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Question 26
A 59-year-old woman who underwent a total hip arthroplasty 5 years ago now has recurrent dislocation following bariatric surgery and a weight loss of 200 lb. An attempt at converting to a larger head size and trochanteric advancement has failed. Her components are well aligned. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
When a patient has well-aligned components and soft-tissue tensioning with a larger femoral head and trochanteric advancement has failed, options are limited. The use of a constrained acetabular liner is the best option in this situation. Goetz and associates and Shrader and associates have demonstrated good results with these implants. Shrader used this device on 109 patients with recurrent instability with a successful outcome in all but 2 patients. Resection arthroplasty is a salvage situation and is not the best option at the present time. A hip abduction brace does not address the soft-tissue laxity. Conversion to a bipolar arthroplasty, although possibly minimizing the incidence of dislocation, will lead to groin pain and migration of the component with diminished functional results. Goetz DD, Capello WN, Callaghan JJ, et al: Salvage of recurrently dislocating hip prosthesis with use of a constrained acetabular component: A retrospective analysis of fifty-six cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1998;80:502-509. Shrader MW, Parvizi J, Lewallen DG: The use of constrained acetabular component to treat instability after total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:2179-2183.
Question 27
Figure 15 shows the radiograph of an active 60-year-old woman. Which of the following variables is considered the strongest contraindication to a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty in this patient?
Explanation
Unicompartmental arthroplasty of the knee for single compartment arthrosis has recently become more popular. Contraindications to unicompartmental knee arthroplasty include fixed varus or valgus deformity of more than 5 degrees, restricted range of motion, fixed flexion contracture, joint subluxation of 5 mm or greater, and arthrosis of the opposite and/or patellofemoral compartment. Cossey AJ, Spriggins AJ: The use of computer-assisted surgical navigation to prevent malalignment in unicompartmental knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 2005;20:29-34. Iorio R, Healy WL: Unicompartmental arthritis of the knee. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:1351-1364.
Question 28
Figure 16 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman who fell. Management should consist of
Explanation
The radiograph reveals that the femoral component is grossly loose as evidenced by disruption of the cement column; therefore, retention of the original components will not yield a successful outcome. A cementless revision is the procedure of choice. A strut graft and/or plate may be added at the surgeon's discretion. A resection arthroplasty would only be considered in a nonambulatory patient. Cemented fixation of the revision component would be problematic given the numerous fracture fragments and the inability to contain the cement. Springer BD, Berry DJ, Lewallen DG: Treatment of periprosthetic fractures following total hip arthroplasty with femoral component revision. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2003;85:2156-2162.
Question 29
Which of the following is the strongest contraindication to unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA)?
Explanation
UKA prostheses cannot substitute for an absent ACL, and if arthroplasty is indicated, these patients should receive a total knee arthroplasty rather than a UKA. Age is not an absolute contraindication, and the procedure has been advocated for young patients as well as older patients if they meet the appropriate indications for an arthroplasty. Varus deformities of the mechanical axis of up to 10 degrees generally are not a contraindication to unicompartmental arthroplasty, as long as the knee can be properly balanced at the time of surgery. Modest chondromalacia of the patellofemoral joint, especially if asymptomatic, is not a contraindication to UKA. Lotke PA (ed): Knee Arthroplasty: Master Techniques in Orthopaedic Surgery. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1995, pp 275-293. Insall JN, Windsor RE, Scott WN, et al (eds): Surgery of the Knee, ed 2. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1993, pp 805-814.
Question 30
Figure 17 shows the AP radiograph of a 75-year-old man with right hip pain. The femoral component is loose. The mechanism of loosening is most likely secondary to
Explanation
The femoral construct shown in the radiograph has failed to produce ingrowth of the stem. The stem has subsided and rotated. Impingement of the trochanter did not occur until after the stem subsided. There is no evidence of osteolysis or third-body wear debris from the cerclage wire. A larger femoral stem needs to be implanted to achieve rigid fixation. Pelicci PM, Tria AJ Jr, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 217-238.
Question 31
A 75-year-old woman undergoes hybrid total hip arthroplasty for osteoarthritis. A postoperative radiograph obtained in the recovery room is shown in Figure 18. Treatment should now consist of
Explanation
Intraoperative femoral fractures can often be avoided by careful preoperative planning to optimize implant design and size. Most fractures occur during implantation of a cementless implant; many can be avoided by careful femoral preparation and component implantation, with particular caution in osteopenic bone. Intraoperative femoral fractures are managed according to fracture severity. Minor cracks that do not affect stability or femoral integrity can often be managed intraoperatively with cerclage fixation, limited weight bearing, and observation. Femoral fractures that compromise implant stability or femoral integrity require fracture fixation with cerclage wires, strut grafts, or plates and may require conversion to a long stem implant. This patient's fracture is nondisplaced and the implant is well seated; therefore, limited weight bearing is considered appropriate management. Lee SR, Bostrom MP: Periprosthetic fractures of the femur after total hip arthroplasty. Instr Course Lect 2004;53:111-118. Kelley SS: Periprosthetic femoral fractures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:164-172.
Question 32
A 42-year-old man undergoes right total hip arthroplasty for hip dysplasia. Postoperatively, he has a significant limb-length increase with a foot drop. A preoperative radiograph is shown in Figure 19. Which of the following should have been considered preoperatively to avoid this complication?
Explanation
In a patient with bilateral hip dysplasia, there are significant technical challenges that need to be addressed to ensure a successful total hip arthroplasty. Restoring the center of the hip may cause significant lengthening and require femoral shortening. Lengthening of greater than 4 cm can lead to sciatic nerve palsy that will present clinically as a foot drop. A high hip center can be used when there is inadequate bone stock in the acetabulum to achieve adequate host bone coverage. A modular femoral implant may be used for a dysplastic hip with significant rotational deformity. Although an anterolateral approach to the hip may decrease the incidence of sciatic nerve palsy during the exposure, it will not be helpful when there is more than 4 cm of limb lengthening. Schmalzried TP, Amstutz HC, Dorey FJ: Nerve palsy associated with total hip replacement: Risk factors and prognosis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1991;73:1074-1080. Papagelopoulos PJ, Trousdale RT, Lewallen DG: Total hip arthroplasty with femoral osteotomy for proximal femoral deformity. Clin Orthop 1996;332:151-162.
Question 33
A 58-year-old man reports a 2-month onset of groin pain with no history of trauma. Examination reveals that range of motion of the hip is mildly restricted, and he has pain with both weight bearing and at rest. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 20. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The MRI findings show highly increased signal through the entire femoral head and neck on STIR imaging, diagnostic of transient osteoporosis of the femoral head. This disease entity can be seen in middle-aged men, and should be treated nonsurgically. The natural history is that of self-resolution. Guerra JJ, Steinberg ME: Distinguishing transient osteoporosis from avascular necrosis of the hip. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:616-624.
Question 34
Figure 21 shows the radiograph of a 32-year-old patient with right hip pain that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment at this time?
Explanation
The radiograph reveals developmental dysplasia of both hips. The patient has classic anterolateral undercoverage of the femoral head on the right side as demonstrated by a high acetabular index (measured at 27 degrees). Anterior undercoverage can be determined by drawing the marking for the anterior wall that fails to overlap the femoral head in this patient. Currently in North America, the most accepted surgical management for symptomatic dysplasia of the hip with good joint space is a Bernese (Ganz) periacetabular osteotomy. Surgical dislocation of the hip and femoroacetabular osteoplasty may be considered for patients with symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement of the hip. Ganz R, Klaue K, Vinh TS, et al: A new periacetabular osteotomy for the treatment of hip dysplasias: Technique and preliminary results. Clin Orthop 1988;232:26-36.
Question 35
A patient reports pain in the hip with functional positioning. With the patient supine, pain in which of the following positions would be typical for femoral acetabular impingement?
Explanation
Patients with dysplasia often have a hypertrophic labrum. Abnormal contact between the femoral neck and the acetabular rim leads to labral injury, especially in the anterior-superior acetabular zone. Typically, young patients with the condition report pain with activity or long periods of sitting or driving. The hips often have limited motion, in particular in internal rotation and flexion. Forceful adduction with the maneuver causes pain. Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 411-424. Beck M, Leunig M, Parvizi J, et al: Anterior femoroacetabular impingement: Part II. Midterm results of surgical treatment. Clin Orthop 2004;418:67-73.
Question 36
A patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty for osteoarthritis 18 months ago now reports the sudden development of pain in the ipsilateral knee. Radiographs and examination of the knee are unremarkable. Aspiration of the synovial fluid 3 days later reveals a WBC count of 1,500/mm3. The cells consist of 30% neutrophils and 70% monocytes. Culture results will not be available for several days. The patient has not been on antibiotics prior to this point. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
Synovial fluid analysis is a very sensitive tool for detecting infection in total knee arthroplasties. Several studies have demonstrated that an absolute leukocyte count in the synovial fluid of less than 1,700 to 2,500/mm3 is an accurate predictor of absence of infection. Similarly, a differential cell count of the WBCs demonstrating less than 50% to 60% neutrophils is an accurate predictor of absence of infection. If both parameters are normal, it is unlikely that the patient has an infection. The three surgical options are contraindicated based on the normal examination findings and laboratory parameters. Similarly, antibiotics should be avoided. The work-up should include tests to evaluate noninfectious sources of knee pain and sources of referred knee pain. Trampuz A, Hanssen AD, Osmon DR, et al: Synovial fluid leukocyte count and differential for the diagnosis of prosthetic knee infection. Am J Med 2004;117:556-562. Mason JB, Fehring TK, Odum SM, et al: The value of white blood cell counts before revision total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 2003;18:1038-1043.
Question 37
A 38-year-old man who is an avid tennis player has had persistent pain over the medial aspect of his knee for the past 6 years. He notes that the pain occurs on a daily basis with any significant activity. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have failed to provide relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 22a and 22b. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
In a relatively young patient who is an avid tennis player, the treatment of choice is a joint preserving procedure. The radiographs reveal varus alignment with loading of the medial compartment. After all nonsurgical management options have been used, the best treatment option is a medial opening wedge osteotomy. A lateral closing wedge osteotomy of the proximal tibia is also a reasonable option, but it is not one of the choices. A unicompartmental arthroplasty or a total knee arthroplasty would place significant restrictions in this patient. A unispacer may be a temporizing procedure but is controversial and without substantial data in the literature. The knee arthroscopy will not address the medial compartment osteoarthritis. Nagel A, Insall JN, Scuderi GR: Proximal tibial osteotomy: A subjective outcome study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:1353-1358. Rinonapoli E, Mancini GB, Corvaglia A, et al: Tibial osteotomy for varus gonarthrosis: A 10- to 21-year followup study. Clin Orthop 1998;353:185-193.
Question 38
Which of the following statements best describes the outcome of the routine use of continuous passive motion (CPM) machines after total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
Explanation
Although CPM machines are used widely in the United States for patients undergoing TKA, the benefit seems to be marginal, if any. Numerous randomized trials have shown that final outcomes after total knee arthroplasty are unaffected by the use of CPM machines postoperatively. Some studies have suggested that use of CPM may improve flexion in the first few weeks, but any short-term benefit from the machine was lost by intermediate-term follow-up. Aside from potential improvement in flexion within the first few postoperative weeks, there does not appear to be any benefit from the machines. There is no improvement in pain, ambulation, or extension. The cost-effectiveness of these machines has been questioned by many authors. Pellicci PM, Tria AJ, Garvin KL (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Hip and Knee Reconstruction 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2000, pp 287-293. McInnes J, Larson MG, Daltroy LH, et al: A controlled evaluation of continuous passive motion in patients undergoing total knee arthroplasty. JAMA 1992;268:1423-1428.
Question 39
When performing knee arthroplasty, which of the following procedures provides the most consistent fixation for the tibial component?
Explanation
All of the options, except cementing the metaphyseal portion and press fitting the keel of the tibial component, have been shown to create strong and long-lasting constructs; however, cementing of both the platform and the keel offers the most predictable solution. Cementing the platform and not the keel has been shown to have a higher loosening rate than the more traditional methods of fully cementing or using screws to augment fixation.
Question 40
Sterilization of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene by gamma irradiation in air will degrade its wear performance because of
Explanation
Gamma irradiation has long been used as a sterilization method for polyethylene. Exposure to gamma irradiation causes breakage of the chemical bonds in the polyethylene, and oxidation will occur if the material is subsequently exposed to air. The amount of oxidation and decrease in wear performance is also related to the length of time that the gamma-irradiated polyethylene is exposed to oxygen. Collier JP, Sutula LC, Currier BH, et al: Overview of polyethylene as a bearing material: Comparison of sterilization methods. Clin Orthop 1996;333:76-86. McKellop H, Shen FW, Lu B, et al: Effect of sterilization method and other modifications on the wear resistance of acetabular cups made of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene: A hip-simulator study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:1708-1725.
Question 41
Figure 23 shows failure of the femoral stem in a patient. What is the most likely reason for the failure?
Explanation
A two-dimensional stress analysis has been used to study the effects of some of the factors leading to early fatigue failure of the femoral stem in total hip arthroplasty. It has been demonstrated that loss of proximal stem support at the level of the calcar femorale and subsequent stem stress can lead to fatigue failure. In addition, the role of body weight and range of cyclic stress fluctuation play an important role in fatigue life under conditions where the stem has lost proximal support. These results indicate that stem design could be improved by incorporating some means of adequate support at the calcar femorale where maximum tensile stresses are found to occur. Femoral component fracture is a rare but well-documented complication after total hip arthroplasty. Historically, most stem fractures occur at the middle third of the implant where proximal stem loosening and solid distal stem fixation result in cantilever bending and eventual fatigue failure. The component shown is a modular fluted cementless stem that occasionally fractures at the modular junction in patients with poor proximal bone support. Andriacchi TP, Galante JO, Belytschko TB, et al: A stress analysis of the femoral stem in total hip prostheses. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1976;58:618-624.
Question 42
What property of titanium alloys accounts for their high corrosion resistance in vivo?
Explanation
In both room temperature air and physiologic fluids, titanium alloys self-passivate or spontaneously form a layer of titanium oxide very rapidly. This layer makes titanium alloys resistant to surface breakdown. Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE, et al (eds): The Adult Knee. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, 2003, vol 1, pp 269-278.
Question 43
Which of the following aids in correction of patellar tracking after total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
Explanation
Correct patellofemoral tracking has proven to be a crucial aspect in TKA because a large percent of problems after TKA are related to the patellofemoral articulation. External rotation of the femoral and tibial components has been shown to aid in tracking. Likewise, medialization of the patellar button aids in patellar tracking and prevention of lateral subluxations and dislocations. Attention to the distal femoral cut is critical in maintaining the joint line and preventing patella baja or alta. Tibial sizing, however, is not directly related to patellar tracking after TKA. Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE, et al (eds): The Adult Knee. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2003, pp 1245-1258.
Question 44
Figure 24 shows the radiograph of a 36-year-old volleyball player with right hip pain. What is the cause of the pain?
Explanation
Femoral acetabular impingement usually presents in active young adults with the slow onset of groin pain that often starts after a minor trauma. Physical examination reveals limitation of motion with a positive impingement test which consists of forceful internal rotation with flexion and adduction. Femoral acetabular impingement is a mechanism for the development of early osteoarthritis in nondysplastic hips. Surgical debridement of the impinging, nonspherical portion of the femoral head restores offset and improves the clearance of the head, thus preventing abutment of the neck against the acetabular rim. The patient has no evidence of osteonecrosis, developmental dysplasia of the hip, rheumatoid arthritis, or femoral neck fracture. Ganz R, Parvizi J, Beck M, et al: Femoroacetabular impingement: A cause for osteoarthritis of the hip. Clin Orthop 2003;417:112-120.
Question 45
Figure 25 shows the radiograph of an 84-year-old woman who has pain and is unable to extend her knee. History reveals that she underwent total knee arthroplasty 8 years ago. Aspiration and studies for infection are negative. During revision surgery, management of the tibial bone loss should consist of
Explanation
Massive bone loss encountered in revision total knee arthroplasty remains a significant challenge. Recent reports have shown high success rates using structural allograft to reconstruct large structural bone defects. A hinged prosthesis is not required in this setting. In this patient, a large amount of posterior cortex has been lost, making the area too large to fill with cement or iliac crest bone graft. Because of her age, the treatment of choice is a revision tibial implant and metal augments. Structural allograft would be suitable in a younger patient. Mow CS, Wiedel JD: Structural allografting in revision total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 1996;11:235-241. Engh GA, Herzwurm PJ, Parks NL: Treatment of major defects of bone with bulk allografts and stemmed components during total knee arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:1030-1039.
Question 46
A 62-year-old woman with a bone mass density (BMD) T-score of -2.0 sustained a subcapital fracture of her hip. She is an avid tennis player, and history reveals no previous fractures. What is the most appropriate follow-up care?
Explanation
A DEXA scan is most appropriately used to establish a baseline score. Even if the bone mineral density is not within the osteoporotic range (T-score less than -2.5), a prior fragility fracture is a strong risk factor for a second fracture as a result of factors other than bone density, such as worsening vision or balance, confusion, or other predispositions to falls. The guidelines of the National Osteoporosis Foundation indicate that, following a fragility hip fracture, active anti-osteoporotic medication should be initiated, whether or not a DEXA scan is performed. A recent study showed that antiresorptive therapy following a hip fracture reduces not only the risk of a second fracture but also overall mortality.
Question 47
A 58-year-old patient who underwent bilateral hip arthroplasty 12 years ago now reports pain in his hips and difficulty with ambulation to the point where he now uses crutches. A radiograph of the hip and pelvis is shown in Figure 26. What is the best treatment option for this patient?
Explanation
The radiographs reveal acetabular component failure with bone loss. There are several treatment options available. The best option for survivorship is a cementless porous-coated acetabular component. This patient may or may not require structural bone graft, which may need to be determined at the time of surgery. Bipolar implants and cemented acetabular components for revision surgery have not demonstrated long-term success. The use of a protrusio ring is reserved primarily for massive bone loss such as a Paprosky type III bone loss with significant superior migration of the acetabular component. The best clinical results for acetabular component revision have been achieved with cementless porous-coated implants. Haddad FS, Masri BA, Garbuz DS, et al: Acetabulum, in Fitzgerald RH, Kaufer H, Malkani AL (eds): Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 2002, pp 923-936. D'Antonio JA: Periprosthetic bone loss of the acetabulum: Classification and management. Orthop Clin North Am 1992;23:279-290.
Question 48
Figure 27 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who has late instability. The problem most likely occurred as a result of
Explanation
Although dislocation can occur anytime after hip arthroplasty, the highest incidence is observed within the first few months. Dislocation occurring many years after arthroplasty has also been described. In contrast to early dislocation, it appears that late dislocation frequently requires surgical intervention. Recent studies suggest that the incidence of late dislocation may be greater than initially appreciated and that the cumulative rate of dislocation rises with increasing follow-up. The presumed etiologic factors for late instability include long-standing problems with the prosthesis (such as malpositioning of the components) with late manifestation, trauma, deterioration in the neurologic status of the patient, and polyethylene wear. The eccentric position of the femoral head in this patient confirms polyethylene wear. The femoral stem is well-fixed, and the greater trochanter osteotomy has united well. The minor osteolysis observed around the proximal femur is also the consequence of wear and is not the cause of instability. Infection, without component loosening and massive soft-tissue destruction, is not otherwise known to result in late instability. Berry DJ, von Knoch M, Schleck CD, et al: The cumulative long-term risk of dislocation after primary Charnley total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:9-14.
Question 49
Figure 28 shows the postoperative radiograph of a 36-year-old patient. The cerclage cable was placed for a minimal medial calcar fracture seen during femoral preparation. In the immediate postoperative period, what is the highest level of activity that would be safely permitted?
Explanation
The incidence of femoral fracture in primary cementless total hip arthroplasty ranges from 1.5% to 27.8%. It is imperative that the implant and fracture are stable both intraoperatively and postoperatively. Cerclage wiring or cerclage cabling is the current recommended treatment for nondisplaced calcar fractures and minimally displaced proximal fractures. Berend and associates reviewed the results of 58 total hips in 55 patients with intraoperative calcar fracture managed with single or multiple cerclage wires or cables and immediate full weight bearing. Follow-up averaged 7.5 years, and there were no revisions of the femoral component. No patients had severe thigh pain. Berend KR, Lombardi AV Jr, Mallory TH, et al: Cerclage wires or cables for the management of intraoperative fracture associated with a cementless, tapered femoral prosthesis: Results at 2 to 16 years. J Arthroplasty 2004;19:17-21. Schmidt AH, Kyle RF: Periprosthetic fractures of the femur. Orthop Clin North Am 2002;33:143-152.
Question 50
Embolic material generated during total knee arthroplasty (TKA) shown in Figure 29 is composed of which of the following substances?
Explanation
Emboli are created during TKA. Usually there is an increased incidence with the use of intramedullary rods that disrupt the marrow contents. These are not fat emboli per se. They are material composed of fat cells and marrow that act like pulmonary emboli to obstruct small arterioles in the lung. They are different from free fat emboli that are seen in fractures and that lead to chemical injury to the lung rather than obstructive injury. Markel DC, Femino JE, Farkas P, et al: Analysis of lower extremity embolic material after total knee arthroplasty in a canine model. J Arthroplasty 1999;14:227-232. Pell AC, Christie J, Keating JF, et al: The detection of fat embolism by transoesophageal echocardiography during reamed intramedullary nailing: A study of 24 patients with femoral and tibial fractures. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1993;75:921-925.