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AAOS Foot & Ankle MCQs (Set 4): Ankle Fractures & Hindfoot Deformities | Board Review

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AAOS Foot & Ankle MCQs (Set 4): Ankle Fractures & Hindfoot Deformities | Board Review
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Question 76
Figures 34a and 34b show the clinical photographs of a 46-year-old woman who has a painful deformity of the second toe. Surgical treatment consisting of metatarsophalangeal capsulotomy and proximal interphalangeal joint resection arthroplasty resulted in satisfactory correction, but the toe remains unstable at the metatarsophalangeal joint. What is the next most appropriate step?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 1 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 2
Explanation
Crossover second toes are attributed to attenuation or rupture of the plantar plate and lateral collateral ligament and are associated with varying degrees of instability. Flexor-to-extensor transfer (Girdlestone/Taylor procedure) can provide intrinsic stability to the toe. Although plantar metatarsal head condylectomy can increase stability by resulting in scarring of the plantar plate, excision of the entire second metatarsal head carries a high risk of transfer metatarsalgia. Removal of the base of the proximal phalanx destabilizes the toe and should be reserved as a salvage procedure. Simple flexor tenotomy alone will not improve stability, and arthrodesis of the second metatarsophalangeal joint will limit motion and impair function. Coughlin MJ: Crossover second toe deformity. Foot Ankle 1987;8:29-39.
Question 77
A 40-year-old man fell 10 feet from a tree and sustained the closed isolated injury shown in Figures 35a and 35b. Management consists of splinting. At his 2-week follow-up visit, he clinically passes the wrinkle test. He agrees to open reduction and internal fixation. What is the best surgical approach to obtain anatomic reduction and limit wound dehiscence?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 3 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 4
Explanation
The approach to the calcaneus has evolved from several different patterns, driven by a high wound complication rate of 10%. The current extensile lateral approach was described by Zwipp and associates in 1988. The surgical exposure uses an L-shaped incision, with the vertical component positioned one half a finger's breath anterior to the Achilles tendon and extending distally to the junction of the lateral skin and the plantar skin. Borrelli and Lashgari mapped the angiosome of the lateral calcaneal flap and found that the major arterial blood supply to this flap consisted of three arteries: the lateral calcaneal artery, the lateral malleolar artery, and the lateral tarsal artery. The lateral calcaneal artery appeared to be responsible for most of the blood supply to the corner of the flap. This was found 1.5 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon. Division of this artery with inaccurate placement of the vertical limb of the incision can cause ischemia of the lateral skin flap. Borrelli J Jr, Lashgari C: Vascularity of the lateral calcaneal flap: A cadaveric injection study. J Orthop Trauma 1999;13:73-77. Freeman BJC, Duff S, Allen PE, et al: The extended lateral approach to the hindfoot: An anatomical basis and surgical implications. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1998;80:139-142.
Question 78
In the treatment of all magnitudes of bunionette deformities, what is the most common complication associated with lateral condylectomy of the fifth metatarsal head?
Explanation
When a lateral condylectomy alone is performed for all bunionette deformities, a high recurrence rate is expected. Lateral condylectomy should be used alone when the primary deformity is an enlarged lateral condyle of the fifth metatarsal head. In cases with significant divergence of the fifth metatarsal shaft in relationship to the fourth metatarsal shaft or with lateral bowing of the distal fifth metatarsal shaft, the lateral fifth metatarsal prominence will not be effectively reduced and recurrent symptoms and deformity are expected. Transfer metatarsalgia and/or dislocation of the metatarsophalangeal joint can infrequently occur with excessive metatarsal head excision. Arthrosis of the metatarsophalangeal joint has not been frequently reported. Coughlin MJ, Mann RA: Keratotic disorders of the plantar skin, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1993, pp 413-465. Kelikian H: Deformities of the lesser toe, in Kelikian H (ed): Hallux Valgus, Allied Deformities of the Forefoot and Metatarsalgia. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1965, pp 327-330.
Question 79
A 17-year-old patient sustained a closed calcaneal fracture when he jumped off of a roof 2 years ago, and he underwent nonsurgical management at the time of injury. The patient now reports lateral hindfoot pain that is worse with weight-bearing activities. Anti-inflammatory drugs and orthoses have failed to provide relief. Coronal and sagittal CT scans are shown in Figures 36a and 36b. What is the best course of action?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 5 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 6
Explanation
The CT scans show evidence of a lateral wall blowout and malunion without significant arthrosis of the subtalar joint. In a young patient, it is preferable to avoid a fusion and allow residual motion by performing an exostectomy that decompresses the lateral subtalar joint and peroneal tendons. Chandler JT, Bonar SK, Anderson RB, et al: Results of in situ subtalar arthrodesis for late sequelae of calcaneus fractures. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:18-24.
Question 80
A 52-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has had a plantar foot ulcer under the second metatarsal head for the past week. The patient had a similar ulcer 2 months ago, and total contact casting resulted in healing. Examination reveals no signs of infection. What procedure will best prevent recurrence of the ulcer?
Explanation
The contracted Achilles tendon leads to increased forefoot pressure, thus increasing the risk for ulceration in neuropathic patients. Several studies have shown the benefit of Achilles tendon lengthening to heal and prevent forefoot ulceration in these patients. The flexor hallucis longus transfer is used for chronically torn/deficient Achilles tendons, not a contracted Achilles tendon. The Jones procedure works well for the first ray but does not help to alleviate pressure under the second ray. Peripheral bypass surgery is unnecessary because the ulcer healed during the initial treatment, indicating that the patient has adequate circulation. The posterior tibial tendon transfer is used for foot drop or other neuromuscular conditions to correct deformity and increase function. It is not used for forefoot ulcers in patients with diabetes mellitus. Armstrong DG, Stacpoole-Shea S, Nguyen H, et al: Lengthening of the Achilles tendon in diabetic patients who are at high risk for ulceration of the foot. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:535-538.
Question 81
Figures 37a and 37b show the clinical photographs of a 43-year-old patient with type I diabetes mellitus who has a stump ulcer after undergoing successful transtibial amputation 1 year ago. Which of the following is considered the most predictable method of healing the ulcer and preventing recurrent ulceration?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 7 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 8
Explanation
The ulcer occurred as the result of a mismatch between the shape of the residual limb and the prosthetic socket. With the mismatch, the residual limb pistoned and the tissue failed because of the applied shear forces. The most predictable short- and long-term solution is reconstruction of the residual limb. Refraining from use of the prosthesis will prevent the patient from walking for months. It is unlikely that prosthetic socket modification will allow resolution of this large ulcer.
Question 82
A 15-year-old girl who plays high school basketball has had worsening forefoot pain and swelling that is aggravated by activity for the past 5 weeks. She denies any history of an injury. Examination reveals no deformities. A radiograph is shown in Figure 38. Initial management should consist of
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 9
Explanation
Freiberg's infraction is believed to be an osteochondrosis of the second metatarsal head. It is the only osteochondrosis that has a predilection for females. The typical patient is an athletically active adolescent female. The radiograph shows stage II disease wherein reossification is occurring; it is at this time that the second metatarsal head is most susceptible to deformation. Therefore, initial management should consist of a short leg walking cast.
Question 83
A 56-year-old woman has a painful mass on the bottom of her left foot, and orthotic management has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals that the mass is contiguous with the plantar fascia. An MRI scan shows a homogenous nodule within the plantar fascia. Resection of the tumor is shown in the clinical photograph in Figure 39. What type of cell is most likely responsible for the formation of this tumor?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 10
Explanation
The history, examination, and surgical findings are most consistent with plantar fibromatosis. Plantar fibromatosis is a benign tumor of the plantar fascia that consists chiefly of fibromyoblasts. These cells produce excessive collagen and are similar to the cells found in the palmar fascia of patients with Dupuytren's contracture of the hand. The myocyte, synovial cell, and osteocyte all produce their respective individual tissue types but do not contribute to the formation of a plantar fibromatosis. The T-cell is an important immunologic cell that is most affected in patients with HIV.
Question 84
A 34-year-old man underwent a transtibial amputation as the result of a work-related injury. The amputation was performed at the inferior level of the tibial tubercle. The residual limb has a soft-tissue envelope composed of gastrocnemius muscle that is used as soft-tissue cushioning for the distal tibia. Despite undergoing several prosthetic fittings, he continues to report pain and instability. Examination reveals that the prosthesis appears to fit well with no apparent pressure points or areas of skin breakdown. He is not willing to have any further surgery. Which of the following modifications will most likely provide relief?
Explanation
While transtibial amputees can be fitted with a prosthesis with a residual limb as short as 5 cm, or with retention of the insertion of the patellar tendon, this patient has an unstable gait because of the limited ability of the prosthetic socket to maintain a snug and stable fit. While cumbersome and bulky, double metal uprights and a corset is the only predictable method of gaining stability. The other methods attempt to add an element of stability; however, they are unlikely to be successful. Bowker JH, Goldberg B, Poonekar PD: Transtibial amputation: Surgical procedures and postsurgical management, in Bowker JH, Michael JW (eds): Atlas of Limb Prosthetics. St Louis, MO, Mosby Year Book, 1992, pp 429-452.
Question 85
A 30-year-old man has had intermittent swelling of his right ankle for the past 6 months. He denies any history of trauma. Radiographs reveal osteolytic changes on both sides of the joint. An axial CT scan and a T2-weighted MRI scan are shown in Figures 40a and 40b. He undergoes surgical excision. An intraoperative photograph and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 40c and 40d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 11 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 12 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 13 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 14
Explanation
Pigmented villonodular synovitis often presents with intermittent swelling and minimal pain. It often occurs around joints but may be found around tendon sheaths and bursal linings. Periarticular erosions involving both sides of joints are typical, and multiple joint involvement has been described. Portions of low-signal intensity on T1- and T2-weighted images are characteristic of hemosiderin-laden processes. High-signal content is suggestive of high water content. The combination of low-signal intensity areas in intra-articular lesions with or without osseous destruction is diagnostic of pigmented villonodular synovitis. Aspiration reveals bloody or brownish fluid. The treatment of choice is synovectomy performed arthroscopically or open. Recurrence is common. Walling AK: Soft tissue and bone tumors, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 1007-1032.
Question 86
The Coleman block test is used to evaluate the cavovarus foot. What is the most important information obtained from this test?
Explanation
Coleman block testing, performed by placing an elevation under the lateral border of the foot, is used to determine if the forefoot and/or plantar flexed first ray is causing a compensatory varus in the hindfoot. The block is placed under the lateral border of the foot, and therefore does not have any relation to the Achilles tendon and suppleness of the hindfoot. Holmes JR, Hansen ST Jr: Foot and ankle manifestations of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. Foot Ankle 1993;14:476-486.
Question 87
Figures 41a and 41b show the radiographs of a 22-year-old woman who has a bunion on her left foot. She denies pain in the foot, but she reports increasing difficulty with shoe wear. Management should consist of
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 15 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 16
Explanation
Surgery is not indicated in a patient who has a mild deformity and no pain. Shoe wear modifications should be recommended.
Question 88
A 35-year-old woman has had significant pain and swelling in the left medial ankle inferior to the medial malleolus for the past 8 months. Physical therapy, brace and orthotic management, and immobilization have failed to provide relief. She is now requesting a more aggressive option to assist in pain relief. Clinical photographs and radiographs are seen in Figures 42a through 42f. Following exposure, a complete rupture of the posterior tibial tendon is visible. What is the most appropriate surgical reconstruction?
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 17 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 18 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 19 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 20 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 21 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 22
Explanation
The patient has a complete rupture of the posterior tibial tendon with minimal hindfoot valgus deformity. The deformity is supple, and there is no arthritis in the subtalar, talonavicular, or calcaneocuboid joints; therefore, joint-sparing procedures are appropriate in this patient (avoidance of arthrodeses). The treatment of choice is flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer, medial slide calcaneal osteotomy, and spring ligament repair. Primary repair of an incompetent posterior tibial tendon can lead to failure and recurrence of pain and deformity. Talonavicular arthrodesis corrects the forefoot abduction and elevates a plantar flexed talus; however, the patient does not have this deformity; therefore, the procedure is not indicated. Myerson MS, Corrigan J, Thompson F, et al: Tendon transfer combined with calcaneal osteotomy for treatment of posterior tibial tendon insufficiency: A radiological investigation. Foot Ankle Int 1995;16:712-718. Trnka HJ, Easley ME, Myerson MS: The role of calcaneal osteotomies for correction of adult flat foot. Clin Orthop 1999;365:50-64. Jahss MH: Spontaneous rupture of the tibialis posterior tendon: Clinical findings, tenographic studies, and a new technique for repair. Foot Ankle 1982;3:158-166.
Question 89
A 48-year-old man reports localized plantar forefoot pain. Examination reveals a discrete callus (intractable plantar keratosis) with well-localized tenderness beneath the second metatarsal head. The callus most likely lies beneath what structure?
Explanation
A discrete or focal callus is a response to excessive weight-bearing stress beneath the lateral (fibular) condyle of a lesser metatarsal head (most commonly second). The other structures generally have not been associated with a discrete callus. Coughlin MJ, Mann RA: Keratotic disorders of the plantar skin, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 6. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1993, pp 413-465.
Question 90
A 65-year-old woman with a history of diabetes mellitus and plantar ulcers has an erythematous and swollen right foot and ankle. Despite IV antibiotics, the erythema spreads to her lower calf within 24 hours. She has a systolic blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120. Laboratory studies show a creatinine level of 1.5 mg. Initial management should consist of
Explanation
Necrotizing fasciitis is an aggressive and rapidly spreading soft-tissue infection, usually caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes. Presentation is typical of a rapidly ascending cellulitis, recalcitrant to antibiotic treatment. Differentiation between cellulitis and impetigo is difficult, and success depends on a high level of suspicion. The skin and subcutaneous tissues are affected, with sparing of the muscles. Septic shock and multi-organ system failure can be fatal. Treatment is aggressive surgical debridement with broad-spectrum antibiotics. Repeat irrigation and debridement may be necessary. Hyperbaric oxygen studies have shown inconsistent results. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2003, pp 199-205.
Question 91
A 15-year-old boy has hindfoot pain and very limited subtalar motion. A CT scan reveals a talocalcaneal coalition involving 40% of the middle facet. He has no degeneration of the posterior subtalar facet. Following failure of nonsurgical management, treatment should consist of
Explanation
The CT scan is an important test to help determine the extent of involvement of the talocalcaneal facet in a talocalcaneal coalition. In a young patient with no arthritis and joint involvement of less than 50%, resection of the coalition and fat pad interposition has been shown to be successful. A calcaneal osteotomy does not address the coalition. Subtalar arthroereisis has been used for treatment of a flexible flatfoot; tarsal coalition patients have a rigid-type flatfoot deformity. Sullivan JA: The child's foot, in Morrissy RT, Weinstein SL (eds): Lovell and Winter's Pediatric Orthopaedics, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1996, vol 2, pp 1077-1135.
Question 92
A 55-year-old patient is seeking a surgical consultation for a painful flatfoot deformity that has failed to respond to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, shoe and activity modifications, and orthoses. The patient is of medium build, a nonsmoker, and has no history of diabetes mellitus. Radiographs are shown in Figures 43a through 43c. Based on these findings, treatment should consist of
Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 23 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 24 Foot & Ankle Board Review 2006: High-Yield MCQs (Set 4) - Figure 25
Explanation
The patient has a degenerative collapse of the midfoot through the tarsometatarsal joints with significant forefoot abduction; therefore, a midfoot arthrodesis is required to address the arthritic joints and deformity at the tarsometatarsal articulation. All of the other procedures correct hindfoot deformities and therefore would not be appropriate treatment. Brage M: Degenerative joint disease of the midfoot. Foot Ankle Clin 1999;4:355-367.
Question 93
A 32-year-old construction worker reports a persistent burning, tingling sensation on the dorsum of his right foot and significant sensitivity on the plantar surface after a 500-lb steel beam dropped on it 8 weeks ago. Initial radiographs revealed no fractures, and the skin remained intact at the time of injury. Physical therapy, anti-inflammatory drugs, and a serotonin reuptake inhibitor have failed to provide relief. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Explanation
Following failure of physical therapy and pharmacologic management in a patient with complex regional pain syndrome, the management of choice is sympathetic blocks. While continued physical therapy would be assistive, sympathetic blocks allow a more rapid relief of symptoms. Neurostimulation is not appropriate at this stage because of its invasive nature. Cepeda MS, Lau J, Carr DB: Defining the therapeutic role of local anesthetic sympathetic blockade in complex regional pain syndrome: A narrative and systematic review. Clin J Pain 2002;18:216-233. Perez RS, Kwakkel G, Zuurmond WW, et al: Treatment of reflex sympathetic dystrophy (CRPS type 1): A research synthesis of 21 randomized clinical trials. J Pain Symptom Manage 2001;21:511-526. Tran KM, Frank SM, Raja SN, et al: Lumbar sympathetic block for sympathetically maintained pain changes in cutaneous temperatures and pain perception. Anesth Analg 2000;90:1396-1401.
Question 94
What nerve is most likely to develop a traumatic neuroma following open reducation and internal fixation of a talar neck fracture via a posterolateral approach?
Explanation
The preferred approach is posterolateral, placing the sural nerve most at risk. The dorsal intermediate cutaneous nerve is anterolateral to the ankle, and the medial and lateral plantar branches are medial and inferior to the surgical site. The saphenous nerve is anteromedial and away from the surgical approach. Swanson TV, Bray TJ, Holmes GB Jr: Fractures of the talar neck: A mechanical study of fixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:544-551.
Question 95
Patients with tarsal tunnel syndrome are most likely to obtain a favorable outcome from decompression of the posterior tibial nerve if which of the following conditions is present?
Explanation
In one series, only 44% of patients demonstrated good results from tarsal tunnel decompression if they did not have a mass in the tarsal tunnel. Conditions that produce a traction neuropathy of the posterior tibial nerve are unlikely to respond to neurolysis. The most favorable condition associated with a good response to decompression is when a compressing anatomic structure can be removed from the tarsal tunnel. Frey C, Kerr R: Magnetic resonance imaging and the evaluation of tarsal tunnel syndrome. Foot Ankle 1993;14:159-164. Garrett AL: Poliomyelitis, in Nickel VL (ed): Orthopaedic Rehabilitation. New York, NY, Churchill Livingston, 1982, pp 449-458.
Question 96
A 30-year-old man has chronic pain, joint stiffness, and symmetrical polyarthropathy but no significant synovitis. Examination reveals enlargement of the second and third metatarsal heads. Radiographs show chondrocalcinosis of the ankles and bony enlargement of the midfoot; no marginal erosions are evident at the metatarsophalangeal level. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The patient's clinical picture is considered the classic presentation for hemochromatosis. Osteoarthritis and pseudogout more commonly affect an older age group. Rheumatoid arthritis is more common in women and is not commonly associated with chondrocalcinosis. The radiographic appearance of the forefoot in Reiter's syndrome is one of a pencil in cup deformity of the metatarsophalangeal joint, not enlargement. Stevens FM, Edwards C: Recognizing and managing hemochromatosis and hemochromatosis arthropathy. J Musculoskeletal Med 2004;4:212-225.
Question 97
The strongest biomechanical construct for open reduction and internal fixation of a talar neck fracture uses what interval and entry point?
Explanation
The strongest biomechanical construct is posterior to anterior fixation with the entry point being at the level of the posterolateral tubercle of the talus. This uses the interval between the peroneus brevis and the flexor hallucis longus. The interval between the flexor digitorum longus and the flexor hallucis longus with entry at the posteromedial tubercle of the talus is not an accepted approach for fixation of talar neck fractures. All of the other options use screw placements from anterior to posterior. Swanson TV, Bray TJ, Homes GB Jr: Fractures of the talar neck: A mechanical study of fixation. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:544-551.
Question 98
A 14-year-old boy with a history of cerebral palsy has a clawed hallux, cavus foot deformity, and associated pain. Examination reveals pain under the first metatarsal head and a rigid first tarsometatarsal joint. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
In a retrospective study for clawing of the hallux with associated cavus foot deformities, the modified Robert Jones tendon transfer was shown to be effective in relieving symptoms related to clawing of the hallux in 90% of patients but was not reliable in relieving pain under the first metatarsal head, with success in only 43% of patients. In three patients, pain under the metatarsal head was relieved initially but recurred by 18 months. The return of symptoms in these cases is the result of stretching of the muscle and tendon of the extensor hallucis longus by the more powerful peroneus longus. Basal dorsal wedge osteotomy at the time of the modified Robert Jones procedure is recommended. Mizel MS, Miller RA, Scioli MW (eds): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 2. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1998, pp 79-100.
Question 99
A 45-year-old woman with stage II posterior tibial tendinitis has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Recommended treatment now includes posterior tibial tendon debridement and medial calcaneal displacement osteotomy along with transfer of what tendon?
Explanation
The flexor digitorium longus is the commonly accepted tendon transfer for posterior tibial tendon insufficiency. The flexor hallucis longus has to be carefully rerouted to avoid crossing the neurovascular bundle and has not been shown clinically to provide superior results to flexor digitorum longus transfer. Use of the peroneus longus results in loss of plantar flexion strength of the first metatarsal, contributing to the flatfoot deformity. The anterior tibial tendon is in the anterior compartment and fires out of phase with the posterior tibial tendon. Sitler DF, Bell SJ: Soft tissue procedures. Foot Ankle Clin 2003;8:503-520.
Question 100
A 38-year-old marathon runner has had Achilles tendon pain for the past 2 months. Examination reveals that the tendon is thickened and tender proximal to the calcaneal insertion. The tendon sheath is not thickened or tender. The pathophysiology of the tendon is best described as
Explanation
Atraumatic Achilles tendon disease can be differentiated into Achilles tendinosis and peritendinitis. Thickening and tenderness of the Achilles tendon are present in both, but thickening and tenderness of the tendon sheath indicates peritendinitis. Histologic examination of Achilles tendinosis reveals an absence of acute and chronic inflammatory cells. Radiologists often diagnose partial tendon rupture by MRI and there may be microscopic longitudinal tears present, but there is no mechanical compromise as would be implied by a partial rupture. The thickening typically occurs in the portion of the tendon with the poorest blood supply, and biochemical analysis detects high levels of lactate and other products of anaerobic glycolysis. Astrom M, Rausing A: Chronic Achilles tendinopathy: A survey of surgical and histopathologic findings. Clin Orthop 1995;316:151-164. Ohberg L, Lorentzon R, Alfredson H: Neovascularisation in Achilles tendons with painful tendinosis but not in normal tendons: An ultrasonographic investigation. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc 2001;9:233-238.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon