Full Question & Answer Text (for Search Engines)
Question 1:
Platelet calmodulin levels correlate with which of the following phenomena:
Options:
- Progressive adolescent idiopathic scoliosis
- Progressive Scheuermann kyphosis
- Progressive slipped capital epiphysis
- Bilateral Legg-Perthes disease
- Progressive clubfoot
Correct Answer: Progressive adolescent idiopathic scoliosis
Explanation:
Platelets contain actin and myosin and, therefore, have some features similar to skeletal muscle. C almodulin is a calcium-binding receptor protein that regulates intracellular calcium. Platelet calmodulin levels are increased in progressive adolescent idiopathic scoliosis.
Question 2:
The proximal humerus is the most common location of unicameral bone cysts. Which of the following is the second most common location:
Options:
- Distal radius
- Iliac wing
- Proximal femur
- Distal femur
- Proximal tibia
Correct Answer: Proximal femur
Explanation:
The proximal femur is the second most common location for unicameral bone cysts. All other locations are distinctly less common.
Question 3:
An 8-year old patient presents with pain in a unicameral bone cyst of the proximal femur. Which of the following treatments is most likely to prevent fracture:
Options:
- Intralesional steroid injection
- Intralesional bone marrow injection
- Intralesional injection of demineralized bone matrix
- C urettage and bone graft
- C urettage, bone graft, and internal fixation
Correct Answer: C urettage, bone graft, and internal fixation
Explanation:
Injection of any substance has a risk of recurrence, even if the injection is repeated. Bone graft has a risk as well, but internal fixation decreases the risk of fracture.
Question 4:
All of the following are common in McC une-Albright syndrome except:
Options:
- Precocious puberty
- Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
- Cafu-au-lait spots
- Bowing of long bones
- Multiple osteocartilaginous exostoses
Correct Answer: Multiple osteocartilaginous exostoses
Explanation:
McCune-Albright syndrome consists of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty, and cafa-au-lait spots. Long bone deformity is almost universal. Multiple osteocartilaginous exostoses are not part of this syndrome.
Question 5:
Which of the following is most likely to minimize bowing of the femora over the long term in a young patient with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia:
Options:
- Bisphosphonates treatment
- Curettage and autograft packing of lesions
- Application of allografts to lesions
- Internal metal fixation
- Injection of demineralized bone graft
Correct Answer: Internal metal fixation
Explanation:
Bowing of the femora is a major problem for patients with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. Bisphosphonates can decrease bone pain and increase bone density somewhat, but they do not prevent bowing. Allograft, autograft, and demineralized matrix are rapidly resorbed in most cases. Internal fixation with metal provides the best long-term protection.
Question 6:
The phenomenon of spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality in children may be due to any one of the following except:
Options:
- Increased longitudinal stretch of the skeletal elements compared to the spinal cord
- Increased physiologic translation of the cervical vertebrae
- Apophyseal injury
- Transverse ligament injury of the atlas
- Lack of neural myelination in children
Correct Answer: Lack of neural myelination in children
Explanation:
In most cases, spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality, or SC IWORA, is due to the greater elasticity or translation of the skeletal elements. Apophyseal or transverse ligament injuries are other explanations. Myelination of the cord is complete after birth so this is not an explanation.
Question 7:
A 6-year-old girl is seriously injured in an automobile accident. She remains unconscious and intubated 6 days after the injury due to head and pulmonary injuries. She is expected to survive. A firm cervical collar was placed on her neck at the time of rescue and remains in place. Plain radiographs show no cervical abnormalities. At this time, recommended treatment includes:
Options:
- Removing the collar
- Leaving the collar in place until she awakens
- Passive flexion and extension radiographs by the physician to clear the spine of injury
- Ultrasound of the cervical spine to clear it of injury
- Magnetic resonance imaging to clear the spine of injury
Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging to clear the spine of injury
Explanation:
Spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality (SC IWORA) may occur in children. Motor vehicle accidents and head injury are two risk factors for this. The neck collar cannot be left on indefinitely or it may cause pressure sores. Therefore, it is most prudent to evaluate the cervical spine with magentic resonance imaging if the patientâ s neck cannot be cleared by physical exam. Passive range of the neck is risky, and ultrasound is not used for this purpose.
Question 8:
Which of the following properties is the same for both botulinum toxin types A and B:
Options:
- Dose
- Duration of action
- Antigenicity
- Mechanism of action
- Molecular structure
Correct Answer: Mechanism of action
Explanation:
There are seven serologic subtypes of botulinum toxin, and only two are approved for clinical use. The duration of action of type A is slightly longer and it is less antigenic. Both type A and B have different structures. The dose of type A is lower in absolute units. Both have the same site of action they inhibit the release of acetylcholine from the neuromuscular junction, although they act on different proteins inside the cell.
Question 9:
Stickler syndrome is caused by a mutation in the gene for which of the following:
Options:
- Collagen
- Fibrillin
- Glycoprotein
- Osteopontin
- Fibroblast growth factor
Correct Answer: Collagen
Explanation:
Stickler syndrome is characterized by premature osteoarthritis in multiple joints, visual complications, auditory defects, and cleft palate. Stickler syndrome is caused by a defect in the genes for type 2 or type 11 collagen.
Question 10:
Stickler syndrome is characterized by all of the following features except:
Options:
- Visual disorders
- Hearing problems
- Degenerative joint disease
- Significant short stature
- Irregular vertebral endplates
Correct Answer: Significant short stature
Explanation:
Stickler syndrome, also known as hereditary arthro-ophthalmopathy, is characterized by visual problems, progressive hearing loss, and malar or mandibular hypoplasia. In terms of orthopedic complications, most patients develop premature degenerative joint disease and disk abnormalities, including narrow and irregular endplates. Significant short stature is not common in patients with Stickler syndrome.
Question 11:
The majority of pediatric pedestrian-vehicle injuries occur in which time period:
Options:
- 12 AM to 5 AM
- 5 AM to 10 AM
- 10 AM to 3 PM
- 3 PM to 8 PM
- 8 PM to 12 PM
Correct Answer: 3 PM to 8 PM
Explanation:
The majority (54%) of pediatric pedestrian-vehicle accidents occur from 3 pm to 8 pm. This time period may coincide with walks home from school, after-school play, and high traffic volume.
Question 12:
Which of the following demographic factors places a child at increased risk of pedestrian vs vehicle trauma:
Options:
- Female gender
- Younger than 5 years old
- 5 to 9 years old
- 10 to 14 years old
- 15 to 19 years old
Correct Answer: 5 to 9 years old
Explanation:
Male gender and age 5 to 9 years old are factors that place children at increased risk of being struck by a vehicle.
Question 13:
Before any intervention, which of the following statements is true regarding the walking gait of a diplegic patient who has an equinus gait:
Options:
- Ankle plantarflexion increases during single-limb stance.
- Ankle plantarflexion decreases steadily during single-limb stance.
- Ankle plantarflexion does not change during single-limb stance.
- Ankle varus increases during stance.
- Knee flexion initially increases during stance-phase loading.
Correct Answer: Ankle plantarflexion increases during single-limb stance.
Explanation:
In patients with spastic diplegia, ankle plantarflexion increases during single-limb stance, contrary to the normal pattern.
Question 14:
Which of the following complications is the most common in anterior iliac crest graft harvesting:
Options:
- Hematoma
- Muscle herniation
- Sensory disturbance
- Pain
- Fracture
Correct Answer: Sensory disturbance
Explanation:
Transient or permanent sensory disturbance is the most common complication (13% of patients) of anterior iliac crest graft harvesting.
Question 15:
Which of the following is the most common site for primary epiphyseal osteomyelitis:
Options:
- Proximal femur
- Distal femur
- Proximal tibia
- Distal tibia
- Proximal humerus
Correct Answer: Distal femur
Explanation:
Osteomyelitis of the epiphysis is less common than osteomyelitis of the metaphysis. Osteomyelitis of the epiphysis may occur from spread across transphyseal vessels or primary hematogenous seeding. The most common location is the distal femoral epiphysis, and it most commonly affects infants and young children.
Question 16:
A normal (negative) result is used to rule out septic arthritis of the hip on which of the following tests:
Options:
- Plain radiographs
- Ultrasound
- C ulture of joint fluid
- C-reactive protein
- None of the above
Correct Answer: Plain radiographs
Explanation:
False-negative results may occur with each of the tests. C ulture results may be negative in up to a quarter of patients. Ultrasound may be false-negative in up to 20% of patients with septic arthritis of the hip. C-reactive protein may be normal early in the course of disease. The diagnosis is based upon a constellation of findings, including clinical examination.Correct Answer: None of the above
Question 17:
Which of the following structures is the primary stabilizer of the atlantoaxial segment against anterior atlantal translation:
Options:
- Apical ligament
- Alar ligament
- Anterior atlantodental ligament
- Transverse ligament
- Ligamentum nuchae
Correct Answer: Transverse ligament
Explanation:
The transverse ligament is the primary stabilizer of the atlantoaxial segment against anterior atlantal translation. The transverse ligament runs between the lateral masses of C1 and behind the odontoid process. The apical ligament is attached to the tip of the odontoid and the occiput, but not C1. The paired alar ligaments run obliquely and are secondary restraints, as is the anterior atlantodental ligament. The ligamentum nuchae is a strong condensation of fibers extending from the external occipital protuberance to the tips of the spinous processes C2-C 7.
Question 18:
The radiographic line delimiting the foramen magnum that is used in determining basilar invagination is the:
Options:
- McGregor line
- McRae line
- Chamberlain line
- Ranawat line
- Swischuk line
Correct Answer: McRae line
Explanation:
The McRae line is from the anterior to the posterior lip of the foramen magnum. Protrusion of the odontoid above this line indicates basilar invagination. The McGregor and Ranawat lines are also used to evaluate basilar invagination. The Swischuk line is from the posterior cortex of C1 to C3 lamina and is used in evaluating pseudosubluxation.
Question 19:
Which of the following factors determines the treatment for a child with tibial hemimelia:
Options:
- The presence of a patella
- The length of the fibula
- The presence of a proximal tibial remnant
- The status of the cruciate ligaments
- The status of the menisci
Correct Answer: The presence of a patella
Explanation:
When treating a child with tibial hemimelia, the surgeon must decide whether to attempt to reconstruct the knee or perform a disarticulation. The determining factor is whether there is a proximal tibial remnant.
Question 20:
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of vacuum assisted closure (VAC ):
Options:
- A deep surgical wound
- An acute soft tissue wound
- A wound with necrotic muscle that has not been debrided
- A fresh, split-thickness skin graft
- A chronic wound that is slow to close
Correct Answer: A wound with necrotic muscle that has not been debrided
Explanation:
Vacuum assisted closure (VAC ) should be applied to infected or damaged tissue after debridement. All of the other possible answer choices are conditions for which VAC is appropriate.