00:00
Start Quiz
Question 26
A 58-year-old woman has a fracture through a metacarpal lesion after a motor vehicle accident. She denies any preinjury symptoms and the fracture heals uneventfully. Based on the radiograph and MRI scans shown in Figures 22a through 22c obtained following fracture healing, follow-up management should consist of
Explanation
Enchondromas are the most common benign skeletal lesions identified in the bones of the hand. Most are incidentally found or initially become clinically evident after a pathologic fracture. If the patient has a fracture, the hand is immobilized until union. If the lesion is large and further pathologic fractures are expected, then an intralesional curettage and grafting procedure may be warranted. In this patient, the lesion has not significantly altered the size, shape, or morphology of the involved metacarpal head and recurrent fracture is unlikely. Observation with follow-up radiographs is considered appropriate management. Campanacci M: Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 2. New York, NY, Springer-Verlag, 1999, pp 213-228.
Question 27
A 14-year-old girl reports bilateral patellofemoral symptoms. Based on the radiograph and MRI scans shown in Figures 23a through 23d, what is the next most appropriate step in management of the lesion?
Explanation
A periosteal desmoid lesion is a tumor simulator. It is characterized by a bone irregularity along the posteromedial aspect of the distal femur at the insertion of the adductor magnus or the origin of the gastrocnemius muscle. It most commonly occurs in patients who are age 10 to 15 years. The lesions are asymptomatic, with no palpable mass, pain, or swelling. They are frequently an incidental finding when radiographs are obtained for nonspecific symptoms or trauma about the knee. Following recognition of the characteristic imaging findings, observation is the management of choice. Dunham WK, Marcus NW, Enneking WF, et al: Developmental defects of the distal femoral metaphysis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1980;62:801-806.
Question 28
A 13-year-old boy has knee pain after sustaining a mild twisting injury while playing basketball 4 weeks ago. Radiographs and MRI scans are shown in Figures 24a through 24d, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 24e and 24f. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The imaging studies and histology are consistent with high-grade osteosarcoma. The standard treatment for osteosarcoma is neoadjuvant chemotherapy combined with wide surgical resection that can be performed with amputation or limb salvage depending on characteristics unique to each tumor and each patient. In most patients, limb salvage surgery can be performed with reconstruction using allografts and/or megaprostheses. Osteosarcoma is poorly responsive to radiation therapy. Chemotherapy alone, in the absence of appropriate surgery, has not proven effective. Simon MA, Springfield DS: Surgery for Bone and Soft-Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 265-274.
Question 29
A 64-year-old man has had increasing pain in the left hip for the past 6 months. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 25a and 25b. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 25c and 25d. What is the recommended treatment?
Explanation
The radiograph shows a lytic lesion in the left periacetabular area consistent with chondrosarcoma. A large soft-tissue mass is present along with extension through the supra-acetabular region and pubic ramus. The histology shows a hypercellular lesion infiltrating through the bony trabeculae with a basophilic cytoplasm. This is classified as a grade 2 chondrosarcoma. The treatment of a pelvic chondrosarcoma is wide resection via either an internal hemipelvectomy or amputation. Chondrosarcoma requires surgical resection for control and does not traditionally respond to chemotherapy or external beam irradiation therapy. Pring M, Weber, KL, Unni KK, et al: Chondrosarcoma of the pelvis: A review of sixty-four cases. J Bone Joint Surg 2001;83:1630-1642.
Question 30
The scoring system for impending pathologic fractures devised by Mirels involves assessment of which of the following factors?
Explanation
The scoring system published by Mirels in 1989 is based on the following characteristics: the location of the lesion, the amount of pain the patient is experiencing, the type of lesion (either lucent, mixed, or blastic), and the lesion size. The tumor is scored from 1 to 3 in each category and a total score is obtained that correlates to fracture risk. Prophylactic fixation is advised for lesions with scores of higher than 8, and consideration for stabilization should be strongly considered for scores of 8. The Mirels scoring system can be useful as an adjunct to clinical decision making. Mirels H: Metastatic disease in long bones: A proposed scoring system for diagnosing impending pathologic fractures. 1989. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2003;415:S4-S13.
Question 31
Figures 26a and 26b show the radiograph and MRI scan of a 22-year-old man with knee pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The lesion is an osteochondroma. This is demonstrated by a pedunculated bone-forming lesion where the medullary space of the lesion communicates with the medullary space of the host bone. The cortex of the exostosis is in continuity with the cortex of the underlying bone. The MRI scan reveals that there is no significant cartilage cap, alleviating concern for malignant conversion to a chondrosarcoma. Osteoblastoma and osteosarcoma typically have mixed areas of bone formation and bone destruction. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone is usually purely lytic. Vaccaro AR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 8. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2005, pp 197-215.
Question 32
Which of the following malignant tumors most commonly contains soft-tissue calcifications seen on radiographs or CT?
Explanation
Focal calcifications causing small radiopacities are found in 15% to 20% of synovial sarcomas. Their irregular contours differentiate them from the phleboliths found in a benign hemangioma. Ewing's sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, and malignant fibrous histiocytoma do not commonly have calcifications within the lesions. Enzinger FM, Weiss SW: Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 3. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1995, p 761.
Question 33
Which of the following is most associated with local recurrence of the lesion seen in the radiograph and MRI scan shown in Figures 27a and 27b?
Explanation
The lesion is an aneurysmal bone cyst. These lesions are known to have a local recurrence rate of 5% to 50%. Young age, open physes, stage, and type of surgical removal and resulting margin have all been shown to affect the recurrence rate. Chemotherapy is not used in the treatment of aneurysmal bone cysts. Gibbs CP Jr, Hefele MC, Peabody TD, et al: Aneurysmal bone cyst of the extremities: Factors related to local recurrence after curettage with a high-speed burr. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1671-1678.
Question 34
A 33-year-old woman reports a mass on the right hand that has been enlarging for 1 year. An intraoperative photograph is shown in Figure 28a, and a biopsy specimen is shown in Figure 28b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath is the most common solid soft-tissue mass in the hand. These tumors are slow-growing and may be present for months or years before coming to medical attention. Patients usually report mechanical difficulties because of the size or position of the tumor. The gross appearance is that of a lobulated mass that may be multicolored; typically yellow, brown, red, and gray. Histologically the lesion consists of multinucleated giant cells, polygonal mononuclear cells, and histiocytes that may contain abundant hemosiderin or lipid. Walsh EF, Mechrefe A, Akelman E, et al: Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath. Am J Orthop 2005;34;116-121.
Question 35
A 15-year-old girl has had a painful mass on the medial aspect of her left thigh for the past 5 years. The pain is present only when she is performing athletic activities and is completely relieved with rest. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 29a and 29b. The patient and her parents would like to have the mass removed. What further diagnostic studies are required prior to considering surgical resection?
Explanation
The radiograph and MRI scan show a pedunculated lesion arising from the medial aspect of the distal femoral metaphysis. The cortex of the lesion is contiguous with the cortex of the underlying normal bone. Similarly, the medullary canal of the lesion is contiguous with that of the normal bone. These findings are diagnostic of osteochondroma. Rarely a secondary chondrosarcoma can arise in a preexisting osteochondroma. This diagnosis is suggested by identifying a cartilage cap that is greater than 1.5-cm thick in a skeletally mature patient. MRI is the best study to rule out a secondary chondrosarcoma. CT also may be used for this purpose but is not indicated in this patient because an MRI has already been obtained. A bone scan is not useful to identify a secondary chondrosarcoma. Similarly, there is no role for biopsy in this patient. No further tests are needed. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 103-111.
Question 36
A 22-year-old man has mild hip pain bilaterally and multiple skeletal lesions. Based on the pelvic radiograph shown in Figure 30, what is the inheritance pattern for his disorder?
Explanation
Multiple hereditary exostoses (MHE) is an autosomal dominant disorder manifested by multiple osteochondromas and characteristic skeletal involvement. EXT1 on 8q24.1 and EXT2 on 11p13 are the two genes most strongly associated with MHE. Mutations in these genes affect proper development of endochondral bone, such that in all affected individuals exostoses develop adjacent to the growth plates of long bones, and some exhibit additional bone deformities. Defects in the EXT genes result in increased chondrocyte proliferation and delayed hypertrophic differentiation. Stieber JR, Dormans JP: Manifestations of hereditary multiple exostoses. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2005;13:110-120.
Question 37
An 80-year-old woman notes a painless mass posterior to her left knee. MRI scans are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
The MRI scans show a popliteal cyst (Baker's cyst) in its most common location. The cyst emerges from the knee joint between the medial head of the gastrocnemius muscle and the tendon of the semimembranosus muscle. These images are diagnostic; therefore, no further work-up is indicated. Since the patient is asymptomatic, no treatment is necessary. Dlabach JA: Nontraumatic soft tissue disorders, in Canale ST (ed): Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, ed 10. Philidelphia, PA, Mosby, 2003, vol 1, pp 885-969.
Question 38
A 38-year-old man has an enlarging left paraspinal soft-tissue mass. Based on the MRI scans and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 32a through 32e, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Fibromatosis is a benign but aggressive fibrous lesion that principally arises from the connective tissue of muscle and the overlying fascia. The peak incidence is between the ages of 25 and 35 years. Most patients have a deep-seated, firm, poorly circumscribed mass that has grown insidiously and causes little or no pain. MRI is helpful in diagnosing the lesion and in assessing the extent of disease prior to surgical intervention. Histologically, the lesion is poorly circumscribed and infiltrates the surrounding tissue. The lesion appears bland with uniform spindle cells separated by abundant collagen, with little or no cell-to-cell contact. Despite its bland microscopic appearance, the tumor frequently behaves in an aggressive manner. These lesions do not metastasize but have a high incidence of recurrence. Treatment options consist of surgical resection, radiation therapy, chemotherapeutic protocols, hormone modulation, and/or anti-inflammatory medications. Weiss SW, Goldblum JR, Enzinger FM: Enzinger and Weiss's Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2001, pp 309-337.
Question 39
What is the most common malignancy involving the hand?
Explanation
Skin cancers far outnumber primary musculoskeletal malignancies of the hand and the most common of these is squamous cell carcinoma. Metatastic lung carcinoma, while classic for the carcinoma that metastasizes to the hand, does so at an extremely low rate. Fink JA, Akelman E: Nonmelanotic malignant skin tumors of the hand. Hand Clin 1995;11:255-264.
Question 40
A 38-year-old man who is an avid runner reports a several month history of right hip pain. Based on the radiograph and cross-sectional CT scan shown in Figures 33a and 33b, what is the most likely diagnosis for the lesions seen on the femoral neck?
Explanation
Synovial herniation pits or Pitt's pits are tumor simulators and are incidentally identified on radiographs obtained for either pain or trauma. The main diagnostic pitfall with this lesion is mistakenly identifying it as an osteoid osteoma. Accurate diagnosis is achieved by knowledge of the location and the characteristic imaging appearance. These are common lesions in individuals with femoroacetabular impingement. Pitt MJ, Graham AR, Shipman JH, et al: Herniation pit of the femoral neck. Am J Roentgenol 1982;138:1115-1121.
Question 41
A 35-year-old man has had progressive right knee pain for the past 2 months. An AP radiograph, bone scan, MRI scan, and photomicrograph are shown in Figures 34a through 34d. What is the most appropriate treatment of this lesion?
Explanation
This is a classic case of giant cell tumor of bone. The radiograph and the MRI scan reveal a purely lytic lesion in the medial femoral condyle. The lesion is well-demarcated without a rim of sclerotic bone. It is eccentrically located and abuts the subchondral bone. The lesion demonstrates increased uptake on a technetium TC 99m bone scan. These imaging studies are highly suggestive of giant cell tumor arising in its most common location. The photomicrograph confirms the diagnosis of giant cell tumor. Based on these findings, the most widely accepted treatment is extended curettage plus a local adjuvant such as polymethylmethacrylate bone cement, argon beam coagulation, liquid nitrogen, and/or phenol. Lackman RD, Hosalkar HS, Ogilvie CM, et al: Intralesional curettage for grades II and III giant cell tumors of bone. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;438:123-127.
Question 42
What is the most common bone tumor in the hand?
Explanation
The most common bone tumor in the hand is an enchondroma. Forty-two percent of these lesions occur in the small tubular bones. They frequently present with a fracture in these locations. Fractures are usually treated nonsurgically. Indications for surgery include patients with symptomatic lesions or those who are considered high risk for recurrent fracture. The histologic appearance of an enchondroma in the hand is more cellular than enchondromas found in the long bones. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, p 103.
Question 43
A 30-year-old woman has had pain in her right leg for the past 6 months. A lytic lesion is noted in the anterior cortex of the midtibia, extending 5 cm in length without a soft-tissue mass. A radiograph and a biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 35a and 35b. What is the preferred treatment?
Explanation
In an adult with an anterior cortical tibial lesion, this is the classic histologic appearance and anatomic location for an adamantinoma. The histology reveals areas of epithelial cells (in a glandular pattern) within a fibrous stroma. The epithelial cells are shown in nests. They would stain positively for keratin. Adamantinoma is a rare malignant bone tumor with a propensity for late metastasis. It has a high incidence of local recurrence unless resected with a wide margin. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy are not helpful in the treatment of this disease. Amputation generally is not necessary because a diaphyseal resection is usually possible. McCarthy EF, Frassica FJ: Pathology of Bone and Joint Disorders with Clinical and Radiographic Correlation. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1998, p 263.
Question 44
A 75-year-old woman has had severe shoulder pain for the past month. Her medical history includes hypertension and a total nephrectomy for renal cell carcinoma 7 years ago. Radiographs and sagittal MRI scans are shown in Figures 36a through 36d. A bone scan reveals this to be an isolated lesion. Biopsy findings are consistent with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Explanation
Resection and reconstruction of this very proximal lesion provides the best chance to avoid hardware complications that may be associated with stabilization procedures. Wide resection of isolated renal cell carcinoma metastasis, which presents distant to the nephrectomy, may improve long-term survival. Fuchs B, Trousdale RT, Rock MG: Solitary bony metastasis from renal cell carcinoma: Significance of surgical treatment. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2005;431:187-192.
Question 45
A patient undergoes a simple excision of a 3-cm superficial mass in the thigh at another institution. The final pathology reveals a leiomyosarcoma, without reference to the margins. What is the recommendation for definitive treatment?
Explanation
Treatment of patients with unplanned excision of soft-tissue sarcomas is challenging. If the margins are positive or unclear, the patient is best managed with repeat excision of the tumor bed, and radiation therapy if the repeat excision does not yield wide margins. In patients with no detectable tumor on physical examination or imaging after unplanned excision, some studies have shown that up to 35% of patients will have residual disease and a poorer local recurrence rate (22% versus 7%). Therefore, whenever feasible, a reexcision of the tumor bed is recommended.
Question 46
A 14-year-old girl has had progressive heel pain for the past several months. Based on the radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 37a through 37d, treatment should include
Explanation
An aneurysmal bone cyst is a benign, locally destructive lesion of bone. Most are seen in patients in the second decade of life. The clinical presentation varies, but most patients have pain, tenderness, swelling, and/or pathologic fracture. Radiographs show a radiolucent lesion sometimes with expansile remodeling of the cortex. MRI best detects the commonly seen fluid-fluid levels associated with this lesion. Histologic findings include blood-filled spaces with bland fibrous connective tissue septa. The stroma has histiocytes, fibroblasts, scattered giant cells, hemosiderin, and occasional inflammatory cells. Treatment of these lesions consists of extended curettage, plus or minus the use of adjuvants (liquid nitrogen, phenol, argon beam coagulation), and finally filling the bone void (allograft or other bone substitute). Gibbs CP Jr, Hefele MC, Peabody TD, et al: Aneurysmal bone cyst of the extremities: Factors related to local recurrence after curettage with a high-speed burr. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:1671-1678.
Question 47
A 14-year-old boy has had knee pain for the past 2 months. He also has a low-grade fever of 101.3 degrees F (38.5 degrees C). Laboratory studies show a WBC count of 12,100/mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 58/h. A biopsy specimen of a lesion in the distal femoral metaphysis is shown in Figure 38. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Explanation
The clinical presentation of this patient is consistent with both acute osteomyelitis and Ewing's sarcoma. Both entities can be noted in the distal femoral metaphysis although Ewing's sarcoma is classically noted in the diaphysis. The histology reveals a mixed inflammatory cell infiltrate with neutrophils, plasma cells, lymphocytes, and histiocytes. Ewing's sarcoma would be a uniform population of small round blue cells without an inflammatory component. Eosinophilic granuloma (EG) is characterized by Langerhans histiocytes and eosinophils. Treatment of EG often consists of an intralesional steroid injection. Treatment of acute osteomyelitis includes surgical debridement and antibiotics. McCarthy JJ, Dormans JP, Kozin SH, et al: Musculoskeletal infections in children: Basic treatment principles and recent advancements. Instr Course Lect 2005;54:515-528.
Question 48
A 14-year-old girl reports a 3-week history of anterior thigh pain and a palpable mass after sustaining a soccer-related injury. Examination reveals a tender, firm mass in the midportion of the rectus femoris. MRI scans are shown in Figures 39a through 39c. What is the most appropriate management?
Explanation
The history, examination, and MRI scan findings are consistent with a midsubstance partial rupture of the rectus femoris muscle. This is an injury masquerading as a "pseudo tumor." The lack of an appreciable mass effect on the T1-weighted MRI scan, the defined fluid signal on the T2-weighted scans, and the lack of significant contrast enhancement after gadolinium are all most consistent with injury rather than a neoplasm. Most of these injuries respond to nonsurgical management; a few will benefit from late debridement and repair if symptoms fail to resolve in 3 to 6 months. The treatment of choice is nonsurgical management with a follow-up MRI scan to verify that the findings are resolving. Hughes C IV, Hasselman CT, Best TM, et al: Incomplete, intrasubstance strain injuries of the rectus femoris muscle. Am J Sports Med 1995;23:500-506.
Question 49
A 40-year-old man reports an enlarging soft-tissue mass in his right shoulder. Based on the MRI scan and biopsy specimens shown in Figures 40a through 40c, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Nodular fasciitis is a pseudosarcomatous, self-limiting reactive process composed of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts. Most patients give a history of a rapidly growing mass that has been present for only a few weeks. Many have pain associated with the mass and can recall a specific traumatic event predating the presence of the lesion. It can occur at any age but is most commonly seen in adults who are 20 to 40 years of age. Histologically, the lesion is composed of predominantly plump, immature-appearing fibroblasts that bear a close resemblance to the fibroblasts found in granulation tissue. Characteristically, the fibroblasts are arranged in short, irregular bundles and fascicles and are adjacent to collagen and reticulin. The lesions can appear to be more myxoid or more fibrotic in nature and this correlates to the duration of symptoms. The lesions with a short duration of symptoms have a more myxoid appearance in contrast to those of longer duration characterized by hyaline fibrosis. Weiss SW, Goldblum JR, Enzinger FM: Enzinger and Weiss's Soft Tissue Tumors, ed 4. Philadelphia, PA, Elsevier, 2001, pp 250-266.
Question 50
A 28-year-old woman has had pain in her hand and mild swelling of the little finger for the past 2 months. A radiograph is shown in Figure 41a, and the biopsy specimen is shown in Figures 41b and 41c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographic appearance shows a slightly expansile lesion in the proximal phalanx of the fifth digit typical of an enchondroma. There is a stippled appearance within the bone and no evidence of cortical destruction. The biopsy reveals a cartilage lesion with basophilic cytoplasm. There are some hypercellular areas but no evidence of pleomorphism. Enchondromas in the tubular bones of the hand are usually more cellular than their counterparts in the femur and humerus and should not be considered malignant. No other lesions are noted in the radiograph, so a diagnosis of Ollier's disease cannot be made. An osteochondroma is a benign surface cartilage tumor. Brown tumor and osteomyelitis can be differentiated from enchondroma based on the histology. Wold LE, Adler CP, Sim FH, et al: Atlas of Orthopedic Pathology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2003, p 225.