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Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: Arthroplasty, Ligament & Spine | Part 149

Orthopedic Surgery Board Exam MCQs: Shoulder, Nerve, & Spine | Part 121

27 Apr 2026 219 min read 62 Views
Orthopedic Surgery Board Review MCQs: AAOS Master Bank Part 121

Key Takeaway

This page presents Part 121 of a high-yield interactive MCQ bank for orthopedic surgeons preparing for AAOS and ABOS board certification. It offers 100 verified questions in OITE/AAOS format, covering Nerve and Shoulder topics, with detailed explanations and references to maximize exam preparation effectiveness.

About This Board Review Set

This is Part 121 of the comprehensive OITE and AAOS Orthopedic Surgery Board Review series authored by Dr. Mohammed Hutaif, Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon.

This set has been strictly audited and contains 100 100% verified, high-yield multiple-choice questions (MCQs) modelled on the exact format of the Orthopaedic In-Training Examination (OITE) and the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) board examinations.

How to Use the Interactive Quiz

Two distinct learning modes are available:

  • Study Mode — After selecting an answer, you immediately see whether you are correct or incorrect, together with a full clinical explanation and literature references.
  • Exam Mode — All feedback is hidden until you click Submit & See Results. A live timer tracks elapsed time. A percentage score and detailed breakdown are displayed upon submission.

Pro Tip: Use keyboard shortcuts A–E to select options, F to flag a question for review, and Enter to jump to the next unanswered question.

Topics Covered in Part 121

This module focuses heavily on: Nerve, Shoulder.

Sample Questions from This Set

Sample Question 1: A 47-year-old landscaper presents with worsening left shoulder pain and weakness. Three years ago, he injured the left shoulder in a fall and elected for nonoperative management to minimize time off from work. Physical therapy was effective...

Sample Question 2: After performing an open distal clavicle excision and resecting 15 mm of distal clavicle, which potential concern for shoulder function could result?...

Sample Question 3: A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has C1-C2 instability with neurologic deterioration. Her posterior atlanto-dens interval is 10 mm. Which fixation technique will be the most biomechanically sound to facilitate fusi...

Sample Question 4: -A 32-year-old has diffuse pain, weakness, and limited overhead motion in the shoulder as a result of falling on his outstretched arm 2 months ago. Examination reveals medial scapular winging, and an electromyogram shows denervation of the ...

Sample Question 5: What is the function of the rotator cuff during throwing?...

Why Active MCQ Practice Works

Evidence consistently demonstrates that active recall through spaced MCQ practice yields substantially greater long-term retention than passive reading alone (Roediger & Karpicke, 2006). All questions in this specific module have been algorithmically verified for clinical integrity and complete explanations.

Comprehensive 100-Question Exam


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Question 1

A 47-year-old landscaper presents with worsening left shoulder pain and weakness. Three years ago, he injured the left shoulder in a fall and elected for nonoperative management to minimize time off from work. Physical therapy was effective until 6 months ago when his shoulder function worsened to the point that he is now unable to work. Examination of his active range of motion reveals forward elevation 120° with pain, abduction 100°, IR at neutral to T8 and ER at neutral 5°. He has a positive ER lag sign and Hornblower's sign. Belly press and lift-off tests are normal. A recent radiograph is shown in Figures A. MRI images are shown in Figures B and C. Which of the following is the best treatment option? Review Topic





Explanation

This patient has a chronic massive posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with marked atrophy, tendon retraction and loss of external rotation strength that is impacting his daily life. The best treatment option for this middle-aged laborer with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear is a latissimus dorsi transfer to restore external rotation strength and motion.
Irreparable rotator cuff tears are marked by: (1) Superior displacement of the humeral head (AHI < 5-7mm), (2) Fatty infiltration of the rotator cuff muscles (Goutallier stage 3-4), (3) Increased duration of the tendon tear and (4) Profound external rotation weakness. These findings are predictive of poor-quality tissue and stiffness of the muscle-tendon unit, not amenable to primary repair. In this setting, a latissimus dorsi
transfer can be utilized to restore shoulder strength, function and improve pain. Relative contraindications include subscapularis deficiency, deltoid deficiency, pseudoparalysis of the shoulder and advanced glenohumeral arthritis.
Gerber et al. performed a case series analysis of 67 patients with irreparable rotator cuff tears managed with latissimus dorsi transfer. Patients with an intact subscapularis demonstrated improvement in pain, range of motion and strength postoperatively, while no improvement was noted in patients with subscapularis deficiency. The authors conclude that latissimus dorsi transfer should not be performed in the setting of poor subscapularis function.
Iannotti et al. found that better clinical results following latissimus dorsi transfer were associated with: preserved active shoulder range of motion and strength (specifically forward elevation > 90° and external rotation > 20°), synchronous firing of the transferred latissimus dorsi muscle and male gender.
Figure A is an AP radiograph of the left shoulder with superior migration of the humeral head (AHI < 5mm) and no evidence of glenohumeral arthritis. Figures B and C show a retracted posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and Goutallier stage 4 atrophy (more fat than muscle) of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor, rendering this tear irreparable. Illustration A shows a latissimus dorsi transfer. The latissimus dorsi tendon is positioned over the top of the humeral head, covering most of the rotator cuff defect. The tendon is then secured to the subscapularis tendon edge and lesser tuberosity anteriorly, the remnant supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons medially, and the greater tuberosity laterally.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 2

After performing an open distal clavicle excision and resecting 15 mm of distal clavicle, which potential concern for shoulder function could result?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
AC joint arthritis often is marked by pain along the anterior and superior aspects of the shoulder. It can occasionally radiate into the trapezius and the anterolateral neck region. A patient may have tenderness to palpation directly at the AC joint or pain with the cross-body adduction stress test and the O'Brien active compression test. During the cross-body adduction test, this patient has pain when the examiner lifts his arm in 90 degrees of forward flexion and maximally adducts it across his body. Although the cross-body adduction test is the most sensitive provocative test for AC joint osteoarthritis at 77%, the O’Brien active compression test has been shown to be most specific at 95%.
Physical therapy, rest, activity modification, and other nonsurgical treatments might not reverse osteoarthritis changes at the AC joint, but these interventions can often help improve pain, range of motion, and function. A corticosteroid injection into the AC joint may be an option if nonsurgical treatments do not work, although Wasserman and associates demonstrated that only 44% of AC joint injections accurately entered the joint.
Persistent pain is the most common complication following distal clavicle excision. Although the exact amount of distal clavicle that should be resected is a topic of debate, resection of 10 mm or more of the distal clavicle may lead to instability of the AC joint, especially if the AC capsule is sectioned.

Question 3

A 45-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has C1-C2 instability with neurologic deterioration. Her posterior atlanto-dens interval is 10 mm. Which fixation technique will be the most biomechanically sound to facilitate fusion across the atlanto-axial junction?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
C1-C2 transarticular screw fixation is 10-fold stiffer than wiring constructs, particularly in rotation; eliminates the need for postsurgical halo use; and is associated with reported fusion rates to a maximum of 100% for bilateral screws and 95% for unilateral fixation. All of the other fusion techniques mentioned are associated with a pseudarthrosis rate of at least 30%.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Stock GH, Vaccaro AR, Brown AK, Anderson PA. Contemporary posterior occipital fixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2006 Jul;88(7):1642-9. PubMed PMID: 16841419. View Abstract at PubMed
Sim HB, Lee JW, Park JT, Mindea SA, Lim J, Park J. Biomechanical evaluations of various c1-c2 posterior fixation techniques. Spine (Phila Pa 1976). 2011 Mar 15;36(6):E401-7. doi: 10.1097/BRS.0b013e31820611ba. PubMed PMID: 21372651. View Abstract at PubMed
CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 37 THROUGH 43
Figure 37 is the lateral radiograph of a 71-year-old woman who has pain with ambulation that improves when she sits down. She had similar symptoms 2 years earlier when she underwent an L3-L5 posterior spinal fusion. Upon examination she has good range of hip and knee motion, 5/5 motor function, and normal sensation of her lower extremities. She has negative bilateral straight-leg raise findings and her knees slightly flex to stand upright

Question 4

  • A 32-year-old has diffuse pain, weakness, and limited overhead motion in the shoulder as a result of falling on his outstretched arm 2 months ago. Examination reveals medial scapular winging, and an electromyogram shows denervation of the long thoracic nerve. Management should consist of





Explanation

Most cases of isolated serratus anterior palsy resolve spontaneously, usually within 6 to 9 months after traumatic injury and within 2 years after an infectious cause. Pectoralis major-fascia lata graft is an effective treatment for persistent winging.

Question 5

What is the function of the rotator cuff during throwing?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The coupled action of the rotator cuff prevents superior migration and controls anterior and posterior translation by depressing the humeral head.
REFERENCES: Poppen NK, Walker PS: Normal and abnormal motion of the shoulder.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1976;58:195-201.
Abrams JS: Special shoulder problems in the throwing athlete:  Pathology, diagnosis, and nonoperative management.  Clin Sports Med 1991;10:839-861.

Question 6

below show the radiographs obtained from a year-old woman with a year history of progressive hip pain in the left groin with activity, which is unresponsive to activity modification and physical therapy. Examination reveals normal range of motion, with pain on anterior impingement testing. What treatment is associated with the best long-term results?


Explanation

DISCUSSION:
This patient has symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement as well as clinical and radiographic signs of acetabular retroversion, including a cross-over sign, ischial spine sign, and posterior wall sign bilaterally. Good   midterm   to   long-term   outcomes   have   been   reported   with   reverse   (anteverting)   Bernese periacetabular osteotomy (PAO). In patients with less retroversion, open or arthroscopic rim trimming with labral refixation have shown good short-term results, but longer-term results have yet to be fully delineated. Isolated  hip  arthroscopy  and  labral  repair  would  not  be  indicated  without  addressing  the retroversion  deformity.  Femoral  varus  rotational  osteotomy  plays  no  role  in  the  treatment  of  this pathology.  Open  surgical  dislocation  with  rim  trimming  could  be  considered  in  patients  with  less deformity, but some studies have shown inferior long-term results compared with reverse PAO.

Question 7

Treatment of a cruciate-retaining total knee that is unstable in flexion is best accomplished by





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pagnano and associates revised 25 painful primary posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasties for flexion instability.  The patients shared typical clinical presentations that included a sense of instability without frank giving way, recurrent knee joint effusion, soft-tissue tenderness involving the pes anserine tendons and the retinacular tissue, posterior instability of 2+ or 3+ with a posterior drawer or a posterior sag sign at 90° of flexion, and above-average motion of the total knee arthroplasty.  Twenty-two of the knee replacements were revised to posterior stabilized implants, and three underwent tibial polyethylene liner exchange only.  Nineteen of the 22 knee replacements revised to a posterior stabilized implant showed marked improvement after the revision surgery.  Only one of the three knee replacements that underwent tibial polyethylene exchange was improved.  Flexion instability can be a cause of persistent pain and functional impairment after posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty.  Revision surgery that focuses on balancing the flexion and extension spaces, in conjunction with a posterior stabilized knee implant, seems to be a reliable treatment for symptomatic flexion instability after posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty.
REFERENCE: Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, Stuart MJ: Flexion instability after primary posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty.  Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46.

Question 8

Which of the following best describes the course of the median nerve at the elbow?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The median nerve courses superficial to the ulnar artery, deep to the fibrous arch of the superficialis muscle, and deep to the superficial head of the pronator teres muscle.  The median nerve lies within the interval between the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and the flexor digitorium muscle as it progresses toward the wrist.
REFERENCES: Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 118-131.
Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System. Part 1, Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders.  West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy, 1991, vol 8,

pp 46-47.

Question 9

A study is conducted to measure the difference in bone mineral density between postmenopausal women taking a drug treatment versus those taking a placebo. What is the most important result to be reported from this study?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: A complete answer necessarily includes the means and standard deviations of bone mineral density in both groups.  Given these, which are the basic results of the study, the P-value can be calculated if desired.  All of the other options preclude assessment of the actual data, that is, the information collected by the study.  P-values and confidence intervals should be perceived as additional information, which help to assess the certainty of relating the study’s findings to the general population, but they should not be reported instead of the results

(ie, the means and standard deviations). 

REFERENCE: Ebramzadeh E, McKellop H, Dorey F, et al: Challenging the validity of conclusions based on P-values alone: A critique of contemporary clinical research design and methods.  Instr Course Lect 1994;43:587-600.

Question 10

Figure below shows the radiograph obtained from a 68-year-old man who fell 3 weeks after undergoing a successful left primary total hip arthroplasty. He is experiencing a substantial increase in pain and an inability to bear weight. What is an appropriate treatment plan?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
The fracture has occurred around the stem, representing a Vancouver type B fracture, and the stem is clearly loose, making it a type B2 fracture. The appropriate treatment is removal of the loose in situ stem; ORIF of the femur using cerclage wires, cables, or a plate; and insertion of a longer revision stem such as a tapered fluted modular titanium or fully porous coated cylindrical stem to bypass the fracture. All of the other options are incorrect, because they represent inappropriate treatment options for a Vancouver type B2 fracture.

Question 11

03 A 13 y/o girl sustains the injury shown in Figures 69a and 69b in a fall. Examination reveals this to be an isolated injury, and the patient’s neurologic and vascular examinations are normal. Based on these findings, management should consist of





Explanation

Type B & C lateral condyle fxs in children are potentially unstable. Mintzer and associates recommended pinning of these fractures in the articular surface is not disrupted. To determine the status of the articular surface, they recommended arthrography. If the articular surface is intact, perc
pinning may be performed. If the articular surface shows that the fx line has extended into the joint and the articular surface is separated, open reduction and pinning are necessary. Once the fx is stabilized, the elbow is immobilized for 4 wks. The pins are then removed & motion is begun.
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Question 12

What is the preferred treatment of displaced distal clavicle fractures in children less than eight years old?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pediatric distal clavicle fractures are typically treated non-operatively because of the great osteogenic capacity of the intact inferior periosteum. The coracoclavicular ligaments remain attached to the periosteum and new bone fills any remaining bony gaps within the periosteal sleeve. Recent articles by Nenopoulos et al recommend sling immobilization for the majority of fractures (84%) and only attempt surgical fixation for children >8 years old with severely displaced fractures (>2 cortical diameters). They found excellent function with conservative treatment and union in all fractures. Surgical care resulted in improved cosmetic appearance.

Question 13

Which of the following is considered the most appropriate shoe modification following transmetatarsal amputation?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most patients who undergo transmetatarsal amputation do not require custom shoe wear or an orthosis above the ankle.  A molded toe filler is used to prevent excessive shear that can lead to ulceration.  Use of a soft toe filler without stiffening of the sole results in excessive flexibility from the shortened lever arm, which reduces the efficiency of gait.  A firm footplate or carbon fiber base adds rigidity to aid in push-off.  A rocker bottom also may be added to the shoe.
REFERENCES: Philbin TM, Leyes M, Sferra JJ, Donley BG:  Orthotic and prosthetic devices in partial foot amputations.  Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:215-228.
Marks RM: Mid-foot/mid-tarsus amputations.  Foot Ankle Clin 1999;4:1-16.

Question 14

A 42-year-old woman with a long-standing history of rheumatoid arthritis undergoes total shoulder arthroplasty for persistent pain that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Intraoperative radiographs reveal an oblique, minimally displaced fracture of the greater tuberosity. Based on these findings, what is the best course of action?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The risk of intraoperative fracture in osteoporotic bone in patients with rheumatoid arthritis is significant.  Fractures most often occur during humeral head dislocation and positioning for canal reaming.  If the fracture occurs at the greater tuberosity, cerclage suture fixation of the tuberosity fracture with autogenous cancellous bone graft from the resected humeral head is the treatment of choice.
REFERENCES: Wright TW, Cofield RH: Humeral fractures after shoulder arthroplasty.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1340-1346.
Norris TR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Shoulder and Elbow.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1997, pp 215-225.
Frankle MA, Ondrovic LE, Markee BA, et al: Stability of tuberosity reattachment in proximal humeral hemiarthroplasty.  J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:413-420.


Question 15

An MRI arthrogram of the elbow is shown in Figure 6. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: MRI arthrography is the imaging study of choice for evaluation of medial collateral ligament injuries.
REFERENCES: Carrino JA, Morrison WB, Zou KH, et al: Noncontrast MR imaging and MR arthrography of the ulnar collateral ligament of the elbow: Prospective evaluation of two-dimensional pulse sequences for detection of complete tears.  Skeletal Radiol 2001;30:625-632. 
Munshi M, Pretterklieber ML, Chung CB, et al: Anterior bundle of ulnar collateral ligament: Evaluation of anatomic relationships by using MR imaging, MR arthrography, and gross anatomic and histologic analysis.  Radiology 2004;231:797-803.

Question 16

Figure 17 shows the AP radiograph of a 75-year-old man with right hip pain. The femoral component is loose. The mechanism of loosening is most likely secondary to





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The femoral construct shown in the radiograph has failed to produce ingrowth of the stem.  The stem has subsided and rotated.  Impingement of the trochanter did not occur until after the stem subsided.  There is no evidence of osteolysis or third-body wear debris from the cerclage wire.  A larger femoral stem needs to be implanted to achieve rigid fixation.
REFERENCES: Pelicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update:

Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 217-238.

Peter CL, Rivero DP, Kull LR, et al: Revision total hip arthroplasty without cement: Subsidence of proximally porous-coated femoral components.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1217-1226.

Question 17

What is the most common complication associated with open reduction and internal fixation using a 90/90 plate configuration and olecranon osteotomy for an OTA type C2 distal humerus fracture?





Explanation

The most common complications associated with open reduction and internal fixation of distal humerus fractures are those associated with repair of an associated olecranon osteotomy. Complications associated with olecranon osteotomy fixation include failure of fixation (5%) and the need for secondary removal of painful hardware (70%). Nonunion of a distal humerus fracture treated with 90/90 plating is uncommon and results from inadequate fixation, excessive soft-tissue stripping, or use of inadequate plate fixation such as one third tubular plates. Heterotopic ossification is seen in approximately 4% of cases, infection 4%, and ulnar nerve palsy 7%. Although a relatively minor complication, the need for removal of painful hardware from the olecranon osteotomy is by far the most common complication seen in these cases.

Question 18

A 55-year-old woman with a long history of low back and left lower extremity pain has failed to respond to exhaustive nonsurgical management. MRI scans show bulging and degeneration at L3-4 and L4-5 as well as a normal disk at L2-3 and L5-S1. She undergoes provocative lumbar diskography at L3-4, L4-5, and L5-S1. Post-diskography axial CT images of L3-4 and L4-5 are shown in Figures 6a and 6b, respectively. The injections at L3-4 and L4-5 produce no pain. The injection at L5-S1 produces 10/10 concordant back pain with radiation to the lower extremity. What is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The results of this patient’s lumbar diskography are equivocal at best.  The two disks most likely to be her pain generators, based on their MRI appearance, produced 10/10 pain, however it was nonconcordant and did not reproduce any of her typical left-sided radicular symptoms.  The only disk that produced concordant back pain was the normal disk at the L5-S1 level and it reproduced radicular symptoms on the side opposite of her typical pain.  Based on these findings, it would be difficult to select a level or levels to include in a lumbar fusion.  As such, continued nonsurgical management is the safest treatment option at the current time.  Brox and associates reported on a randomized clinical trial comparing lumbar fusion to cognitive intervention and exercise and found similar results in both groups, with significantly less risk in the latter.
REFERENCES: Brox JI, Sorensen R, Friis A, et al: Randomized clinical trial of lumbar instrumented fusion and cognitive intervention and exercises in patients with chronic low back pain and disc degeneration.  Spine 2003;28:1913-1921.
Carragee EJ: Clinical practice: Persistent low back pain.  N Engl J Med 2005;352:1891-1898.

Question 19

A 46-year-old male sustains a patella fracture and is treated with cannulated screws and a tension band construct. Which of the following is correct regarding this treatment?





Explanation

Fixation of patella fractures with tension band constructs leads to a need to remove implants in over 50% of cases in multiple studies.
Tension band constructs result in absolute stability when performed correctly. This technique works by converting tension from muscle pull into compressive force on the articular side of the fracture. Tension band constructs require a fracture pattern or bone that is able to withstand compression, an intact cortical buttress opposite to the tension band, and fixation that withstands tensile forces.
LeBrun et al. and associates evaluated functional outcomes of surgically isolated patella fractures. They reported that 52% of patients underwent surgery for hardware removal, and 38% of patients who retained their hardware reported pain at some time. They also found that nearly 20% had extensor lag, and almost 38% had restricted flexion. Extension power on testing showed significant mean deficits when compared to the contralateral side.
Bayar et al. evaluated 20 patients with patella fractures and found that articular incongruity of >1mm was the largest risk factor for quadriceps weakness at a mean of 30 months postoperatively. No significant differences were seen with sex, fracture pattern, or time from injury to surgery.
Illustration A shows patella fixation with plate/screw construct. Incorrect Answers:

OrthoCash 2020

Question 20

A 12-year-old girl has back pain after falling 20 feet and landing in the sitting position. She has no fractures or other injuries, and her neurologic examination is normal. A lateral radiograph, transverse CT scan, and reformatted sagittal CT scan are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. Which of the following methods is associated with the best long-term outcome? Review Topic





Explanation

The patient has a displaced burst fracture. Fusion with instrumentation has shown better results than casting alone. Posterior fusion with instrumentation, with sagittal plane correction, yields the best results. Decompression occurs indirectly with correction of the kyphosis. Anterior decompression is unnecessary.

Question 21

Figure 24 shows the sitting AP and lateral spinal radiographs of a nonambulatory 12½-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who is being evaluated for scoliosis. The lumbar curve from T12 to L5 measures 36 degrees, and the thoracic curve from T3 to T12 measures 24 degrees on the AP radiograph. He has 5 degrees of pelvic obliquity. His forced vital capacity is 45% of predicted for height and weight. What is the most appropriate treatment for the spinal deformity? Review Topic





Explanation

Posterior spinal fusion is the treatment of choice for scoliosis in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy once they are no longer able to walk. This treatment improves quality of life and upright wheelchair positioning. Its effect on pulmonary function is less clear, as pulmonary function will continue to decline because of the underlying muscle disease. While bracing and wheelchair modifications may slow the progression of the curve, progression will continue. Surgical intervention at this stage does not have to include the pelvis, which, in general, is indicated in curves of greater than 40 degrees, and when pelvic obliquity is greater than 10 degrees. Fixation to the pelvis should also be considered in lumbar curves where the apex is lower than L1. Surgical treatment usually can be safely performed if the vital capacity is greater than 35%.

Question 22

An active 49-year-old woman who sustained a diaphyseal fracture of the clavicle 8 months ago now reports persistent shoulder pain with daily activities. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 8. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals an atrophic nonunion of the diaphysis of the clavicle.  Electrical or ultrasound stimulation may be an option in diaphyseal nonunions that have

shown some healing response with callus formation, but these techniques are not successful

in an atrophic nonunion.  The preferred technique for achieving union is open reduction and internal fixation with bone graft.  Percutaneous fixation has no role in treatment of nonunions

of the clavicle.

REFERENCES: Boyer MI, Axelrod TS: Atrophic nonunion of the clavicle: Treatment by compression plating, lag-screw fixation and bone graft.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1997;79:301-303.
Simpson NS, Jupiter JB: Clavicular nonunion and malunion: Evaluation and surgical management.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:1-8.

Question 23

A sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan of the knee joint is shown in Figure 23. What structure is identified by the arrow?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: On T1-weighted images, the posterior cruciate ligament is a low-signal (black) structure that courses from the posterior aspect of the tibia to the medial femoral condyle.  The posterior cruciate ligament can appear as arcuate, U-shaped, or kinked.  The other structures have similar signal but different anatomic locations.
REFERENCES: Gross ML, Grover JS, Bassett LW, Seeger LL, Finerman GA: Magnetic resonance imaging of the posterior cruciate ligament: Clinical use to improve diagnostic accuracy.  Am J Sports Med 1992;20:732-737.
Sonin AH, Fitzgerald SW, Friedman H, Hoff FL, Hendrix RW, Rogers LF: Posterior cruciate ligament injury: MR imaging diagnosis and patterns of injury.  Radiology 1994;190:455-458.

Question 24

What complication is frequently associated with the Weil lesser metatarsal osteotomy (distal, oblique) in the treatment of claw toe deformities?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Weil osteotomies are useful in achieving shortening of a lesser metatarsal with preservation of the distal articular surface.  The osteotomy is oriented from distal-dorsal to proximal-plantar; therefore, proximal displacement of the distal fragment is associated with plantar (not dorsal) displacement as well. Plantar displacement can result in the intrinsics acting dorsal to the center of the metatarsophalangeal joint and the development of an extended or “floating toe.”  Nonunion, osteonecrosis, and inadequate shortening are infrequent complications associated with the Weil lesser metatarsal osteotomy.
REFERENCES: Trnka HJ, Nyska M, Parks BG, et al: Dorsiflexion contracture after the Weil osteotomy: Results of cadaver study and three-dimensional analysis.  Foot Ankle Int

2001;22:47-50.

Trnka HJ, Muhlbauer M, Zettl R, et al: Comparison of the results of the Weil and Helal osteotomies for the treatment of metatarsalgia secondary to dislocation of the lesser metatarsophalangeal joints.  Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:72-79.

Question 25

Figure A shows the 2 bundles of the ACL dissected from a cadaveric knee off their bony attachments. They are labeled Bundle A and Bundle B, respectively. Which of the following is true? Review Topic





Explanation

Bundle A is the anteromedial (AM) bundle, which is longer, and is tight in flexion. Bundle B is the posterolateral (PL) bundle, which is shorter, and is loose in flexion. The AM bundle is attached anterior to the PL bundle on the tibia.
The ACL is comprised of 2 bundles. The AM bundle is longer than the PL bundle.
Their names reflect their relative anatomic positions on the tibial insertion site. On the femur, the AM bundle begins at the proximal-anterior aspect of the femoral insertion site, while the PL bundle begins at the posterior-inferior part. In flexion, the AM bundle is tight and the PL bundle is loose. In extension, the AM bundle is loose and the PL bundle is tight.
Bicer et al. reviewed the anatomy of the ACL. They found that the AM bundle was longer (32mm) compared with the PL bundle (18mm). PL bundle carries greater force near full extension, and the AM bundle carries greater force after 15-45° of flexion. Under combined rotatory loads (valgus and internal tibial torque at knee flexion
>30°), the AM bundle bore more force than the PL bundle.
Figure A shows the 2 bundles of the ACL. The AM bundle is longer than the PL bundle. The oft referred to length of ACL refers mainly to the length of the AM bundle. Illustrations A and B show the spatial relationships of the AM and PL bundles in a cadaveric knee. Illustration C shows the relative positions of the attachments of each bundle.
Incorrect

Question 26

At the time of arthroscopy, a 9-year-old boy was found to have a Watanabe type II discoid lateral meniscus. What is the most appropriate treatment? Review Topic




Explanation

The Watanabe type II meniscus should only require saucerization for treatment because it is not unstable. The Watanabe classification defines 3 types of discoid mensici. In type I (stable, complete), the block-shaped lateral meniscus covers the entire lateral tibial plateau, whereas in type II (stable, partial), the lateral meniscus covers less than or equal to 80% of the tibial plateau. Type III discoid menisci (unstable, ligament of Wrisberg) appear to be normal except for a thickened posterior horn, but they lack posterior meniscal attachments, including the meniscotibial (ie, coronary) ligament. The type III discoid meniscus is stabilized only by the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg. This results in hypermobility of the lateral meniscus at the posterior horn, which pulls into the intercondylar notch with knee extension, resulting in snapping knee syndrome. Complete menisectomy should be avoided if possible.

Question 27

A 19-year-old soccer player feels a pop in his knee while making a cut and notes the development of an effusion over several hours. Examination reveals medial joint line tenderness, but the knee is stable to manual stress testing of all ligaments. Examination under anesthesia confirms a stable knee. What is the most critical factor in determining healing after repair of the lesion shown in Figure 14?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Numerous clinical and basic science investigations have evaluated meniscal tear characteristics to identify factors that either promote or mitigate against meniscal healing.  Complex tears have been noted to heal poorly, while longitudinal tears heal more predictably.  Tear length, time from injury to repair, medial versus lateral meniscal tears, and the use of a fibrin clot have not been shown to consistently affect meniscal healing.  However, rim width, the distance of the tear site from the peripheral meniscocapsular junction (vascular supply), has been shown to have a significant role in the ability of a meniscus repair to heal.
REFERENCES: DeHaven KE, Arnoczky SP: Meniscus repair: Basic science, indications for repair, and open repair.  Instr Course Lect 1994;43:65-76.
Henning CE, Lynch MA, Clark JR: Vascularity for healing of meniscus repairs.  Arthroscopy 1987;3:13-18.

Question 28

A 10-lb, 2-oz infant who was born via a difficult breech delivery 12 hours ago is now being evaluated for hip pain. Although the infant is resting comfortably, examination reveals that the patient is not moving the right lower extremity and manipulation of the right hip causes the infant to cry. The Galeazzi sign is positive. An AP radiograph of the pelvis shows proximal and superior migration of the right proximal femoral metaphysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Transphyseal fractures of the proximal femur at birth are more likely to occur in large newborns after a difficult delivery.  At rest, the patients are comfortable and show a pseudoparalysis; however, passive motion of the lower extremity results in discomfort.  Teratologic hip dislocations will have a positive Galeazzi sign, but are not painful.  Development of a septic hip would be unlikely within 12 hours postpartum.  Congenital coxa vara is typically painless.  Postpartum ligamentous laxity might account for a positive Ortolani sign, but is painless.
REFERENCES: Weinstein JN, Kuo KN, Millar EA: Congenital coxa vara:  A retrospective review.  J Pediatr Orthop 1984;4:70-77.
Beaty JH: Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6.  Rosemont, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 409-425.

Question 29

BMP is FDA approved for well-defined medical conditions in limited patient populations. In which of the following clinical scenarios is use of rhBMP-2 FDA approved?





Explanation

rhBMP-2 is FDA approved for use together with the lumbar tapered fusion device (LT Cage; Medtronic) in single-level ALIF from L2 to S1 levels in degenerative disc disease.
rhBMP-2 is also FDA approved for use in open tibial shaft fractures stabilized with an IM nail and treated within 14 days of initial injury. rhBMP-7 has received FDA humanitarian device exemption approval as an alternative to autograft in recalcitrant long bone nonunions where use of autograft is unfeasible and alternative treatments have failed. It is also approved as an alternative to autograft in compromised patients (with osteoporosis, smoking or diabetes) requiring revision posterolateral/intertransverse lumbar fusion for whom autologous bone and bone marrow harvest are not feasible or are not expected to promote fusion.
Epstein reviewed the indications for rhBMP-2 use and its off-label use. She found that
anterior cervical surgery with BMP2 led to dysphagia and airway complications. With posterior lumbar spine surgery, complications included vertebral osteolysis (bone resorption) and ectopic bone formation/heterotopic ossifications, which made revision surgery difficult.
Burkus et al. prospectively compared 46 patients undergoing single-level ALIF with BMP-2 vs with autograft in an industry sponsored study. They found that patients receiving BMP-2 had higher rates of fusion and improvement in pain and neurologic status at 12 and 24 months compared with autograft, and there were no adverse events. They recommend rhBMP-2 in ALIF procedures to eliminate pain and scarring from iliac crest bone harvest.
Illustration A shows the FDA approved combination of INFUSE (rhBMP-2) and LT-CAGE device.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 30

A 42-year-old female with chronic discogenic back pain undergoes lumbar spine surgery via retroperitoneal approach. Figure A is the postoperative radiograph of her lumbar spine. Six weeks after the surgery the patient develops worsening low back pain. You obtain a radiograph of her lumbar spine, pictured in Figure B. What is the next best step in management? Review Topic





Explanation

This patient has a failed lumbar total disc replacement (TDR) with anterior dislocation of the polyethylene inlay and requires revision surgery, either revision arthroplasty or anterior interbody fusion, via retroperitoneal approach.
Management of failed TDR is dictated by (1) patient symptoms and (2) radiographic implant position. Asymptomatic patients with implant subsidence without extrusion can be managed with close observation. Patients with persistent symptomatic back pain relating to facet joint or implant microinstability in the setting of an otherwise well-positioned TDR can be treated with posterior stabilization alone. Symptomatic patients with unacceptable implant position (i.e. complete dislodgement, fracture) require either revision arthroplasty or conversion to arthrodesis (anterior +/-
posterior).
Harrison et al. authored a report detailing a case of failed L5-S1 TDR with anterior dislocation of the polyethylene inlay and bilateral L5 pars fractures noted 2 weeks postoperatively. It is unclear whether the pars defect was missed following previous microdiscectomy, acquired during instrumentation, or acquired postoperatively due to abnormal endplate forces during rehabilitation. The patient underwent removal of TDR components and revision to anterior arthrodesis followed by percutaneous fixation of the bilateral L5 pars fractures.
Patel et al. published a review of the literature regarding revision lumbar TDR. Retroperitoneal revision procedures are complicated by higher risk of injury to vascular structures (16.7% versus 3.6% at primary surgery) and urogenital structures due to adhesions. Revision surgery should only be performed by surgeons familiar with the retroperitoneal approach to the spine. Alternative surgical approaches, such as the far lateral approach, should be considered to access the anterior spine at L4-L5 and above.
Madigan et al. reviewed the management of lumbar degenerative disc disease (DDD). They state that TDR is a motion-sparing surgical option designed to temper the problem of adjacent-segment disease. They report that long-term studies are limited, but point out that several short-term comparisons between TDR and ALIF show equivalent improvement in pain and function, equal complication rate, shorter hospitalization and lower rate of reoperation in the TDR group.
Figure A is a lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine showing L5-S1 total disc replacement. Figure B is a lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine showing L5-S1 total disc replacement with anterior dislocation of the polyethylene inlay.
Incorrect Responses:

Question 31

A 14-year-old patient with an L3 myelomeningocele underwent anterior and posterior spinal fusion for a curve of 50°. Follow-up examination 1 week after the procedure now reveals persistent drainage from the posterior wound. Results of laboratory cultures show Streptococcus viridans, Staphylococcus aureus, and Enterococcus. In addition to IV antibiotics, surgical irrigation, and debridement, management should include





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The rate of wound infections has dramatically decreased with the routine use of prophylactic antibiotics.  Factors known to increase the risk of infection include instrumentation, prolonged surgical time, excessive blood loss, poor perioperative nutritional status, a history of surgery, and a history of infection.  The use of allograft does not result in an increased rate of infection.  Adequate treatment requires early diagnosis and intervention.  Temperature elevation and persistent wound drainage are highly suspicious for infection.  An erythrocyte sedimentation rate and a WBC are not useful in diagnosis unless serial examinations show rising levels.  Patients should be taken to the operating room where the entire wound can be reopened, irrigated, and debrided.  Bone graft can be washed and replaced.  Hardware should not be removed.  The wound should be closed over suction drains.  IV antibiotics should be given for a period of at least 10 days, followed by 6 weeks orally.  Leaving the wound open to granulate with dressing changes results in prolonged hospitalization, inadequate treatment of the infection, and a poor cosmetic result.
REFERENCES: Lonstein JE:  Complications of treatment, in Bradford DS, Lonstein JE, Moe JH, et al (eds): Moe’s Textbook of Scoliosis and Other Spinal Deformities, ed 2.  Philadelphia, Pa, WB Saunders, 1987, p 476.
Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6.  Rosemont, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 713-721.

Question 32

An 8-year-old boy falls and injures his thumb. A radiograph is shown in Figure 23. Initial management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a complete simple dislocation of the metacarpophalangeal joint.  The clue to this injury is the perpendicular alignment of the proximal phalanx to the metacarpal on the lateral radiograph.  This must be differentiated from the complete complex dislocation pattern that is irreducible because of the interposed volar plate.  In lateral radiographs of these injuries, the long axes of the proximal phalanx and the metacarpal are parallel.  Simple dislocations are amenable to closed reduction and casting.  Some authors have recommended ulnar collateral ligament repair if instability is detected on examination after reduction.
REFERENCES: O’Brien ET: Part IV: Dislocations of hand and carpus, in Rockwood CA Jr, Wilkins KE, Beaty JH (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 4.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 3, pp 429-431.
Bohart PC, Gelberman RH, Vardell RF, Solomon PB: Complex dislocations of the MCP joint.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1974;56:1459-1463.

Question 33

03 Figure 33 shows the radiograph of a 48-year-old man who sustained a fracturedislocation of his dominant arm and a significant head injury in a fall from a roof. Eight days after injury he is medically cleared for surgery. Treatment should consist of




Explanation

As stated, the radiograph shows a multiple-part fracture dislocation of the
proximal humerus, with what appears to be a head-splitting component. Answer 1
(rotator cuff repair) is certainly not indicated yet – maybe as a secondary procedure
once the bone is healed, or as a subsequent procedure while dealing with the fracture.
Similar to question #109, there is no need to resurface the glenoid unless we have
evidence of significant degenerative changes, which we don’t. ORIF of head-splitting
fractures hasn’t had any promising results, and AVN is always an issue here. Both
articles referenced discuss the outcomes of acute hemiarthroplasty in the
treatment of 3- and 4-part proximal humerus fractures versus late replacement for
failed non-operative treatment, and the benefits of early management in regards
to difficulty of procedure, post-operative pain, and functional ROM/strength outcomes. Arthrodesis is a viable option, but not with the good results of hemiarthroplasty as evidenced here.
Goldman RT, Koval KJ, Cumom F, Gallagher MA, Zuckerman JD: Functional outcome after humeral head replacement for acute three- and four-part proximal humeral fractures. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:81-86.
Norris TR, Green A, McGuigan FX: Late prosthetic shoulder arthroplasty for displaced proximal humerus fracture. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:271-280.
back to this question next question

Question 34

Late surgical treatment of posttraumatic cubitus varus (gunstock deformity) is usually necessitated by the patient reporting problems related to





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Cubitus varus, elbow hyperextension, and internal rotation are all typical components of the gunstock deformity.  This deformity results from malunion of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus.  All of the problems listed above have been reported as sequelae of a gunstock deformity, although the malunion usually causes no functional limitations.  Unacceptable appearance is the most common reason why patients or parents request

corrective osteotomy.  

REFERENCES: O’Driscoll SW, Spinner RJ, McKee MD, et al: Tardy posterolateral rotatory instability of the elbow due to cubitus varus.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1358-1369.
Gurkan I, Bayrakci K, Tasbas B, et al: Posterior instability of the shoulder after supracondylar fractures recovered with cubitus varus deformity.  J Pediatr Orthop 2002;22:198-202.
Spinner RJ, O’Driscoll SW, Davids JR, et al: Cubitus varus associated with dislocation of both the medial portion of the triceps and the ulnar nerve.  J Hand Surg 1999;24:718-726.

Question 35

At the first postoperative visit after mini-open carpal tunnel release, a patient reports hand weakness. Poor index finger interphalangeal joint extension and metacarpophalangeal joint flexion are present. This finding is most consistent with




Explanation

EXPLANATION:
Complications after carpal tunnel release are relatively uncommon. The clinical picture described above is most consistent with lumbrical muscle weakness secondary to neuropraxia of the proper palmar digital nerve to the index finger supplying motor innervation to that muscle. The recurrent motor branch of the median nerve innervates the thenar musculature and would not present as index finger weakness. A new onset of trigger finger may result from a loss of the pulley effect of the transverse carpal ligament, postoperative tendon inflammation, or previously unrecognized flexor tendon triggering. Flexor digitorum profundus to the index finger lies deep within the carpal tunnel, making its injury unlikely. If it were injured, the result would not be weakness of interphalangeal joint extension.        

Question 36

A 14-year-old boy has medial ankle pain, progressive unilateral flatfoot deformity, and pain with most activities of daily living. He denies any recent injury. His parents recall that at age 7 years he sustained an injury that was treated as a sprain. Examination reveals valgus deformity with painless, unrestricted passive motion of the ankle. He has grossly equal limb lengths. A radiograph of the affected ankle is shown in Figure 48a, and the contralateral ankle is shown in Figure 48b. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Angular deformities of the ankle can occur following physeal injury.  While an orthosis may be beneficial, the deformity is at the level of the ankle rather than the hindfoot.  An epiphysiodesis or physeal bar resection would not be indicated as the growth plates are closed.  Correction of the angular deformity should level the ankle joint and normalize the weight-bearing stresses on the ankle.  This is most easily achieved with a closing wedge distal tibial osteotomy with or without concomitant osteotomy of the fibula.
REFERENCES: Thompson DM, Calhoun JH: Advanced techniques in foot and ankle reconstruction.  Foot Ankle Clin 2000;5:417-442.
Ting AJ, Tarr RR, Sarmiento A, Wagner K, Resnick C: The role of subtalar motion and ankle contact pressure changes from angular deformities of the tibia.  Foot Ankle 1987;7:290-299.
Tarr RR, Resnick CT, Wagner KS, Sarmiento A: Changes in tibiotalar joint contact areas following experimentally induced tibial angular deformities.  Clin Orthop 1985;199:72-80.

Question 37

What nerve is at the highest risk for injury with a percutaneous repair of an Achilles tendon injury?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Cadaver and clinical studies have shown that the sural nerve is at the highest risk for injury with a percutaneous repair of the Achilles tendon. 
REFERENCE: Hockenbury RT, Johns JC: A biomechanical in vitro comparison of open versus percutaneous repair of tendon Achilles.  Foot Ankle 1990;11:67-72.

Question 38

A B Figures 60a and 60b are the postmyelography CT images of a 62-year-old man who has had low-back and bilateral lower-extremity pain. His pain began approximately 1 year ago and there was no precipitating event. The location of the pain is in the lower lumbar region in the midline and it radiates into the buttocks and thighs bilaterally. The pain is exacerbated by standing and walking and relieved by forward spine flexion. He reports no pain while sitting or lying supine. Upright radiographs demonstrate 4 mm of anterolisthesis of L4 on L5. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
This patient radiographically has L4-5 degenerative stenosis and a low-grade spondylolisthesis. The axial images demonstrate a gap in the facet joint, more on the left than the right, which is highly suggestive of dynamic instability. Thus, this patient would most benefit from a laminectomy and fusion of L4-5. A microdiskectomy would not be helpful as this patient does not have a disk herniation. Patients undergoing posterior decompression alone experience an unacceptably high rate of recurrent stenosis and/or progression of spondylolisthesis. Early studies demonstrated that adding an intertransverse process fusion to posterior decompression significantly improved clinical outcomes. Anterior interbody fusion likely will not decompress the spinal canal sufficiently, though there is some thought that indirect decompression can be effective in some cases.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Frymoyer JW. Degenerative Spondylolisthesis: Diagnosis and Treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 1994 Jan;2(1):9-15. PubMed PMID: 10708989. Majid K, Fischgrund JS. Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis: trends in management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg. 2008 Apr;16(4):208-15. Review. PubMed PMID: 18390483. View Abstract at PubMed
Carlisle E, Fischgrund JS. Lumbar spinal stenosis and degenerative spondylolisthesis. In: Spivak JM, Connolly PJ, eds. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2006: 299-317.
Puschak TJ, Sasso RC. Spondylolysis-spondylolisthesis. In: Vaccaro AR, ed. Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL: American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons; 2005:553-563.

Question 39

The clinical photograph in Figure 27 shows a palsy of what nerve/associated muscle? Review Topic





Explanation

The clinical picture reveals medial scapular winging, which involves the serratus anterior muscle, potentially due to an injury to the long thoracic nerve that innervates this muscle. Injury to the long thoracic nerve is usually due to closed trauma, direct compression, traction or stretching injury, a direct blow, or, very rarely, viral infection
such as Parsonage-Turner syndrome. The nerve is easily injured in surgical dissection of the axilla, and is predisposed to injury due to its relatively long course, it is small in diameter, and it has little surrounding connective tissue. If rehabilitation and time are unsuccessful, both nerve and muscle transfers have been described with mixed results.

Question 40

A college basketball player is struck in the eye by a player’s hand while driving to the basket. Fluorescein evaluation reveals the injury shown in Figure 18. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The athlete has a corneal abrasion.  Fluorescein staining identifies the break in the epithelium when examined with ultraviolet light.  Topical antibiotics are used as prophylaxis against secondary bacterial infection, and the patch, applied with the lid closed, is used for comfort and to promote epithelial healing.  The accompanying symptoms, including pain, tearing, and photophobia, are usually too intense to allow a return to play.  Surgery is reserved for a corneal laceration with associated loss of the anterior chamber.  While a proper fundoscopic examination may be a consideration, increased intraocular pressure is not typically associated with this injury.  Traumatic hemorrhage in the anterior chamber (hyphema) necessitates strict bed rest during the early phases of healing; examination will most likely reveal the red fluid level of blood settling inferiorly in the anterior chamber.  It is often associated with increased intraocular pressure.
REFERENCES: Brucker AJ, Kozart DM, Nichols CW, et al: Diagnosis and management of injuries to the eye and orbit, in Torg JS (ed): Athletic Injuries to the Head, Neck, and Face.  St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1991, pp 650-670.
Zagelbaum BM: Treating corneal abrasions and lacerations.  Phys Sports Med 1997;25:38-44.

Question 41

In patients undergoing elective hip or knee arthroplasty who are not at elevated risk (beyond the risk associated with the surgery) for venous thromboembolism or bleeding, using pharmacologic agents and/or mechanical compressive devices for the prevention of venous thromboembolism was assigned what grade of recommendation by the 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Using pharmacologic agents and/or mechanical compressive devices for the prevention of venous thromboembolism in patients undergoing elective hip or knee arthroplasty who are not at elevated risk beyond that of the surgery itself for venous thromboembolism or bleeding was given a moderate grade of recommendation in the 2011 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline referenced above.

Question 42

Which of the following is a recognized consequence of hip fusion?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Low back pain is an expected long-term complication of fusion; ipsilateral knee laxity is frequently encountered, as is degeneration of the contralateral hip.  Hip fusion is equally valuable for both men and women, with both genders reporting satisfactory sexual function.  Female patients often deliver by elective Cesarean section, although vaginal deliveries are reported. 
REFERENCES: Liechti R (ed): Hip Arthrodesis and Associated Problems.  Berlin, Germany, Springer-Verlag, 1978, pp 109-117.
Sponseller PD, McBeath AA, Perpich M: Hip arthrodesis in young patients: A long-term follow-up study.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:853-859.

Question 43

Figure below shows the radiograph obtained from a 73-year-old woman who returns status post total hip arthroplasty 14 years earlier. She denies pain and has no discomfort on examination. She then undergoes revision total hip arthroplasty with head and liner exchange and bone grafting. After a physical therapy session two days after surgical intervention, she develops inability to dorsiflex the foot while she is sitting in a chair. The initial treatment should consist of




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Gamma irradiation produces free radicals. Although these free radicals can form cross-links with other polyethylene chains, the free radicals can also form a bond with oxygen, resulting in early oxidation. Gamma irradiation in air produces the highest risk for oxidized polyethylene, resulting in the highest risk for  wear,  delamination,  and  subsequent  osteolysis.  This  patient  demonstrates  severe  periarticular osteolysis. When she is asymptomatic, this suggests the acetabular and femoral components remain well fixed  to  the  bone.  Consequently,  she  can  be  treated  by  removing  the  wear  generator  (polyethylene exchange),  along  with  bone  grafting  of  the  osteolytic  defect.  Considering  the  extensive  amount  of osteolysis indefinite observation would not be appropriate. A foot drop develops 2 days after surgery. As a result, it can be assumed that the nerve was not injured directly during the surgical procedure. Although MRI or CT may be indicated to identify an evolving hematoma, the immediate concern is to minimize pressure  on  the  sciatic  nerve.  Tension  on  the  nerve  can  be  reduced  by  flexing  the  surgical  knee  and positioning the bed flat.

Question 44

A 7-year-old girl with spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type II has popping of the left hip. Examination reveals painless subluxation of the joint in adduction with palpable reduction in abduction. Radiographs show coxa valga, subluxation of the left hip, and pelvic obliquity with elevation of the left hemipelvis. Treatment should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Observation is the treatment of choice.  Hip subluxation and dislocation are not uncommon in patients with SMA type II who are unlikely to be ambulatory.  Scoliosis occurs in these patients 100% of the time and frequently creates pelvic obliquity.  However, in long-term follow-up, patients with SMA type II and hip dislocations had little associated pain or functional limitations because of hip instability.  In addition, recurrent hip subluxation after surgical treatment has been documented.  Given the rarity of symptoms from hip instability in long-term follow-up, and the possibility of recurrent dislocation, surgical intervention for hip instability may expose SMA type II patients to undue surgical risk for minimal if any functional gain.
REFERENCES: Sporer SM, Smith BG: Hip dislocation in patients with spinal muscular atrophy.  J Pediatr Orthop 2003;23:10-14.
Thompson CE, Larsen LJ: Recurrent hip dislocation in intermediate spinal atrophy. 

J Pediatr Orthop 1990;10:638-641.

Question 45

A 32-year-old man sustained a fracture of his upper arm in a motor vehicle accident. Radiographs are shown in Figure 32. Because of other associated injuries, surgical stabilization is chosen. What technique will result in the least complications and the best outcome?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most humeral fractures will heal with nonsurgical functional brace management.  When the initial pain has subsided in a coaptation splint, the patient is converted to a functional brace and allowed to use the arm for activities.  The fracture should heal within 6 weeks to 12 weeks with acceptable results.  Surgery is indicated if there is vascular injury, open injury, floating elbow, chest injury, bilateral humeral fractures, or if a reduction cannot be obtained or maintained.  The surgical treatment of choice is either antegrade reamed locked intramedullary nailing or plate osteosynthesis.  Plate osteosynthesis appears to offer better results with respect to union, function, and risk of complications.
REFERENCES: Schemitsch EH, Bhandari M: Fractures of the humeral shaft, in Browner BD: Skeletal Trauma, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, pp 1481-1511.
Chapman JR, Henley MB, Agel J: Randomized prospective study of humeral shaft fracture fixation: Intramedullary nails versus plates.  J Orthop Trauma  2000;14:162-166.

Question 46

An active 65-year-old man has pain in the left shoulder 5 years after undergoing a hemiarthroplasty. He has a remote history of two previous instability operations. Examination reveals that forward elevation is 140 degrees and external rotation is 40 degrees. Serologic studies for infection are negative. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 7a and 7b. What surgical procedure will provide the most predictable pain relief and function? Review Topic





Explanation

The radiographs show glenoid arthrosis, which is common after a hemiarthroplasty. Conversion to a conventional total shoulder arthroplasty with placement of a glenoid component predictably decreases pain and improves function. There is no indication for a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty because the patient has 140 degrees of elevation with an intact rotator cuff. Biologic resurfacing has more unpredictable results and is usually reserved for younger patients in whom a prosthetic glenoid component might not be desired. Both resection arthroplasty and arthrodesis are associated with poor function.

Question 47

The modified Brostrom lateral ankle ligamentous reconstruction uses which of the following structures to provide supplementary stabilization?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The modified Brostrom lateral ankle ligament stabilization procedure uses the remnants of the anterior talofibular and the calcaneofibular ligaments, supplemented by the inferior retinaculum and the transferred talocalcaneal ligament to stabilize the lateral ankle.  Chrisman and associates described the use of one half of the peroneus brevis.  Watson-Jones and Evans used the entire peroneus brevis.  The peroneus longus has been taken by mistake.  The plantaris has been used in triligamentous reconstruction.
REFERENCES: Gould N, Seligson D, Gassman J: Early and late repair of lateral ligament of the ankle.  Foot Ankle 1980;1:84-89.
Hamilton WG, Thompson FM, Snow SW: The modified Brostrom procedure for lateral ankle instability.  Foot Ankle 1993;14:1-7.
Chrisman OD, Snook GA: Reconstruction of lateral ligament tears of the ankle: An experimental study and clinical evaluation of seven patients treated by a new modification of the Elmslie procedure.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1969;51:904-912.
Evans DL: Recurrent instability of the ankle: My method of surgical treatment.  Proc R Soc Med 1953;46:343.
Watson-Jones R: Fractures and Joint Injuries, ed 3.  Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1946, p 234.
Liu SH, Baker CL: Comparison of lateral ankle ligamentous reconstruction procedures.  Am J Sports Med 1994;22:313-317.
Brostrom L: Sprained ankles: VI. Surgical treatment of “chronic” ligament ruptures.  Acta Chir Scand 1966;132:551-565.

Question 48

Figures 35a and 35b show the radiographs of a patient who underwent debridement of a chronically infected, fully constrained knee prosthesis and now reports pain and instability despite bracing. History reveals that the patient has had no drainage since undergoing the last debridement 6 months ago. A C-reactive protein level and aspiration are negative for infection. Treatment should now consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show a significant loss of the proximal anterior tibial cortex, consistent with an extensively damaged or deficient extensor mechanism.  Such a deficit precludes insertion of another knee arthroplasty.  Arthrodesis is the treatment of choice for this patient and is indicated for loss of the extensor mechanism and knee instability.  A recent report on arthrodesis following removal of an infected prosthesis showed a union rate of 91% using a short intramedullary nail.  Insertion of an antibiotic-impregnated PMMA spacer is not indicated because the rationale for using a spacer is to maintain a space for reinsertion of another prosthesis.  Reconstruction of the extensor mechanism would not address the loss of the joint.  Amputation is the final treatment option if the arthrodesis fails.  
REFERENCES: Rand JA: Alternatives to reimplantation for salvage of the total knee arthroplasty complicated by infection.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:282-289.
Lai KA, Shen WJ, Yang CY: Arthrodesis with a short Huckstep nail as a salvage procedure for failed total knee arthroplasty.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:380-388.
Damron TA, McBeath AA: Arthrodesis following failed total knee arthroplasty: Comprehensive review and meta-analysis of recent literature.  Orthopedics 1995;18:361-368.

Question 49

In the Lauge-Hansen classification system, a pronation-abduction ankle fracture has what characteristic fibular fracture pattern?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In the Lauge-Hansen classification, the characteristic fibular fracture pattern in a pronation-abduction injury is a comminuted fibular fracture above the level of the syndesmosis. In the first stage of this injury pattern, the deltoid fails in tension, or an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus occurs. In the second stage, the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament ruptures, or a small bony avulsion of this ligament's insertion/origin occurs. The final stage includes the creation of a comminuted fibular fracture above the level of the syndesmosis. The referenced article by Siegel et al noted that extraperiosteal bridge plating of these ankle injuries was safe and had excellent radiographic and clinical outcomes at final follow-up.

Question 50

Figure 11 shows a consecutive sequence of MRI scans obtained in a 12-year-old boy who has had increasing lateral knee pain and catching for the past 6 months. Examination reveals pain localized to the lateral joint line. Range-of-motion testing reveals a 5-degree lack of full extension on the involved side. Plain radiographs and laboratory values are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate management?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Discoid menisci are rare causes of lateral knee pain in children.  Various etiologies have been proposed, including failure of central absorption of the developing meniscus and hereditary transmission.  Patients with discoid menisci have pain, clicking, and locking with a loss of active extension on range-of-motion testing.  Classification of discoid menisci according to the Watanabe classification include complete, incomplete, and Wrisberg ligament type.  The Wrisberg variant contains an abnormal posterior meniscal attachment.  MRI is the diagnostic tool of choice, revealing a thick, flat meniscus generally seen in three consecutive MRI images.  Symptomatic knees are often associated with a meniscal tear or degeneration and are managed with arthroscopic partial excision to a more normal shape (saucerization). 
REFERENCES: Vandermeer RD, Cunningham FK: Arthroscopic treatment of the discoid lateral meniscus: Results of long-term follow-up.  Arthroscopy 1989;5:101-109.
Bellier G, Dupont JY, Larrain M, et al: Lateral discoid menisci in children.  Arthroscopy 1989;5:52-56.

Question 51

Following application of a short leg cast, a patient reports a complete foot drop. A compression injury of the peroneal nerve at the fibular neck is confirmed by electrical studies. Which of the following muscles is expected to be the last to recover function during the ensuing months?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The recovery process from peroneal nerve palsy may take many months as axonal regrowth occurs.  Of the muscles listed, the extensor hallucis is innervated most distally by the peroneal nerve.  The flexor digitorum longus is innervated by the tibial nerve.
REFERENCE: Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle, Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1993, p 364.

Question 52

A 56-year-old woman who underwent axillary node dissection 4 months ago now reports shoulder pain, weakness of forward elevation, and obvious winging of the scapula. What structure has been injured?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior, is prone to injury because of its superficial location along the chest wall.  The long thoracic nerve is derived from the roots of C5, C6, and C7.  The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius, and the thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi.  The posterior cord of the brachial plexus provides the axillary and the radial nerves.
REFERENCES: Hollinshead WH: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3.  Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, pp 259-340.
Marmor L, Bechtal CO: Paralysis of the serratus anterior due to electric shock relieved by transplantation of the pectoralis major muscle: A case report.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;45:156-160.

Question 53

Turf toe typically involves injury to which of the following structures of the great toe?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The term turf toe includes a range of injuries of the capsuloligamentous complex of the first metatarsophalangeal joint with or without osteochondral fracture of the first metatarsal head or one of the sesamoids.  The mechanism of injury is hyperextension.
REFERENCES: Clanton TO, Butler JE, Eggert A: Injuries to the metatarsophalangeal joints in athletes.  Foot Ankle 1986;7:162-176.
Sammarco GJ: How I manage turf toe.  Phys Sports Med 1988;16:113-118.

Question 54

What radiographic measurement is best used to assess the adequacy of deformity correction for the patient shown in Figure 22?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Developmental coxa vara develops in early childhood and results in a progressive decrease in the proximal femoral neck-shaft angle with growth.  The characteristic radiographic features are seen in this patient and include a decreased neck-shaft angle, a more vertical position of the physeal plate, and a triangular metaphyseal fragment in the inferior femoral neck, surrounded by an inverted radiolucent Y pattern.  The main goal of surgery is to correct the varus angulation into a more normal range.  Valgus overcorrection is preferred.  A recent study emphasized the importance of adequately correcting the Hilgenreiner physeal angle to less than 38 degrees to minimize the risk of recurrent angulation.  No study has documented the use of any of the other listed radiographic measurements to the outcome of treating developmental coxa vara.
REFERENCES: Carroll K, Coleman S, Stevens PM: Coxa vara: Surgical outcomes of valgus osteotomies.  J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:220-224.
Cordes S, Dickens DR, Cole WG: Correction of coxa vara in childhood: The use of Pauwels’ Y-shaped osteotomy.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 1991;73:3-6.

Question 55

An extended head hemiarthroplasty (rotator cuff tear arthropathy head) has what theoretic advantage when compared to a standard hemiarthroplasty? Review Topic





Explanation

The theoretic advantage of a metal-to-bone articulation with the acromion is that there is a greater arc in which a smooth metal surface contacts the glenoid and acromion. This may improve pain and function, but no studies have evaluated this to date. One study showed results comparable to that of a standard hemiarthroplasty. There are no other biomechanic advantages.

Question 56

An athletic 55-year-old man reports a painless mass in the anterior aspect of the thigh that appeared 3 weeks ago and has not changed in size. The patient denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a firm, well-defined nontender mass in the anterior thigh and no inguinal adenopathy or cutaneous changes. Plain radiographs are unremarkable. T1- and T2-weighted MRI scans are shown in Figures 44a and 44b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The presence of a painless soft-tissue mass that is greater than 5 cm and deep to the fascia should be considered a soft-tissue sarcoma until proven otherwise.  The diagnosis of a hematoma should be made with great caution because the absence of a history of trauma, pain, or presence of ecchymosis makes it unlikely.  A diagnosis of pyomyositis is unlikely because of the absence of warmth, erythema, or adenopathy.  The MRI scans are not consistent with lipoma or hemangioma.  The MRI signal characteristics of a lipoma should be the same as subcutaneous fat on all sequences.  Soft-tissue hemangiomas are not well defined and have an infiltrative appearance on MRI scans, as does pyomyositis.  
REFERENCES: Sim FH, Frassica FJ, Frassica DA: Soft-tissue tumors: Diagnosis, evaluation and management.  J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:202-211.
Kransdorf MJ, Jelinek JS, Moser RP Jr, et al: Soft-tissue masses: Diagnosis using MR imaging.  Am J Roentgenol 1989;153:541-547.

Question 57

A 21-year-old man has had right groin pain for the past year. A radiograph, CT scan, MRI scans, and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 50a through 50e. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The pathology demonstrates a very cellular chondroid matrix with multinucleated forms, atypia, and myxomatous regions.  This is most consistent with a myxoid chondrosarcoma.  The radiograph shows a well-circumscribed lesion in the superior and medial aspect of the right acetabulum.  The CT and MRI scans confirm these same findings with no evidence of matrix mineralization or significant surrounding edema.  Unfortunately, in this location with this appearance, the radiographic differential diagnosis includes all the diagnoses listed. 
REFERENCES: Terek RM: Recent advances in the basic science of chondrosarcoma.  Orthop Clin North Am 2006;37:9-14.
Donati D, El Ghoneimy A, Bertoni F, et al: Surgical treatment and outcome of conventional pelvic chondrosarcoma.  J Bone Joint Surg Br 2005;87:1527-1530.
Pring ME, Weber KL, Unni KK, et al: Chondrosarcoma of the pelvis: A review of sixty-four cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1630-1642.

Question 58

A 57-year-old woman  experiences pain 1 year  after  total knee arthroplasty (TKA).  She reports sharp anterior pain and a painful catching sensation that is aggravated by rising from a chair or climbing stairs. Physical examination reveals a mild effusion and a range of motion of 2° to 130°, with patellar crepitus. The symptoms are reproduced by resisted knee extension. Radiographs show a well-aligned posterior- stabilized TKA without evidence of component loosening. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Patellar clunk syndrome is caused by the development of a fibrous nodule on the posterior aspect of the quadriceps tendon at its insertion into the patella. It causes a painful catching sensation when the extensor
mechanism traverses over the trochlear notch as the knee extends from 45° of flexion to 30° from full extension. It characteristically occurs in posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasties and appears to be related to femoral component design. The syndrome can usually be prevented by excising the residual synovial  fold  just  proximal  to  the  patella.  Flexion  gap  instability  can  also  cause  a  painful  total  knee arthroplasty but is  less  common in posterior  stabilized implants. Femoral component  malrotation  can cause pain attributable to a flexion gap imbalance or patellar tracking problems. Polyethylene wear would be  unlikely  after  just  1  year.  Patellar  clunk  syndrome  can  usually  be  addressed  successfully  with arthroscopic  synovectomy.  Recurrence  is  uncommon.  Physical  therapy  may  help  to  strengthen  the quadriceps  following  synovectomy but would  not resolve the clunk syndrome symptoms. Femoral or tibial insert revision is not indicated if patellar clunk syndrome is the only problem resulting in a painful
total knee arthroplasty.

Question 59

Cortical bone demonstrates viscoelastic behavior as its mechanical properties are sensitive to strain rate and duration of applied load. Regarding longitudinal strain in cortical bone, which of the following statements regarding this characteristic is true?





Explanation

As strain rate increases, both elastic modulus and ultimate strength increase.
For LOW strain rates typical of normal activity (physiological strain rates of <0.1/s), bone is ELASTIC and DUCTILE (increasing ultimate strain with increasing strain rate). There is a ductile-to-brittle transition with increasing strain rate from normal to
supranormal rates. For EXTREMELY HIGH supranormal strain rates (>0.1/s, high impact trauma), bone is VISCOELASTIC and BRITTLE (low ultimate strain with increasing strain rate). Bone also becomes stronger and stiffer (higher modulus, steeper slope of stress-strain plot) as strain rate increases. This viscoelastic property helps in damping muscle contracture.
Natali and Meroi reviewed studies examining mechanical properties of bone. Mechanical properties are correlated with moisture, deformation rate, density and region of bone. Mechanical adaptation of bone is affected by strain rate (rate at which bone is deformed), strain mode (tension, compression, shear), strain direction (direction of strain relative to bone surface), strain frequency (cycles/second), stimulus duration (period over which deformation cycles are applied), strain distribution (pattern of strain magnitude across bone section) and strain energy (energy stored during deformation).
Illustration A shows the mechanical properties of bone with increasing strain rates. Incorrect Answers:
increase. During normal activity, as strain rate increases, bone is more ductile. With high impact trauma, bone is more brittle.

Question 60

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of gentamycin?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Gentamycin and the aminoglycosides (ie, streptomycin, tobramycin, amikacin, and neomycin) work by binding to the 30s ribosome subunit, leading to the misreading of mRNA.  This misreading results in the synthesis of abnormal peptides that accumulate intracellularly and eventually lead to cell death.  These antibiotics are bactericidal.  Cephalosporins, vancomycin, and penicillins interfere with cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the transpeptidase enzyme.  Polymyxin, nystatin, and amphotericin increase cell membrane permeability by disrupting the functional integrity of the cell membrane.  The quinolones inhibit the enzyme, DNA gyrase.  Lastly, metronidazole forms oxygen radicals that are toxic to anaerobic organisms because they lack the protective enzymes, superoxide dismutase and catalase.
REFERENCE: Buckwalter JA, Einhorn TA, Simon SR (eds): Orthopaedic Basic Science: Biology and Biomechanics of the Musculoskeletal System, ed 2.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 217-236.

Question 61

An year-old obese woman has left knee pain. She had surgery 5 years ago for a patellar nonunion after total knee arthroplasty that was complicated by infection, which was treated with implant removal and patellectomy. She has not been ambulatory since then. She states she is no longer on antibiotics. She has moderate pain, but her primary problem is instability of the knee. She has a 40° extensor lag. Darkening of the skin is present distal to the incision consistent with venous stasis changes. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 12 mm/h (reference range 0 to 20 mm/h) and her C-reactive protein level is 0 mg/L (reference range 08 to 1 mg/L). Left knee aspiration shows a white blood cell count of 800 and 20% neutrophils. What is the best next step?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
This  patient  is  elderly,  obese,  and  nonambulatory  and  has  a  chronic  quadriceps  tendon  rupture  after infected total knee arthroplasty. Her potential for ambulation after revision total knee arthroplasty is very low. Primary repair of the tendon is unlikely to be successful, even with augmentation, so revision total knee arthroplasty with primary quadriceps tendon repair and two-stage revision knee arthroplasty and quadricep repair with Achilles allograft are not the best management techniques. Extensor mechanism allograft could be done but would have a high failure rate in a patient of this size. No sign of infection is seen,  based  on  laboratory  studies,  so  a  two-stage  procedure  is  not  necessary.  The  best  management although not optimal, would be treatment in a drop-lock brace. Arthrodesis is also an option, but would have a high complication rate, and in a patient that is nonambulatory, a fused knee would be increasingly
difficult with activities of daily living and mobility.

Question 62

During an anterior approach to the bicipital 53 tuberosity, you encounter a nerve overlying the brachioradialis fascia (Figure 58). It provides innervation to the




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The structure shown is the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABC). It is the terminal sensory branch of the musculocutaneous nerve and runs superficial to the brachioradialis. It supplies sensation to the anterolateral surface of the forearm. The flexor pollicis longus is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve. The extensor indicis proprius is innervated by the radial nerve. The LABC does not innervate the skin of the anteromedial forearm. Careful
identification and protection of this nerve is critical to prevent the most common nerve injury during distal biceps repair.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Agur AM. Grant's Atlas of Human Anatomy. 10th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 1999:460.
Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P. Surgical Exposures in Orthopedics. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins; 1994:118-125.
RESPONSES FOR QUESTIONS 59 THROUGH 61

Please select the image that represents the most appropriate response to the question or statement below.

Question 63

A 25-year-old male is involved in an high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a closed femoral shaft fracture. During further evaluation, a CT scan of the chest/abdomen/pelvis reveals a non-displaced ipsilateral femoral neck fracture. Which of the following treatment options will most likely achieve anatomic healing of both fractures, mobilize the patient, and minimize the risk of complications?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: An ipsilateral femoral neck fracture occurs in approximately 6% to 9% of all femoral shaft fractures. A comminuted midshaft femoral fracture secondary to axial loading should alert the treating physician to the possibility of an associated femoral neck fracture. As a result, trauma CT scans should be reviewed for non to minimally displaced femoral neck fractures during the initial work up. Watson et al did a retrospective review of 13 patients who had healing complications develop after their index surgical procedure for ipsilateral femoral shaft and neck fractures. Six of the eight (75%) femoral neck nonunions occurred after the use of a second generation, reconstruction-type intramedullary nail. Factors contributing to nonunion of the femoral shaft were the presence of an open fracture, use of an unreamed, small diameter intramedullary nail, and prolonged delay to weightbearing. Lag screw fixation of the femoral neck fracture and reamed intramedullary nailing for shaft fracture stabilization were associated with the fewest complications. Peljovich et al discuss that several treatment options are described in the literature, but no clear consensus exists regarding the optimal treatment of neck/shaft fractures. Due to the the potentially devastating complications of the femoral neck fracture in young patients (avascular necrosis, nonunion, and malunion), the neck fracture should be treated first followed by the shaft. Current recommendations involve treating the neck with a sliding hip screw versus cannulated screws followed by intramedullary nailing of the femoral shaft.

Question 64

In recurrent posterior shoulder instability, what is the recommended approach to the posterior capsule?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Using an infraspinatus-splitting incision allows for excellent exposure of the posterior capsule and minimizes the risk of injury to the axillary nerve which lies inferior to the teres minor in the quadrilateral space.
REFERENCES: Dreese J, D’Alessandro D: Posterior capsulorrhaphy through infraspinatus split for posterior instability.  Tech Shoulder Elbow Surg 2005;6:199-207.
Shaffer BS, Conway J, Jobe FW, et al: Infraspinatus muscle-splitting incision in posterior shoulder surgery: An anatomic and electromyographic study.  Am J Sports Med 1994;22:113-120.
Fuchs B, Jost B, Gerber C: Posterior-inferior capsular shift for the treatment of recurrent voluntary posterior subluxation of the shoulder.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:16-25.


Question 65

Which of the following anatomic changes is observed as part of the normal aging process of the adult spine?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The primary change that takes place in the aging spine is degeneration of the lumbar disks and loss of the overall lumbar lordosis. This also may be associated with osteopenic-related compression fractures.  With these changes, the sagittal vertical line moves anteriorly relative to the sacrum; cervical scoliosis is uncommon and not part of the normal aging process.  Overall kyphosis in the thoracic spine gradually increases, but the coronal balance remains essentially the same unless scoliosis develops.
REFERENCES: Gelb DE, Lenke LG, Bridwell KH, et al: An analysis of sagittal spinal alignment in 100 asymptomatic middle and older aged volunteers.  Spine 1995;20:1351-1358.
Vedantam R, Lenke LG, Keeney JA, et al: Comparison of standing sagittal spinal alignment in asymptomatic adolescents and adults.  Spine 1998;23:211-215.

Question 66

What type of nerve palsy is most common following elbow arthroscopy?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Transient ulnar nerve palsy is the most common palsy following elbow arthroscopy.  The ulnar nerve is most frequently affected, followed by the radial nerve.  Injury to the other nerves has been reported but less frequently.
REFERENCES: Kelly EW, Morrey BF, O’Driscoll SW: Complications of elbow arthroscopy. 

J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:25-34.

Morrey BF: Elbow complication, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3.   Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2001, pp 519-522.

Question 67

A patient underwent an open reduction and internal fixation of a calcaneus fracture 6 months ago via an extensile lateral approach. He now reports burning pain on the lateral side of his ankle and foot. A local cortisone injection at the site of the tenderness, about 7 cm above the lateral heel, provided temporary relief of the pain. What is the recommended course of management for the persistent burning pain?





Explanation

The patient has a sural nerve neuroma, which is a known complication of the extensile lateral approach. Of the available choices, excision and burial of the sural nerve in muscle or vein is the best choice because it gives better pain relief due to the better blood supply in muscle than bone. Recent authors advocate burying the nerve in vein as the best option. Neuroplasty is a possibility (but not of the superficial peroneal nerve), but the sural nerve is usually very sensitive and often pain relief with a release is incomplete. Additionally, implant removal is not indicated because of the patient's complaints; also, the implants should not be removed at 6 months. A subtalar fusion is the choice for posttraumatic arthritis from the calcaneus fracture. Electromyography/nerve conduction velocity studies are reasonable choices if there was an indication the pain could be coming from the back or there was no clear evidence of a sural nerve neuroma.

Question 68

Which Morton neuroma histology is most common?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Morton neuroma is a compressive neuropathy of the interdigital nerves of the forefoot that most commonly is noted in the third web space. Perineural fibrosis is commonly noted on microscopic examination of resected tissue. This accounts for the relatively higher failure rate of neuroma decompression by transection of the intermetatarsal ligament as opposed to resection. Wallerian degeneration is seen following axonal transection in the distal part of the nerve. Distal axonopathy is degeneration of the axon and myelin and is associated with "stocking-glove" distribution neuropathy. Segmental demyelination is characterized by breakdown of myelin with an intact axon
and is associated with lead poisoning and hereditary sensory motor neuropathy.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Akermark C, Crone H, Saartok T, Zuber Z. Plantar versus dorsal incision in the treatment of primary intermetatarsal Morton's neuroma. Foot Ankle Int. 2008 Feb;29(2):136-41. doi: 10.3113/FAI.2008.0136. PubMed PMID: 18315967.View Abstract at PubMed
Ha'Eri GB, Fornasier VL, Schatzker J. Morton's neuroma--pathogenesis and ultrastructure. Clin Orthop Relat Res. 1979 Jun;(141):256-9. PubMed PMID: 477115. View Abstract at PubMed
Graham CE, Graham DM. Morton's neuroma: a microscopic evaluation. Foot Ankle. 1984 Nov-Dec;5(3):150-3. PubMed PMID: 6519606. View Abstract at PubMed

Question 69

A 14-year-old boy reports progressive right wrist pain. Radiographs are shown in Figure 3a, and a photomicrograph is shown in Figure 3b. What is the most likely diagnosis?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show a benign-appearing, well-defined lytic lesion with a thin rim of surrounding reactive bone.  The photomicrograph shows spindle cells with a myxoid cartilaginous matrix.  These findings are diagnostic of chondromyxoid fibroma.  This is a rare, benign tumor that usually causes pain and can be locally aggressive.
REFERENCES: Lersundi A, Mankin HJ, Mourikis A, et al: Chondromyxoid fibroma: A rarely encountered and puzzling tumor.  Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;439:171-175.
Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.

Question 70

Which of the following muscles has dual innervation?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The brachialis muscle typically receives dual innervation.  The major portion is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve.  Its inferolateral portion is innervated by the radial nerve.  The others listed have single innervation.  The anterior approach to the humerus, which requires splitting of the brachialis, capitalizes on this dual innervation. 
REFERENCE: Mahakkanukrauh P, Somsarp V: Dual innervation of the brachialis muscle. 

Clin Anat 2002;15:206-209.

Question 71

In the absence of developmental dysplasia of the hip, what is the most common cause of osteoarthritis? Review Topic





Explanation

Femoroacetabular impingement is a mechanism for the development of early osteoarthritis for most nondysplastic hips. Early surgical intervention for treatment of femoroacetabular impingement, besides providing relief of symptoms, may decelerate the progression of the degenerative process for this group of young patients. There are two general types of femoroacetabular impingement. In cam impingement, the femoral deformity is usually a bump on the head-and-neck junction that impinges on the acetabular rim. The pincer type of impingement is caused by deformity on the acetabular side such as a deep socket or acetabular overcoverage due to retroversion. Both mechanisms create an obstacle for flexion and internal rotation.

Question 72

A 40-year-old male who sustained an open pilon fracture 2 weeks ago is scheduled for a below-the-knee amputation (BKA). What laboratory value is the best predictor for wound healing?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Albumin is the best measure of nutrition that is vital for wound healing. Total protein is a valuable measure as well, however it is not as sensitive as albumin levels. Calcium levels and ESR/C-reactive protein levels play no role.

Question 73

When comparing the addition of a trough at the greater tuberosity to direct repair of cortical bone, simulated rotator cuff repair in animal models has shown what type of change in the strength of the repair?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: There was no difference observed in the healing of tendon to bone when comparing healing to cortical bone and to a cancellous trough.
REFERENCE: St Pierre P, Olson EJ, Elliott JJ, et al:  Tendon healing to cortical bone compared with healing to a cancellous trough.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1858-1866.

Question 74

Which of the following best describes the use of epidural morphine and steroid paste after laminectomy?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Kramer and associates conducted a retrospective review during an “epidemic” period to identify the risk factors associated with a sudden increase in the rate of surgical site infections.  They found in a multivariate analysis that the use of morphine nerve paste resulted in a 7.6-fold increase in postoperative surgical wound debridement, and an 11% rate of surgical site complications. 
REFERENCES: Kramer MH, Mangram AJ, Pearson ML, et al: Surgical-site complications associated with a morphine nerve paste used for postoperative pain control after laminectomy.  Infect Control Hosp Epidemiol 1999;20:183-186.
Lowell TD, Errico TJ, Eskenazi MS: Use of steroids after discectomy may predispose to infection.  Spine 2000;25:516-519.

Question 75

Total hip arthroplasty is most appropriate for the injury shown in Figure A for which of the following patients?





Explanation

Figure A is an AP radiograph demonstrating a displaced femoral neck fracture. Active older patients who present with a displaced femoral neck fracture should be treated with total hip arthroplasty (THA).
Displaced femoral neck fractures can present a challenge to treat. In younger patients with good bone stock a closed vs. open reduction and internal fixation should be attempted. For active older patients a total hip arthroplasty is the best option, especially if there is pre-existing arthritis in the injured hip. THA provides the best function with the least pain and less need for repeat surgery (compared to hemiarthroplasty). For low-demand or debilitated patients, for patients older than age 80, or for those who can not reliably follow hip precautions a hemiarthroplasty provides the lowest risk of dislocation, and thus would be the treatment of choice.
Macaulay et al. present a prospective randomized trial of patients with femoral neck fractures treated with THA vs hemiarthroplasty. They found that functional outcomes and patient satisfaction were higher in the THA group without significant increased risk of complications. Inclusion criteria required patients to be over age 50, be a community ambulator, and were excluded for presence of dementia.
Abboud et al. retrospectively reviewed patients treated with THA for osteoarthritis and compared them to patients treated with THA for a femoral neck fracture. They found no significant difference between the two groups for outcomes or complications.
Figure A is an AP radiograph demonstrating a displaced femoral neck fracture.
Incorrect Answers:

Question 76

Figure 76 is the MR image of a 16-year-old high school football player who sustained a traumatic dominant shoulder dislocation during a game. On-field reduction was unsuccessful. The shoulder is reduced in the emergency department, and the player and his family followup in clinic. Which factor is most associated with failure of surgical treatment in this scenario?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The MR image reveals a Bankart lesion. Arthroscopic Bankart repair failure likelihood is increased by numerous factors. Age, number of recurrences, and bony defects are most associated with failure of arthroscopic repair. Shoulder dominance, amount of periosteal
stripping, and difficulty of reduction do not correlate with increased recurrence risk following surgery.
CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 77 THROUGH 79
A 17-year-old volleyball player has a 3-month history of gradually worsening right shoulder pain. She describes a vague sensation of her shoulder “popping out of place” and weakness associated with overhead activities. She has intermittent generalized paresthesias in her right upper extremity, and she has discontinued participation in sports as a result of her symptoms. Glenohumeral range of motion is symmetric bilaterally. Empty can test findings are negative with full strength of the supraspinatus. An active compression test is negative, and sulcus sign findings are positive. An anterior apprehension test produces pain that is unrelieved with a relocation test. A cervical spine examination is unremarkable.

Question 77

A 45-year-old man who underwent an ankle arthrodesis reports that for the first 6 years he had significant pain relief after the fusion healed. However, he now has increasing pain in the sinus tarsi. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 8a and 8b. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has a solid ankle fusion radiographically.  With a tibiotalar arthrodesis, the adjacent joints (subtalar and transverse tarsal) take additional stress.  Over time, progressive degenerative arthritis will occur in these adjacent joints, often necessitating further surgery.
REFERENCES: Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6.  Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 613-631.
Coester LM, Saltzman CL, Leupold J, Pontarelli W: Long-term results following ankle arthrodesis for post-traumatic arthritis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:219-228.

Question 78

Survival rates for children with soft-tissue sarcoma other than rhabdomyosarcoma are best correlated with





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In review of 154 patients with nonrhabdomyosarcoma, Rao reported that histologic grade, tumor invasiveness, and adequate surgical margin were the most important prognostic factors.  Histologic subtype, use of adjuvant chemotherapy, and patient age were not as important.  Size related to degree of invasiveness was not statistically significant.
REFERENCES: Rao BN: Nonrhabdomyosarcoma in children: Prognostic factors influencing survival.  Semin Surg Oncol 1993;9:524-531.
Andrassy R, et al: Non-rhabdomyosarcoma Soft-Tissue Sarcomas: Pediatric Surgical Oncology.  Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, p 221.

Question 79

A 13-year-old pitcher is hit in the left intercostal space by a line drive ball. He collapses, is apneic and unresponsive, and his radial pulse is absent. What is the next step in management? Review Topic





Explanation

Sudden death in athletes without structural cardiac damage is referred to as commotio cordis. This is an emergency. The immediate priorities are protection of the airway, starting CPR, and early cardioversion as this patient has an arrhythmia. It is hypothesized to occur from apnea, vasovagal reflex, or ventricular arrhythemia as reported by Maron and associates from the direct impact of the baseball during a vulnerable part of the cardiac rhythm. Janda and associates reported that soft-core baseballs may not differ from standard baseballs with regard to the risk of fatal chest-impact injury while playing baseball. High survival rates are associated with rapid treatment.

Question 80

Figures 51a through 51c show the radiographs of a 7-year-old soccer player who reports a gradual onset of midfoot pain that began shortly after the start of soccer season. He states that the pain is worse with activity and is partially alleviated by rest. Examination reveals soft-tissue swelling, and tenderness and warmth in the region of the talonavicular and navicular cunieform joints. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Osteochondrosis of the tarsal navicular (Kohler disease) is an infrequent cause of midfoot pain in children, and the etiology is unknown.  The typical radiographic findings include flattening and irregular ossification of the tarsal navicular.  The medial cunieform and talus maintain their normal articular contours.  The acute process is best treated with rest and immobilization.  A short leg walking cast results in relief of pain and a quicker return to activity compared with orthotics, although long-term success is similar with either method of treatment.  Children may return to activities when the symptoms subside.  The radiographic appearance of the talus begins to normalize by about 8 to 10 months following the onset of symptoms.
REFERENCE: Lutter LD: Sports-related injuries, in Drennan JC (ed): The Child’s Foot and Ankle.  New York, NY, Raven Press, 1992.

Question 81

A 63-year-old woman had a primary total hip arthroplasty 7 years ago that included a proximally coated titanium stem, a cobalt alloy femoral head, a titanium hemispherical acetabular component, and a polyethylene liner. She did well for 4 years but has now had two dislocations and reports pain and weakness around the left hip. She denies any fevers, chills, or constitutional symptoms. On examination, the patient walks well without any signs of an antalgic or Trendelenburg gait. Her abductor mechanism demonstrates good strength. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level are normal. On radiographs, all components appear well fixed and in good alignment. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
Trunnionosis is a recently recognized complication following total hip arthroplasty and can occur when a cobalt alloy femoral head is used on a titanium alloy or cobalt alloy femoral stem. Patients often present with pain or swelling around the hip but at times can present with instability. Certain femoral stem designs have been associated with increased reports of trunnionosis. In a patient with a cobalt alloy femoral head who presents with instability, swelling, and weakness around the hip, the potential for trunnionosis and
an adverse local tissue reaction should be considered.

Question 82

Which of the following bones is most frequently involved in stress fractures in athletes? Review Topic





Explanation

The tibia is the most frequent stress fracture location in most series in both athletes and modern military training. The anterior midshaft region of the tibia may be at higher risk secondary to tensile forces and a relative paucity of blood supply.

Question 83

A 21-year-old male construction worker fell from a roof and sustained an injury to his left foot. Radiographs and CT scans are shown in Figures 24a through 24e. Compared to nonsurgical management, surgical treatment offers which of the following advantages?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs and CT scans show a displaced intra-articular calcaneal fracture, with loss of calcaneal height and length.  Recent multicenter, randomized, prospective studies suggest that surgical treatment of displaced intra-articular calcaneal fractures is associated with an almost six-fold decrease in the risk of posttraumatic subtalar arthritis (necessitating subtalar arthrodesis) compared to nonsurgical treatment.  Despite ongoing controversy, surgical treatment has not been shown to be advantageous with respect to activity, time to return to work, or subtalar joint range of motion.  A nonunion of a calcaneal fracture is exceedingly rare regardless of the treatment method.
REFERENCES: Buckley R, Tough S, McCormack R, et al: Operative compared with nonoperative treatment of displaced intra-articular calcaneal fractures: A prospective, randomized, controlled multicenter trial.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1733-1744.
Csizy M, Buckley R, Tough S, et al: Displaced intra-articular calcaneal fractures: Variables predicting late subtalar fusion.  J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:106-112.

Question 84

Figures below show the radiograph and the MRI scan obtained from a 37-year-old woman with a 2-month history of left hip pain. Which presurgical factor is most commonly associated with a poor outcome after a hip joint salvage procedure?




Explanation

DISCUSSION:
MRI reveals an anterior labral tear, and the radiograph shows minimal arthritis with possible dysplasia. The  most  common  location  of  pain  in  patients  with  a  labral  tear  is  the  groin,  and  the  most  common physical finding is a positive impingement test result. Pain during sitting, clicking, and buttock pain are frequently described by patients with a labral tear, but these symptoms are less common than groin pain. A positive posterior impingement test finding is more common in patients with a posterior labral tear. Although age over 40 years and a body mass index higher than 30 can adversely affect clinical outcomes after joint preservation procedures such as PAO, hip arthroscopy, and femoral acetabular impingement surgery, the presence of hip arthritis on presurgical radiographs is the most commonly mentioned cause of failed hip joint preservation surgery. Tönnis grade is a radiographic measure of hip arthritis. A higher Outerbridge score is associated with more frequent poor outcomes after hip arthroscopy; however, the
Outerbridge cartilage score is determined by direct visualization at the time of surgery. The Outerbridge
score cannot be determined presurgically.

Question 85

A patient with a valgus knee and lateral compartment bone loss undergoes a total knee arthroplasty using posterior condylar referencing instrumentation. Six months after surgery, the patient reports significant anterior knee pain, and radiographs reveal severe lateral patellar tilt. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Severe valgus deformity is frequently accompanied by hypoplasia of the lateral femoral condyle.  Posterior referencing instrumentation can substantially internally rotate the femoral component with respect to the transepicondylar axis and Whiteside’s line.  The femoral component malrotation must be corrected to properly address this problem.
REFERENCES: Berger RA, Della Valle CJ, Rubash HE: Patellofemoral problems in total knee arthroplasty, in Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE, et al (eds): The Adult Knee.  Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 2003, vol 2, pp 1245-1258.
Whiteside LA, Arima J: The anteroposterior axis for femoral rotational alignment in valgus total knee arthroplasty.  Clin Orthop 1995;321:168-172.

Question 86

A 25-year-old male sustains the isolated injury shown in Figure A. Antegrade intramedullary nailing is planned for definite fixation within the next 12 hours. After obtaining lateral radiographs of the injury site, what would be the next best step in management of this patient?





Explanation

This patient has sustained a femoral shaft fracture. The next best step in management would be to CT scan the hip to assess for an associated femoral neck fracture.
Femoral neck fractures are seen less than 10% of the time with femoral shaft fractures, but they are frequently missed on initial evaluation. The neck fracture line is almost vertical and nondisplaced, or minimally displaced. Therefore fine (2-mm) cut CT scan through the femoral neck should be ordered in the preoperative workup of these patients.
Tornetta et al. reported that they reduced the delay in diagnosis of concomitant femoral neck fractures by 91% by instituting a protocol that included: dedicated AP internal rotation plain radiograph, a fine (2-mm) cut CT scan through the femoral neck, an intraoperative fluoroscopic lateral radiograph prior to fixation, as well as postoperative AP and lateral radiographs of the hip in the operating room prior to awakening the patient.
Figure A shows a trauma view lower extremity radiograph with an isolated left midshaft femur fracture.
Incorrect Answers:
setting of fracture. Answer 5: The age, injury and fracture pattern are not consistent with a pathologic femur fracture.

Question 87

Which of the following is considered the treatment of choice for a chondroblastoma of the proximal tibial epiphysis without intra-articular extension?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Curettage and bone grafting typically is the preferred method of treatment for chondroblastoma, with local recurrence rates of approximately 10%.  Some clinicians advocate the addition of adjuvants such as phenol.  Left alone, these lesions can destroy bone and invade the joint.  Large intra-articular lesions may require major joint reconstruction.  Wide local excision rarely is required to eradicate the tumor.  Radiation therapy rarely is indicated and only for unresectable or multiply recurrent lesions.  
REFERENCES: Springfield DS, Capanna R, Gherlinzoni F, Picci P, Campanacci M: Chondroblastoma: A review of seventy cases.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1985;67:748-755.   
Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Chondroblastoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors.  Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 190. 

Question 88

With comparison to a below the knee amputation, each of the following are disadvantages of a through the knee amputation EXCEPT:





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Through-the-knee amputation level is associated with the worst functional result 2 years after injury (compared to transmetatarsal, Symes, AKA, or BKA)
The cohort study by MacKenzie et al prospectively followed 161 patients that were part of the Lower Extremity Assessment Project (LEAP). These patients underwent an above-the-ankle amputation at a trauma center within 3 months following the injury and followed for 2 years. This study revealed that through-the-knee amputations had significantly worse scores for the objective performance measures of self-selected walking speed, independence in transfers, walking, and stair-climbing. Through-the-knee amputees also had worse SIP scores than AKA and BKA patients. Physicians were also less satisfied with both the clinical and the cosmetic recovery of the patients with a through-the-knee amputation. It should be noted that patients with a BKA had a faster walking speed than those with an AKA. Despite the worse SIP scores for through-the-knee amputations, patients actually reported less pain than those with an AKA or BKA, though this wasn't statistically significant.
(SBQ06.2) A 21-year-old male presents to the emergency department after sustaining a gun shot wound to his back. Subsequent radiographs reveal a bullet in the L2 vertebral body. Physical exam shows no neurologic deficits. He undergoes emergent laparotomy and is found to have a small bowel laceration. What would be the preferred treatment following his exploratory laparotomy and small bowel repair?

Intravenous antibiotic coverage for Gram negative bacteria for 7 days

Surgical decompression and bullet fragment removal

Observation

Broad-spectrum oral antibiotic coverage for 7 days
Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotic coverage for 7 days
DISCUSSION: The clinical presentation is consistent with a GSW with bowel perforation and a retained bullet in the vertebral body. Because the patient is neurologically intact broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotic coverage for 7 days is the most appropriate treatment.
Gunshot wounds to the spine present relatively little risk of infection in most cases. When there has been an injury to the small bowel, the risk of infection can be minimized with a 7-day course of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Indications for surgery include when a neurological deficit is present that correlates with imaging findings of neurological compression by the missile, or when the missile is in contact with the CSF posing a risk for metal toxicity.
Roffi et al performed a Level 4 study of 42 patients that sustained a gunshot wound that perforated the stomach or bowel and then entered the spinal column. They found that an extended regimen of broad spectrum antibiotics combined with bedrest appeared to significantly reduce the risk of spinal or paraspinal infection, whereas early bullet removal did not significantly prevent the occurrence of infection.
Velmahoos et al performed a Level 4 study including 24 patients that sustained a gunshot wound to the spine with associated colonic injury. They found that the incidence of sepsis was 8.4% (compared to 5% in non-bowel injuries) and concluded that retainment of the bullet did not increase the rate of sepsis.
Incorrect Answers:


Question 89

Which osseous landmark indicates the proximal border of the femoral insertion of the posterior cruciate ligament?




Explanation

DISCUSSION
The posterior cruciate ligament is composed of the anterolateral and posteromedial bundles. The medial intercondylar ridge marks the proximal border of the femoral insertion. Occasionally, a medial bifurcate ridge will separate the anterolateral and posteromedial bundles, and a clear change in slope occurs between the bundles. Knowledge of these osseous landmarks may aid in anatomic reconstruction of the posterior cruciate ligament. The medial interfemoral and interfascicular ridges are not accepted nomenclature.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Lopes OV Jr, Ferretti M, Shen W, Ekdahl M, Smolinski P, Fu FH. Topography of the femoral attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2008 Feb;90(2):249-55. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.G.00448. PubMed PMID: 18245582.
View Abstract at PubMed
Forsythe B, Harner C, Martins CA, Shen W, Lopes OV Jr, Fu FH. Topography of the femoral attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament. Surgical technique. J Bone Joint Surg Am. 2009 Mar 1;91 Suppl 2 Pt 1:89-100. doi: 10.2106/JBJS.H.01514.
PubMed PMID: 19255202. View Abstract at PubMed

Question 90

Sudden cardiac death in the young athlete is most frequently caused by





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in athletes, accounting for 40% of reported cases.  Most athletes have no previous symptoms, and sudden death may be the first clinical manifestation.  The prevalence of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in the general population is 1 in 500, with a mortality rate of 2% to 4% in young adults.  Athletes with active myocarditis should not engage in sports for up to 6 months, and although they may be at risk for the development of chronic cardiomyopathy, it is rarely a cause of sudden cardiac death.  Mitral valve prolapse with an accompanying systolic murmur is common in the general population, but infrequently a cause of sudden cardiac death.  Weakening of the aortic wall associated with Marfan syndrome can result in abrupt rupture of the aorta.  This accounts for 3% of sudden cardiac deaths in young athletes.  Marfan syndrome usually can be detected on preparticipation screenings by its skeletal and ocular manifestations.  Atherosclerotic coronary artery disease is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in older athletes, accounting for 75% of reported cases.  However, it is much less common in the young competitive athlete.
REFERENCES: Burke AP, Farb A, Virmani R, Goodin J, Smialek JE: Sports-related and non-sports-related sudden cardiac death in young adults.  Am Heart J 1991;121:568-575.
Maron BJ, Sharani J, Poliac LC, Mathenge R, Roberts WC, Mueller FO: Sudden death in young competitive athletes: Clinical, demographic, and pathological profiles.  JAMA

1996;276:199-204.

Question 91

Internal impingement is characterized by which of the following anatomic lesions? Review Topic





Explanation

Internal impingement is characterized by articular-sided partial-thickness rotator cuff tears and superior glenoid labral tears. The capsule is characterized by laxity anteriorly and tightness posteriorly.

Question 92

Closed chain kinetic exercises are differentiated from open chain exercises by which of the following? Review Topic





Explanation

Closed chain kinetic exercises confer a margin of safety and are protective of healing or repaired tissues by the compressive nature of the applied forces. Closed chain kinetic exercise is associated with decreased shear, translation, and distraction of the joints within the chain. Because of patterns of motion with closed chain kinetic exercises, individual muscles may not be maximally strengthened or all joint motion returned to normal. Closed chain kinetic exercises may be used earlier in the rehabilitation process.

Question 93

A 38-year-old man who is an avid tennis player has had persistent pain over the medial aspect of his knee for the past 6 years. He notes that the pain occurs on a daily basis with any significant activity. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. What is the best course of action?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a relatively young patient who is an avid tennis player, the treatment of choice is a joint preserving procedure.  The radiographs reveal varus alignment with loading of the medial compartment.  After all nonsurgical management options have been used, the best treatment option is a medial opening wedge osteotomy.  A lateral closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal tibia is also a reasonable option, but it is not one of the choices.  A unicompartmental arthroplasty or a total knee arthroplasty would place significant restrictions in this patient.  A unispacer may be a temporizing procedure but is controversial and without substantial data in the literature.  The knee arthroscopy will not address the medial compartment osteoarthritis.
REFERENCES: Nagel A, Insall JN, Scuderi GR: Proximal tibial osteotomy: A subjective outcome study.  J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1353-1358.
Rinonapoli E, Mancini GB, Corvaglia A, et al: Tibial osteotomy for varus gonarthrosis: A 10- to 21-year followup study.  Clin Orthop 1998;353:185-193.
Manifold SG, Kelly MA, Richardson L, et al: Osteotomies about the knee, in Fitzgerald RH, Kaufer H, Malkani AL (eds): Orthopaedics.  St Louis, MO, Mosby, 2002, pp 947-961.

Question 94

A 68-year-old man had a 3-year history of shoulder pain that failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Examination reveals forward elevation to 120 degrees and external rotation to 30 degrees. True AP and axillary radiographs and an axial CT scan are shown in Figures 1a through 1c. What management option would lead to the best long-term results? Review Topic





Explanation

The radiographs and CT scan reveal osteoarthritis with posterior subluxation and posterior bone loss. Total shoulder arthroplasty with reaming of the high side to neutralize the glenoid surface has been shown to yield better results than hemiarthroplasty. The amount of bone loss in this patient does not require posterior glenoid augmentation. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty is indicated for rotator cuff tear arthropathy; therefore, it is not applicable. Arthroscopic debridement has yielded poor results with advanced osteoarthritis and posterior subluxation. Results from glenoid osteotomy have been variable and glenoid osteotomy is not indicated with associated osteoarthritis.

Question 95

Figure 30 shows an axial T1-weighted MRI scan of a patient’s right shoulder. The arrows are pointing to what normal structure?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Tears of the pectoralis major tendon are frequently missed during examination.  MRI provides excellent visualization of the tendon if the study extends low enough down the arm.  The pectoralis major tendon inserts on the crest of the greater tubercle of the humerus, just lateral to the long head of the biceps tendon.  The latissimus dorsi tendon inserts medial to the long head of the biceps tendon on the lesser tubercle.  The subscapularis tendon inserts on the lesser tuberosity more proximally.  The deltoid insertion is more distal.
REFERENCES: Connell DA, Potter HG, Sherman MF, et al: Injuries of the pectoralis major muscle: Evaluation with MR imaging.  Radiology 1999;210:785-791.
Carrino JA, Chandnanni VP, Mitchell DB, et al: Pectoralis major muscle and tendon tears: Diagnosis and grading using magnetic resonance imaging.  Skeletal Radiol 2000;29:305-313.
Ohashi K, El-Khoury GY, Albright JP, et al: MRI of complete rupture of the pectoralis major muscle. Skeletal Radiol 1996;25:625-628. 

Question 96

This medication, a factor Xa inhibitor, currently is not approved for venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis.




Explanation

DISCUSSION
Warfarin has a long clinical track record and is well known among most physicians. It is a vitamin K antagonist that can be monitored with prothrombin time (INR) testing and reversed with vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma if needed. Newer oral anticoagulants are becoming more common and offer the advantage of being rapidly active without a need for monitoring. These oral anticoagulants are not reversible, which can complicate the treatment of patients who present with bleeding or require surgery. Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is a direct thrombin inhibitor that is approved for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. It is not reversible, and a surgical delay of 24 to 48 hours is recommended for all but emergent surgeries. A longer delay is recommended with renal insufficiency. Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) is an oral factor Xa inhibitor that is approved for atrial fibrillation and the treatment of VTE and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. It offers the advantage of daily dosing. It
is not reversible and a surgical delay of 36 to 48 hours is recommended. Apixaban (Eliquis) is another factor Xa inhibitor for which twice-daily dosing is required. It is currently approved for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation, and a surgical delay of 36 to 48 hours is recommended.
RECOMMENDED READINGS
Gonsalves WI, Pruthi RK, Patnaik MM. The new oral anticoagulants in clinical practice. Mayo Clin Proc. 2013 May;88(5):495-511. doi: 10.1016/j.mayocp.2013.03.006. Review. Erratum in: Mayo Clin Proc. 2013 Jul;88(7):777. PubMed PMID: 23639500. View Abstract at PubMed Alquwaizani M, Buckley L, Adams C, Fanikos J. Anticoagulants: A Review of the Pharmacology, Dosing, and Complications. Curr Emerg Hosp Med Rep. 2013 Apr 21;1(2):83-97. Print 2013 Jun. PubMed PMID: 23687625. View Abstract at PubMed
CLINICAL SITUATION FOR QUESTIONS 100 AND 101
A 55-year-old woman slipped on ice while getting out of her car and sustained the injury shown in Figure 100.

Question 97

What structure has been described as having a risk of injury with retractor placement on the sacrum during combined acetabular-pelvic ring surgery using the Stoppa approach with a lateral window?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Care must be taken when placing a retractor on the anterior aspect of the sacrum, as the L4 and L5 nerve roots are both at risk. The first referenced article by Atlihan et al reported on the anatomy of the anterior sacroiliac joint and reported that the L4 nerve root is within 1 cm of the joint at its inferior margin. The second article by Ebraheim et al found that the L4 and L5 nerve roots are 10 mm medial to the sacroiliac joint at the pelvic brim

Question 98

In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, which medication is an antagonist of tumor necrosis factor-alpha?





Explanation

Etanercept is a biochemically designed tumor necrosis factor receptor immunoglobulin G fusion protein, which binds to TNF-alpha and is thus a TNF-alpha antagonist.
TNF-alpha is considered to be one of the major cytokines involved in rheumatoid arthritis pathology. As a result, many biologic agents used to treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are manufactured to block TNF-alpha or its receptors. This has been shown to reduce inflammation and stop disease progression. In the USA, Etanercept is approved to treat rheumatoid arthritis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis and psoriatic arthritis, plaque psoriasis and ankylosing spondylitis. The route of administration is subcutaneous.
Bongartz et al. used a randomized control trial to asses the risk of infection and malignancy rates in RA treated with TNF-alpha antagonist. Overall, patients with RA appear to have an approximately 2-fold increased risk of serious infection compared to the general population and non-RA controls, irrespective of TNF-alpha antagonist use. The pooled odds ratio for malignancy was 3.3 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.2-

Question 99

Which of the following complications is more likely with an inside-out repair technique compared to an all-inside techniques for a medial meniscus tear?





Explanation

DISCUSSION: All of the answers are possible complications of meniscal repair.  There are large volumes of literature evaluating the results of meniscal repair, both for the all-inside technique, as well as the inside-out technique.  Failure rates are similar.  Intra-articular synovitis occurs with absorbable sutures and absorbable implants.  Peroneal nerve injuries are more common with the lateral-sided repairs.  Saphenous nerve injuries are more common with medial-sided tears.  Because of the incision required and the technique of tying over soft tissue, the risk of a saphenous nerve injury is greater with an inside-out technique than with an all-inside technique.
REFERENCES: Farng E, Sherman O: Meniscal repair devices: A clinical and biomechanical literature review.  Arthroscopy 2004;20:273-286.
Jones HP, Lemos MJ, Wilk RM, et al: Two-year follow-up of meniscal repair using a bioabsorbable arrow.  Arthroscopy 2002;18:64-69.

Question 100

A 42-year-old patient has had painful inferior subluxation of the glenohumeral joint following a recent cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Figure 34 shows the AP radiograph of the shoulder. Management should consist of





Explanation

DISCUSSION: Following a CVA and with the resumption of upright posture, downward subluxation of the glenohumeral joint may occur.  Although usually painless, some patients may report pain secondary to stretching of the brachial plexus.  This is the result of flaccid paralysis of the deltoid muscle, and it will persist until some motor tone or spasticity returns to the shoulder girdle musculature.  Early sling support and range-of-motion exercises to prevent contracture will provide the best relief.  Surgical procedures are not indicated.
REFERENCES: Braun RM, Botte MJ: Treatment of shoulder deformity in acquired spasticity.  Clin Orthop 1999;368:54-65.
McCollough NC III: Orthopaedic evaluation and treatment of the stroke patient.  Instr Course Lect 1975;24:45-55.

Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon
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