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AAOS Orthopedic MCQs (Set 2): Degenerative Spine, Shoulder Instability & TKA | 2026 Board Review

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AAOS Orthopedic MCQs (Set 2): Degenerative Spine, Shoulder Instability & TKA | 2026 Board Review
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Question 101 High Yield
Epithelioid sarcoma most commonly occurs in which of the following anatomic locations?
Detailed Explanation
Epithelioid sarcoma is a rare soft-tissue sarcoma that most commonly arises in the hand or upper extremity, and it is frequently misdiagnosed as an infection or granuloma. It tends to have a higher incidence of lymph node metastasis than other soft-tissue sarcomas. The mainstay of treatment is wide surgical excision, even if amputation is necessary. Gupta TD, Chaudhuri P (eds): Tumors of the Soft Tissues, ed 2. Stamford, CT, Appleton and Lange, 1998, p 475.
Question 102 High Yield
What is the primary mechanism of injury for the fracture shown in Figures 33a and 33b?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 1 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 2
Detailed Explanation
The radiographs show a triplane fracture of the ankle. In adolescence, closure of the distal tibial physis starts peripherally at the anteromedial aspect of the medial malleolus and extends posteriorly and laterally. The anterolateral quadrant of the physis is the last to close, making this region the most susceptible to separation. When the foot is twisted into external rotation, the anterolateral portion of the epiphysis is avulsed by the pull of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. When this fragment alone is avulsed, the result is a juvenile Tillaux fracture. When the fracture extends to involve the remainder of the physis and posterior metaphysis, as in this patient, the result is a triplane fracture. Richards BS (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Pediatrics. Rosemont, Ill, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 267-272. Dias LS, Giegerich CR: Fractures of the distal tibial epiphysis in adolescence. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1983;65:438-444.
Question 103 High Yield
An 11-year-old basketball player reports that he felt a painful pop in the left knee when he stumbled while running. He is unable to bear weight on the extremity and cannot actively extend the knee against gravity. Examination reveals a large knee effusion. A lateral radiograph is shown in Figure 7. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 3
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph shows an avulsion fracture, or "sleeve fracture," of the distal pole of the patella. The distal fragment is much larger than it appears on the radiograph because it largely consists of cartilage; therefore, excision of the fragment is contraindicated. The treatment of choice is open reduction and tension band fixation to correct patella alta and restore the extensor mechanism. Maguire JK, Canale ST: Fractures of the patella in children and adolescents. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:567-571.
Question 104 High Yield
A 35-year-old man has atraumatic painless limited elbow motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 33a and 33b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 4 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 5
Detailed Explanation
Based on the radiographic findings, the patient has melorheostosis, a rare, benign connective tissue disorder that is characterized by a cortical thickening of bone. It produces a "dripping candle wax" appearance with dense hyperostosis that flows along the cortex. Ectopic bone formation is a consideration but is associated with injuries or burns. Bone infarcts produce intraosseous sclerosis typically affecting the distal femur with the "smoke up chimney" appearance. Infection is always a consideration but typically does not have the linear osteitis seen in melorheostosis. Juxacortical chondroma is a benign cartilage growth that arises from the capsule and may involve the underlying cortical bone but rarely the medullary canal. Campbell CJ, Papademetriou T, Bonfiglio M: Melorheostosis: A report of the clinical, roentgenographic, and pathological findings in fourteen cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1968;50:1281-1304.
Question 105 High Yield
A 42-year-old man with a history of renal cell carcinoma has progressive weakness in the lower extremities for the past 3 weeks. The patient desires intervention. A sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 9a, and a sagittal contrast enhanced T1-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 9b. He currently ambulates minimal distances with a walker. His life expectancy is 8 months. Treatment of the spine lesion should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 6 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 7
Detailed Explanation
The MRI scans show a metastatic lesion in two contiguous vertebral bodies in the lower thoracic spine. Posterior laminectomy is not indicated because this does not adequately decompress the neural elements and will lead to progressive kyphosis. A posterior fusion may prevent progressive kyphosis but will not decompress the spinal cord. Renal cell carcinoma is not radiosensitive; therefore, radiation therapy would not be helpful in relieving neurologic compression. The lesion should be treated by an anterior corpectomy and reconstruction. This will allow for complete decompression as well as reconstruction of the anterior column. Kyphoplasty is not indicated in a lesion with disruption of the posterior cortex and neurologic impairment. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 351-366.
Question 106 High Yield
A 52-year-old man underwent arthroscopic repair of a 1-cm supraspinatus tendon tear 3 weeks ago. He was doing well until he fell down three stairs. One week after the fall he continues to report pain similar to his preoperative pain. An MRI scan reveals a minimally retracted 1-cm supraspinatus tendon tear in the same location as his original tear. Management should now consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 8
Detailed Explanation
The patient has retorn his rotator cuff repair. This traumatic retear is different from a chronic tear and should be treated similar to an acute rotator cuff tear. Because the patient is younger than age 65 and has a small, single tendon tear, a revision rotation cuff repair is indicated with an expected tendon healing rate of greater than 95%. A physical therapy program is not indicated, and further delay in repair compromises his functional recovery. A cortisone injection is not indicated for this repairable tendon tear. Immobilization will not allow the tendon to heal once it has retorn. A debridement procedure is not indicated on this repairable tendon tear; this procedure is indicated in painful, chronic, irreparable tendon tears. Boileau P, Brassart N, Watkinson DJ, et al: Arthroscopic repair of full-thickness tears of the supraspinatus: Does the tendon really heal? J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:1229-1240. Jost B, Zumstein M, Pfirrmann CWA, et al: Long-term outcome after structural failure of rotator cuff repairs. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:472-479.
Question 107 High Yield
Titanium and its alloys are unsuitable candidates for which of the following implant applications?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 9
Detailed Explanation
Titanium alloy is highly biocompatible, has higher strength than stainless steel, and is highly resistant to corrosion. It is particularly suited for use in fracture plates, bone screws, and intramedullary nails because of its low modulus of elasticity (low stiffness), which can reduce stress shielding. It is also widely used for porous-ingrowth coatings. However, clinical experience has shown that titanium alloy bearing surfaces such as a femoral ball are highly susceptible to severe metallic wear, particularly in the presence of third-body abrasive particles (PMMA fragments, bone chips, metal debris, etc). McKellop HA, Sarmiento A, Schwinn CP, et al: In vivo wear of titanium-alloy hip prostheses. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:512-517. Salvati EA, Betts F, Doty SB: Particulate metallic debris in cemented total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1993;293:160-173.
Question 108 High Yield
Intradiskal electrothermal therapy (IDET) uses an intradiskal catheter to deliver controlled thermal energy to the inner periphery of the annulus fibrosis of a chronically painful intervertebral disk. Lumbar diskography is used diagnostically to identify the presumed pain generator to be targeted with IDET. Based on the medical literature, what can be said about the current status of IDET?
Detailed Explanation
Intradiskal electrothermal therapy (IDET) initial clinical results were reported in 2000. The early case series were quite encouraging with reported therapeutic success rates of 60% to 80%. Early enthusiasm was high as IDET provided a nonsurgical treatment option for an otherwise complex and difficult clinical entity, chronic diskogenic low back pain. The actual mechanism of action was not well understood, and while the theoretic explanation made good sense, it did not hold up under laboratory testing. Soon clinical results from the field did not meet the high expectations set by the developers of the technique. Since those early case studies, a few level I evidence studies have been conducted, one by Freeman and associates and one by Pauza and associates. These randomized, placebo-controlled trials demonstrated no significant benefit of IDET over the placebo. Freeman BJ, Fraser RD, Cain CM, et al: A randomized, double-blind, controlled trial: Intradiscal electrothermal therapy versus placebo for the treatment of chronic discogenic low back pain. Spine 2005;30:2369-2377. Pauza KJ, Howell S, Dreyfuss P, et al: A randomized, placebo-controlled trial of intradiscal electrothermal therapy for the treatment of discogenic low back pain. Spine J 2004;4:27-35.
Question 109 High Yield
Figure 16 shows an axial MRI scan through the knee joint. What structure is identified by the arrow?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 10
Detailed Explanation
The anterior cruciate ligament can be visualized on an axial MRI scan as a low-signal structure lying in the lateral aspect of the intercondylar notch. Visualization in multiple planes increases the accuracy of MRI to view the anterior cruciate ligament. The posterior cruciate ligament and ligament of Wrisberg are located on the medial wall of the notch. The ligamentum mucosum is anterior to the notch, and the popliteus tendon is posterior to the lateral femoral condyle. Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 675-699.
Question 110 High Yield
A 59-year-old construction worker who is right-hand dominant has had right shoulder pain for the past 9 months with no history of injury. Nonsurgical management consisting of two cortisone injections, physical therapy for 3 months, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has failed to provide lasting relief. Examination reveals tenderness over the acromioclavicular (AC) joint and over the subacromial bursa. He has positive Neer and Hawkins impingement signs and AC joint pain with adduction of the shoulder. Radiographs are shown in Figures 36a and 36b. An MRI scan reveals an intact rotator cuff. Management should now consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 11 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 12
Detailed Explanation
Because the patient has clinical and radiographic signs of AC arthritis and subacromial impingement, the treatment of choice is anterior acromioplasty and distal clavicle excision. Arthroscopic acromioplasty alone would not address the AC arthritis. The rotator cuff is intact; therefore, rotator cuff repair is not indicated. An open Mumford procedure would address the AC arthritis only and not the impingement symptoms. Immobilization might lead to stiffness of the shoulder and is not recommended for treating impingement.
Question 111 High Yield
A 28-year-old cowgirl was injured while herding cattle 1 week ago. A radiograph and CT scans are shown in Figures 13a through 13c. What is the most appropriate management for this injury?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 13 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 14 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 15
Detailed Explanation
The patient has an AP I pelvic ring disruption with minimal symphyseal widening. The best treatment is nonsurgical management and weight bearing as tolerated. This will help close the anterior pelvic ring during the healing process. Pelvic binders are excellent for acute treatment of widely displaced pelvic fractures but are not recommended for long-term use. Open reduction and internal fixation is not indicated for this injury and furthermore, the posterior ring is not injured. Matta JM: Indications for anterior fixation of pelvic fractures. Clin Orthop Relat Res 1996;329:88-96. Templeman DC, Schmidt AH, Sems SA, et al: Diastasis of the symphysis pubis: Open reduction internal fixation, in Wiss D (ed): Masters Techniques in Orthopaedic Surgery-Fractures, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams and Wilkins, 2006, pp 639-648.
Question 112 High Yield
A 35-year-old man sustained a 10% compression fracture of the C5 vertebra in a diving accident. Radiographs show good alignment, and examination reveals no neurologic compromise. An MRI scan reveals no significant soft-tissue disruption posteriorly. Management should consist of
Detailed Explanation
The patient has a stable flexion-compression injury of the cervical spine. The fracture occurs as a result of compression failure of the vertebral body. If the force continues, a tension failure of the posterior structures occurs, leading to potential dislocation. Immobilization in a rigid cervical orthosis will allow this fracture to heal. Clark CR (ed): The Cervical Spine, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 457-464.
Question 113 High Yield
What gene is expressed the earliest during the differentiation of a chondrocyte during endochondral ossification?
Detailed Explanation
Transcription factors regulate the activation or repression of cartilage-specific genes. Sox-9, considered a major regulator of chondrogenesis, regulates several cartilage-specific genes during endochondral ossification, including collagen types II, IV, and XI and aggrecan. Li J, Sandell LJ: Transcriptional regulation of cartilage-specific genes, in Rosier RN, Evans C (eds): Molecular Biology in Orthoapedics, Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 21-24.
Question 114 High Yield
A 35-year-old man has numbness and tingling in the index, middle, and ring fingers. History reveals that he also has had vague wrist pain and stiffness since being injured in a motorcycle accident 1 year ago. Radiographs are shown in Figures 47a through 47c. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 16 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 17 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 18
Detailed Explanation
The patient has a chronic unrecognized volar lunate dislocation. Median nerve compression is the result of the lunate displaced into the carpal tunnel. The diagnosis can be made by radiographs; MRI is not necessary. A volar approach allows median nerve decompression with excision of the lunate, whereas a dorsal approach facilitates excision of the scaphoid and triquetrum. Rettig ME, Raskin KB: Long-term assessment of proximal row carpectomy for chronic perilunate dislocations. J Hand Surg Am 1999;24:1231-1236.
Question 115 High Yield
A 45-year-old woman has had radiating pain in the medial ankle for the past 3 months. Examination reveals a small mass in the retromedial ankle region and a positive Tinel's sign. An intraoperative photograph and a hematoxylin/eosin biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. Treatment should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 19 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 20
Detailed Explanation
Neurilemoma is a benign tumor of nerve sheath origin, and peak incidence is in the third through sixth decades. The tumor is well encapsulated on the surface of a peripheral nerve. MRI findings may be significant for a "string sign." A positive Tinel's sign in the distribution of the nerve affected may be present. Grossly, the lesion is well encapsulated in a nerve sheath. Microscopically, there are structures referred to as Antoni A (a pattern of spindle cells arranged in intersecting bundles) and Antoni B (areas with less cellularity with loosely arranged cells). These lesions are benign, and treatment should consist of marginal excision. Nerve function may be preserved by careful dissection, excising the lesion parallel to the nerve fascicles so the lesion may be extruded. Recurrence is rare. Walling AK: Soft tissue and bone tumors, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 1007-1032.
Question 116 High Yield
Figures 39a and 39b show the current radiographs of an 8-year-old girl who has had pain in the left thigh for the past 3 months. She was recently diagnosed with hypothyroidism and started treatment 1 week ago. Examination reveals a mild abductor deficiency limp on the left side. She lacks 30 degrees internal rotation on the left hip compared with the right hip. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 21 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 22
Detailed Explanation
The radiographs confirm a slipped capital femoral epiphysis of the left hip, as well as a widened growth plate on the contralateral hip. This is considered a stable slip because the patient is able to walk. Treatment options for stable slips include in situ pinning, bone graft epiphysiodesis, and in some centers severe slips are treated with primary osteotomy and epiphyseal fixation. Percutaneous in situ fixation is the most popular and widely used method of treatment. This juvenile patient has an endocrine condition and a widened growth plate on the right side; therefore, strong consideration should be given to pinning the contralateral hip "pre-slip." Muscle strengthening, hip spica casting, and closed reduction have no place in the primary treatment of a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Loder RT, Richards BS, Shapiro PS, et al: Acute slipped capital femoral epiphysis: The importance of physeal stability. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:1134-1140. Loder R, Wittenberg B, DeSilva G: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis associated with endocrine disorders. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:349-356.
Question 117 High Yield
A 40-year-old laborer sustains the injury shown in the radiograph and CT scan in Figures 56a and 56b. What is the most common complication associated with surgical intervention?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 23 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 24
Detailed Explanation
The patient has a severe Sanders type 4 calcaneus fracture. By far the most common complication associated with surgical treatment of calcaneus fractures is wound dehiscence. Sanders R: Displaced intra-articular fractures of the calcaneus. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:225-250.
Question 118 High Yield
The most compelling clinical reason to convert a hip arthrodesis to a total hip arthroplasty is that the latter
Detailed Explanation
Studies show that degenerative arthritis of the spine associated with a hip arthrodesis can be decreased with conversion to a total hip arthroplasty. The pain associated with degenerative arthritis of the knee usually persists after arthrodesis take-down procedures, and often requires total knee arthroplasty. Pain in the contralateral hip is not resolved by converting the arthrodesis. Improving range of motion of the hip and correcting a limb-length discrepancy are not good indications for take-down procedures. Strathy GM, Fitzgerald RH Jr: Total hip arthroplasty in the ankylosed hip: A ten-year follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:963-966.
Question 119 High Yield
A 7-year-old boy sustained an acute puncture wound of the foot after stepping barefoot on a piece of glass 1 day ago. His mother states that she is not sure if she got the piece of glass out; however, she reports that his immunizations are up-to-date. Examination reveals that the wound is slightly erythematous, less than 1 mm in length on the heel, and is not currently draining. What is the next most appropriate step im management?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 25
Detailed Explanation
The child has an up-to-date tetanus; therefore, a booster is not recommended. Pseudomonas coverage is most likely not needed because the child was barefoot. It is too early to evaluate for abscess or osteomyelitis with MRI, and a formal debridement is rarely indicated without signs of an abscess or a retained foreign body. Radiographs with soft-tissue penetration should be obtained to check for a retained foreign body. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 199-205.
Question 120 High Yield
A 30-year-old man caught his dominant little finger on the straps of his windsurfing board 10 days ago. He reports swelling about the distal phalanx and has difficulty completely extending the distal interphalangeal joint. A radiograph is shown in Figure 47. What is the most appropriate treatment for this injury?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 26
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph reveals a "bony mallet injury." As the distal phalanx is not volarly subluxated, extension splinting, similar to a classic mallet injury without bony involvement, is appropriate. If there is volar subluxation associated with a large bony fragment, surgical intervention is appropriate. Baratz ME, Schmidt CC, Hughes TB: Extensor tendon injuries, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC, et al (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 5. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2005, p 192.
Question 121 High Yield
A 5-year-old boy has had midfoot pain with activity for the past 3 months. He has no pain at rest. Radiographs are shown in Figures 29a and 29b. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 27 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 28
Detailed Explanation
The radiographs show classic findings for Koehler's disease (osteochondrosis of the navicular). The patient's age and clinical history are typical for this self-limiting condition. Patients will improve with time, but the duration of symptoms is much shorter if the patient is placed in a cast. There is no role for surgery in this disease.
Question 122 High Yield
Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in children?
Detailed Explanation
The tetracycline family of medications can stain teeth and bone in skeletally immature patients and as a result should be avoided in those patients. The remaining antibiotics have no known specific contraindication to use in children.
Question 123 High Yield
Plots of stress versus strain for four orthopaedic biomaterials are shown in Figure 3. Referring to the figure, what is the correct identification of the curves?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 29
Detailed Explanation
Stress-strain plots allow easy comparison of a number of important mechanical properties, including elastic modulus (the slope of the initial straight line portion of the curve) and yield stress (the stress at the break in the curves for bone, steel, and titanium alloy). Important considerations here are much lower modulus and ultimate stress of bone and cement compared to the two metallic alloys, the fact that titanium is lower modulus but higher strength than stainless steel, and the identification of cement as the only brittle material among the four. Burstein AH, Wright TM: Fundamentals of Orthopaedic Biomechanics. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1994, pp 97-129.
Question 124 High Yield
A 65-year-old man has a painful right hip mass that has been growing for several years. A radiograph, CT scan, and photomicrograph are shown in Figures 56a through 56c. What is the most appropriate treatment?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 30 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 31 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 32
Detailed Explanation
This is a conventional chondrosarcoma. The radiograph and the CT scan show a lesion arising from the inferior pubic ramus with a large soft-tissue mass. Abundant punctate, stippled, or "popcorn-like" calcification is present. The photomicrograph demonstrates hypercellular cartilage. Surgical resection is the only effective treatment. Whereas chemotherapy might play a role in the treatment of a dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma, it has no role in the treatment of a conventional chondrosarcoma. Chondrosarcomas are relatively radioresistant. Donati D, El Ghoneimy A, Bertoni F, et al: Surgical treatment and outcome of conventional pelvic chondrosarcoma. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2005;87:1527-1530. Lee FY, Mankin HJ, Fondren G, et al: Chondrosarcoma of bone: An assessment of outcome. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:326-338.
Question 125 High Yield
Figures 31a and 31b show the radiograph and MRI scan of an otherwise normal 3-month-old infant who has a spinal deformity. MRI reveals no intraspinal anomalies. What is the next step in management?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 33 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 34
Detailed Explanation
Congenital scoliosis in an infant warrants evaluation of the renal, cardiac, and neurologic systems because frequently there is concurrent pathology. Progression in this instance is possible but not certain; therefore, progression must be documented prior to any surgical intervention. Close observation with serial radiographs every 4 to 6 months is appropriate. All of the surgical options listed may be reasonable choices in the future, but cardiac evaluation is the most important issue at this time. Basu PS, Elsebaie H, Noordeen MH: Congenital spinal deformity: A comprehensive assessment at presentation. Spine 2002;27:2255-2259.
Question 126 High Yield
What is the treatment of choice for the injury shown in Figures 20a through 20c?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 35 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 36 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 37
Detailed Explanation
The radiographs show multiple carpometacarpal dislocations. Reduction is often obtainable but difficult to maintain. Internal fixation is required to maintain the reduction, preferably with Kirschner wires. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning is preferred by some surgeons. Others recommend open reduction to remove irreconstructable osteochondral fragments from the individual joints and to ensure correct reduction of the carpometacarpal joints. Kirschner wires are removed at 6 to 8 weeks. Prokuski LJ, Eglseder WA Jr: Concurrent dorsal dislocations and fracture-dislocations of the index, long, ring, and small (second to fifth) carpometacarpal joints. J Orthop Trauma 2001;15:549-554.
Question 127 High Yield
A 15-year-old boy reports leg pain after being tackled during football practice. Radiographs and a CT scan are shown in Figures 46a through 46c. The patient has a pathologic fracture through what underlying lesion?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 38 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 39 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 40
Detailed Explanation
The images show a lobulated, eccentric, well-marginated lesion that is typical of a nonossifying fibroma. The lesion is slightly expansile, and the CT scan findings show that the lesion is very well marginated and the cortex is disrupted, which is a common finding. None of the characteristics of this lesion is aggressive in nature. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 69-75.
Question 128 High Yield
Figures 5a and 5b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a patient who has difficulty wearing shoes and has persistent symptoms medially and laterally at the first and fifth metatarsophalangeal joints. Because shoe modifications have failed to provide relief, management should now consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 41 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 42
Detailed Explanation
A significant bunionette deformity that fails to respond to conservative management is best addressed surgically, in this case with the bunion deformity. The radiograph reveals a prominent lateral condyle at the fifth metatarsal head without a significant increase in the intermetatarsal angle. Simple exostectomy is preferred with less risk of complications. Complete excision would risk transfer lesions to the medial metatarsals. Mann RA, Coughlin MJ: Adult hallux valgus, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 415-435.
Question 129 High Yield
A 65-year man has right hip pain after a fall. Radiographs reveal a reverse oblique intertrochanteric femoral fracture. Treatment consists of reduction and internal fixation. Which of the following implants is most commonly associated with nonunion and hardware failure?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 43
Detailed Explanation
Reverse oblique intertrochanteric femoral fractures account for 5% of all intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric fractures. They are uncommon but not rare and will be encountered in practice. The sliding hip screw is associated with the most problems because of its design. When reverse oblique fractures are fixed with a sliding hip screw, the action of the construct causes medial displacement of the distal fragment rather than compression of the proximal and distal fragments. All of the other implants prevent medial displacement of the distal segment. It should not be assumed that simply using one of the other implants is reason for success. There is a significant failure rate for each of these implants with reverse oblique fractures. The implant must be ideally placed and the fracture must be reduced. Haidukewych GJ, Israel TA, Berry DB: Reverse obliquity fractures of the intertrochanteric region of the femur. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:643-650. Sanders RW, Regazzoni P: Treatment of subtrochanteric femur fractures using the dynamic condylar screw. J Orthop Trauma 1989;3:206-213.
Question 130 High Yield
A 65-year-old woman landed on her nondominant left shoulder in a fall. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 39. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 44
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph reveals a four-part fracture-dislocation of the proximal humerus. Humeral hemiarthroplasty and tuberosity repair is the treatment of choice because the risk of osteonecrosis is high after attempted repair of this injury. Glenoid resurfacing is reserved for acute fractures in which there is significant preexisting glenoid arthrosis, such as in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Neer CS II: Displaced proximal humeral fractures: II. Treatment of three- and four-part displacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1970;52:1090-1103.
Question 131 High Yield
Figure 39 shows the AP radiograph of a 62-year-old man with degenerative osteoarthritis secondary to trauma. History reveals that he underwent total elbow arthroplasty 3 years ago. He continues to report instability and constant pain. A complete work-up, including aspiration and cultures, is negative. Treatment should consist of removal of the components and
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 45
Detailed Explanation
An unconstrained prosthesis dislocation is a disconcerting problem that is not easily resolved; however, revision to a semiconstrained prosthesis would best achieve both pain relief and stability. Removal of the components and distraction arthroplasty or conversion to a resection arthroplasty are options, but the results would be unpredictable with regards to pain relief, postoperative motion, or elbow stability. Arthrodesis is poorly tolerated. With revision to another unconstrained prosthesis, there is the risk of continued redislocation because of chronic ligamentous insufficiency. Linscheid RL: Resurfacing elbow replacement arthroplasty: Rationale, technique and results, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 602-610.
Question 132 High Yield
A 65-year-old woman has significant neck pain after falling and striking her head. A radiograph and sagittal CT scan are shown in Figures 23a and 23b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 46 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 47
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph shows a displacement of C5 on C6 of approximately 25%. The CT scan shows a perched facet at C5-6. There is no evidence of a facet fracture. A bilateral facet dislocation would show a displacement of more than 50%. Rothman RH, Simeone FA (eds): The Spine, ed 4. Philadelphia PA, WB Saunders, 1999, pp 927-937.
Question 133 High Yield
Figure 50 shows the MRI scan of a 20-year-old female college soccer player with knee pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 48
Detailed Explanation
The MRI scan shows an acute complete tear of the posterior cruciate ligament. No evidence is seen of a quadriceps tendon rupture, a tibia fracture, or a bone contusion. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 533-557.
Question 134 High Yield
A previously healthy 14-year-old boy now reports fatigue, and has a bilateral Trendelenburg gait, right hip pain, and bilateral knee and foot pain. Biopsy of a right sacral mass reveals intermediate grade osteosarcoma. There are no metastases. Laboratory studies reveal a serum calcium level of 7.7 mg/dL (normal 8.5 to 10.5), a phosphate level of 2.0 mg/dL (normal 2.7 to 4.5), a 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D level of less than 10 pg/mL (normal 18 to 62), a parathyroid hormone level of 19 pg/mL (normal 10 to 60), and an alkaline phosphatase level of 428 U/L (normal 15 to 351). What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Detailed Explanation
The laboratory findings are typical for rickets. Oncogenic rickets is a paraneoplastic syndrome that results from a substance secreted by the tumor that interferes with renal tubule reabsorption of phosphate. This substance previously had been called phosphatonin but recently has been identified as fibroblast growth factor 23. Nutritional rickets is rare in developed countries. Delayed onset familial hypophosphatemic rickets is possible, but the likelihood of having two rare diseases is unlikely. Osteosarcoma does not sequester calcium. Alkaline phosphatase levels can be elevated in osteosarcoma but does not cause muscle weakness. Tumor cachexia would occur only with advanced metastatic disease. A unilateral sacral mass would not cause a bilateral L5 neuropathy or the abnormal laboratory findings. Case records of the Massachusetts General Hospital. Weekly clinicopathological exercises. Case 29-2001. A 14-year-old with abnormal bones and a sacral mass. N Engl J Med 2001;345:903-908.
Question 135 High Yield
A 35-year-old man who snowboards sustained the injury shown in Figures 4a through 4c. What is the mechanism of injury?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 49 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 50 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 51
Detailed Explanation
Fractures of the lateral process of the talus in snowboarders have been thought to result from pure dorsiflexion, inversion, and axial loading. In a cadaveric study, 10 cadavers were placed in fixed dorsiflexion and inversion with an axial load. This was combined with or without external rotation. No fractures occurred after axial loading in the dorsiflexed-inverted position. Fractures of the lateral process of the talus occurred in 75% of the specimens with the addition of external rotation. Boon AJ, Smith J, Zobitz ME, et al: Snowboarder's talus fracture: Mechanism of injury. Am J Sports Med 2001;29:333-338.
Question 136 High Yield
A 6-year-old girl has a painless spinal deformity. Examination reveals 2+ and equal knee jerks and ankle jerks, negative clonus, and a negative Babinski. The straight leg raising test is negative. Abdominal reflexes are asymmetrical. PA and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 15a and 15b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 52 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 53
Detailed Explanation
The patient has an abnormal neurologic exam as shown by the abnormal abdominal reflexes. Furthermore, she has a significant curve and is younger than age 10 years. These findings are not consistent with idiopathic scoliosis. MRI will best rule out syringomyelia or an intraspinal tumor. Bracing and surgery are not indicated for this small curvature prior to obtaining an MRI scan. Ginsburg GM, Bassett GS: Back pain in children and adolescents: Evaluation and differential diagnosis. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:67-78.
Question 137 High Yield
What structure (arrow) is shown in Figure 24?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 54
Detailed Explanation
The structure illustrated is the sympathetic chain viewed from an anterolateral view of the lower lumbar spine. It descends along the anterolateral aspect of the spine into the pelvis closely adherent to the vertebral column. The spinal nerves, including L5, can be seen exiting from the foramen. The ureters descend from the kidneys and cross anterior to the iliac vessels to the bladder. Onibokun A, Khoo LT, Holly L: Anterior retroperitoneal approach to the lumbar spine, in Kim DH, Henn JS, Vaccaro AR, et al (eds): Surgical Anatomy and Techniques to the Spine. Philadelphia, PA, Saunders Elsevier, 2006, pp 101-105.
Question 138 High Yield
Which of the following methods most reliably detects mechanical loosening of the hip?
Detailed Explanation
Mechanical loosening of the hip is best revealed by serial radiographs of the prosthetic joint. None of the other methods of evaluation is considered reliable in diagnosing mechanical loosening. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 455-492.
Question 139 High Yield
A 50-year-old man with metastatic renal cell carcinoma has right hip pain. A radiograph and CT scan are shown in Figures 48a and 48b. The first step in management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 55 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 56
Detailed Explanation
These lesions are extremely vascular and can cause uncontrolled intraoperative bleeding; therefore embolization is the appropriate first treatment. Because the radiograph and CT scan show a lytic lesion in the supra-acetabular region that affects the weight-bearing dome and medial wall, the next step in treatment would most likely be a total hip arthroplasty and acetabular reconstruction. Treatment with bisphosphonates and radiation therapy will not prevent an acetabular fracture. Cementoplasty is an emerging technique in which cement is injected percutaneously into a lesion, but no long-term results have been reported. Radiofrequency ablation of bone metastases is also an emerging technique that provides palliative pain control. Layalle I, Flandroy P, Trotteur G, Dondelinger RF: Arterial embolization of bone metastases: Is it worthwhile? J Belge Radiol 1998;81:223-225.
Question 140 High Yield
A 29-year-old woman reports shoulder pain after sustaining a minor fall 6 weeks ago. She has a history of celiac sprue. Radiographs of the forearm and shoulder are shown in Figures 53a and 53b. Which of the following serum abnormalities would be expected?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 57 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 58
Detailed Explanation
Celiac sprue results in rapid gastrointestinal transit and fatty stools that impair the absorption of calcium and vitamin D and result in nutritional-deficiency osteomalacia with secondary hyperparathyroidism. The radiographs show marked osteopenia with brown tumors. A pathologic fracture is seen in the proximal humerus through a large brown tumor. Serum findings include low or normal calcium, low phosphate, elevated alkaline phosphatase, low 1,25(OH)2D, and increased PTH levels. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with a variety of conditions including malabsorption syndromes. Potts JT: Parathyroid hormone: Past and present. J Endocrinol 2005;187:311-325. Corazza GR, Di Stefano M, Maurino E, et al: Bones in coeliac disease: Diagnosis and treatment. Best Pract Res Clin Gastroenterol 2005;19:453-465.
Question 141 High Yield
Which of the following is accurate regarding low-molecular-weight heparin used for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis in total joint arthroplasty?
Detailed Explanation
Low-molecular-weight heparin is highly bioavailable with a half-life of 3 to 18 hours. This is greater than the 1 hour half-life of unfractionated heparin. Low-molecular-weight heparin offers an advantage over unfractionated heparin by selectively targeting Factor Xa while having a lesser effect on circulating thrombin (Factor IIa). Circulating thrombin Factor IIa is needed for local hemostasis at the site of the surgical wound. Clinical studies have shown a reduction by one third in the incidence of thrombocytopenia with the use of low-molecular-weight heparin. Low-molecular-weight heparin has been shown to demonstrate similar clinical results compared to warfarin with respect to preventing thromboembolic disease after total hip arthroplasty and complications such as bleeding. Zimlich RH, Fulbright BM, Friedman RJ: Current status of anticoagulation therapy after total hip and total knee arthroplasty. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:54-62. Colwell CW Jr, Spiro TE, Trowbridge AA, et al: Use of enoxaparin, a low-molecular-weight heparin, and unfractionated heparin for the prevention of deep venous thrombosis after elective hip replacement: A clinical trial comparing efficacy and safety. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:3-14.
Question 142 High Yield
Figure 36a shows the current radiograph of a 65-year-old woman who slipped and fell. History reveals that prior to the fall she was actively functioning without pain. Figure 36b shows a radiograph obtained 1 year ago. Based on the fracture pattern, the failure is most likely related to
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 59 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 60
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph shows a fracture distal to the prosthesis in a stable, apparently well-fixed prosthetic stem. The well-fixed prosthesis-bone composite is stiff, creating a modulus mismatch between the proximal and distal femur. Therefore, the risk of fracture, particularly in osteoporotic bone, is increased at this level. Revision of the stem to a longer construct is unnecessary, and standard plate and screw fixation has been shown to yield union rates of greater than 90%. Nonsurgical treatment of fractures distal to the tip of the prosthesis results in high nonunion rates, reported to be from 25% to 42%. Johansson JE, McBroom R, Barrington TW, Hunter GA: Fracture of the ipsilateral femur in patients with total hip replacement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1981;63:1435-1442. Bethea JS III, DeAndrade JR, Fleming LL, Lindenbaum SD, Welch RB: Proximal femoral fractures following total hip arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1982;170:95-106.
Question 143 High Yield
What nerve is most at risk during placement of the anterolateral portal in elbow arthroscopy?
Detailed Explanation
The radial nerve is only 4 mm from the anterolateral portal, while the median nerve is 11 mm away from the anteromedial portal. The ulnar nerve is only at risk on the medial side of the elbow. Anterior and posterior interosseous nerves are more distal within the forearm and are not in danger during portal placement. O'Driscoll SW, Morrey BF: Elbow arthroscopy, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 1994, pp 21-34.
Question 144 High Yield
What structure is marked Q in the diagram of the brachial plexus shown in Figure 22?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 61
Detailed Explanation
From proximal to distal, the brachial plexus is divided into roots, trunks, divisions, and cords before forming specific peripheral nerve branches. The structure marked Q is called the posterior cord because it lies posterior to the axially artery at the level of the cords. Its terminal branches are the upper subscapular (V), thoracodorsal (W), lower subscapular (X), axillary (F), and radial (G) nerves. Anderson JE (ed): Grant's Atlas of Anatomy, ed 7. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1978, pp 6-24.
Question 145 High Yield
What is the structure indicated by the letter "A" in Figure 21?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 62
Detailed Explanation
The ligaments shown are the components of the lateral collateral ligament complex, and the structure indicated by the letter "A" is the radial collateral ligament. The lateral ulnar collateral ligament is the structure indicated by the letter "C" and the annular ligament is indicated by the letter "B." The transverse ligament is a component of the medial collateral ligament complex. Morrey BF: Anatomy of the elbow joint, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1993, p 30.
Question 146 High Yield
A 68-year-old woman stepped on a needle while walking barefoot 10 days ago. She is not certain but thinks it is imbedded in her foot, and she notes local tenderness at the puncture site and drainage. Her primary care physician has been treating her with oral antibiotics. A plain radiograph is shown in Figure 38. What is the best course of action?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 63
Detailed Explanation
Based on the radiographic findings, the patient has a metallic foreign body in her foot that is consistent with a needle. She has local infection secondary to the continued presence of the foreign body. CT is not necessary to localize the foreign body as it is adequately visualized on the plain radiographs. The infection cannot be adequately treated until the foreign body is removed. Attempted removal of foreign bodies without proper anesthesia and fluoroscopy frequently results in frustration because of the inability to localize the foreign body. Removal in a surgical suite with proper anesthesia and fluoroscopy is the preferred option. Once the foreign body is removed, the local infection will resolve rapidly. Combs AH, Kernek CB, Heck DA: Orthopedic grand rounds: Retained wooden foreign body in the foot detected by computed tomography. Orthopedics 1986;9:1434-1435.
Question 147 High Yield
A 45-year-old man reports severe discomfort following a twisting injury to his right ankle and foot. Plain radiographs are negative; however, the CT scans shown in Figures 39a and 39b reveal a fracture. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 64 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 65
Detailed Explanation
The CT scans show a fracture of the anterior process of the calcaneus that involves less than 25% of the joint surface with minimal to no displacement. The preferred treatment is external immobilization in either a walking cast or, more typically, a removable cast boot. For larger fractures that involve more than 25% of the articular surface with joint incongruity, open reduction and internal fixation may be indicated. Primary calcaneocuboid joint arthrodesis is not warranted because symptoms are rare in most patients. Delayed excision of the fragment is a late reconstructive option if painful nonunion develops. Percutaneous pin fixation is not indicated beceause there tends to be inherent stability in this fracture. Heckman JD: Fractures and dislocations in the foot, in Rockwood CA Jr, Green DP, Bucholz RW, Heckman JD (eds): Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, pp 2267-2405.
Question 148 High Yield
A 75-year-old woman reports foot pain and states that her foot has become progressively "flatter" in the past 3 years. Custom inserts and physical therapy have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a flexible hindfoot and mild heel cord contracture. The patient is able to perform a single limb heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs are shown in Figures 21a through 21d. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 66 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 67 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 68 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 69
Detailed Explanation
The patient has end-stage midfoot arthritis, with a secondary flatfoot deformity through the midfoot. The ability to perform a single limb heel rise indicates that the posterior tibial tendon is functioning, and the weight-bearing radiographs show normal calcaneal pitch and talar head coverage, thus confirming that the flatfoot deformity is isolated to the midfoot. Therefore, the most appropriate treatment is medial column arthrodesis and heel cord lengthening. The other listed procedures are not indicated because they are used in the management of adult flatfoot from posterior tibial tendon insufficiency. Toolan BC: Midfoot arthrodesis: Challenges and treatment alternatives. Foot Ankle Clin 2002;7:75-93.
Question 149 High Yield
What is the most appropriate next step in the work-up of a patient with the asymptomatic lesion shown in Figure 23?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 70
Detailed Explanation
The eccentric metaphyseal location, skeletal maturity, narrow zone of transition, and lack of symptoms suggest a benign process and are consistent with a healed nonossifying fibroma. These lesions typically fill in (ossify) with skeletal maturity, eventually remodeling and disappearing. Radiographic monitoring is indicated. Biopsy is not recommended unless the lesion changes radiographically. Marks KE, Bauer TW: Fibrous tumors of bone. Orthop Clin North Am 1989;20:377-393. Bullough PG, Walley J: Fibrous cortical defect and non-ossifying fibroma. Postgrad Med J 1965;41:672-676.
Question 150 High Yield
Which of the following is a contraindication to laminoplasty in a patient with cervical spondylotic myelopathy?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 71
Detailed Explanation
Laminoplasty or any posterior decompressive procedure is contraindicated in patients with cervical spondylotic myelopathy and cervical kyphosis. The residual kyphotic posture of the cervical spine results in persistent spinal cord compression. The other choices are not contraindications for laminoplasty. Concomitant cervical radiculopathy can be addressed at the time of laminoplasty with a keyhole foraminotomy. Emery SE: Cervical spondylotic myelopathy: Diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:376-388.
Question 151 High Yield
A 20-year-old-man sustained a scapular fracture after attempting to grab a beam as he fell through a ceiling at a job site 3 months ago. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 36. He now reports pain in the anterior shoulder and difficulty with overhead activities. What nerve roots make up the involved peripheral nerve?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 72
Detailed Explanation
The patient sustained an injury to the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior. Branches of C5 and C6 enter the scalenus medius, unite in the muscle, and emerge as a single trunk and pass down the axilla. On the surface of the serratus anterior, the long thoracic nerve is joined by the branch from C7 and descends in front of the serratus anterior, providing segmental innervation to the serratus anterior.
Question 152 High Yield
A 36-year-old recreational tennis player sustains the injury shown in Figure 16. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 73
Detailed Explanation
The MRI scan shows a rupture of the patellar tendon. This injury is most appropriately addressed with primary repair. For athletic individuals, the results of nonsurgical management are suboptimal. Reconstructive procedures are not necessary. Matava MJ: Patellar tendon ruptures. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:287-296.
Question 153 High Yield
Figure 14 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who underwent prosthetic arthroplasty 8 years ago and has now become symptomatic again over the past 18 months. A WBC count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are within normal limits, and aspiration of the glenohumeral joint yields a negative Gram stain and cultures. Which of the following procedures will most likely provide the best pain relief and function?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 74
Detailed Explanation
Simple removal of the loose glenoid component or removal of the loose component followed by implantation of a new glenoid component are both appropriate treatment choices, depending on the remaining glenoid bone stock. However, removal and reimplantation appears to provide the most predictable pain relief and better function than removal alone. Antuna SA, Sperling JW, Cofield RH, et al: Glenoid revision surgery after total shoulder arthroplasty. J Shoulder Elbow Surg 2001;10:217-224.
Question 154 High Yield
Figure 1 shows the radiograph of a 71-year-old man who has had increasing pain and weakness in his shoulder for the past 3 years. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Examination shows 130 degrees of active forward flexion and intact external rotation strength. During surgery, a 1- x 1-cm rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus is encountered. Treatment should include
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 75
Detailed Explanation
Given the size of the rotator cuff tear, it is likely to be repaired; therefore, the treatment of choice is a total shoulder replacement with rotator cuff repair. Severe rotator cuff insufficiency can lead to early glenoid failure because of superior instability, and glenoid resurfacing should be avoided in those instances. Boyd AD Jr, Thomas WH, Scott RD, Sledge CB, Thornhill TS: Total shoulder arthroplasty versus hemiarthroplasty: Indications for glenoid resurfacing. J Arthroplasty 1990;5:329-336.
Question 155 High Yield
A 20-year-old woman sustained the closed injury shown in Figures 49a and 49b in a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals that this is an isolated injury; however, she has a complete radial nerve palsy. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 76 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 77
Detailed Explanation
Lacerated radial nerves are associated with open humeral fractures. All open humeral fractures with radial nerve palsy should be managed with radial nerve exploration and skeletal stabilization. Closed humeral fractures with associated radial nerve palsy usually have an intact nerve with neurapraxia. Most of these patients recover without surgical treatment. If the patient has multiple injuries, skeletal stabilization may be indicated to improve mobilization. For an isolated closed humeral fracture with a radial nerve palsy, the treatment of choice is splinting for 1 to 2 weeks, followed by a humeral fracture brace. Ring D, Chin K, Jupiter JB: Radial nerve palsy associated with high-energy humeral shaft fractures. J Hand Surg Am 2004;29:144-147.
Question 156 High Yield
A 36-year-old woman was injured in a train derailment. She has a significant open depressed skull fracture with active bleeding, a hemopneumothorax, and blood in the left upper quadrant and colic gutter by Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) examination. Additionally, she has the pelvic injury seen on the CT scans in Figures 18a and 18b. The mortality rate for this patient approaches
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 78 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 79
Detailed Explanation
Mortality following trauma that requires surgical intervention for head, chest, and abdominal injury exceeds 90%. The type of pelvic fracture is a predictor of associated injury, blood requirements, and overall mortality. AP III pelvic fractures require the most blood, and are associated with significant abdominal trauma and shock. Lateral compression pelvic fractures are more associated with head, chest, and occasionally abdominal trauma, and mortality often occurs from associated injuries. Dalal SA, Burgess AR, Siegel JH, et al: Pelvic fracture in multiple trauma: Classification by mechanism is key to pattern of organ injury, resuscitative requirements and outcome. J Trauma 1989;29:981-1000. Eastridge BJ, Burgess AR: Pedestrian pelvic fractures: 5-year experience of a major urban trauma center. J Trauma 1997;42:695-700.
Question 157 High Yield
For halo traction, what is the preferred site for anterior pin placement?
Detailed Explanation
The safe zone for anterior halo pin insertion is marked laterally by the anterior border of the temporalis muscle (to avoid penetration of this muscle and relative thin cortex of the skull). Medially, the pin should be placed 4.5 cm lateral to the midline to avoid injury to the supraorbital nerve or the frontal sinus. The safe area is marked superiorly by the head equator to avoid cephalad migration of the pin and inferiorly by the supraorbital ridge to prevent displacement or penetration into the orbit.
Question 158 High Yield
In patients without spondylolisthesis or scoliosis undergoing laminectomy for lumbar spinal stenosis, spinal fusion is generally recommended if
Detailed Explanation
With the notable exception of fusion for degenerative spondylolisthesis and scoliosis, there is a paucity of evidence on the indications for spinal fusion in patients undergoing laminectomy for spinal stenosis. However, it is generally recommended that if the spine is destabilized (for example by removal of one complete facet joint or by an iatrogenic pars fracture), spinal fusion should be considered. Although fusion can be considered for a very long laminectomy, a two-level laminectomy does not represent, by itself, a clear indication for the addition of a spinal fusion. The repair of a dural tear and the use of nicotine by the patient play no role in the determination of whether or not to add fusion to a laminectomy procedure. Spivak JM, Connolly PJ (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Spine 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2006, pp 299-409.
Question 159 High Yield
Figures 12a and 12b show the radiographs of a 56-year-old man with diabetes mellitus who has had left foot swelling with no pain for the past several weeks. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals warmth, moderate swelling, no tenderness, and mild pes planus with standing. Pulses are palpable, and his sensory examination is grossly intact to light touch. Standing radiographs are shown in Figures 12c and 12d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 80 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 81 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 82 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 83
Detailed Explanation
The radiographs show tarsometatarsal joint subluxation without fragmentation. The clinical history and delay in presentation with the radiographic findings suggest a neuropathic or Charcot arthropathy involving the midfoot area. Intact sensory examination to light touch is not diagnostic for an intact peripheral neurologic system; monofilament testing is a more accurate office baseline examination for the presence of sensory peripheral neuropathy. With an acute traumatic Lisfranc fracture-dislocation, a history of a traumatic event is necessary, and radiographic abnormalities are expected, although nonstanding radiographs still may be misleading. Acquired pes planus due to posterior tibial tendon rupture may have negative nonstanding radiographs. Standing radiographs may reveal pes planus. However, intermetatarsal disruption is not expected as seen in a Lisfranc abnormality. Localized osteomyelitis of the foot without a penetrating injury or cutaneous ulceration is extremely unlikely and does not fit with the clinical picture described. An isolated metatarsal stress fracture would show osseous irregularity without the instability pattern pictured. Brodsky JW: The diabetic foot, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 895-969.
Question 160 High Yield
The lesion seen in Figure 4 is most likely the result of metastases from what solid organ?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 84
Detailed Explanation
The primary carcinoma most likely to metastasize distal to the elbow and knees is lung carcinoma. Renal cell carcinoma can also metastasize to distal sites. Most metastatic bone disease occurs in the vertebral bodies, pelvis, and proximal long bones. Simon MA, Bartucci EJ: The search for the primary tumor in patients with skeletal metastases of unknown origin. Cancer 1986;58:1088-1095.
Question 161 High Yield
A 34-year-old man has had a 13-month history of an equinovarus deformity of the foot and ankle after a motorcycle accident. His foot and ankle are flexible, but bracing has become uncomfortable. Active dorsiflexion and eversion are absent. What is the most appropriate treatment?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 85
Detailed Explanation
Arthrodesis of any of the ankle or hindfoot joints should be reserved for fixed deformities or end-stage degenerative arthritis. Achilles tendon lengthening is necessary to correct the equinus and to improve dorsiflexion-plantar flexion balance. Similarly, transfer of the posterior tibialis tendon reduces both plantar flexion and inversion torque. Hansen ST: Function Reconstruction of the Foot and Ankle. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2000, pp 442-447.
Question 162 High Yield
A 52-year-old woman with a 2-year history of a flexible (stage II) adult-acquired flatfoot deformity has failed to respond to nonsurgical management consisting of immobilization, custom orthotics, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and physical therapy. The patient is unable to perform a single limb heel rise. Weight-bearing radiographs are shown in Figures 30a through 30c. What is the most appropriate surgical correction?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 86 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 87 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 88
Detailed Explanation
The patient has an atypical adult flatfoot deformity. The radiographs reveal forefoot abduction, mild loss of calcaneal pitch, and marked plantar flexion sag through the naviculocuneiform joint. The inability to perform a single limb heel rise indicates that the posterior tibial tendon is nonfunctional; however, the deformity remains flexible. In this patient, surgical treatment should include a tendon transfer, lateral column lengthening, medial column arthrodesis, and heel cord lengthening. Because a substantial portion of the deformity stems from the naviculocuneiform joint in this instance, tendon transfer and lateral column lengthening alone provide insufficient deformity correction. Triple arthrodesis and heel cord lengthening is best reserved for fixed flatfoot deformities. Soft-tissue procedures alone are associated with a high failure rate, as are attempted tendon repairs. Greisberg J, Assal M, Hansen ST Jr, et al: Isolated medial column stabilization improves alignment in adult-acquired flatfoot. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;435:197-202.
Question 163 High Yield
Which of the following types of displaced posterior pelvic disruptions must undergo anatomic reduction and internal fixation to ensure the best clinical outcome?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 89
Detailed Explanation
Although all of the above displaced injuries require reduction, the sacroiliac joint dislocation is a ligamentous injury. Without fixation, healing is unlikely and the result will be a painful dislocation. Both Holdsworth and Tile showed that the sacroiliac joint must be reduced anatomically and stabilized. The injuries through bone will unite fairly rapidly and, if reduced and stabilized with traction or external fixation, will generally result in an acceptable outcome unless modified by other associated problems such as neurologic injury. Tile M: Fractures of the Pelvis and the Acetabulum. Baltimore, MD, Williams and Wilkins, 1995. Holdsworth F W: Dislocation and fracture dislocation of the pelvis. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1948;30:461-465.
Question 164 High Yield
A 7-year-old girl reports foot pain and has difficulty ambulating. History reveals that she fell off a scooter 1 week ago, and there is possible exposure to a tick bite. A radiograph is shown in Figure 29. What is the best course of action?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 90
Detailed Explanation
The child has Kohler's disease. This is a self-limiting osteochondritis of the navicular. It is treated symptomatically with initial cast immobilization for 6 to 12 weeks, followed possibly by orthotic management. Findings shown in the radiograph usually will normalize within 1 year, and there are no long-term sequelae. Borges JL, Guille JT, Bowen JR: Kohler's bone disease of the tarsal navicular. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:596-598.
Question 165 High Yield
A 12-year-old boy with an ankle fracture undergoes closed reduction under sedation in the emergency department. Figure 27 shows a lateral radiograph of the ankle after two attempts at closed reduction. Based on these findings, treatment should now consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 91
Detailed Explanation
The widening of the physis associated with incomplete reduction of this fracture suggests that periosteum is interposed at the fracture site. Clinical and animal study findings suggest that the interposed periosteum may lead to premature physeal closure. Repeated forceful attempts at reduction may subject the physis to further injury and should be avoided. Growth problems are common in children with Salter-Harris type I fractures of the lower extremities. Nonunions are rare in children with Salter-Harris type I fractures. Barmada A, Gaynor T, Mubarak SJ: Premature physeal closure following distal tibial physeal fractures: A new radiographic predictor. J Pediatr Orthop 2003;23:733-739.
Question 166 High Yield
A previously healthy 13-year-old girl has had thigh pain for the past 3 weeks. The radiograph shown in Figure 47a reveals a lesion in the right femur. A bone scan and CT scan of the chest show no evidence of other lesions. A biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 47b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 92 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 93
Detailed Explanation
The patient has Langerhans cell histiocytosis that may be solitary (eosinophilic granuloma) or associated with systemic illness (Hand-Schuller-Christian disease and Letterer-Siwe disease). The solitary form of the disease, eosinophilic granuloma, typically affects patients in the first three decades of life. Radiographically, it is characterized as a well-defined, lytic, "punched out" intramedullary lesion. Histologically, two cell types, eosinophils and Langerhans cells, are seen. The Langerhans cells are seen as mononuclear histiocyte-like cells with oval nuclei with well-defined round or oval cytoplasm. A prominent nuclear groove can be seen in most of the nuclei (coffee bean nuclei). A mixture of inflammatory cells and lipid-laden foam cells with nuclear debris may be present as well. The lack of nuclear atypia and atypical mitoses excludes malignant conditions such as Ewing's sarcoma, lymphoma of bone, and metastatic neuroblastoma. The lack of acute inflammatory cells excludes the diagnosis of osteomyelitis. The eosinophils have bi-lobed nuclei and granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Dorfman H, Czerniak B: Bone Tumors. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1988.
Question 167 High Yield
A 12 1/2-year-old boy reports intermittent knee pain and limping that interferes with his ability to participate in sports. He actively participates in football, basketball, and baseball. He denies any history of injury. Examination shows full range of motion without effusion. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. MRI scans are shown in Figures 14a and 14b. Initial treatment should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 94 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 95
Detailed Explanation
This skeletally immature patient has a small OCD lesion that appears stable, and he has not undergone any treatment. Therefore, a trial of immobilization until pain resolves is the best initial choice. Thereafter, cessation of sport activities for 4 to 6 months may allow healing of the lesion. Surgical treatment of juvenile OCD lesions is reserved for unstable lesions, patients who have not shown radiographic evidence of healing and are still symptomatic after 6 months of nonsurgical management, or patients who are approaching skeletal maturity. Good results with stable in situ lesions that have failed to respond to nonsurgical management have been reported with both transarticular and retroarticular drilling. Results after excision alone are poor at 5-year follow-up, and it is unclear if microfracture will improve the long-term outcome. Mosaicplasty may be the next best option for patients who remain or become symptomatic after excision of the fragment and microfracture. Wall E, Von Stein D: Juvenile osteochondritis dissecans. Orthop Clin North Am 2003;34:341-353.
Question 168 High Yield
What is the most likely primary cause of decreased success rates of bony fusion in smokers undergoing lumbar arthrodesis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 96
Detailed Explanation
A number of studies have shown a lower success rate of arthrodesis in smokers. Animal models also have shown that administration of nicotine can markedly decrease the rate of arthrodesis. Although it may not be possible to completely eliminate some of the other associated factors that contribute to the failure of arthrodesis, it does appear that nicotine is the primary factor. Andersen T, Christensen FB, Laursen M, et al: Smoking as a predictor of negative outcome in lumbar spinal fusion. Spine 2001;26:2623-2628.
Question 169 High Yield
Figure 24 shows the sitting AP and lateral spinal radiographs of a nonambulatory 12½-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who is being evaluated for scoliosis. The lumbar curve from T12 to L5 measures 36 degrees, and the thoracic curve from T3 to T12 measures 24 degrees on the AP radiograph. He has 5 degrees of pelvic obliquity. His forced vital capacity is 45% of predicted for height and weight. What is the most appropriate treatment for the spinal deformity?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 97
Detailed Explanation
Posterior spinal fusion is the treatment of choice for scoliosis in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy once they are no longer able to walk. This treatment improves quality of life and upright wheelchair positioning. Its effect on pulmonary function is less clear, as pulmonary function will continue to decline because of the underlying muscle disease. While bracing and wheelchair modifications may slow the progression of the curve, progression will continue. Surgical intervention at this stage does not have to include the pelvis, which, in general, is indicated in curves of greater than 40 degrees, and when pelvic obliquity is greater than 10 degrees. Fixation to the pelvis should also be considered in lumbar curves where the apex is lower than L1. Surgical treatment usually can be safely performed if the vital capacity is greater than 35%. Hahn GV, Mubarak SJ: Muscular dystrophy, in Weinstein SL (ed): The Pediatric Spine, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2001, pp 819-832.
Question 170 High Yield
A 20-year-old woman has had wrist pain for the past 5 months. A radiograph, MRI scans, and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 46a through 46d. The patient is then treated with intralesional surgery. The patient should be counseled that her risk of developing lung metastasis is approximately what percent?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 98 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 99 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 100 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 101
Detailed Explanation
Giant cell tumor of bone has about a 2% risk of benign pulmonary metastasis in all cases and 6% risk in recurrent cases. The radiograph and MRI scans show a lytic destructive lesion in the distal radius with no matrix mineralization. The lesion extends up to the subchondral bone. In a young woman, the most likely diagnosis is giant cell tumor of bone, which is supported by the pathology results that show monotonous fibrovascular stroma with numerous multinucleated giant cells where the nuclei that make up the giant cells are identical to the nuclei that make up the background stromal cells. Athanasian EA, Wold LE, Amadio PC: Giant cell tumors of the bones in the hand. J Hand Surg Am 1997;22:91-98.
Question 171 High Yield
Figures 35a and 35b show the radiographs of a 7-year-old patient who has progressive deformity of the right thigh accompanied by a dull persistent pain radiating to the knee. Examination reveals an obvious bulge in the right thigh, with flexion of the hip beyond 50 degrees only if the hip is allowed to externally rotate. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 102 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 103
Detailed Explanation
The patient has radiographic signs of osteogenesis imperfecta, including osteopenia, mild acetabular protrusio, cortical thinning, and bowing associated with anterior stress fracturing. The treatment of choice is correction of the bow with osteotomies, followed by intramedullary fixation to prevent further deformity. Biphosphonates, such as pamidronate, may be useful in increasing bone density and preventing fractures. Large multicenter studies on biphosphonate efficacy are currently in progress. Zionts LE, Ebramzadeh E, Stott NS: Complications in the use of the Bailey-Dubow extensible nail. Clin Orthop 1998;348:186-195. Luhmann SJ, Sheridan JJ, Capelli AM, Schoenecker PL: Management of lower-extremity deformities in osteogenesis imperfecta with extensible intramedullary rod technique: A 20-year experience. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:88-94.
Question 172 High Yield
During anterior surgery on the cervical spine, at what level would the lateral dissection of the longus coli muscle most likely cause Horner's syndrome?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 104
Detailed Explanation
The sympathetic chain approaches the lateral border of the longus coli muscle at C6 and is more vulnerable to injury at this level. Injury to the chain will cause Horner's syndrome, usually seen as unilateral ptosis.
Question 173 High Yield
A 21-year-old football player who sustained a direct blow to the posterior hindfoot while making a cut is unable to bear weight on the injured foot. Examination reveals tenderness and swelling of the great toe metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Radiographs are shown in Figures 9a and 9b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 105 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 106
Detailed Explanation
Turf toe occurs in collision and contact sports in which the athlete pushes off to accelerate or change direction and there is hyperextension of the great toe MTP joint. Typically, there is also axial loading of the posterior hindfoot, which increases the hyperextension of the MTP joint. The most common presentation is pain and swelling of the MTP joint and inability to hyperextend the joint without significant symptoms. With significant force, fractures of the sesmoids and plantar soft tissues can occur. The radiographs do not show a dislocation of the great toe MTP joint because it is concentrically located on both radiographs. However, the radiographs show a fracture of the lateral sesamoid or a diastasis of a bipartite lateral sesamoid. The medial sesamoid is also proximal indicating a rupture of the plantar (volar) plate. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is a fracture of the lateral sesamoid with rupture of the plantar plate leading to proximal migration of the proximal fragment of the lateral sesamoid and the medial sesamoid. Rodeo SA, et al: Diastasis of bipartite sesamoids of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Foot Ankle 1993;l4:425-434.
Question 174 High Yield
Bacitracin is a topical antibiotic agent that may be added to solutions and used for intraoperative lavage. What is this agent effective against?
Detailed Explanation
Bacitracin is a polypeptide obtained from a strain (Tracy strain) of Bacillus subtilis. It is stable and poorly absorbed from the intestinal tract; its only use is for topical application to skin, wounds, or mucous membranes. Concentrations of 500 to 2,000 units per milliliter of solution or gram of ointment are used for topical application. Bacitracin is mainly bactericidal for gram-positive bacteria, including penicillin-resistant staphylococci. In combination with polymixin B or neomycin, bacitracin is useful for suppression of mixed bacterial flora in surface lesions. Bacitracin is toxic for the kidney, causing proteinuria, hematuria, and nitrogen retention; therefore, it has no place in systemic therapy. Bacitracin is said not to induce hypersensivity readily, but reactions to this agent have been described. Rosenstein BD, Wilson FC, Funderburk CH: The use of bacitracin irrigation to prevent infection in postoperative skeletal wounds: An experimental study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:427-430.
Question 175 High Yield
When compared to smokers who do not quit, an improvement in the rate of lumbar fusion is seen in patients who cease smoking for at least how many months postoperatively?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 107
Detailed Explanation
The effects of cigarette smoking and smoking cessation on spinal fusion have been studied extensively. Although permanent smoking cessation is ideal, significant improvements in fusion rates are seen in patients who avoid smoking for greater than 6 months postoperatively.
Question 176 High Yield
A 35-year-old man sustains a closed Monteggia fracture. Examination reveals that sensation, vascular status, and finger flexion are normal. When he extends his wrist, it deviates radially, and he is unable to extend his fingers or thumb. After reduction of the fracture, what is the next step in treatment for the extensor deficits of the thumb and fingers?
Detailed Explanation
The posterior interosseous nerve is located adjacent to the radial neck, placing it at risk for a traction injury with a dislocation of the proximal radius. The typical neurapraxia that results can be expected to resolve with observation within the first 6 to 12 weeks. If recovery is not clinically evident by 3 months, neurophysiologic studies are indicated. Jessing P: Monteggia lesions and their complicating nerve damage. Acta Orthop Scand 1975;46:601-609.
Question 177 High Yield
A 52-year-old woman reports nagging shoulder pain that has been present for months and is slowly progressive in nature. The patient also reports nocturnal pain and notes that the pain is not activity related. Figures 27a and 27b show the radiograph and bone scan, and Figures 27c through 27e show T1-weighted, T2-weighted, and gadolinium MRI scans, respectively. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 108 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 109 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 110 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 111 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 112
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph reveals a metaphyseal lesion with some stippled mineralization suggesting a chondroid tumor. The bone scan shows increased uptake, beyond what is expected for a simple enchondroma, and beyond the limits of the lesion. The MRI sequences shows a lobular lesion on the T1- and T2-weighted (bright on the T2 sequence) images with inhomogeneous uptake of gadolinium; both findings are typical for a chondroid lesion. The history of pain, the positive bone scan, the age of the patient, the size of the lesion, and the central location (enostotic) of the lesion all suggest a malignant cartilage tumor. The images are not consistent with the other diagnoses. In particular, plasmacytoma is more uniformly bright on T2-weighted images and often has a negative bone scan. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 187-194.
Question 178 High Yield
A 14-year-old girl reports a 3-week history of anterior thigh pain and a palpable mass after sustaining a soccer-related injury. Examination reveals a tender, firm mass in the midportion of the rectus femoris. MRI scans are shown in Figures 39a through 39c. What is the most appropriate management?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 113 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 114 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 115
Detailed Explanation
The history, examination, and MRI scan findings are consistent with a midsubstance partial rupture of the rectus femoris muscle. This is an injury masquerading as a "pseudo tumor." The lack of an appreciable mass effect on the T1-weighted MRI scan, the defined fluid signal on the T2-weighted scans, and the lack of significant contrast enhancement after gadolinium are all most consistent with injury rather than a neoplasm. Most of these injuries respond to nonsurgical management; a few will benefit from late debridement and repair if symptoms fail to resolve in 3 to 6 months. The treatment of choice is nonsurgical management with a follow-up MRI scan to verify that the findings are resolving. Hughes C IV, Hasselman CT, Best TM, et al: Incomplete, intrasubstance strain injuries of the rectus femoris muscle. Am J Sports Med 1995;23:500-506.
Question 179 High Yield
Figure 36 shows the radiograph of a 28-year-old man who injured his shoulder in a motocross race. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 116
Detailed Explanation
Fractures of the distal one third of the clavicle have a high incidence of delayed union (45% to 67%) and nonunion (22% to 33%) with nonsurgical management. Surgical stabilization with tension band techniques or a combination of plate and screw techniques is indicated, especially in young, active patients. In this patient, significant displacement of the fracture implies injury to the coracoclavicular ligaments with a higher risk of delayed union or nonunion. Various surgical treatments have been recommended, but the use of smooth wires is not indicated because of the potential for hardware migration. Jupiter JB, Ring D: Fractures of the clavicle, in Ianotti JP, Williams GR (eds): Disorders of the Shoulder: Diagnosis and Management, ed 1. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins, 1999, pp 709-736.
Question 180 High Yield
A 28-year-old man was shot in the foot with a .22 caliber handgun approximately 2 hours ago. Examination reveals an entrance wound dorsally and a plantar exit wound. The foot is neurovascularly intact. Radiographs reveal a nondisplaced fracture of the third metatarsal. Soft-tissue management for this injury should consist of
Detailed Explanation
The patient has sustained a low-velocity, low-caliber gunshot wound to the foot. Because the injury occurred within a period of 8 hours, this is classified as a type I wound. Several studies support the use of surface debridement, cleansing, and sterile dressings as the treatment of choice. More aggressive measures are reserved for high-velocity injuries and shotgun injuries. Brettler D, Sedlin ED, Mendes DG: Conservative treatment of low velocity gunshot wounds. Clin Orthop 1979;140:26-31. Hampton OD: The indications for debridement of gunshot bullet wounds of the extremities in civilian practice. J Trauma 1961;1:368-372.
Question 181 High Yield
A 10-month-old girl has the spinal deformity shown in Figures 55a and 55b with no apparent neurologic finding. The next step in evaluation should be to obtain
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 117 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 118
Detailed Explanation
Approximately 60% of patients with a congenital spine abnormality have associated malformations outside the spinal column. Genitourinary abnormalities are probably the most common, occurring in up to 37% of patients. These are usually anatomic anomalies, such as renal agenesis, duplication, fusion, and ectopia. A genitourinary ultrasound is the least invasive screening tool. Other associated anomalies include cervical vertebral abnormalities, VATER syndrome, and intraspinal abnormalities such as diastematomyelia. An MRI scan is not recommended as part of the screening examination; however, if the patient had neurologic signs or symptoms, an MRI scan would be indicated. Beals RK, Robbins JR, Rolfe B: Anomalies associated with vertebral malformations. Spine 1993;18:1329-1332.
Question 182 High Yield
A 65-year-old woman fell onto her outstretched right arm and immediately had pain. She has a history of osteoporosis. Examination of the right arm reveals lateral arm swelling, ecchymosis, and she is unable to move the elbow due to pain. Her neurovascular status is intact. Radiographs are shown in Figures 14a and 14b. Appropriate treatment should include
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 119 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 120
Detailed Explanation
Comminuted, displaced radial head fractures (Hotchkiss type 3) require anatomic metallic radial head arthroplasty to regain function. Radial head excision has led to catastrophic sequelae including chronic wrist pain, elbow instability, and proximal radius migration. Immobilization, internal fixation, or anconeus arthroplasty are not recommended at this time because of the potentially poorer outcomes. Hotchkiss RN: Displaced fractures of the radial head: Internal fixation or excision? J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:1-10.
Question 183 High Yield
Figures 17a through 17c show the radiographs of a 38-year-old man following a motorcycle accident. The posterior portion of the talus extruded through a posterolateral wound. The extruded talar body is visible in the wound along with some road debris. Management should now consist of surgical irrigation, debridement, and
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 121 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 122 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 123
Detailed Explanation
The extruded talus should be placed in sterile bacitracin solution, irrigated thoroughly, gently debrided, and immediately replanted in the OR. Open reduction and internal fixation of the talar fracture may be attempted immediately depending on the soft-tissue envelope, or delayed after soft-tissue stabilization with an external fixator. A retrospective study of 19 patients with an extruded talus reported that 12 patients had no subsequent surgery after definitive fixation, 7 had subsequent procedures, and 2 patients developed infections that were treated successfully at an average of 42-month follow-up. Successful outcome in this series was attributed to multiple debridements, soft-tissue stabilization, and primary wound closure. Smith CS, Nork SE, Sangeorzan BJ: The extruded talus: Results of reimplantation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2006;88:2418-2424. Brewster NT, Maffulli N: Reimplantation of the totally extruded talus. J Orthop Trauma 1997;11:42-45.
Question 184 High Yield
A 22-year-old woman has had progressive upper extremity weakness for the past several years. History reveals no pain in her neck or shoulders. Examination reveals scapular winging of both shoulders and weakness in external rotation. She can abduct to only 120 degrees bilaterally, and there is mild supraspinatus weakness. She is otherwise neurologically intact with normal sensation and reflexes; however, she has difficulty whistling. A clinical photograph is shown in Figure 14. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 124
Detailed Explanation
Progressive weakness is a common sign with a large differential diagnosis. Nerve, muscle, and joint problems should be excluded when a patient has diffuse weakness and atrophy. Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy is a rare disease characterized by facial muscle weakness and proximal shoulder muscle weakness. The weakness is usually bilateral, and scapular winging is common. If the scapular winging becomes pronounced, elevation of the shoulder can be affected. In severe cases, scapulothoracic fusion or pectoralis muscle transfer to the scapula may be indicated. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is typically severe and progressive. The other diagnoses are not compatible with the history or the physical findings. Shapiro F, Specht L: The diagnosis and orthopaedic treatment of inherited muscular diseases of childhood. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:439-454.
Question 185 High Yield
A 48-year-old man has recurrent right knee pain. Figure 52a shows the sagittal proton density T2-weighted MRI scan, and Figure 52b shows the sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan at the same level. The arrow is pointing to a
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 125 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 126
Detailed Explanation
Meniscal tears have many configurations and locations. The normal medial meniscus has a bow-tie configuration on the two most medial consecutive sagittal views. Toward the center of the joint the anterior and posterior horns have a triangular shape. These images show an abnormal intra-articular low-signal structure located anterior to the intact posterior cruciate ligament. This most likely represents a torn and displaced posterior horn of the medial meniscus, sometimes called "double PCL sign". A popliteal cyst and ligaments of Wrisberg and Humphry are not visible on these figures. Helms CA: MR image of the knee, in Fundamentals of Skeletal Radiology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, pp 172-191.
Question 186 High Yield
A favorable outcome following nonsurgical management of a partial tear of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is best associated with
Detailed Explanation
Rehabilitation of the quadriceps muscle following a partial tear of the PCL has been associated with a favorable outcome. The quadriceps acts an antagonist to the PCL because its contraction results in anterior tibial translation, which reduces the tensile stress on the injured ligament. Strengthening of the hamstring musculature increases posterior tibial translation and is contraindicated during the early rehabilitative phase following a PCL injury. Brace use has not been found to significantly alter the outcome following nonsurgical management of PCL tears. Parolie JM, Bergfeld JA: Long-term results of nonoperative treatment of isolated posterior cruciate ligament injuries in the athlete. Am J Sports Med 1986;14:35-38.
Question 187 High Yield
A 1-year-old infant has the hand deformities shown in Figure 40. What pathologic process is the most likely cause of these deformities?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 127
Detailed Explanation
Streeter's dysplasia is clearly related to rupture of the amnion in utero and is now most commonly referred to as premature amnion rupture sequence. The deformities arise from amniotic bands that wrap about protruding parts and from uterine packing because of the accompanying oligohydramnios. Clubfoot can develop as a result of the latter mechanism. Three limb involvement is most commonly seen, along with syndactyly. Treatment involves resection of bands and Z-plasty of skin. The disease is not genetic and has not been related to teratogen exposure or to iatrogenic influences such as amniocentesis. Developmental field disruption is not seen in this disease, and the growth potential of the involved parts is normal unless neurovascular disruption has arisen from band formation.
Question 188 High Yield
An otherwise healthy 75-year-old man has a painful mass in the popliteal fossa of his right knee. A lateral radiograph of the knee, a CT scan of the distal femur, and a histopathologic specimen are shown in Figures 13a through 13c. Management should consist of
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 128 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 129 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 130
Detailed Explanation
The patient has a parosteal osteosarcoma of the distal femur. The findings of mild knee pain, radiographic evidence of a radiodense mass involving the parosseous space or surface of the distal femur, and histologic findings of a spindle cell lesion forming immature osteoid with little to no necrosis most likely suggest a parosteal osteosarcoma. The treatment of choice is surgical resection. Okada K, Frassica FJ, Sim FH, Beabout JW, Bond JR, Unni KK: Parosteal osteosarcoma: A clinicopathological study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:366-378.
Question 189 High Yield
In a patient who has undergone fusion with instrumentation from T4 to the sacrum for adult scoliosis, at which site is a pseudarthrosis most likely to be discovered?
Detailed Explanation
Although pseudarthrosis can be found anywhere within the spine that has been fused using long multisegmental fixation to the sacrum, it most commonly occurs at the lumbosacral junction. The thoracolumbar junction is another common site of potential pseudarthrosis. In this location, the anatomy changes from lumbar transverse processes to thoracic through the transition zone, and overlying instrumentation often makes it difficult to obtain enough sound bone on decorticated bone to achieve a successful fusion. Saer EH III, Winter RB, Lonstein JE: Long scoliosis fusion to the sacrum in adults with nonparalytic scoliosis: An improved method. Spine 1990;15;650-653. Kostuik JP, Hall BB: Spinal fusions to the sacrum in adults with scoliosis. Spine 1983;8:489-500.
Question 190 High Yield
What is the incidence and significance of anterior cruciate ligament laxity following tibial eminence fractures in skeletally immature individuals?
Detailed Explanation
Measurable anterior cruciate ligament laxity, while frequently seen after tibial eminence fractures, usually does not cause symptoms. It is found even in patients whose fractures have been anatomically reduced and fixed, leading to speculation that it is due to stretching of the ligament at the time of injury. Willis R, Blokker C, Stall TM, et al: Long-term follow-up of anterior eminence fractures. J Pediatr Orthop 1993;13:361-364.
Question 191 High Yield
A 23-year-old man has had right posterolateral knee pain and occasional lateral calf dysesthesias for the past 8 months. A radiograph, CT scan, MRI scans, and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 62a through 62e. What is the most likely diagnosis?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 131 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 132 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 133 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 134 General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 135
Detailed Explanation
The radiograph shows an eccentric, cortically based lytic lesion in the proximal fibula. The CT and MRI scans confirm that it is well circumscribed and cortically based with significant surrounding edema. The radiographic differential diagnosis would be a Brodie's abscess or osteoid osteoma. An osteoblastoma would have to be greater than 2 cm in size. A chondroblastoma may also have significant edema around it, but it is an epiphyseal-based lesion, not cortically based. The well-circumscribed nature of the lesion is not consistent with osteosarcoma. The pathology shows a very cellular and vascular stroma with plump, but not atypical osteoblast cells making a matrix of immature woven bone. There are no abundant inflammatory cells or dead bone suggestive of osteomyelitis or a Brodie's abscess. Therefore, the clinical and histologic picture is most consistent with an osteoid osteoma. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation, usually with CT guidance, has become the preferred method for treating most cases of osteoid osteoma. Rosenthal DI: Radiofrequency treatment. Orthop Clin North Am 2006;37:475-484.
Question 192 High Yield
A 23-year-old college basketball player reports persistent lateral ankle pain after sustaining an inversion injury 6 months ago. Examination reveals pain over the anterolateral ankle, absence of swelling, and no clinical instability. Management consisting of vigorous physical therapy fails to provide relief, and a intra-articular corticosteroid injection provides only temporary relief. Radiographs obtained at the time of injury and subsequent AP and varus stress views are normal. A recent MRI scan fails to show any abnormalities. Management should now include
Detailed Explanation
Because the patient has failed to respond to appropriate nonsurgical management and imaging studies are normal, the use of arthroscopy not only aids in the diagnosis of chronic ankle pain, but is also helpful in its treatment. In patients with this condition, typical findings include synovitis in the lateral gutter and fibrosis along the talofibular articulation; syndesmosis chondromalacia of the talus and ankle also may be found. In patients with anterior soft-tissue impingement, approximately 84% who have a poor response to nonsurgical management will have a good to excellent response after arthroscopic synovectomy and debridement. Ferkel RD, Fasulo GJ: Arthroscopic treatment of ankle injuries. Orthop Clin North Am 1994;25:17-32.
Question 193 High Yield
A patient who underwent closed reduction of the hips as an infant now reports pain. An abduction internal rotation view shows an incongruous joint. Based on the findings shown in Figure 3, what is the most appropriate type of pelvic osteotomy for the right hip?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 136
Detailed Explanation
Pelvic osteotomies that redirect hyaline cartilage over the femoral head offer the potential for long-term preservation of the hip; however, salvage procedures such as the Chiari osteotomy are indicated in patients without a concentrically reducible hip. Ito and associates reported that moderate dysplasia and moderate subluxation without complete obliteration of the joint space and a preoperative center-edge angle of at least minus 10 degrees are desirable selection criteria. Ohashi H, Hirohashi K, Yamano Y: Factors influencing the outcome of Chiari pelvic osteotomy: A long-term follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2000;82:517-525.
Question 194 High Yield
A 25-year-old man sustained a head injury after being ejected from his car. Examination reveals a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7 and a swollen right knee. Clinical examination shows that the knee is very unstable, suggesting tears of the medial collateral and anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments, as well as the posterior lateral corner. What is the most appropriate first step to rule out a vascular injury?
Detailed Explanation
A knee dislocation carries the potential for an arterial injury and has always brought up the question of need for arteriography to rule out this limb-threatening injury. However, arteriography has an inherent complication rate that may compromise the general care of the patient. In over 240 published cases with documented knee dislocations that were evaluated for vascular injury by physical examination (without imaging studies), not a single missed injury was reported, for a 100% negative predictive value (0% false-negative rate). This degree of accuracy at excluding major vascular injury is unsurpassed by the results obtained with arteriography but with no risk involved and a marked savings in time, equipment, and costs. Therefore, the most appropriate first step to rule out vascular injury is examination of the pedal pulses. If there is any doubt about an arterial injury, another option is the ankle-brachial index (ABI). If the ABI is greater than 0.9, the chance of arterial injury is again nonexistent. However, a positive physical examination or an ABI of less than 0.9 is not 100% predictive of an arterial injury; therefore, arteriography is recommended. Miranda FE, Dennis JW, Veldenz HC, et al: Confirmation of the safety and accuracy of physical examination in the evaluation of knee dislocation for injury of the popliteal artery: A prospective study. J Trauma 2002;52:247-252.
Question 195 High Yield
A superior labrum anterior and posterior (SLAP) lesion doubles the strain in which of the following stabilizing structures?
Detailed Explanation
A superior labrum, when intact, stabilizes the shoulder by increasing its ability to withstand excessive external rotational forces by an additional 32%. The presence of a SLAP lesion decreases this restraint and increases the strain in the superior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament by over 100%. Rodosky MW, Harner CD, Fu FH: The role of the long head of the biceps muscle and superior glenoid labrum in anterior stability of the shoulder. Am J Sports Med 1994;22:121-130.
Question 196 High Yield
A 27-year-old man was struck by a taxi cab and sustained comminuted right distal third tibia and fibula fractures; treatment consisted of placement of an intramedullary nail in the tibia the following morning. At his 6-month follow-up, he has clawing of all five toes. Examination reveals flexion deformities of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints that are flexible with plantar flexion and rigid with dorsiflexion. Calluses are present on the dorsum and tip of the toes. Single heel rise is normal. He has a mild equinus contracture (relative to the left leg) that is not relieved with knee flexion. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 137
Detailed Explanation
This is an example of tethering of the flexor hallucis longus/flexor digitorum longus (FHL/FDL) to the fracture site. Additional time and/or physical therapy and bracing would not be expected to be of benefit. Release of the FHL and FDL from the fracture site or retromalleolar lengthening will address the posttraumatic claw toe deformity and Achilles tendon lengthening will address the mild equinus. Posterior tibial tendon transfer is not appropriate as the patient demonstrates a normal heel rise. Midfoot releases and hallux fusion are also not indicated. Feeny MS, Williams RL, Stephens MM: Selective lengthening of the proximal flexor tendon in the management of acquired claw toes. J Bone Joint Surg Br 2001;83:335-338.
Question 197 High Yield
Oxidation of polyethylene after sterilization occurs most rapidly when the implant undergoes
Detailed Explanation
The use of gamma radiation to sterilize polyethylene will result in the formation of free radicals in the material that increase the susceptibility of the material to oxidation and wear. The packaging can also have an impact. If the polyethylene is packaged in air, the oxygen in the packaging can significantly oxidize the material on the shelf prior to clinical use. Gas plasma and ethylene oxide sterilization do not appear to increase oxidation of polyethylene. Simon SR (ed): Orthopaedic Basic Science. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1994, pp 449-486. Wright TM: Ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene, in Morrey BF (ed): Joint Replacement Arthroplasty. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1991, pp 37-46.
Question 198 High Yield
A 77-year-old woman with osteoporosis who underwent cemented total hip arthroplasty 12 years ago fell down a flight of stairs. A radiograph is shown in Figure 15. What is the best option for treating this fracture?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 138
Detailed Explanation
Type I fractures are trochanteric fractures usually secondary to osteolysis. Type II fractures are located around the stem. Type III fractures are distal to the stem. If the fracture and prosthesis are stable, the fracture can be treated nonsurgically. If the fracture is unstable, the stability of the prosthesis should be assessed. If the prosthesis is unstable (type IIB), treatment should consist of revision to a long stem prosthesis that bypasses the fracture by two cortical diameters. If, as in this patient, the prosthesis is not loose (type IIA), open reduction and internal fixation is the appropriate option. Proximal femoral allograft is appropriate for type IIIC fractures in which the proximal bone is significantly compromised and the femoral component is loose. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 455-492.
Question 199 High Yield
Figure 23 shows failure of the femoral stem in a patient. What is the most likely reason for the failure?
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 139
Detailed Explanation
A two-dimensional stress analysis has been used to study the effects of some of the factors leading to early fatigue failure of the femoral stem in total hip arthroplasty. It has been demonstrated that loss of proximal stem support at the level of the calcar femorale and subsequent stem stress can lead to fatigue failure. In addition, the role of body weight and range of cyclic stress fluctuation play an important role in fatigue life under conditions where the stem has lost proximal support. These results indicate that stem design could be improved by incorporating some means of adequate support at the calcar femorale where maximum tensile stresses are found to occur. Femoral component fracture is a rare but well-documented complication after total hip arthroplasty. Historically, most stem fractures occur at the middle third of the implant where proximal stem loosening and solid distal stem fixation result in cantilever bending and eventual fatigue failure. The component shown is a modular fluted cementless stem that occasionally fractures at the modular junction in patients with poor proximal bone support. Andriacchi TP, Galante JO, Belytschko TB, et al: A stress analysis of the femoral stem in total hip prostheses. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1976;58:618-624.
Question 200 High Yield
In a patient with a soft-tissue sarcoma treated by wide excision and radiation therapy, the risk of subsequent fracture is probably most influenced by
General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 2) - Figure 140
Detailed Explanation
While most pathologic fractures are in the lower extremity in patients treated for soft-tissue sarcomas by wide excision and adjuvant radiation therapy, risk factors for such fractures are bone resection associated with excision of the tumor and soft-tissue sarcomas of the thigh that require periosteal stripping at the time of resection. Such fractures can occur late, often more than 6 months after surgery, are difficult to treat, and often result in nonunion. Bell RS, O'Sullivan B, Nguyen C, et al: Fractures following limb-salvage surgery and adjuvant irradation for soft-tissue sarcoma. Clin Orthop 1991;271:265-271.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon