg are normal. What is the next most appropriate step in management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has entrapment of the superficial peroneal nerve against its fascial opening in the distal leg.  It is typically exacerbated by passive or active plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, which leads to traction of the nerve as it exits this opening.  Treatment involves release of the fascial opening to reduce this traction phenomenon.  Closure of the defect will only aggravate the condition and potentially result in an exertional compartment syndrome.  A four-compartment fasciotomy is only indicated for an established compartment syndrome of the leg. 
REFERENCES: Styf J: Diagnosis of exercise-induced pain in the anterior aspect of the lower leg.  Am J Sports Med 1988;16:165-169.
Sridhara CR, Izzo KL: Terminal sensory branches of the superficial peroneal nerve: An entrapment syndrome.  Arch Phys Med Rehabil 1985;66:789-791.
Styf J: Entrapment of the superficial peroneal nerve: Diagnosis and results of decompression. 
J Bone Joint Surg Br 1989;71:131-135.

Question 88

An elderly woman with osteoporosis falls from a standing height, sustaining a low-energy fracture of the acetabulum. What structures are most likely fractured?





Explanation

Epidemiologic studies suggest that 4,000 acetabular fractures occur in elderly patients each year in the United States. This accordingly may become the most common age group to present with this fracture. In elderly patients with considerable osteoporosis, a typical fracture pattern may present with intrapelvic dislocation of the femoral head with compromise to the anterior column and "medial wall." The resulting fractures are often complex fracture patterns with extensive comminution and displacement. These
may present as atypical fracture patterns not always conforming to classic injury patterns described by Judet and associates. This fracture pattern seen commonly in geriatric patients results from low-energy falls with force directly applied to the greater trochanter. Fractures involving the posterior column and/or wall and transverse fracture patterns involving both the anterior and posterior columns occur infrequently in this age group. They are, however, more commonly encountered in younger age groups as a result of higher energy trauma.

Question 89

A 24-year-old dancer sustains the injury shown in Figure 28. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a moderately displaced distal diaphyseal fracture of the fifth metatarsal, and the most appropriate treatment is brief immobilization and symptomatic management.  Attempts at closed reduction are unlikely to appreciably alter the position of the fracture.  Surgical techniques for either reduction of the fracture or fixation have not been shown to result in improved functional outcomes.
REFERENCES: O’Malley MJ, Hamilton WG, Munyak J: Fractures of the distal shaft of the fifth metatarsal: “Dancer’s Fracture.”  Am J Sports Med 1996;24:240-243.
DeLee JC: Fractures and dislocations of the foot, in Mann RA, Coughlin MJ (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6.  St Louis, MO, CV Mosby, 1993, pp 1465-1703.
Hamilton WG: Foot and ankle injuries in dancers, in Yokum L (ed): Sports Clinics of North America.  Philadelphia, PA, Williams and Wilkins, 1988.

Question 90

A 13-year-old boy has pain and a firm mass in his left knee. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 2a and 2b, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 2c. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most likely diagnosis is osteosarcoma.  The imaging studies show an aggressive primary tumor of bone, and the histology slide shows a typical chondroblastic osteosarcoma, with osteoid deposited along the surface of bone trabeculae.  Ewing’s sarcoma histologically consists of small round blue cells. Osteochondroma and periosteal chondroma can occur near the knee but have different radiographic and histologic patterns.  Chondrosarcoma rarely occurs in children.
REFERENCES: Simon M, Springfield D, et al: Osteogenic sarcoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 267.
Wold LA, et al: Atlas of Orthopaedic Pathology.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990,
pp 14-15.

Question 91

A 14-year-old girl has a painful hallux valgus deformity that has not responded to shoe modifications. Figure 21 shows a standing AP radiograph. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals an increased first-second intermetatarsal angle

and a congruent metatarsophalangeal joint with an abnormal distal metatarsal articular

angle.  Correction of both of these abnormalities requires a proximal and distal first

metatarsal osteotomy. 

REFERENCES: Coughlin M: Juvenile bunions, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6.  St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1993, pp 297-339.
Peterson HA, Newman SR: Adolescent bunion treated with double osteotomy and longitudinal pin fixation of the first ray.  J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:80-84.

Question 92

A 65-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis sustains an extension injury to his cervical spine. Two days later, a progressive neurologic deficit develops at the C6 level. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 1. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: It is common for patients with ankylosing spondylitis to sustain extension-type fractures, typically near the cervicothoracic junction.  These fractures can be minimally displaced, making them difficult to diagnose.  In addition, the vertebral bodies are vascular and their canals are relatively enclosed, making them vulnerable to epidural bleeding.  The MRI scan shows an epidural hematoma posteriorly compressing the cord.
REFERENCES: Bohlman HH: Acute fractures and dislocations of the cervical spine.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1119-1142.
Weinstein PR, Karpman RR, Gall EP, et al: Spinal cord injury, spine fracture and spinal stenosis in ankylosing spondylitis.  J Neurosurg 1982;57:609-616.
Johnson T, Steinbach L (eds): Essentials of Musculoskeletal Imaging.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2003, p 44.

Question 93

A 20-year-old collegiate football player who sustained blunt head trauma during the first half of a game is emotional and confused. During the halftime intermission, his affect, memory, and disorientation are totally resolved and have returned to preinjury baseline. The only residual finding is a very mild headache. He wants to play the second half. What is the most appropriate course of action?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: There is almost universal acceptance that an athlete may return to play after blunt head trauma only if he or she is totally asymptomatic.  Mild residual symptoms are considered an absolute contraindication for return to play.  Returning to play after a cardiovascular challenge or sport-specific activities is permitted on the pretext that the athlete is totally asymptomatic prior to these maneuvers.  Neuropsychiatric testing is being used more frequently to monitor residual cognitive effects after head trauma.  It has not been used as a return to play criterion.
REFERENCES: Garrick J (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 29-48.
Guskiewicz KM, McCrea, Marshall SW, et al: Cumulative effects associated with recurrent concussion in collegiate football players: The NCAA Concussion Study.  JAMA
2003;290:2549-2555.

Question 94

Figure 93 shows the axial T2-weighted MRI scan of the lumbar spine of a 70-year-old man. The arrow points to which of the following structures? Review Topic





Explanation

The ligamenta flava (singular, ligamentum flavum, Latin for yellow ligament) are ligaments that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebra, all the way from the axis to the first segment of the sacrum. In T2-weighted sequencing, ligamentous structures possess a low signal intensity. The ligamentum in this patient is markedly thickened, resulting in severe spinal stenosis. The epidural space lies ventral and medial to the ligamentum flavum and should possess a high signal intensity secondary to the presence of cerebrospinal fluid. However, in the case of high-grade stenosis, there may be little if any cerebrospinal fluid present, making the epidural space and central canal difficult to identify. A lumbar synovial cyst should also have high signal intensity because of the presence of synovial fluid.
(SBQ12SP.14) A 36-year-old male presents with acute onset of right buttock and leg pain following lifting a heavy object. On physical exam he has weakness to knee extension, numbness over the medial malleolus, and a decreased patellar reflex. Which of the following would most likely explain this clinical presentation. Review Topic
Lumbar arachnoiditis
L4/L5 paracentral disc herniation
L3/L4 far lateral (foraminal) disc herniation
L4/L5 far lateral (foraminal) disc herniation
L5/S1 far lateral (foraminal) disc herniation
The clinical presentation is consistent with a L4 radiculopathy. A L4/L5 far lateral (foraminal) disc herniation would compress the exiting root (L4) and cause these symptoms.
The location of a prolapsed lumbar disc determines its symptoms. Central disc herniations may give rise to back pain or cauda equina syndrome. Paracentral disc herniations (90-95% of cases) affect the traversing nerve root. Far lateral disc herniations (5-10%) affect the exiting nerve root.
Gregory et al. summarize physical signs in lumbar disc herniation. They state that the straight-leg-raise is the most sensitive (73-98% sensitive) test and the crossed straight-leg-raise is the most specific (88-98% specific) test for lumbar disc herniation. Other specific tests include weak ankle dorsiflexion (89% specific), absent ankle reflex (89% specific), and calf wasting (94% specific, but a late finding).
Illustration A shows how a paracentral L4/L5 disc herniation affects the traversing L5 root, but a far lateral L4/L5 disc herniation affects the L4 root. Illustration B shows the dermatomal distribution of pain with root involvement from L3 to S1.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 95

A 47-year-old male tennis player has pain in his nondominant shoulder that has failed to respond to 4 months of nonsurgical management. Examination reveals acromial tenderness and pain at the supraspinatus tendon insertion. He has a positive impingement sign, pain on forward elevation, and minimal cuff weakness. The MRI scans are shown in Figures 30a and 30b. To completely resolve his symptoms, treatment should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MRI scans show a mesoacromion with tendonopathy of the supraspinatus.  The history and physical findings indicate that the patient has a symptomatic os acromiale.  Simple excision of the unstable os acromiale has not yielded consistently good results.  Meticulous internal fixation using tension banding with cannulated screws and autologous bone grafting has shown good results for this problem.
REFERENCES: Hutchinson MR, Veenstra MA: Arthroscopic decompression of shoulder impingement secondary to os acromiale.  Arthroscopy 1993;9:28-32.
Warner JJ, Beim GM, Higgins L: The treatment of symptomatic os acromiale.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:1320-1326.

Question 96

The arrow in Figure 11 points toward a finding consistent with which of the following?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The finding of a unilateral absent pedicle is often referred to as a winking owl sign and is a manifestation of pedicle destruction from metastatic disease.  As the vertebral body is destroyed from the neoplastic process, it extends into the pedicle and destroys the cortical rim that normally creates the oval ring of the pedicle on an AP image.
REFERENCES: McLain R, Weinstein J (eds): Rothman-Simeone: The Spine, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1999, p 1173.
Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 674.

Question 97

Which structure is indicated by the arrow in Figure 33?








Explanation

DISCUSSION
The posterior position of the sciatic nerve in relation to the acetabulum and the lateral peroneal division makes the peroneal division of the sciatic nerve the portion of the nerve that is most likely to be injured in a posterior traumatic hip dislocation, accounting for up to 10% of concomitant nerve injuries with posterior hip dislocation. The corona mortis is an anatomic variant that results in vascular anastomosis between the obturator and either the external iliac or inferior epigastric arteries. This variant occurs in approximately 80% of patients and varies in its position, being located 4 cm to 9 cm lateral to the symphysis pubis. The obturator vascular bundle is situated in the fat medial to the obturator internus muscle and must be mobilized to access the quadrilateral plate. Dissection may be carried out both above and below this vascular leash. The Kocher-Langenbeck approach is indicated for fractures involving the posterior wall and/or posterior column of the acetabulum and for both column fractures that require direct posterior visualization. This approach is not indicated for direct reduction of the anterior wall or column when direct visualization is required anteriorly. The L5 nerve root is located on the anterior sacrum and is indicated by the arrow.
The position of this neural structure must be considered whether the surgeon is stabilizing 31 the sacroiliac (SI) joint with percutaneous iliosacral screws or with anterior SI plating through the lateral window of the ilioinguinal approach.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Cornwall R, Radomisli TE. Nerve injury in traumatic dislocation of the hip. Clin Orthop Relat Res. 2000 Aug;(377):84-91. Review. PubMed PMID: 10943188. View Abstract at PubMed
Darmanis S, Lewis A, Mansoor A, Bircher M. Corona mortis: an anatomical study with clinical implications in approaches to the pelvis and acetabulum. Clin Anat. 2007 May;20(4):433-9. PubMed PMID: 16944498. View Abstract at PubMed
Archdeacon MT, Kazemi N, Guy P, Sagi HC. The modified Stoppa approach for acetabular fracture. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2011 Mar;19(3):170-5. PubMed PMID: 21368098. View Abstract at PubMed
Rommens P. The Kocher-Langenbeck approach for the treatment of acetabular fractures. Operat Orthop Traumatol 2004; 16:59-74.
Langford JR, Burgess AR, Liporace FA, Haidukewych GJ. Pelvic fractures: part 2. Contemporary indications and techniques for definitive surgical management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2013 Aug;21(8):458-68. doi: 10.5435/JAAOS-21-08-458. Review. PubMed PMID: 23908252.View Abstract at PubMed

Question 98

A patient who underwent an L5-S1 hemilaminotomy and partial diskectomy for radiculopathy 3 weeks ago now reports increasing leg and back pain with radicular signs. An axial T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 97a, an axial T1-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 97b, and a contrast enhanced T1-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 97c. What is the most appropriate management for the patient's symptoms? Review Topic





Explanation

The MRI scans show a recurrent disk herniation. There is no increase fluid signal or enhancement to suggest infection or any other pathologic process. There is no infection; therefore, IV antibiotics and debridement are not indicated. Similarly, a pseudomeningocele is not present. In addition, with progressive weakness, physical therapy is not appropriate. A revision diskectomy is useful for recurrent radiculopathy.

Question 99

Which of the following is considered a potential advantage of arthroscopic repair for anterior instability of the shoulder? Review Topic





Explanation

Arthroscopic anterior labral repair spares the subscapularis, and does not require significant mobilization or incision of the anterior capsule. Therefore, it is less likely to result in significant impairment in external rotation of the glenohumeral joint when compared with traditional open stabilization procedures. Recurrent instability rates are either slightly higher or equivalent to open procedures. Both procedures can be performed on an outpatient basis and require generally identical recovery times.

Question 100

Figure 48a shows the full-leg standing radiograph of a patient with a prior femoral fracture. Figure 48b shows the lateral view of the same joint. The patient is scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty. Because the mechanical axis of the lower extremity in patients with a prior femoral fracture may be disrupted, which of the following should be used during surgery to restore the mechanical axis of the lower extremity in this patient?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows hardware that was used for fixation of a prior femoral fracture.  The mechanical axis of the lower extremity in this patient is nearly normal

(3 degrees valgus), and the deformity at the healed fracture site (14 degrees) does not appear to affect the joint alignment and is acceptable.  Use of a routine knee prosthesis will be possible in this patient.  To avoid hardware removal, extramedullary jigs and/or computerized navigation may be used to measure and restore the long axis of the femur.  The use of a hinged prosthesis does not influence the mechanical axis directly.  Extra-articular osteotomy is occasionally needed to reverse severe deformities.

REFERENCES: Papadopoulos EC, Parvizi J, Lai CH, et al: Total knee arthroplasty following distal femoral fractures.  Knee 2002;9:267-274.
Lonner JH, Siliski JM, Lotke PA: Simultaneous femoral osteotomy and total knee arthroplasty for treatment of osteoarthritis associated with severe extra-articular deformity.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:342-348.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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