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AAOS Foot & Ankle MCQs (Set 1): Trauma & Degenerative Disorders | ABOS Review

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AAOS Foot & Ankle MCQs (Set 1): Trauma & Degenerative Disorders | ABOS Review
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Question 1
Figures 1a and 1b show the clinical photograph and oblique radiograph of a 52-year-old man who has plantar first metatarsal pain. A felt pad in the shoe proximal to the area of pain has failed to provide relief. Management should now consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 1 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 2
Explanation
The patient has a discrete callus that overlies a prominent medial sesamoid. Calluses typically occur in response to increased pressure on the skin. Initial treatment should be directed at reducing local pressure with a felt pad. Sesamoid shaving is indicated if the felt pad fails to provide relief. Sesamoidectomy should be reserved for refractory callus given the potential complications of transfer metatarsalgia or callus and hallux valgus. A first metatarsal dorsiflexion osteotomy is more appropriate for a diffuse callus that fails to respond to nonsurgical management. Cryoablation and topical salicylic acid are appropriate for plantar warts, which have a rougher appearance with multiple, small black spots in the lesion. Mann RA, Wapner KL: Tibial sesamoid shaving for treatment of intractable plantar keratosis. Foot Ankle 1992;13:196-198.
Question 2
A 47-year-old man has an acute swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He denies any history of similar symptoms. What is the first step in evaluation?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 3
Explanation
The patient's symptoms are typical for gouty arthropathy, and the diagnosis can only be confirmed with aspiration and visualization of the crystals. A concomitant infection also must be ruled out; therefore, it is important to obtain a cell count and culture. Colchicine may have a role in gouty management, but the diagnosis must be confirmed. Allopurinol is not effective in acute gouty arthropathy. Measurement of serum uric acid levels is often not helpful in making a definitive diagnosis. Steroid injections should be deferred until cell count and culture results indicate no accompanying infection. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 172-173.
Question 3
A 7-year-old boy sustained an acute puncture wound of the foot after stepping barefoot on a piece of glass 1 day ago. His mother states that she is not sure if she got the piece of glass out; however, she reports that his immunizations are up-to-date. Examination reveals that the wound is slightly erythematous, less than 1 mm in length on the heel, and is not currently draining. What is the next most appropriate step im management?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 4
Explanation
The child has an up-to-date tetanus; therefore, a booster is not recommended. Pseudomonas coverage is most likely not needed because the child was barefoot. It is too early to evaluate for abscess or osteomyelitis with MRI, and a formal debridement is rarely indicated without signs of an abscess or a retained foreign body. Radiographs with soft-tissue penetration should be obtained to check for a retained foreign body. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 199-205.
Question 4
Figures 2a and 2b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 16-year-old cheerleader who fell on her left lower extremity while performing a pyramid. Following adequate sedation, closed reduction is performed, but an incomplete reduction is noted. What structure is most likely preventing a reduction?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 5 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 6
Explanation
The stretched peroneus brevis muscle and tendon follow anterior to the fibula and are most likely incarcerated with reduction. The anterior talofibular ligament is too small to prevent reduction of the ankle joint itself. The extensor digitorum brevis originates from the talus; therefore, it is not involved in the tibiotalar joint. The posterior tibial tendon lies medially and would not be interposed into the ankle joint. Similarly, the anterior tibialis tendon also would not be involved. Pehlivan O, Akmaz I, Solakoglu C, et al: Medial peritalar dislocation. Arch Orthop Trauma Surg 2002;122:541-543.
Question 5
Figures 3a and 3b show the current radiographs of a 59-year-old woman who has pain and deformity after undergoing bunion surgery 1 year ago. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 7 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 8
Explanation
The hallux varus seen in this patient is most likely the result of a combination of causes. Based on the degenerative changes and the significant shortening of the first metatarsal relative to the second metatarsal, a metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis is the treatment of choice. The other surgical approaches are not expected to provide a satisfactory result. Coughlin MJ, Mann RA: Adult hallux valgus, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 2000, pp 150-269.
Question 6
A 30-year-old man who sustained a tibial fracture with a peroneal nerve palsy 2 years ago now has a drop foot and weak eversion of the foot. He reports success with stretching exercises, but he catches his toes when his foot tires. Examination reveals that the foot is plantigrade and supple. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 9
Explanation
The patient has a supple plantigrade foot that would benefit from a drop foot brace to prevent catching of the toes. Tendon transfer should not be considered until the patient has undergone bracing. Achilles tendon lengthening is not necessary because the foot is plantigrade and flexible. Nerve grafting is not indicated because of the length of time the peroneal nerve palsy has been present. Dehne R: Congenital and acquired neurologic disorders, in Mann RA, Coughlin MJ (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, vol 1, pp 552-553.
Question 7
Removal of both hallucal sesamoids should be reserved as a salvage procedure because of the high incidence of which of the following postoperative complications?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 10
Explanation
Removal of both sesamoids is associated with a high incidence of postoperative hallux valgus and cock-up deformity of the great toe because of weakening of the flexor hallucis brevis tendon. The sesamoids lie within these tendons and require meticulous repair following excision. Richardson EG (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Foot and Ankle 3. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2003, pp 17-25.
Question 8
A 35-year-old man who snowboards sustained the injury shown in Figures 4a through 4c. What is the mechanism of injury?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 11 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 12 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 13
Explanation
Fractures of the lateral process of the talus in snowboarders have been thought to result from pure dorsiflexion, inversion, and axial loading. In a cadaveric study, 10 cadavers were placed in fixed dorsiflexion and inversion with an axial load. This was combined with or without external rotation. No fractures occurred after axial loading in the dorsiflexed-inverted position. Fractures of the lateral process of the talus occurred in 75% of the specimens with the addition of external rotation. Boon AJ, Smith J, Zobitz ME, et al: Snowboarder's talus fracture: Mechanism of injury. Am J Sports Med 2001;29:333-338.
Question 9
A 63-year-old man with type I diabetes mellitus who underwent open forefoot amputation now has a high fever, and an elevated WBC count and blood glucose levels. Repeat laboratory studies the day after surgery show a WBC count of 9,500/mm3, a serum albumin level of 1.9 g/dL, and a total lymphocyte count of 1,900/mm3. Examination reveals that he is afebrile, and his blood glucose level is now normal. An ultrasound Doppler of the dorsalis pedis artery shows an ankle-brachial index of 0.6. A transcutaneous partial pressure measurement of oxygen at the ankle joint shows a level of 38 mm Hg. What is the best course of action?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 14
Explanation
This patient appears to have adequate blood supply to heal a Syme's ankle disarticulation but is currently malnourished because of the systemic infection, and is likely to progress to wound failure. Therefore, the initial management of choice is culture-specific antibiotic therapy, open wound management, and nutritional supplementation. If his serum albumin rises to a minimum of 2.5 gm/dL, he can undergo elective Syme's ankle disarticulation. If the serum albumin does not rise within a short period of time, he should undergo transtibial amputation.
Question 10
A 40-year-old man has a painful mass on his anterior ankle joint with limited range of motion. A radiograph, MRI scan, a gross specimen, and a hematoxylin/eosin biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 5a through 5d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 15 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 16 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 17 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 18
Explanation
Synovial chondromatosis results from chondroid metaplasia within the synovium. Male to female ratio is 2:1, with a peak incidence in early adult life. Radiographs can show speckled cal
Question 11
A 63-year-old woman with a history of poliomyelitis has a fixed 30-degree equinus contracture of the ankle, rigid hindfoot valgus, and normal knee strength and stability. She reports persistent pain and has had several medial forefoot ulcerations despite a program of stretching, bracing, and custom footwear. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 19
Explanation
The patient has a fixed deformity of the hindfoot and an Achilles tendon contracture; therefore, the treatment of choice is triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening. Further bracing will not be helpful. Amputation is not indicated, and ankle arthrodesis will not address the hindfoot deformity. Palliative management would be more appropriate if the knee was unstable or the quadriceps were weak, because the equinus balances the ground reaction force across the knee. Perry J, Fontaine JD, Mulroy S: Findings in post-poliomyelitis syndrome: Weakness of muscles of the calf as a source of late pain and fatigue of muscles of the thigh after poliomyelitis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1148-1153.
Question 12
What is the most common foot deformity associated with myelomeningocele?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 20
Explanation
All of the above can be associated with myelomeningocele, but talipes equinovarus occurs in 50% to 90% of patients with myelomeningocele. Congenital vertical talus is rarely associated with any neuromuscular diseases other than myelomeningocele but is not the most common deformity in myelomeningocele. Stans AA, Kehl DK: The pediatric foot, in Baratz ME, Watson AD, Imbriglia JE (eds): Orthopaedic Surgery: The Essentials. New York, NY, Thieme, 1999, pp 702-703.
Question 13
Where is the watershed zone for tarsal navicular vascularity?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 21
Explanation
The central one third has been established as the watershed zone by angiographic studies, and has been borne out in clinical conditions involving the navicular, such as stress fractures and osteonecrosis. These findings account for the susceptibility to injury at this level. Nunley JA, Pfeffer GB, Sanders RW, et al (eds): Advanced Reconstruction: Foot and Ankle. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2004, pp 239-242.
Question 14
A 37-year-old woman has had intermittent paresthesias and numbness in the plantar foot for the past 6 months. She reports that the symptoms are worse with activity, and the paresthesias are beginning to awaken her at night. MRI scans are shown in Figures 6a and 6b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 22 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 23
Explanation
The symptoms are consistent with tarsal tunnel syndrome. Ganglion cysts are a well-known cause of tarsal tunnel syndrome. The MRI scans show a high intensity, well-circumscribed mass in the tarsal tunnel that is consistent with a fluid-filled cyst. Patients usually respond well to excision of the ganglion and resolution of the tarsal tunnel symptoms. The surrounding fat is a different signal intensity on the MRI scans, which rules out a lipoma. Synovial cell sarcoma has a heterogeneous appearance on an MRI scan. Metastatic tumors are most commonly found in the osseous structures of the foot, not the soft tissues. Rozbruch SR, Chang V, Bohne WH, et al: Ganglion cysts of the lower extremity: An analysis of 54 cases and review of the literature. Orthopedics 1998;21:141-148. Llauger J, Palmer J, Monill JM, et al: MR imaging of benign soft-tissue masses of the foot and ankle. Radiographics 1998;18:1481-1498.
Question 15
Figure 7 shows the CT scan of a 25-year-old soccer player who has had posterior ankle pain with plantar flexion for the past 2 years. Immobilization has failed to provide relief. He is ambulatory. Management should consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 24
Explanation
An os trigonum is usually asymptomatic, but this accessory bone has been associated with persistent posterior ankle pain, which has been described as os trigonum syndrome. This usually affects athletes and ballerinas. Forced plantar flexion leads to impingement of the os trigonum against the posterior tibial plafond, and flexor hallucis tendinitis may develop. It may be difficult to differentiate a fractured trigonal process from the os trigonum. MRI may reveal bone marrow edema that may aid in the diagnosis of os trigonum syndrome. Steroid injections may lead to tendon rupture. The results of excision of a symptomatic os trigonum through a posteromedial or lateral approach are favorable, with a rapid return to full function. The main complication of this procedure is sural nerve injury with a lateral approach. Hedrick MR, McBryde AM: Posterior ankle impingement. Foot Ankle Int 1994;15:2-8.
Question 16
Figure 8 shows the CT scan of an 11-year-old boy who has had a 1-year history of worsening painful flatfeet. He reports pain associated with physical education at school, especially with running and jumping. Management consisting of activity restriction, anti-inflammatory drugs, and casting has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 25
Explanation
In most patients with symptomatic talocalcaneal coalition involving less than 50% of the subtalar joint, resection with fat graft interposition is preferred over a subtalar or triple arthrodesis, especially if reasonable range of motion can be achieved. This patient has a synchondrosis that is partially cartilaginous. Although patients may have a residual gait abnormality, most report pain relief after surgery. Scranton PE Jr: Treatment of symptomatic talocalcaneal coalition. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1987;69:533-539. Kitaoka HB, Wikenheiser MA, Schaughnessy WJ, et al: Gait abnormalities following resection of talocalcaneal coalition. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:369-374.
Question 17
An elite skier training for the Olympics sustains an isolated traumatic dislocation of the peroneal tendons that have spontaneously reduced. The games are 9 months away and the athlete does not want to miss them. Treatment should consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 26
Explanation
Most of these injuries occur in young, active patients. Success rates for nonsurgical management are only marginally better than 50%. The treatment of choice is early surgery for patients who desire a quick return to a sport or active lifestyle. Subluxation of the peroneal tendons leads to longitudinal tears over time. McLennan JG: Treatment of acute and chronic luxations of the peroneal tendons. Am J Sports Med 1980;8:432-436.
Question 18
What is the optimum position of immobilization of the foot and ankle immediately after Achilles tendon repair to maximize skin perfusion?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 27
Explanation
Achilles tendon tension is not affected by knee position when the ankle is in 20 degrees to 25 degrees of plantar flexion. Skin perfusion overlying the Achilles tendon is maximal in 20 degrees of plantar flexion and is reduced beyond 20 degrees of plantar flexion. Neutral flexion or any amount of dorsiflexion compromises the repair.
Question 19
A 32-year-old man who sustained a tarsometatarsal (Lisfranc) injury 3 years ago now reports increasing pain in the left foot. Orthotics, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and injections have provided only temporary relief. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness over the tarsometatarsal joints. Radiographs show advanced arthrosis of the first and second tarsometatarsal joints. Management should now include
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 28
Explanation
The patient has advanced arthrosis of the midfoot, and orthotic management has failed to provide relief. Therefore, the treatment of choice is midfoot arthrodesis. Shock wave treatment has not been shown to be beneficial for arthritis. An ankle-foot orthosis would not be appropriate based on findings of a normal ankle joint. Triple arthrodesis would not be helpful because the hindfoot joint is not affected in a Lisfranc injury. Sangeorzan BJ, Veith GR, Hansen ST Jr: Salvage of Lisfranc's tarsometatarsal joints by arthrodesis. Foot Ankle 1990;10:193-200.
Question 20
The Lisfranc ligament connects the base of the
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 29
Explanation
The Lisfranc ligament arises from the lateral surface of the first (medial) cuneiform and is directed obliquely outward and slightly downward to insert on the medial surface of the second metatarsal base. It is the strongest of the tarsometatarsal interosseous ligaments. Sarrafian SK: Anatomy of the Foot and Ankle: Descriptive, Topographic, Functional, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1993.
Question 21
An 11-year-old girl has had pain in the medial arch of her foot for the past 3 months. She reports that pain is present even with daily activities such as walking to class at school, and ibuprofen provides some relief. She denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a flexible pes planus with focal tenderness over a prominent tarsal navicular tuberosity. Radiographs show a prominent accessory navicular. Management should consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 30
Explanation
The patient has the classic symptoms, examination findings, and radiographs for a painful accessory navicular. Initial treatment should always be nonsurgical, specifically cast immobilization. Surgery should be reserved for those patients who fail nonsurgical management. Corticosteroids should not be injected into a posterior tibial tendon or insertion point because they can weaken the tendon and possibly cause tendon rupture. Triple arthrodesis and biopsy have no role in the management of a painful accessory navicular.
Question 22
Figures 9a and 9b show the radiographs of a 28-year-old woman who sustained a head injury and a closed injury, without soft-tissue compromise, to her right lower extremity in a motor vehicle accident. Appropriate management of the foot injury should include
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 31 Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 32
Explanation
The displaced talar neck fracture should be treated with open reduction and internal fixation using screws. Closed reduction and casting will not maintain position, and percutaneous pinning is not able to maintain reduction to allow union. External fixation and amputation are not necessary for this injury unless there is severe soft-tissue loss.
Question 23
An active 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis reports forefoot pain and deformity and has difficulty with shoe wear. Examination reveals hallux valgus and claw toes. A radiograph is shown in Figure 10. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 33
Explanation
Rheumatoid arthritis commonly affects the metatarsophalangeal joints, which become destabilized with time resulting in hallux valgus and dislocated lesser claw toes. The result is metatarsalgia as the dislocated claw toes "pull" the fat pad distally. Severe hallux valgus reduces first ray load, which compounds the metatarsalgia because the load is transferred to the lesser metatarsal heads. First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis restores weight bearing medially and corrects the painful bunion. Metatarsal head resection slackens the toe tendons to allow correction of the claw toes by whatever means necessary and decreases plantar load over the forefoot. Rheumatoid arthritis in the first metatarsophalangeal joint will continue to progress if osteotomies or a Lapidus procedure are performed. Keller resection arthroplasty increases transfer metatarsalgia and reduces push-off power during gait. Flexor-to-extensor tendon transfer of the lesser toes does not address the metatarsalgia and does not correct the dislocation of the metatarsophalangeal joint. Coughlin MJ: Arthritides, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, p 572.
Question 24
Figure 11 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 22-year-old man who sustained a midfoot injury in a motor vehicle accident 9 days ago. Treatment should consist of
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 34
Explanation
The dislocation is between the medial and middle cuneiform. Although the first and second tarsometatarsal joints are aligned, there is a gap between the cuneiforms. The radiograph shows a Lisfranc dislocation variant. In a healthy active individual, open reduction and internal fixation yields the best results. The reestablishment of the normal arch and medial column support with anatomic reduction is critical to obtaining the best possible outcome from these injuries. Teng AL, Pinzur MS, Lomasney L, et al: Functional outcome following anatomic restoration of the tarsal-metatarsal fracture dislocation. Foot Ankle Int 2002;23:922-926.
Question 25
A 32-year-old woman has left second toe dactylitis (sausage toe). Radiographs show a "pencil in cup" distal interphalangeal joint deformity. Examination reveals that subtalar motion is markedly reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Foot & Ankle 2006 Practice Questions: Set 1 (Solved) - Figure 35
Explanation
The patient's clinical picture is considered the classic presentation for psoriatic arthritis. The other answers are not applicable for the constellation of findings. Jahss MH: Disorders of the Foot and Ankle, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1991, pp 1691-1693.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
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Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon