Comprehensive 100-Question Exam
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Question 1
A patient undergoes a proximal tibial resection that is reconstructed with a fresh frozen osteoarticular allograft. Eleven months later, the graft is retrieved. Histologically, the articular cartilage and subchondral bone retrieved would be expected to show evidence of
Explanation
Osteoarticular allografts are devoid of host chondrocytes but do contain "mummified" cellular debris left over from donor processing. The cartilage architecture is preserved in the first 2 to 3 years after transplantation. The articular surface is covered with a pannus of fibrocartilage maintaining the joint space radiographically; this pannus later contains islands of fibrocartilage containing host mesenchymal stem cells. Degenerative changes to the joint surface occur earlier and are more severe in joints that are unstable. Only with degenerative changes at the surface is there histologic evidence of subchondral revascularization. Often degenerative changes involving the articular cartilage reach the tidemark, but the tidemark itself remains structurally intact. Enneking WF, Campanacci DA: Retrieved human allografts: A clinicopathological study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:971-986.
Question 2
High Yield
The mother of a healthy 8-month-old boy reports that her son refuses to use his left arm. Examination reveals that the arm hangs limp at his side in an adducted and internally rotated position, and the affected shoulder subluxates posteriorly. Passive external rotation measures 15 degrees. Management should consist of
Detailed Explanation
Injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus during birth (Erb's palsy) occurs in approximately 1 in 3,000 births. In a complete lesion, paralysis of the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, biceps, and brachioradialis results in the findings described above. Spontaneous recovery may occur for up to 2 years. Passive exercises administered daily by the parents are the initial recommended treatment at this age. If significant contracture results in posterior dislocation, surgical correction may be considered. Neer CS: Shoulder Reconstruction. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1990, pp 452-454. Pearl ML: Arthroscopy release of shoulder contracture secondary to birth palsy: An early report on findings and surgical technique. Arthroscopy 2003;19:577-582.
Question 3
A 48-year-old man has recurrent right knee pain. Figure 52a shows the sagittal proton density T2-weighted MRI scan, and Figure 52b shows the sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan at the same level. The arrow is pointing to a
Explanation
Meniscal tears have many configurations and locations. The normal medial meniscus has a bow-tie configuration on the two most medial consecutive sagittal views. Toward the center of the joint the anterior and posterior horns have a triangular shape. These images show an abnormal intra-articular low-signal structure located anterior to the intact posterior cruciate ligament. This most likely represents a torn and displaced posterior horn of the medial meniscus, sometimes called "double PCL sign". A popliteal cyst and ligaments of Wrisberg and Humphry are not visible on these figures. Helms CA: MR image of the knee, in Fundamentals of Skeletal Radiology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, pp 172-191.
Question 4
Figure 17 shows the radiograph of a 25-year-old professional football player who has superior shoulder pain that prevents him from sports participation. History reveals that he sustained a shoulder injury that was treated with closed reduction and temporary pinning 3 years ago. The best course of action should be
Explanation
The radiograph shows a complete acromioclavicular separation. Because the patient is a professional athlete who is unable to participate, surgery is indicated. Chronic separations, especially those with previous trauma from joint pinning, should be treated with resection of the distal clavicle and stabilization to the coracoid. Some type of biologic reconstruction of the coracoclavicular ligaments is generally recommended. Open repair of the ligaments is generally not possible in such a delayed fashion. Screw fixation alone will not provide a lasting solution as the screws usually need to be removed, leaving no fixation in place. Reconstruction using the coracoacromial ligament is generally recommended with coracoclavicular fixation to protect the repair while it heals. Nuber GW, Bowen MK: Disorders of the acromioclavicular joint: Pathophysiology, diagnosis and management, in Iannotti JP, Williams GR (eds): Disorders of the Shoulder: Diagnosis and Management. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 1999.
Question 5
Which of the following primary prognostic factors best predicts the outcome of the knee lesion shown in Figure 22?
Explanation
The patient has osteochondritis dissecans. While location, size, and knee stability are all relevant to the overall prognosis, studies have shown that younger patients with open growth plates have a better prognosis of healing when compared with patients who have closed growth plates. The degree of pain is also relevant to treatment, but it is subjective rather than objective and is not as reliable of a prognostic indicator as age. Stanitski CL: Osteochondritis dissecans of the knee, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, vol 3, pp 387-405. Cahill B: Treatment of juvenile osteochondritis dissecans and osteochondritis dissecans of the knee. Clin Sports Med 1985;4:367-384.
Question 6
An adult with a distal humeral fracture underwent open reduction and internal fixation. What is the most common postoperative complication?
Explanation
Most patients lose elbow range of motion after open reduction and internal fixation of a distal humeral fracture. Ulnar nerve dysfunction, nonunion, and infection all occur less commonly. Webb LX: Distal humerus fractures in adults. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:336-344.
Question 7
High Yield
The main advantage of surgical repair of an acute Achilles tendon rupture, when compared with nonsurgical management, is reduced
Explanation
The literature supports similar clinical outcomes after surgical and nonsurgical methods. The chief difference lies in the complications between the groups. Surgical patients experience more wound problems but a significantly lower rerupture rate. Although suturing the tendon allows earlier mobility, the tendon healing time is unchanged. Nonsurgical methods are less expensive to provide. Maffulli N: Rupture of the Achilles tendon. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1019-1036. Cetti R, Christensen SE, Ejsted R, Jensen NM, Jorgensen U: Operative versus nonoperative treatment of Achilles tendon rupture: A prospective randomized study and review of the literature. Am J Sports Med 1993;21:791-799.
Question 8
Figure 11 shows a consecutive sequence of MRI scans obtained in a 12-year-old boy who has had increasing lateral knee pain and catching for the past 6 months. Examination reveals pain localized to the lateral joint line. Range-of-motion testing reveals a 5-degree lack of full extension on the involved side. Plain radiographs and laboratory values are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
Discoid menisci are rare causes of lateral knee pain in children. Various etiologies have been proposed, including failure of central absorption of the developing meniscus and hereditary transmission. Patients with discoid menisci have pain, clicking, and locking with a loss of active extension on range-of-motion testing. Classification of discoid menisci according to the Watanabe classification include complete, incomplete, and Wrisberg ligament type. The Wrisberg variant contains an abnormal posterior meniscal attachment. MRI is the diagnostic tool of choice, revealing a thick, flat meniscus generally seen in three consecutive MRI images. Symptomatic knees are often associated with a meniscal tear or degeneration and are managed with arthroscopic partial excision to a more normal shape (saucerization). Vandermeer RD, Cunningham FK: Arthroscopic treatment of the discoid lateral meniscus: Results of long-term follow-up. Arthroscopy 1989;5:101-109.
Question 9
Mutations of what gene are associated with the subsequent development of osteosarcoma?
Explanation
Patients with a mutation of the retinoblastoma gene (RB) have an increased likelihood for the development of osteosarcoma. The EWS-FLI1 gene is the fusion product of a chromosomal translocation of 11:22. EGF-R and IGF-R are growth factor receptors, but mutations in these genes have not been correlated with osteosarcoma. VEGF is a proangiogenic molecule that is involved in tumor formation in multiple sites but not the development of osteosarcoma. Scholz RB, Kabisch H, Delling G, et al: Homozygous deletion within the retinoblastoma gene in a native osteosarcoma specimen of a patient cured of a retinoblastoma of both eyes. Pediatr Hematol Oncol 1990;7:265-273.
Question 10
High Yield
When performing surgery on a patient with insertional Achilles tendinitis and a Haglund's deformity, how much of the Achilles tendon insertion can be safely detached without having to consider reattachment with bone anchors?
Detailed Explanation
The Achilles tendon insertion encompasses a broad area on the posterior area of the calcaneus. A biomechanical study has shown that up to 50% of the Achilles tendon insertion point can be detached before the strength of the attachment point starts to weaken. It is recommended that if more than this amount is detached to remove the posterior superior calcaneal prominence, consideration should be given to either securing the tendon to the bone with suture anchors or performing a tendon transfer. Kolodziej P, Glisson RR, Nunley JA: Risk of avulsion of the Achilles tendon after partial excision for treatment of insertional tendinitis and Haglund's deformity: A biomechanical study. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:433-437.
Question 11
A 43-year-old man reports a 3-year history of progressively worsening pain in the first metatarsophalangeal joint that is aggravated by activity. Larger shoes, intra-articular corticosteroid injections, and a Morton's extension pedorthic have failed to provide relief. Motion is limited to 10 degrees of dorsiflexion, and the "grind test" is positive. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 39. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Explanation
Stage III hallux rigidus comprises end-stage degenerative arthritis with loss of cartilage from the phalanx and metatarsal. Therefore, cheilectomy, osteotomy, and resection arthroplasty are inadequate. Resection arthroplasty results in diminished propulsion and transfer metatarsalgia. Resurfacing implant hemiarthroplasty remains unproven for earlier stages of hallux rigidus, but is not appropriate when there is cartilage loss from the base of the proximal phalanx. First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis has proven to be a very reliable and functional treatment of end-stage hallux rigidus. Gibson JN, Thomson CE: Arthrodesis or total replacement arthroplasty for hallux rigidus: A randomized controlled trial. Foot Ankle Int 2005;26:680-690.
Question 12
A 50-year-old woman has a painful hallux valgus and a painful callus beneath the second metatarsal head. A radiograph is shown in Figure 46. To correct these problems, treatment of the great toe deformity should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a significant hallux valgus and instability of the first ray, causing transfer metatarsalgia to the second metatarsal head. Therefore, the best procedure is fusion of the metatarsal cuneiform joint with soft-tissue realignment of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. This procedure provides the best chance of relieving symptoms under the second metatarsal head, as well as correcting the hallux valgus.
Question 13
High Yield
Using methylmethacrylate to fill a biopsy hole in the diaphysis of a femur theoretically achieves what purpose?
Explanation
Placing cement over a bone biopsy site prevents tumor contamination by controlling hematoma. Even though the use of cement may impart some strength, the femur is still at significant risk for fracture. The use of bone cement in this manner has not been cleared by the FDA, but many physicians feel that it is appropriate when the patient's health status has been given careful consideration, and the physician has the necessary knowledge and training. The other options are not important reasons to use methylmethacrylate in biopsies. Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Biopsy: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, pp 55-65.
Question 14
High Yield
Figure 37 reveals a periprosthetic fracture around a cemented femoral stem in an 81-year-old patient with Paget's disease and mild coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate reconstructive management on the femoral side?
Explanation
This is an example of a Vancouver B3 periprosthetic fracture that consists of a fracture around a loose femoral stem with poor proximal bone support. Therefore, open reduction and internal fixation is not an option. PFR is an excellent choice for elderly inactive patients with poor femoral bone stock. The surgery can be performed in an expeditious manner, which is very important in a patient with mild coagulopathy. Impaction allografting and APC are both options for younger patients who have bone stock that needs to be restored. The results of revision arthroplasty using proximally coated stems, especially under these circumstances, are poor. Duncan CP, Masri BA: Fractures of the femur after hip replacement. Instr Course Lect 1995;44:293-304. Parvizi J, Sim FH: Proximal femoral replacements with megaprostheses. Clin Orthop 2004;420:169-175.
Question 15
High Yield
The attachments of the transverse carpal ligament include which of the following structures?
Explanation
The transverse carpal ligament is the volar boundary of the carpal tunnel. It attaches to the scaphoid and trapezium radially and the pisiform and the hook of the hamate ulnarly. The ulna and trapezoid do not receive attachments of the transverse carpal ligament. Hollinshead W: Anatomy for Surgeons: The Back and Limbs, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Harper and Row, 1982, vol 3, pp 471-472.
Question 16
A 24-year-old dancer reports posterior ankle pain when in the "en pointe" position. Examination reveals posteromedial tenderness, no pain reproduction with passive forced planter flexion, and pain with motion of the hallux. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Flexor hallucis longus tendinitis is a common cause of posterior ankle pain in dancers. It tends to be more posteromedial and is characterized by a clicking or catching sensation posteromedially with motion of the great toe. A painful os trigonum typically causes more posterolateral ankle pain and may occur after an ankle sprain or plantar flexion injury where there may be a fracture of the os trigonum. Garrick JG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Sports Medicine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 249-261.
Question 17
Figure 40 shows the radiograph of a 16-year-old wrestler who injured his elbow when he was thrown to the mat by his opponent. Closed reduction is readily accomplished, and the elbow seems stable. Management should now consist of application of a splint for
Explanation
Flexion contractures are the most common complication of elbow dislocations. About 15% of patients lose more than 30 degrees of flexion. The risk of contracture is proportional to the duration of immobilization. Elbows should be moved within the first few days after reduction. The splinting is for comfort and protection only while the pain subsides. Mehlhoff TL, Noble PC, Bennett JB, Tullos HS: Simple dislocation of the elbow in the adult: Results after closed treatment. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:244-249. Linscheid RL, O'Driscoll SW: Elbow dislocations, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, pp 441-452. O'Driscoll SW, Jupiter JB, King GJ, Hotchkiss RN, Morrey BF: The unstable elbow. Instr Course Lect 2001;50:89-102.
Question 18
High Yield
Figure 6 shows a sagittal oblique MRI scan. The arrow is pointing to what structure?
Detailed Explanation
The meniscofemoral ligaments connect the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus to the intercondylar wall of the medial femoral condyle. The ligament of Humphrey (arrow) passes anterior to the posterior cruciate ligament, whereas the ligament of Wrisberg passes posterior to the posterior cruciate ligament. One or the other has been identified in 71% to 100% of cadaver knees, with the ligament of Wrisberg being more common. Clarke HD, Scott WN, Insall JN, et al: Anatomy, in Insall JN, Scott WN (eds): Surgery of the Knee, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Churchill Livingstone, 2006, vol 1, pp 3-66.
Question 19
Which of the following agents have been shown to reduce the incidence of skeletal events in patients with multiple myeloma?
Explanation
Bisphosphonates are a class of drugs that act to inhibit osteoclast resorption of bone. It has been shown that patients with multiple myeloma who are treated with bisphosphonates have fewer pathologic fractures than patients who are not treated with bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium are considered appropriate for patients who are at risk for the development of osteoporosis, as is estrogen in selected women. Chelating agents and progesterones have no use in the treatment of patients with multiple myeloma or osteoporosis. Berenson JR: Bisphosphonates in multiple myeloma. Cancer 1997;15:1661-1667.
Question 20
Figure 43 shows the lateral radiograph of a 12-year-old boy with mild osteogenesis imperfecta who injured his left elbow after pushing his brother. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a displaced fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon for which most authorities recommend surgical treatment. In older children, stability of the reduction may be achieved by the use of two parallel medullary Kirschner wires and a figure-of-8 tension band loop of either stainless steel wire or absorbable suture. The use of an absorbable suture does not require removal of the implant. Absorbable suture alone is best used in very young patients who have this type of injury. An intramedullary screw would pose an unnecessary risk of future growth disturbance. A displaced, isolated fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon is an unusual injury in a child. It has been suggested by several authors that children who have osteogenesis imperfecta may be especially prone to this injury. One study reported seven of these fractures occurring in five children who had the mild form of osteogenesis imperfecta (Sillence type IA). The authors of this study suggest that the diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfecta be considered in any child who has a displaced fracture of the apophysis of the olecranon, especially when the injury is associated with relatively minor trauma. Stott NS, Zionts LE: Displaced fractures of the apophysis of the olecranon in children who have osteogenesis imperfecta. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1026-1033. Gaddy BC, Strecker WB, Schoenecker PL: Surgical treatment of displaced olecranon fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:321-324.
Question 21
A 47-year-old male tennis player has pain in his nondominant shoulder that has failed to respond to 4 months of nonsurgical management. Examination reveals acromial tenderness and pain at the supraspinatus tendon insertion. He has a positive impingement sign, pain on forward elevation, and minimal cuff weakness. The MRI scans are shown in Figures 30a and 30b. To completely resolve his symptoms, treatment should consist of
Explanation
The MRI scans show a mesoacromion with tendonopathy of the supraspinatus. The history and physical findings indicate that the patient has a symptomatic os acromiale. Simple excision of the unstable os acromiale has not yielded consistently good results. Meticulous internal fixation using tension banding with cannulated screws and autologous bone grafting has shown good results for this problem. Hutchinson MR, Veenstra MA: Arthroscopic decompression of shoulder impingement secondary to os acromiale. Arthroscopy 1993;9:28-32.
Question 22
High Yield
A 53-year-old patient is seen in the emergency department after sustaining a fall onto her left hip. A current radiograph is shown in Figure 40. What is the best treatment option?
Explanation
The patient has sustained a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic femoral fracture (a femoral fracture that occurs around or just distal to a loose stem, with adequate proximal bone stock). The stem is no longer fixed to proximal bone; therefore, retention of the femoral component is not recommended. Nonsurgical management is contraindicated because of the high risk of nonunion and malunion with significant component settling in the distal fragment and leg shortening. Revision femoral arthoplasty must attain distal fixation in adequate host bone, which is usually successful with a porous-coated cylindrical stem. Parvizi J, Rapuri VR, Purtill JJ, et al: Treatment protocol for proximal femoral periprosthetic fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:8-16.
Question 23
Based on the findings seen in the posteroanterior radiograph of the wrist shown in Figure 17, which of the following structures is torn?
Explanation
The radiograph shows widening between the scaphoid and lunate. The normal variance is up to 5 mm. Although several ligaments may be torn, the scapholunate interosseous ligament must be torn for this widening to occur. Cooney WP, Linscheid RL, Dobyns JH: The Wrist: Diagnosis and Operative Treatment. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 503-506.
Question 24
High Yield
A 15-year-old boy reports leg pain after being tackled during football practice. Radiographs and a CT scan are shown in Figures 46a through 46c. The patient has a pathologic fracture through what underlying lesion?
Detailed Explanation
The images show a lobulated, eccentric, well-marginated lesion that is typical of a nonossifying fibroma. The lesion is slightly expansile, and the CT scan findings show that the lesion is very well marginated and the cortex is disrupted, which is a common finding. None of the characteristics of this lesion is aggressive in nature. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 69-75.
Question 25
High Yield
A 5-year-old boy sustained an elbow injury. Examination in the emergency department reveals that he is unable to flex the interphalangeal joint of his thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. The radial pulse is palpable at the wrist, and sensation is normal throughout the hand. Radiographs are shown in Figures 6a and 6b. In addition to reduction and pinning of the fracture, initial treatment should include
Explanation
The findings are consistent with a neurapraxia of the anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve. This is the most common nerve palsy seen with supracondylar humerus fractures, followed closely by radial nerve palsy. Nearly all cases of neurapraxia following supracondylar humerus fractures resolve spontaneously, and therefore, further diagnostic studies and surgery are not indicated. Cramer KE, Green NE, Devito DP: Incidence of anterior interosseous nerve palsy in supracondylar humerus fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:502-505.
Question 26
High Yield
An obese 10-year-old boy has had left groin pain and a limp for the past 2 months. Examination reveals decreased abduction and internal rotation. Laboratory studies show normal renal function and an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. AP and frog lateral radiographs of the pelvis are shown in Figures 30a and 30b. What is the best course of action?
Detailed Explanation
The radiographs show a grade I slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) that is classified as stable because the child is able to bear weight. The elevated TSH level indicates possible hypothyroidism. SCFE usually occurs in boys age 12 to 14 years. Because of the patient's young age and hypothyroidism, he is at increased risk for slippage of the contralateral hip; therefore, prophylactic pinning of the uninvolved side also should be considered. Because of the risk of slip progression, crutch treatment and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not indicated. Realignment osteotomy is not indicated for grade I SCFE. Traction to reduce the slip, followed by pinning, has been advocated for unstable slips but is not indicated here. Loder RT, Wittenberg B, DeSilva G: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis associated with endocrine disorders. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:349-356.
Question 27
High Yield
A 21-year-old man who underwent repair of a distal biceps tendon rupture using a two-incision approach 4 months ago now reports difficulty gaining rotation of his forearm. Figures 49a and 49b show the AP and lateral radiographs. What is the most likely cause of his problem?
Detailed Explanation
The radiographs show early ectopic bone formation originating between the ulna and the radius. The development of ectopic bone in this area following a two-incision approach for anatomic repair of the distal biceps tendon is thought to be related to exposure of the periosteum of the lateral ulna during surgery. This can be avoided by the use of a muscle-splitting incision between the extensor carpi ulnaris and common extensor muscles. Full pronation of the forearm allows for the necessary exposure of the radial tuberosity during the procedure and for fixation of the tendon at its maximal length. Morrey BF: Tendon injuries about the elbow, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed. 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, pp 492-503.
Question 28
A 16-year-old boy has had thigh pain for the past several months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a large, deeply fixed, soft-tissue mass in the thigh. Laboratory results show an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and leukocytosis. A plain radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 1a and 1b. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 1c and 1d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Ewing's sarcoma typically can occur in the diaphysis of the long bones (50% to 55%). It is often accompanied by a large soft-tissue mass. Abnormal findings are common, including a low-grade fever, an elevated ESR, and leukocytosis. The histology is consistent with a small round blue cell tumor. The unique pathology and other findings exclude osteosarcoma. Giant cell tumor and chondrosarcoma have a different histologic appearance and typically are more metaphyseal in location. Chondrosarcoma typically is found in older age groups, has a different histologic pattern, and rarely occurs in the midshaft of the femur.
Question 29
High Yield
A 73-year-old woman reports a 4-month history of severe left-sided posterior buttock pain and left leg pain. The leg pain radiates into the left lateral thigh and posterior calf with cramping. Examination reveals mild difficulty with a single-leg toe raise on the left side and a diminished ankle reflex. There is also a significant straight leg raise test at 45 degrees which exacerbates symptoms. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 4. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
Detailed Explanation
Lumbar spinal stenosis with lumbar radiculopathy can be commonly caused by a synovial cyst arising from the facet joints. Lyons and associates reported on the surgical treatment of synovial cysts in 194 patients. Of the 147 with follow-up data, 91% reported good pain relief and 82% had improvement of their motor deficits. Epstein reported a 58% to 63% incidence of good/excellent results and a 38 to 42 point improvement on the SF-36 Physical Function Scale. It was also suggested that since the presence of a synovial cyst indicates facet pathology, possible fusion should be considered in these patients, especially those with underlying spondylolisthesis. Lyons MK, Atkinson JL, Wharen RE, et al: Surgical evaluation and management of lumbar synovial cysts: The Mayo Clinic Experience. J Neurosurg 2000;93:53-57. Khan AM, Synnot K, Cammisa FP, et al: Lumbar synovial cysts of the spine: An evaluation of surgical outcome. J Spinal Disord Tech 2005;18:127-131.
Question 30
High Yield
A 14-year-old boy sustained a 100% displaced distal radius Salter-Harris type II fracture. Neurologic examination demonstrates normal motor examination and two-point discrimination. He undergoes fracture reduction to the anatomic position with the application of a long arm cast. Postreduction he reports increasing hand and wrist pain with diminution of two-point discrimination to 10 mm over the index and middle fingers over the next several hours after surgery. The cast is bivalved and the padding released relieving all external pressure over the arm. Reevaluation reveals increasing sensory deficit over the affected area. What is the next most appropriate management intervention?
Explanation
The patient has an evolving acute carpal tunnel syndrome. Initial management for this injury is to relieve all external pressure that may elevate the neural compression. Surgical decompression of the median nerve at the carpal tunnel is the optimal intervention. Further nonsurgical interventions (cast removal or further bivalving) are insufficient to alleviate the neural compression. Waters PM, Mih AD: Fractures of the distal radius and ulna, in Beaty JH, Kasser JR (eds): Fractures in Children, ed 6. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, 2006, p 361.
Question 31
High Yield
Figures 20a through 20d show the radiographs and MRI scans of a 59-year-old woman who has had symptoms consistent with progressive neurogenic claudication and back pain for the past 9 months. In the last 6 months, nonsurgical management consisting of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, and a series of epidural steroid injections have been used; however the injections, while beneficial, have provided only temporary relief of her symptoms. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
Explanation
Patients with a degenerative spondylolisthesis and severe stenosis who have failed appropriate nonsurgical management are candidates for surgical intervention. Most studies show good to excellent results in more than 85% of patients after lumbar decompression for stenosis. Atlas and associates found that at 8- to 10-year follow-up, leg pain relief and back-related functional status were greater in those patients opting for surgical treatment of the stenosis. Similarly, the decision to fuse a spondylolisthetic segment has been supported in the literature. Herkowitz and Kurz compared decompressive laminectomy alone and decompressive laminectomy with intertransverse arthrodesis in 50 patients with single-level spinal stenosis and degenerative spondylolisthesis. They demonstrated good to excellent results in 90% of the fused group compared to 44% in the nonfusion group. The decision to include instrumentation during the fusion is more controversial. Whereas the use of instrumentation has shown to improve fusion rates, it has not been conclusively shown to improve the overall clinical outcomes of patients. Atlas SJ, Keller RB, Wu YA, et al: Long-term outcomes of surgical and nonsurgical management of lumbar spinal stenosis: 8 to 10 year results from the Maine lumbar spine study. Spine 2005;30:936-943. Herkowitz HN, Kurz LT: Degenerative lumbar spondylolisthesis with spinal stenosis: A prospective study comparing decompression with decompression and intratransverse process arthrodesis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:802-808.
Question 32
A patient with diabetic peripheral neuropathy undergoes a partial first ray amputation for a chronic ulcer beneath the first metatarsal head. The insertion of the anterior tibialis is preserved. The patient has 10 degrees of passive dorsiflexion at the ankle and no other foot deformities or ulcers. Which of the following is considered appropriate shoe wear for this patient?
Explanation
The steel shank is a flat 1-inch steel strip placed between layers of the shoe to extend the foot lever and prevent deformity at the toe break seen following a partial first ray amputation. A rocker sole may be added as well to facilitate transition from foot flat to the toe-off phase of gait. Proper shoe fit is important, but "snug" fitting shoes in a patient with peripheral neuropathy and likely fluctuations in volume from intermittent swelling are to be avoided. A custom shoe is an unnecessary expense. The patient has at least 10 degrees of dorsiflexion at the ankle with an intact anterior tibialis muscle; therefore, catching the sole on carpeting should not be a problem. Philbin TM, Leyes M, Sferra JJ, et al: Orthotic and prosthetic devices in partial foot amputations. Foot Ankle Clin 2001;6:215-228.
Question 33
A 78-year-old woman falls onto her nondominant left elbow and sustains the injury shown in Figure 5. What treatment option allows her the shortest recovery time and highest likelihood of good function and range of motion?
Explanation
Total elbow arthroplasty has become the treatment of choice for complex, comminuted distal humeral fractures in patients older than age 70 years. It yields a faster recovery with more predictable functional outcomes, although limitations of lifting weight of more than 5 pounds must be followed to avoid loosening. Kamineni S, Morrey BF: Distal humeral fractures treated with noncustom total elbow replacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:940-947.
Question 34
High Yield
A 55-year-old man underwent cementless total hip arthroplasty for advanced painful osteoarthritis of the hip 2 years ago. The follow-up radiograph shown in Figure 30 shows
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph shows a well-osseointegrated tapered stem with a metaphyseal porous coating, spot welds in the porous region, and calcar rounding. Trochanteric stress shielding and distal cortical hypertrophy are also signs of ingrown stems but are seen more frequently in association with extensively porous-coated stems exhibiting diaphyseal ingrowth. There is no evidence of lucent lines or a pedestal, signs that suggest instability. Femoral stem subsidence can be determined only by a review of sequential radiographs. Engh CA, Massin P, Suthers KE: Roentgenographic assessment of the biologic fixation of porous-surfaced femoral components. Clin Orthop 1990;257:107-128.
Question 35
High Yield
When using the direct lateral (or Hardinge) approach for hip arthroplasty, three muscles are detached from the femur. In addition to the vastus lateralis, they include the
Detailed Explanation
This approach is criticized for the episodic limp associated with the muscle detachment and reattachment. Classically, two thirds of the gluteus medius is detached as a sleeve with the vastus lateralis. This exposes the gluteus minimus and the ligament of Bigelow. These must also be detached to allow dislocation of the hip and osteotomy of the femoral neck. The rectus femoris lies medially and anteriorly and does not need to be addressed. The piriformis and obturator internus are exposed during the posterior approach. Neither the gluteus maximus nor tensor fascia lata attach to the anterior femur. The sartorius and iliopsoas are not exposed during this dissection. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P (eds): Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, pp 333-335.
Question 36
High Yield
A 50-year-old laborer sustained an isolated closed injury to his heel after falling 11 feet off a wall. A radiograph and a CT scan are shown in Figures 4a and 4b. To minimize the patient's temporary disability and allow him to return to work most rapidly, management should consist of
Detailed Explanation
With a severe articular injury to the calcaneus, the ability to achieve satisfactory results with open reduction and internal fixation diminishes. An arthrodesis is often needed to allow a person who works as a laborer to return to work. Recent literature suggests that this can be successfully performed primarily, improving the odds of an earlier return to the labor force at 1 year. Huefner T, Thermann H, Geerling J, Pape HC, Pohlemann T: Primary subtalar arthrodesis of calcaneal fractures. Foot Ankle Int 2001;22:9-14. Coughlin MJ: Calcaneal fractures in the industrial patient. Foot Ankle Int 2000;21:896-905.
Question 37
Management of a grade IV osteochondritis dissecans lesion of the capitellum should consist of
Explanation
Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum is seen most commonly in adolescent athletes. It should be distinguished from osteochondrosis of the capitellum (Panner's disease), a self-limiting condition seen in younger patients. Lesions are graded I through V based on radiographic and arthroscopic appearance. Grade I lesions show intact but soft cartilage. Grade II lesions show fissuring of the overlying cartilage. Grade III lesions show exposed bone or an attached osteoarticular flap that is not loose. Grade IV lesions show a loose but nondisplaced osteoarticular flap. Grade V lesions show a displaced fragment. Simple excision of the loose osteoarticular flap is the treatment of choice for grade IV and V lesions. More complex procedures such as drilling of the in situ lesion, bone grafting, or internal fixation are associated with significantly worse results. While some authors advocate abrasion chondroplasty, the long-term benefits of the procedure are yet to be proven. Baumgarten TE: Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum. Sports Med Arthroscopy Rev 1995;3:219-223.
Question 38
High Yield
Figure 37 shows the clinical photograph of a 1-day-old infant who weighed 10.25 lb at birth. Examination reveals an absent right Moro reflex and limited active motion of the right shoulder, elbow, and wrist, but flexion of the fingers. Passive range of motion of the shoulder and elbow is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The patient's right upper extremity is held in the "head waiter's" posture with the shoulder internally rotated, the elbow extended, and the wrist in flexion. The Erb type of obstetrical brachial plexus palsy involves the C5 and C6 nerve root, and occasionally, as in this child, the C7 nerve root. Obstetrical palsy is a traction injury, and is associated with a high birth weight, shoulder dystocia, cephalopelvic disproportion, or the use of forceps. Erb palsy is four times more common than injury to the entire plexus or injury to the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It results from the shoulder being depressed while the head and neck are laterally rotated, extended, and tilted in the opposite direction. Most patients recover wrist extension and elbow flexion. Patients with residual weakness of shoulder external rotation and abduction will benefit from release of the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major, with transfer of the latissimus dorsi and the teres major to the posterosuperior aspect of the rotator cuff. Recent studies using arthrograms and CT scans have shown a higher incidence of posterior glenoid deficiency and posterior subluxation than that observed with plain radiographs. The posterior subluxation or dislocation can be effectively reduced by tendon release and transfer procedures. Hoffer MM, Phipps GJ: Closed reduction and tendon transfer for treatment of dislocation of the glenohumeral joint secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:997-1001. Pearl ML, Edgerton BW: Glenoid deformity secondary to brachial plexus birth palsy. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:659-667.
Question 39
Figure 14 shows an intra-articular gadolinium-enhanced MRI scan of a 52-year-old woman who has stopped playing tennis because of pain in her left shoulder while serving. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The MRI scan shows increased signal intensity along the deep fibers of the supraspinatus near its insertion. This is typical of tendinosis and a probable partial-thickness rotator cuff tear. Herzog RJ: Magnetic resonance imaging of the shoulder. Instr Course Lect 1998;47:3-20.
Question 40
High Yield
Based on the radiograph shown in Figure 4, the innervation of what muscle is most at risk with total hip arthroplasty?
Explanation
The radiograph reveals a Crowe IV deformity in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip. If hip arthroplasty is performed, then some degree of limb lengthening is anticipated. Excessive limb lengthening can result in sciatic nerve palsy in these patients. The peroneal branch of the sciatic nerve is most often affected. Of the muscles listed, only the extensor hallucis longus is innervated by the peroneal branch of the sciatic nerve. Eggli S, Hankemayer S, Muller ME: Nerve palsy after leg lengthening in total replacement arthroplasty for developmental dysplasia of the hip. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1999;81:843-845.
Question 41
High Yield
Figure 24 shows the radiograph of a 10-year-old boy who sustained a valgus injury to the knee. Examination reveals grade III medial laxity. Initial management should consist of
Detailed Explanation
Based on the mechanism of injury and findings of medial laxity, the most likely diagnosis is injury to either the growth plate or the medial collateral ligament. With the open physeal plate, this area of injury is presumed present until proven otherwise; therefore, stress radiographs should be obtained before implementing any treatment or ordering more extensive and expensive tests. DeLee JC: Ligamentous injury of the knee, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, vol 3, pp 406-432. Clanton TO, DeLee JC, Sanders B, Neidre A: Knee ligament injuries in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1195-1201.
Question 42
High Yield
When compared with the normal anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), placement of an anterior cruciate ligament graft in the over-the-top position on the femoral side has what effect on its function?
Detailed Explanation
The placement of ACL graft with respect to its femoral and tibial attachments has a significant effect on its function. Evidence has shown that if the graft is placed in the over-the-top position, the graft will become lax in flexion and more taut with extension. Conversely, if the graft is placed too anterior on the femoral side, it will tighten in flexion and become lax in extension. Azar FM: Revision anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction. Instr Course Lect 2002;51:335-342. Draganich LF, Hsieh YF, Sherwin SH, et al: Intra-articular anterior cruciate ligament graft placement on the average most isometric line on the femur: Does it reproducibly restore knee kinematics? Am J Sports Med 1999;27:329-334.
Question 43
What is the most appropriate orthotic management for the lesion shown in Figure 6?
Explanation
The figure shows an intractable plantar keratosis (IPK). The keratoma usually forms beneath a bony prominence. This can occur under the sesamoids, most commonly the tibial sesamoid, or under the fibular condyle of a prominent metatarsal head. The initial treatment of an IPK consists of paring down the callused lesion and placing a metatarsal pad proximal to the lesion to provide posting to unload the bony prominence.
Question 44
What is the average linear wear rate of a conventional, noncross-linked ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene liner used in total hip arthroplasty?
Explanation
Several studies have shown that ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene liners used in total hip arthroplasties wear at a rate of 0.1 to 0.2 mm/yr. The orthopaedic surgeon performing total hip arthroplasties should be aware of the average wear rate so that potential problems can be identified when following patients postoperatively. Callaghan JJ, Albright JC, Goetz DD, Olejniczak JP, Johnston RC: Charnley total hip arthroplasty with cement: Minimum twenty-five year follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:487-497.
Question 45
What is the main function of collagen found within articular cartilage?
Explanation
The main function of collagen in articular cartilage is to provide the tissue's tensile strength. It also immobilizes proteoglycans within the extracellular matrix. Compressive properties are maintained by proteoglycans. Cartilage metabolism is maintained by the indwelling chondrocytes. The flow of water through the tissue promotes transport of nutrients and provides a source of lubricant for the joint. Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 3-44.
Question 46
High Yield
Based on the appearance of the imaging studies shown in Figures 11a through 11c, what structure has most likely been injured?
Explanation
The radiographs reveal marked lateral subluxation of the patella in a patient who has recurrent patellar instability. The medial patellofemoral ligament is the main restraint to lateral subluxation of the patella. Boden BP, Pearsall AW: Patellofemoral instability: Evaluation and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:47-57.
Question 47
High Yield
A 30-year-old woman sustained a nondisplaced unilateral facet fracture of C5 in a motor vehicle accident. She is neurologically intact and has no other injuries. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a stable bony fracture that will heal with immobilization in a rigid collar. Flexion-extension radiographs may be obtained at 6 weeks to verify that there is no instability; mobilization may then be begun.
Question 48
High Yield
The need for postoperative allogeneic blood transfusions after total hip arthroplasty has been shown to be reduced when using
Explanation
In a prospective study, 216 patients were randomized into three groups consisting of low-dose preoperative erythropoietin, high-dose preoperative erythropoietin, and placebo control. All patients were treated for 4 weeks prior to total hip arthroplasty. Both the low- and high-dose erythropoietin groups had a significantly lower rate of blood transfusions (p < 0.001) after surgery. Waddell JP: Evidence-based orthopedics. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:788.
Question 49
High Yield
When comparing surgical and nonsurgical extremities in patients who underwent anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using patellar tendon or hamstrings autografts, isokinetic strength measurements obtained 6 months after the surgery would most likely reveal
Explanation
Follow-up examination at 6 months revealed no statistically significant differences in quadricep or hamstring strength when comparing surgical versus nonsurgical extremities isokinetically. Therefore, the selection of autogenous hamstring or patellar tendon for ACL reconstruction should not be based solely on the assumption of the graft tissue source altering the recovery of quadricep and/or hamstring strength. Carter TR, Edinger S: Isokinetic evaluation of anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction: Hamstring versus patellar tendon. Arthroscopy 1999;15:169-172 Howell SM, Taylor MA: Brace-free rehabilitation, with early return to activity, for knees reconstructed with a double-looped semitendinosus and gracilis graft. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:814-825.
Question 50
High Yield
Ulnohumeral distraction interposition arthroplasty is considered the most appropriate treatment for which of the following patients?
Explanation
Distraction interposition arthroplasty is indicated for the treatment of both rheumatoid and posttraumatic arthritis and is reserved for younger patients who are not suitable candidates for total elbow arthroplasty. Although less reliable than prosthetic replacement, distraction interposition arthroplasty is a useful option in the treatment of young, high-demand patients with elbow arthritis. It is rarely indicated in the presence of polyarticular inflammatory arthritis but may be of value in those patients in whom the disease is limited primarily to the elbow. Isolated radiocapitellar arthritis can be successfully treated with radial head resection, although caution should be exercised if there is evidence of instability. Osteoarthritis is best treated with ulnohumeral arthroplasty. Cheng SL, Morrey BF: Treatment of the mobile, painful arthritic elbow by distraction interposition arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2000;82:233-238.
Question 51
High Yield
In children with moderate to severe osteogenesis imperfecta (OI), intravenous pamidronate therapy has been shown to increase the thickness of cortical bone. This occurs primarily as a consequence of
Detailed Explanation
Histologic studies have shown that increased bone turnover is the rule in OI. Pamidronate (and all bisphosphonates) reduce osteoclast-mediated bone resorption. Osteoblastic new bone formation on the periosteal surface of long bones is minimally impaired. With inhibition of osteoclastic bone resorption on the endosteal surface, the cortex of the bone can begin to thicken as it does with normal growth in individuals unaffected by OI. Mineralization and collagen matrix organization are not directly affected by pamidronate. Zeitlin L, Fassier F, Glorieux FH: Modern approach to children with osteogenesis imperfecta. J Pediatr Orthop B 2003;12:77-87. Falk MJ, Heeger S, Lynch KA, et al: Intravenous bisphosphonate therapy in children with osteogenesis imperfecta. Pediatrics 2003;111:573-578.
Question 52
A 20-year-old-man sustained a scapular fracture after attempting to grab a beam as he fell through a ceiling at a job site 3 months ago. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 36. He now reports pain in the anterior shoulder and difficulty with overhead activities. What nerve roots make up the involved peripheral nerve?
Explanation
The patient sustained an injury to the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior. Branches of C5 and C6 enter the scalenus medius, unite in the muscle, and emerge as a single trunk and pass down the axilla. On the surface of the serratus anterior, the long thoracic nerve is joined by the branch from C7 and descends in front of the serratus anterior, providing segmental innervation to the serratus anterior.
Question 53
In the anterior forearm approach to the distal radius (Henry approach), the radial artery is located between what two structures?
Explanation
The standard approach to the volar aspect of the distal radius is the Henry approach. Following incision of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, the forearm fascia is incised. The radial artery and venae comitantes lie in the interval between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis muscle and the brachioradialis muscle. This interval is developed, and the radial artery and veins are retracted in a radial direction. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 118-131.
Question 54
A 22-year-old man reports anterior knee pain, swelling, and is unable to perform a straight leg raise after undergoing endoscopic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft 1 week ago. He is afebrile. Examination reveals a clean incision, moderate effusion, a weak isometric quadriceps contraction, active knee range of motion of 5 degrees to 45 degrees, and the patella is ballottable. Knee radiographs show postoperative changes with good femoral and tibial tunnel placements, and normal patellar height. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Knee pain and swelling in the first week after ACL reconstruction is usually related to a postoperative hemarthrosis. A large hemarthrosis creates capsular distension, which inhibits active quadriceps contraction by a neurologic reflex, the H. reflex. Kennedy and associates reported that an experimentally induced knee effusion at 60 mL was found to result in profound inhibition of reflexly evoked quadriceps contraction. Removal of the hemarthrosis by aspiration will improve strength and often instantaneously restore the ability to contract the quadriceps muscle. A large effusion will also limit knee flexion. EMG and NCVS are not necessary unless there is a high index of suspicion of a femoral neuropathy. Diagnostic ultrasonography is not necessary in this patient but can be useful in the assessment of patellar tendon integrity. MRI is not indicated and would most likely be limited by artifact and postoperative changes. Continuous passive motion is not indicated and would most likely worsen the patient's symptoms. Kennedy JC, Alexander IJ, Hayes KC: Nerve supply of the human knee and its functional importance. Am J Sports Med 1982;10:329-335.
Question 55
High Yield
A 22-year-old right hand-dominant man who fell off his motorcycle onto the tip of his right shoulder 2 weeks ago now reports pain and difficulty raising his right arm. Examination reveals tenderness and gross movement over the lateral scapular spine and severe weakness during resisted abduction. A radiograph and 3D-CT scan are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The patient has a displaced scapular spine fracture that has resulted in shoulder weakness from a poor deltoid lever arm. The downward tilt may lead to subacromial impingement and rotator cuff dysfunction. Open reduction and internal fixation would best allow normal deltoid and shoulder function. Bone stimulators and abduction bracing may lead to healing but in a malunited position. Arthroscopic acromioplasty and fragment excision should be avoided. Ogawa K, Naniwa T: Fractures of the acromion and the lateral scapular spine. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1997;6:544-548.
Question 56
A 25-year-old man has had an insidious onset of left hip pain over the past 11 months. A radiograph, coronal MRI scan, and histopathologic specimens are seen in Figures 2a through 2d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Ewing's sarcoma is the second most common primary sarcoma of bone in children and young adults. It is a malignant round cell tumor with uncertain histogenesis. Sheets of uniform small round blue cells with a high nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio and the absence of osteoid formation differentiate this histologic diagnosis from the other conditions. Immunohistochemical staining and molecular diagnostic studies are useful to verify the diagnosis.
Question 57
High Yield
The radiograph shown in Figure 54 reveals that the plate on the second metacarpal is acting in what manner?
Explanation
There are four ways in which a plate acts: compression, tension bend, bridge or spanning, and buttress. Since there is no cortical contact with the large span of comminution, this plate is acting as a bridge plate. A bridge plate is defined as when the plate is used as an extramedullary splint attached to the two main fragments, leaving the comminution untouched.
Question 58
High Yield
The most common mechanism of injury to the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) involves
Detailed Explanation
TFCC tears are common in athletes. As the athlete braces for a fall, the wrist is most commonly in an extended position and the forearm is pronated. Cohen MS: Ligamentous injuries of the wrist in the athlete. Clin Sports Med 1998;17:533-552.
Question 59
In the majority of patients with chronic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)-deficient knees, analysis of the gait pattern during level walking will most likely reveal which of the following changes?
Explanation
Patients with chronic ACL-deficient knees typically have lower than normal net quadriceps activity during the middle portion of the stance phase; the net moment about the knee reverses from one that demands quadriceps activity to one that demands increased hamstring activity. This type of gait is termed "quadriceps avoidance." This avoidance is believed to be a functional adaptation to reduce anterior tibial translation, and it is most prevalent as the knee moves from 45 degrees of flexion toward full extension, the arc of motion through which the ACL is most responsible for stability. Hurwitz DE, Andriacchi TP, Bush-Joseph CA, Bach BR Jr: Functional adaptations in patients with ACL-deficient knees. Exerc Sport Sci Rev 1997;25:1-20. Andriacchi TP, Birac D: Functional testing in the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee. Clin Orthop 1993;288:40-47.
Question 60
What region of the thoracic curve is most dangerous for pedicle screw insertion while performing a posterior fusion for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis?
Explanation
Morphologic and anatomic studies confirm the pedicle is smaller on the concave side of thoracic curves. The dura is also closer to the pedicle on the concave side of the curves. Liljenqvist U, Allkemper T, Hackenberg L, et al: Analysis of vertebral morphology in idiopathic scoliosis with use of magnetic resonance imaging and multiplanar reconstruction. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:359-368.
Question 61
A 28-year-old hockey player has a shoulder deformity after being checked into the boards. Examination reveals that swelling has improved, but there is tenderness along the distal clavicle. Radiographs reveal a grade II acromioclavicular joint separation. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
The most common shoulder injury in hockey players is to the acromioclavicular joint. Early rest and control of pain and inflammation is the preferred management. Surgery is reserved for patients with significant coracoclavicular disruption that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Cross-chest stretches and overhead exercises may increase symptoms. A cortisone injection within the glenohumeral joint will have little effect. Nuber GW, Bowen MK: Acromioclavicular joint injuries and distal clavicle fractures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:11-18.
Question 62
High Yield
The dorsal digital cutaneous nerve of the great toe shown in Figure 8 is a branch of what nerve?
Explanation
The dorsal digital cutaneous nerve of the great toe is a branch of the medial branch of the superficial peroneal nerve. The deep peroneal nerve supplies the first web space. McMinn RMH, Hutchings RT, Logan BM: Color Atlas of Foot and Ankle Anatomy. Weert, Netherlands, Wolfe Medical Publications, 1982, p 50.
Question 63
Radiating pain associated with a posterolateral thoracic disk herniation typically follows what pattern?
Explanation
Although symptomatic thoracic disk herniations can affect more caudal structures, even to the point of paralysis, the pattern of radiating pain has been described as either following the dermatomal band around the chest or feeling to the patient as if the pain passes straight anteriorly to the chest wall.
Question 64
High Yield
Figure 11 shows the radiograph of an 18-year-old soccer player who reports recurrent lateral foot pain after sustaining an inversion injury. History reveals that 6 months ago he had been treated in a non-weight-bearing cast for a fifth metatarsal fracture. Management should consist of
Explanation
Fractures in this area of the fifth metatarsal have a high incidence of delayed union, nonunion, and recurrence with nonsurgical management. In an acute fracture, prolonged casting in a non-weight-bearing cast may allow for healing; however, in the presence of prolonged symptoms, recurrent fracture, and intermedullary sclerosis, surgical treatment is preferred. Surgery most commonly consists of intermedullary fixation or medullary curettage and bone grafting, followed by application of a non-weight-bearing cast. Torg JS, Balduini FC, Zelko RR, Pavlov H, Peff TC, Das M: Fractures of the base of the fifth metatarsal distal to the tuberosity: Classification and guidelines for nonsurgical and surgical management. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:209-214.
Question 65
High Yield
A 26-year-old ballet dancer reports posterolateral ankle pain, especially with maximal plantar flexion. Examination reveals maximal tenderness just posterior to the lateral malleolus, and symptoms are heightened with forced passive plantar flexion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 42a and 42b. What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Detailed Explanation
The patient has a symptomatic os trigonum caused by impingement that occurs with maximal plantar flexion of the ankle in the demi-pointe or full-pointe position. Patients frequently report posterolateral pain localized behind the lateral malleolus that may be misinterpreted as a disorder of the peroneal tendon. Pain with passive plantar flexion (the plantar flexion sign) indicates posterior impingement, not a problem with the peroneal tendon. The symptoms are not characteristic of a stress fracture, nor do the radiographs show a stress fracture or an osteochondritis dissecans lesion. The os trigonum is modest in its dimensions. The incidence or magnitude of symptoms does not correlate with the size of the fragment. Large fragments may be asymptomatic, while small lesions may create significant symptoms. Marotta JJ, Micheli LJ: Os trigonum impingement in dancers. Am J Sports Med 1992;20:533-536.
Question 66
High Yield
A 9-year-old boy falls from a scooter and sustains the injury shown in the radiographs in Figure 26. After closed reduction and cast immobilization, what is the most likely complication that can result?
Explanation
The radiographs show a fracture of the distal radius and ulna physis. The most likely complication is growth arrest of the distal ulna. In contradistinction to physis fractures of the radius (growth arrest incidence of less than 5%), the incidence of growth arrest in the ulna is between 30% and 40%. Entrapment of the EPL tendon and cross union between the two bones is extremely rare. Vanheest A: Wrist deformities after fracture. Hand Clin 2006;22:113-120. Cannata G, De Maio F, Mancini F, et al: Physeal fractures of the distal radius and ulna: Long-term prognosis. J Orthop Trauma 2003;17:172-179. Ray TD, Tessler RH, Dell PC: Traumatic ulnar physeal arrest after distal forearm fractures in children. J Pediatr Orthop 1996;16:195-200.
Question 67
High Yield
One advantage of using onlay strut allograft in femoral revision surgery is that it can
Explanation
Onlay grafts can provide more structural support than morcellized grafts. They are more easily incorporated into the host femur than bulk segmental total femur allografts; however, the incorporation is never complete. The use of onlay grafts is principally directed at addressing segmental defects of the femur; their use can be applied with either cementless or cement fixation of the femoral stem. Emerson RH Jr, Malinin TI, Cuellar AD, Head WC, Peters PC: Cortical strut allografts in the reconstruction of the femur in revision total hip arthroplasty: A basic science and clinical study. Clin Orthop 1992;285:35-44. Pak JH, Paprosky WG, Jablonsky WS, Lawrence JM: Femoral strut allografts in cementless revision total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1993;295:172-178.
Question 68
The medial collateral ligament complex of the elbow originates on what portion of the medial epicondyle?
Explanation
The medial collateral ligament complex of the elbow consists of three portions: the anterior bundle, the posterior bundle, and a transverse component that has little biomechanic significance. The origin of the ligament is from the central two thirds of the anteroinferior undersurface of the medial epicondyle.
Question 69
A 45-year-old man sustains an acute closed posterolateral elbow dislocation. The elbow is reduced, and examination reveals that the elbow dislocates posteriorly at 35 degrees with the forearm placed in supination. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
Most closed simple dislocations are best managed with early range of motion. Posterior dislocation typically occurs through a posterolateral rotatory mechanism. When placed in pronation, the elbow has greater stability when the medial ligamentous structures are intact. In traumatic dislocations, MRI rarely provides additional information that will affect treatment. In elbows that remain unstable, primary repair is preferred over ligament reconstruction. Cast immobilization increases the risk of arthrofibrosis.
Question 70
A 51-year-old male truck driver has had progressive left hip pain for more than 2 years, and he reports that the pain has become severe in the past 9 months. He is now unable to work because of the pain. Examination reveals that range of motion of the hip is limited to 95 degrees of flexion, 0 degrees of internal rotation, and 20 degrees of external rotation. The plain radiograph, MRI scan, and intraoperative gross photographs are shown in Figures 9a through 9d. Management should consist of
Explanation
The diagnosis is synovial chondromatosis. While the plain radiograph fails to show any calcifications, the MRI scan shows an intra-articular mass that involves the capsule. Grossly multiple granular cartilage nodules are seen. Management should consist of removing all loose bodies along with the synovial membrane.
Question 71
Osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum is a source of elbow pain and most commonly occurs in what patient population?
Explanation
The etiology of osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum is somewhat unclear. However, trauma has been implicated in this disease process. Gymnasts who load their upper extremities during tumbling and throwing athletes with repetitive trauma during the throwing motion are common patient subgroups in which osteochondritis dissecans of the elbow is seen. This often occurs in the adolescent age population. Baumgarten TE, Andrews JR, Satterwhite YE: The arthroscopic classification and treatment of osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum. Am J Sports Med 1998;26:520-523.
Question 72
Which of the following is not a reported mode of failure for a constrained acetabular component?
Explanation
There is no evidence of increased polyethylene wear in constrained acetabular components. The rates of wear appear to be the same using standard or constrained liners. Lachiewicz PF, Kelley SS: Constrained components in total hip arthroplasty. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2002;10:233-238. Anderson MJ, Murray WR, Skinner HB: Constrained acetabular components. J Arthroplasty 1994;9:17-23.
Question 73
Which of the following medications may have a negative effect on bone healing following fracture?
Explanation
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that are COX-1 primary inhibitors have been shown in animal studies to delay or inhibit fracture healing. COX-2 inhibitors also delay healing but to a lesser extent than COX-1 inhibitors. The other medications listed do not alter fracture callus formation. Gerstenfeld LC, Thiede M, Seibert K, et al: Differential inhibition of fracture healing by non-selective and cyclooxygenase-2 selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. J Orthop Res 2003;21:670-675.
Question 74
High Yield
A 55-year-old woman with a long history of low back and left lower extremity pain has failed to respond to exhaustive nonsurgical management. MRI scans show bulging and degeneration at L3-4 and L4-5 as well as a normal disk at L2-3 and L5-S1. She undergoes provocative lumbar diskography at L3-4, L4-5, and L5-S1. Post-diskography axial CT images of L3-4 and L4-5 are shown in Figures 6a and 6b, respectively. The injections at L3-4 and L4-5 produce no pain. The injection at L5-S1 produces 10/10 concordant back pain with radiation to the lower extremity. What is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
Detailed Explanation
The results of this patient's lumbar diskography are equivocal at best. The two disks most likely to be her pain generators, based on their MRI appearance, produced 10/10 pain, however it was nonconcordant and did not reproduce any of her typical left-sided radicular symptoms. The only disk that produced concordant back pain was the normal disk at the L5-S1 level and it reproduced radicular symptoms on the side opposite of her typical pain. Based on these findings, it would be difficult to select a level or levels to include in a lumbar fusion. As such, continued nonsurgical management is the safest treatment option at the current time. Brox and associates reported on a randomized clinical trial comparing lumbar fusion to cognitive intervention and exercise and found similar results in both groups, with significantly less risk in the latter. Brox JI, Sorensen R, Friis A, et al: Randomized clinical trial of lumbar instrumented fusion and cognitive intervention and exercises in patients with chronic low back pain and disc degeneration. Spine 2003;28:1913-1921.
Question 75
A 7-year-old girl has had a painful forearm for the past 2 months. Examination reveals fullness on the volar aspect of the forearm. Radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 42a through 42c. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 42d and 42e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographs reveal phleboliths on the volar side of the forearm consistent with hemangioma. The MRI scan reveals a rather well-circumscribed in size, irregular in shape, intramuscular soft-tissue mass in the volar aspect of the distal right forearm within the flexor group musculature. The mass demonstrates heterogeneous mixed signal intensity in both T1- and T2-weighted sequences with increased signal intensity on the T1, suggesting fat within the tumor, typical of hemangioma. The postgadolinium-enhanced sequences demonstrate heterogeneous enhancement. The MRI findings are consistent with a soft-tissue hemangioma. Garzon M: Hemangiomas: Update on classification, clinical presentation and associate anomalies. Cutis 2000;66:325-328.
Question 76
A 45-year-old man seen in the emergency department reports a 1-week history of worsening low back pain and a progressive neurologic deficit in the S1 distribution. Examination reveals 2/5 strength in the gastrocnemius. Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 13,500/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 74 mm/h. Radiographs of the lumbosacral spine show narrowing of the L5-S1 disk space, with irregularity of the end plates. A sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 8. Definitive management should consist of
Explanation
The history, physical examination, laboratory, and radiographic findings are most consistent with an infectious process. When there are signs of neurologic compromise, surgery is generally recommended. This is an anterior process, and anterior column debridement is necessary, followed by stabilization. Anterior or posterior stabilization is a reasonable option, but posterior decompression alone is unlikely to adequately reverse the process and may lead to segmental kyphosis. Frymoyer JW, Wiesel SW (eds): The Adult and Pediatric Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2003, pp 165-189.
Question 77
Titanium and its alloys are unsuitable candidates for which of the following implant applications?
Explanation
Titanium alloy is highly biocompatible, has higher strength than stainless steel, and is highly resistant to corrosion. It is particularly suited for use in fracture plates, bone screws, and intramedullary nails because of its low modulus of elasticity (low stiffness), which can reduce stress shielding. It is also widely used for porous-ingrowth coatings. However, clinical experience has shown that titanium alloy bearing surfaces such as a femoral ball are highly susceptible to severe metallic wear, particularly in the presence of third-body abrasive particles (PMMA fragments, bone chips, metal debris, etc). McKellop HA, Sarmiento A, Schwinn CP, et al: In vivo wear of titanium-alloy hip prostheses. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:512-517. Salvati EA, Betts F, Doty SB: Particulate metallic debris in cemented total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1993;293:160-173.
Question 78
High Yield
Following a vertebroplasty of L2, cement is noted to protrude directly anterior to the L2 vertebral body. The cement is closest to which of the following structures?
Explanation
At the level of L2, the liver and the vena cava lie to the right. The pancreas and duodenum are anterior to the aorta. The aorta lies in the midline just in front of the vertebral body. Clement CD: Anatomy: A Regional Atlas of Human Anatomy, ed 3. Baltimore, MD, Munich, Germany, Urban and Schwarzberg, 1987, Figure 331.
Question 79
A 42-year-old woman underwent an instrumented posterior spinal fusion at L3-S1 with transforaminal lumbar interbody fusion. She had an excellent clinical result with complete resolution of leg pain. Three months later she now reports increasing back pain and weakness in her legs. Examination reveals weakness in the quadriceps and tibialis anterior. Radiographs show no interval changes in the position of the hardware. MRI scans are shown in Figures 2a through 2c. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
The MRI scans reveal a postoperative infection. Observation and antibiotics are not appropriate choices. There is a large fluid collection and this requires decompression because the patient has neurologic changes. There is considerable debate regarding the removal of hardware. Many contend that biofilm on the implants can harbor the infection. However, these complications usually can be treated with serial irrigations, debridements, and IV antibiotics. The incidence of infection has been widely studied with varying rates in fusions with instrumentation. Rates appear to be increased with instrumentation, yet these infections usually can be managed without hardware removal. Glassman SD, Dimar JR, Puno RM, et al: Salvage of instrumental lumbar fusions complicated by surgical wound infection. Spine 1996;21:2163-2169.
Question 80
High Yield
A 21-year-old college student reports hearing a pop and has acute pain laterally over the ankle after twisting it during a recreational basketball game. Examination 1 hour after the injury reveals minimal swelling and ecchymosis. The anterior drawer sign is positive. Radiographs reveal no evidence of a fracture. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
Even though the patient has a grade 3 ankle ligament injury, studies have shown that 95% of patients with a grade 3 injury that may include a complete tear of the ligaments will heal successfully with conservative functional management. Extensive diagnostic evaluation with stress radiographs, CT, and MRI is not indicated. Surgical reconstruction is not indicated because of the overwhelming success of conservative management; however, in the few patients where late instability develops, surgical reconstruction offers an excellent outcome. Carne P: Nonsurgical treatment of ankle sprains using the modified Sarmiento brace. Am J Sports Med 1989;17:253-257.
Question 81
High Yield
Figure 33 shows the venogram of a patient who has a long history of alcohol abuse. Warfarin should be used cautiously because of the interaction with which of the following factors?
Explanation
Warfarin acts by inhibiting clotting factors II, VII, IX, X. The actual mechanism of action is by inhibition of hepatic enzymes, vitamin K epoxide, and perhaps vitamin K reductase. This inhibition results in lack of carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent proteins (II, VII, IX, X). The anticoagulant effect of warfarin can be reversed with vitamin K or fresh-frozen plasma. The use of alcohol may lead to liver dysfunction and an even more limited margin of available factors. Lieberman JR, Wollaeger J, Dorey F, et al: The efficacy of prophylaxis with low-dose warfarin for prevention of pulmonary embolism following total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:319-325.
Question 82
Failure of high tibial osteotomy (HTO) is most closely associated with which of the following factors?
Explanation
Long-term survivorship studies have attempted to clarify patient factors related to good outcomes in HTO. One particular study showed that a patient age of less than 50 years was related to good outcomes in those who had good preoperative knee flexion. The same study found no relation between HTO failure and the presence of postoperative infection or deep venous thrombosis. The presence of a lateral tibial thrust is a contraindication to performing this surgery. As expected, good patient selection is critical to obtaining good long-term results with HTO. Naudie D, Borne RB, Rorabeck CH, Bourne TJ: Survivorship of the high tibial valgus osteotomy: A 10- to 22-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1999;367:18-27. Rinonapoli E, Mancini GB, Corvaglia A, Musiello S: Tibial osteotomy for varus gonarthrosis: A 10- to 21-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1998;353:185-193.
Question 83
High Yield
A 3-year-old boy with severe cerebral palsy is unable to sit independently and does not crawl. Examination reveals a 40-degree hip flexion contracture by the Thomas test and 25 degrees of passive abduction. A radiograph of the pelvis shows subluxation of both hips, with a migration index of 30%. Management should consist of
Explanation
Progressive hip subluxation occurs in up to 50% of children with spastic quadriparesis. The subluxation is the result of chronic muscle hypertonicity, especially in the adductor muscle group. In time, the constant muscle tension will lead to dislocation, dysplastic changes in the acetabulum, and erosive changes in the cartilage of the femoral head. Many of these children will experience pain. Two recent studies have shown that early soft-tissue releases can successfully prevent progressive subluxation in children who are younger than age 4 years and who have a Reimers index (migration index) of less than 40%. Botulinum toxin A injections may reduce tone in the adductors for 4 to 6 months, but it is difficult to inject into the iliopsoas. Additionally, there are no long-term studies documenting the efficacy of botulinum toxin A to treat progressive hip subluxation in patients who have spastic quadriparesis. In general, proximal femoral osteotomy, combined with soft-tissue release as necessary, is indicated in older children (older than age 4 years) with progressive subluxation. Although selective dorsal rhizotomy has been used in nonambulatory patients, outcomes are less well documented than in ambulatory patients. There are no studies documenting the effect of selective dorsal rhizotomy on progressive hip subluxation in nonambulatory children. Miller F, Cardoso Dias R, Dabney KW, et al: Soft-tissue release for spastic hip subluxation in cerebral palsy. J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:571-584.
Question 84
Closure of the rotator cuff interval results in elimination of which direction of shoulder instability?
Explanation
The rotator cuff interval consists of the superior glenohumeral and coracohumeral ligaments. Injury to this ligament complex leads to posteroinferior shoulder instability. Tightening of these tissues through surgical means has been shown to result in a significant reduction in posteroinferior translation of the humerus in relation to the glenoid. Harryman DT II, Sidles JA, Harris SL, et al: The role of the rotator interval capsule in passive motion and stability of the shoulder. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:53-66. O'Brien SJ, Schwartz RS, Warren RF, et al: Capsular restraints to anterior-posterior motion of the abducted shoulder: A biomechanical study. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 1995;4:298-308.
Question 85
High Yield
In Figure 2, which of the following structures is the primary stabilizer in preventing valgus instability of the elbow?
Explanation
The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is the prime stabilizer of the medial aspect of the elbow and is indicated by "B" in the figure. When intact, this anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament is a restraint to valgus instability of the elbow. The posterior bundle is regarded as a secondary stabilizer of the medial elbow (C). The transverse bundle (D), annular ligament (A), and biceps tendon (E) do not play a role in valgus stability of the elbow. Jobe F, Elattrache N: Diagnosis and treatment of ulnar collateral ligament injuries in athletes, in Morrey B (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, p 566.
Question 86
The oblique radiograph of the foot and the CT scan shown in Figures 10a and 10b show a patient whose symptoms have failed to respond to rest and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
The radiograph and MRI scan show elongation and fragmentation of the os peroneum. Although casting, orthoses, and steroid injection may relieve symptoms, excision of the os peroneum and primary repair when necessary, with or without tenodesis of the peroneus longus to the peroneus brevis, have been shown to produce excellent results. Haddad SL: Disorders of tendons: Peroneal tendon dysfunction, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 812-817.
Question 87
A 25-year-old tennis player has shoulder pain and weakness to external rotation. MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What is the most likely cause of his weakness?
Explanation
The MRI scans show a paralabral cyst, which is most commonly associated with labral tears. Compression of the suprascapular nerve results in weakness of the supraspinatus and/or infraspinatus depending on the level of compression. Piatt BE, Hawkins RJ, Fritz RC, et al: Clinical evaluation and treatment of spinoglenoid notch ganglion cysts. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2002;11:600-604.
Question 88
High Yield
A 73-year-old man who underwent repair of the left rotator cuff 6 years ago reports good pain relief but notes residual weakness of the left shoulder, especially with overhead tasks. He denies having pain at night and has minimal discomfort with activities of daily living but is dissatisfied with his shoulder strength. Radiographs show an acromiohumeral interval of 2 mm. Appropriate management should consist of
Explanation
An exercise program to strengthen the deltoid and remaining rotator cuff will most likely offer the best results. Revision rotator cuff surgery yields better results in decreasing pain than improving strength and function, and this patient has only minimal pain. Tendon transfers, involving the use of the latissimus dorsi or teres major, have been used when the rotator cuff is deemed irreparable but are not indicated in elderly patients with minimal symptoms. Bigliani LU, Cordasco FA, McIlveen SJ, Musso ES: Operative treatment of failed repairs of the rotator cuff. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:1505-1515. DeOrio JK, Cofield RH: Results of a second attempt at surgical repair of a failed initial rotator-cuff repair. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:563-567.
Question 89
Significant anterior tibial translation occurs during which of the following rehabilitation exercises?
Explanation
Terminal non-weight-bearing knee extension exercises from 60 degrees to 0 degrees of flexion increase anterior tibial translation. It is for this reason that this type of exercise should be avoided in the early phase of rehabilitation following anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction so as not to place a tensile strain on the graft. The other rehabilitation exercises either lead to posterior tibial translation in relation to the femur or have no significant effect on tibial translation. Grood ES, Suntay WJ, Noyes FR, et al: Biomechanics of the knee extension exercise: Effect of cutting the anterior cruciate ligament. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:725-734. Lutz GE, Palmitier RA, An KN: Comparison of tibiofemoral joint forces during open-kinetic-chain and closed-kinetic-chain exercises. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:732-739.
Question 90
A 25-year-old man sustained an L1 compression fracture in a fall from his roof. He is neurologically intact and has no other injuries. Radiographs reveal a 25% loss of height anteriorly and 5 degrees of kyphosis at the fracture site. A CT scan reveals no compromise of the posterior column. Management should consist of
Explanation
The patient has a stable fracture that can be initially treated with bed rest, followed by bracing and quick mobilization. The outcome is good and surgery is not required. These fractures can be treated nonsurgically if there is less than 50% compression, 15 degrees of angulation, and intact posterior structures. Cantor JB, Lebwohl NH, Garvey T, Eismont FJ: Nonoperative management of stable thoracolumbar burst fractures with early ambulation and bracing. Spine 1993;18:971-976.
Question 91
A 28-year-old professional dancer reports a 3-month history of progressive pain in the posterior aspect of the left ankle. Her symptoms are worse when she assumes the en pointe position. Examination reveals tenderness to palpation at the posterolateral aspect of the ankle posterior to the peroneal tendons which is made worse with passive plantar flexion. There is no nodularity, fluctuance, or tenderness of the Achilles tendon. The neurovascular examination is unremarkable. A lateral radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 16a and 16b, respectively. Management should consist of
Explanation
The imaging studies reveal findings typical of the os trigonum syndrome. This condition results from inflammation between the os trigonum and the adjacent talus. The symptoms of posterior ankle pain are exacerbated by plantar flexion, which stresses the fibrous union between these two bones. Definitive management of the high-level athlete involves excision of the os trigonum from a medial approach, although arthroscopic excision has also been described. The os trigonum is not an intra-articular structure; therefore, ankle arthroscopy is neither diagnostic nor therapeutic. Abramowitz Y, Wollstein R, Barzilay Y, et al: Outcome of resection of a symptomatic os trigonum. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:1051-1057. Mouhsine E, Crevoisier X, Leyvraz P, et al: Post-traumatic overload or acute syndrome of the os trigonum: A possible cause of posterior ankle impingement. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc 2004;12:250-253.
Question 92
High Yield
A 42-year-old man who is right-hand dominant injured his right shoulder when he fell from a ladder onto his outstretched arm 1 hour ago. Radiographs reveal a two-part greater tuberosity anterior fracture-dislocation. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Greater tuberosity anterior fractures associated with anterior glenohumeral dislocations respond very well to closed methods in the majority of patients. Closed reduction of the glenohumeral joint often anatomically reduces the greater tuberosity into its cancellous bed, without the need for open fixation or cuff repair. Once closed reduction of the joint is performed, tuberosity displacement and joint articulation should be evaluated radiographically with AP and scapular lateral views as well as an axillary view. The axillary view will not only definitively show the joint articulation but also demonstrate posterior displacement of the greater tuberosity missed on the AP and lateral views. If no or minimal (5 mm) displacement is found, then nonsurgical management consisting of a sling and gentle passive range-of-motion exercises can be instituted. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 271-286.
Question 93
When harvesting an iliac crest bone graft from the posterior approach, what anatomic structure is at greatest risk for injury if a Cobb elevator is directed too caudal?
Explanation
If a Cobb elevator is directed caudally while stripping the periosteum over the iliac wing, it will encounter the sciatic notch. Although this puts the sciatic nerve at risk, the first structure encountered is the superior gluteal artery. Because it is tethered at the superior edge of the notch, it is very vulnerable to injury and can then retract inside the pelvis, making it difficult to obtain hemostasis. The inferior gluteal artery exits the sciatic notch below the piriformis and is more protected. The cluneal nerves are at risk only if the incision extends too anteriorly, and the sacroiliac joint can be entered while harvesting the graft. Banwart JC, Asher MA, Hassanein RS: Iliac crest bone graft harvest donor site morbidity: A statistical evaluation. Spine 1995;20:1055-1060.
Question 94
Figure 7 shows the CT scan of a 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher who has had elbow pain for the past 6 months despite rest from throwing. Management should consist of
Explanation
The CT scan shows a stress fracture of the olecranon. This injury is the result of repetitive abutment of the olecranon into the olecranon fossa, traction from triceps activity during the deceleration phase of the throwing motion, and impaction of the medial olecranon onto the olecranon fossa from valgus forces. Fractures may be either transverse or oblique in orientation. Initial treatment consists of rest and temporary splinting. Electrical bone stimulation may also be considered. Open fixation with a large compression screw is recommended when nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Ahmad CS, ElAttrache NS: Valgus extension overload syndrome and stress injury of the olecranon. Clin Sports Med 2004;23:665-676.
Question 95
A 3-year-old boy has a rigid 40-degree lumbar scoliosis that is the result of a fully segmented L5 hemivertebra. All other examination findings are normal. Management should consist of
Explanation
Near complete correction and rebalancing of the spine can be achieved by hemivertebral resection that may be done as either a simultaneous or a staged procedure in the young patient. This eliminates the problem of future progression and possible development of compensatory curves. Nonsurgical management is not indicated in congenital scoliosis. Convex hemiepiphyseodesis is best suited for patients younger than age 5 years who have a short curve caused by fully segmented hemivertebrae that correct to less than 40 degrees with the patient supine. Hemiepiphyseodesis and isolated posterior fusion are not indicated. Bradford DS, Boachie-Adjei O: One-stage anterior and posterior hemivertibral resection and arthrodesis for congenital scoliosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:536-540.
Question 96
High Yield
A 13-year-old girl who is 2 years postmenarche has been referred for management of scoliosis. She denies any history of back pain. Radiographs show a right thoracic curve of 35 degrees. She has a Risser sign of 4 and a bone age of 15.5 years. Management should consist of
Detailed Explanation
Because the patient is skeletally mature with a curve of less than 40 degrees, there is no benefit to bracing and surgery is not indicated. Management should consist of observation and follow-up radiographs in 6 months. Lonstein JE, Carlson JM: The prediction of curve progression in untreated idiopathic scoliosis during growth. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1984;66:1061-1071.
Question 97
A collegiate football player who sustained a blow to the head during the first quarter of a game is confused for several minutes after the hit but does not lose consciousness. He had two similar episodes in games earlier in the season. When should he be allowed to return to play?
Explanation
Using the traditional concussion grading scale, the patient sustained a grade I concussion because he did not lose consciousness and his abnormal cognitive level lasted less than 1 hour. If this was the player's first concussion, theoretically he could return to play later in the game provided that he had no confusion, headache, or associated symptoms. However, because it was the third concussion for the year, participation in contact sports should be terminated for the season. Guskiewwicz KM, Barth JT: Head injuries, in Schenk RC Jr (ed): Athletic Training and Sports Medicine. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 143-167.
Question 98
High Yield
A Canale view best visualizes which of the following structures?
Detailed Explanation
The Canale view, which visualizes the talar neck, is taken with the ankle in maximum plantar flexion and the foot pronated 15 degrees. The radiograph is directed at a 75 degree angle from the horizontal plane in the anteroposterior plane. The Broden view, which is different from the Canale view, is best for imaging the posterior facet of the subtalar joint. Canale ST, Kelly FB Jr: Fractures of the neck of the talus: Long-term evaluation of seventy-one cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1978;60:143-156.
Question 99
Figure 24 shows the radiograph of a 10-year-old boy who sustained a valgus injury to the knee. Examination reveals grade III medial laxity. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Based on the mechanism of injury and findings of medial laxity, the most likely diagnosis is injury to either the growth plate or the medial collateral ligament. With the open physeal plate, this area of injury is presumed present until proven otherwise; therefore, stress radiographs should be obtained before implementing any treatment or ordering more extensive and expensive tests. DeLee JC: Ligamentous injury of the knee, in Stanitski CL, DeLee JC, Drez D Jr (eds): Pediatric and Adolescent Sports Medicine. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1994, vol 3, pp 406-432. Clanton TO, DeLee JC, Sanders B, Neidre A: Knee ligament injuries in children. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1195-1201.
Question 100
Which of the following is considered the most effective means of identifying an evolving motor tract injury during cervical spine surgery?
Explanation
In a study of 427 patients undergoing cervical spine surgery, 12 patients demonstrated substantial or complete loss of amplitude of the tceMEPs. Ten of those patients had complete reversal of the loss following prompt intraoperative intervention. SSEP monitoring failed to identify any changes in one of the two patients that awoke with a new motor deficit. SSEP changes lagged behind the tceMEP changes in patients in which major changes were detected by both modalities. TceMEP monitoring was 100% sensitive and 100% specific. SSEP monitoring was only 25% sensitive and 100% specific.