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Question 51
Figure 26a shows the radiograph of a 55-year-old woman who has pain in her right leg after falling. Laboratory studies reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. A biopsy specimen from the proximal tibia is shown in Figure 26b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Paget's disease of bone is a metabolic disorder of bone remodeling. The normally coupled process of bone resorption and deposition is lost, resulting in excessive localized bone resorption and compensatory increased bone formation. Pagetic bone tends to be more brittle; therefore, it is susceptible to pathologic fractures and subsequent deformities. Lander PH, Hadjipavlou AG: A dynamic classification of Paget's disease. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1986;68:431-438.
Question 52
Radiographs of a pediatric patient reveal a suspected osteosarcoma of the distal femur. Additional staging studies should consist of
Explanation
CT of the abdomen and pelvis is not part of the staging of osteosarcoma. Staging studies should consist of CT of the chest, radiographs of the chest and primary tumor, MRI of the primary tumor, and a bone scan. The MRI should be obtained prior to the biopsy.
Question 53
Which of the following factors are considered prognostic of survival in patients with soft-tissue sarcomas?
Explanation
The factors that are independently prognostic of patient survival are tumor size, tumor grade, and tumor depth (ie, subfascial versus superficial). These factors are the basis for the American Joint Committee on Cancer staging criteria. Patient age and neurovascular invasion are not prognostic. Surgical margin is prognostic for local recurrence but not conclusively for patient survival or metastasis. Metastatic disease is also predictive of survival. Cheng EY, Thompson RC Jr: New developments in the staging and imaging of soft-tissue sarcomas. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:443-451.
Question 54
Figures 27a through 27c show the AP radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimen of an otherwise healthy man who has a painful wrist. Serum chemistry studies are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The osseous sites most frequently involved by giant cell tumor of bone are the distal femur, proximal tibia, and distal radius with approximately 10% of giant cell tumors involving the distal radius. The goals of treatment are to remove the tumor completely and to preserve maximum function of the extremity.
Question 55
What is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone in childhood?
Explanation
Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone in childhood, followed by Ewing's sarcoma. Rhabdomyosarcoma is a soft-tissue sarcoma of childhood. Chondrosarcoma rarely occurs in childhood. Osteochondroma is a benign tumor of bone. Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Osteogenic Sarcoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 266.
Question 56
A 44-year-old woman has bilateral knee pain, and history reveals bilateral hip replacements. Radiographs are seen in Figure 28a, and histopathologic specimens from the total hip replacement are shown in Figures 28b and 28c. Laboratory studies reveal anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory arthritis that usually involves multiple joints. Radiologic findings of periarticular erosion, osteopenia, and minimal osteophyte formation favor rheumatoid arthritis over osteoarthritis. Pigmented villonodular synovitis and Charcot arthropathy are more often considered monoarticular diseases. There are no radiographic findings of Paget's disease.
Question 57
In addition to pain, which of the following factors are considered most predictive of the risk of pathologic fracture?
Explanation
While guidelines for predicting fracture risk are at best imprecise, the scoring system by Mirels (pain, anatomic location, and pattern of bony destruction) has been shown to be most predictive of fracture risk. Functional pain, peritrochanteric location, and lytic bone destruction are the greatest risk factors for pathologic fracture. The factors of patient weight, age, soft-tissue mass, and location within bone are all of lesser importance. Frassica FJ, Frassica DA, McCarthy EF, Riley LH III: Metastatic bone disease: Evaluation, clinicopathologic features, biopsy, fracture risk, nonsurgical treatment, and supportive management. Instr Course Lect 2000;49:453-459.
Question 58
Patients with which of the following primary carcinomas have the shortest overall survival rate after a solitary metastasis to bone?
Explanation
The median survival of patients after discovery of bone metastasis from primary lung carcinoma is shorter compared with other primary sites.
Question 59
A 63-year-old woman has a femoral neck fracture. A biopsy specimen obtained from the fracture site at the time of her hemiarthroplasty reveals metastatic carcinoma. Seven days after surgery, she becomes confused and lethargic. Which of the following laboratory values is most likely implicated in the patient's symptoms at this time?
Explanation
Although many hematologic and electrolyte abnormalities may be present in a patient with advanced metastatic cancer, an elevated serum calcium level is most commonly associated with confusion. Treatment with hydration, diuretics, and bisphosphonates is recommended. Clohishy D: Management of skeletal metastasis in clinical orthopaedics, in Craig E (ed): Operative Orthopaedics. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 1999, pp 994-997.
Question 60
Figure 29a shows the clinical photograph of a 26-year-old woman who has had the leg deformity since birth. She reports difficulty with walking and weight bearing and notes increased discomfort and swelling when the leg is dependent. She denies any history of trauma or family history of a similar disorder. Examination reveals a fixed equinovarus deformity of the foot but no evidence of a limb-length discrepancy. No other cutaneous findings or soft-tissue masses are noted. Sagittal and axial T1- and T2-weighted MRI scans are shown in Figures 29b and 29c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Because the MRI scans show marked dilation and proliferation of lymphatic channels that completely involve all the leg muscles and the clinical photograph shows the severe swelling associated with this disease, the most likely diagnosis is lymphangiomatosis. Poliomyelitis affects the anterior horn cells and manifests as muscle atrophy. Neurofibromatosis can have a similar clinical appearance but usually is associated with other systemic and cutaneous findings. Congenital band syndrome results in amputated or shortened extremities. Chronic venous stasis disease usually is not associated with joint contractures, and typically it affects older individuals. Surgical excision is the only known treatment; this patient underwent an above-knee amputation. Berquist TH (ed): MRI of the Musculoskeletal System, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1997, p 771.
Question 61
Figures 30a and 30b show the MRI scans of a 51-year-old woman who has had an enlarging soft-tissue mass in her right thigh for the past 18 months. Examination reveals no inguinal adenopathy. Results of a biopsy show a high-grade sarcoma. A bone scan is unremarkable, and a CT scan of the chest shows no evidence of pulmonary metastasis. According to the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) staging system, the tumor should be classified as what stage?
Explanation
According to the MSTS staging system, soft-tissue sarcomas are staged according to the following factors: grade, site, and metastasis. Roman numerals are used to designate malignant tumors, and Arabic numerals are used for benign tumors. Low-grade malignant tumors are staged as I while intermediate- and high-grade tumors are staged as II. Site is defined as intracompartmental (A) or extracompartmental (B). Any metastasis is staged as III. This patient has a high-grade tumor (II), and the MRI scans show that it is confined to a single compartment; therefore, it is staged as IIA. There is no evidence of metastatic disease. Enneking WF, Spanier SS, Goodman MA: A system for the surgical staging of musculoskeletal sarcoma. Clin Orthop 1980;153:106-120. Peabody TD, Monson D, Montag A, Schell MJ, Finn H, Simon MA: A comparison of the prognoses for deep and subcutaneous sarcomas of the extremities. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:1167-1173. Pisters PW, Leung DH, Woodruff J, Shi W, Brennan MF: Analysis of prognostic factors in 1,041 patients with localized soft tissue sarcomas of the extremities. J Clin Oncol 1996;14:1679-1689.
Question 62
An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man has a 3-cm subcutaneous mass on his anterior thigh that is presumed to be a lipoma. Removal of the mass is performed in the office of his primary care physician. Pathologic evaluation shows a high-grade malignant fibrous histiocytoma. Staging reveals no evidence of metastatic disease. Management at this time should consist of
Explanation
Resection of a previously excised soft-tissue sarcoma is recommended. Reoperation is recommended after removal of malignant tumors previously believed to be benign, as approximately one half of the patients will have residual tumor in the re-excised specimen. Observation is not indicated in most patients because local recurrence is likely. Radiation therapy alone may result in long-term local control but is felt to be less effective than reoperation. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy alone are not recommended. Wide excision is the most important factor for local disease control. Radiation therapy after surgical re-excision may also decrease the risk of local recurrence. Peabody TD, Monson D, Montag A, Schell MJ, Finn H, Simon MA: A comparison of the prognoses for deep and subcutaneous sarcomas of the extremities. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:1167-1173. Giuliano AE, Eilber FR: The rationale for planned reoperation after unplanned total excision of soft-tissue sarcomas. J Clin Oncol 1985;3:1344-1348. Lewis JJ, Leung D, Espat J, Woodruff JM, Brennan MF: Effect of resection in extremity soft tissue sarcoma. Ann Surg 2000;231:655-663.
Question 63
A 13-year-old girl has had a firm mass and pain in her right shoulder for the past several weeks. She denies any history of trauma. A radiograph and MRI scan are shown in Figures 31a and 31b. Biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 31c and 31d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The patient has osteosarcoma. The radiograph suggests an aggressive primary tumor of bone, and the histology shows malignant cells surrounded by osteoid, classic for osteosarcoma. Ewing's sarcoma histologically consists of small round blue cells. Osteochondroma and periosteal chondroma occur in the shoulder but have a different histologic pattern and a less aggressive radiographic appearance. Chondrosarcomas rarely occur in children. Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Osteogenic Sarcoma: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 266.
Question 64
The use of radiation therapy is most effective in metastatic bone disease from which of the following tumors?
Explanation
Both myeloma and lymphoma are more responsive to radiation therapy. The other types of tumors are relatively more resistant to radiation. Doses of 25 to 50 Gy (2,500 to 5,000 cGy) are usually sufficient for myeloma and lymphoma, while carcinomas frequently require a higher dosage. Large cell lymphoma of bone is usually of B-cell origin and is treated with chemotherapy and radiation therapy. Simon MA, Springfield DS, et al: Surgery for Bone and Soft Tissue Tumors. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott Raven, 1998, p 683.
Question 65
Figures 32a and 32b show the radiographs of an active 13-year-old boy who has persistent left thigh pain and a limp despite a trial of protected weight bearing. Management should consist of
Explanation
The plain radiographs show an eccentric metaphyseal lesion involving a long bone in a skeletally immature patient. The lesion is longer than it is wide, with distinctly lobular outer edges that are sclerotic. These findings are characteristic of a nonossifying fibroma. Small asymptomatic lesions may be followed clinically. Larger lesions that occupy greater than two thirds of the width of the shaft and are located in areas of high mechanical stress such as the femur are more prone to fracture than smaller lesions. Pain is often a sign of impending fracture or the presence of a small fracture that may not be apparent on radiographs. The natural history of the lesion is to resolve over a period of years. The procedure that would allow the patient to return to contact sports is curettage and bone grafting. Intralesional steroid injection has been advocated in the treatment of unicameral bone cysts and eosinophilic granuloma but not nonossifying fibromas. En block resection is not indicated for a benign lesion. Low-dose radiation therapy has been used for eosinophilic granuloma but not for nonossifying fibromas. Walker RN, Green NE, Spindler KP: Stress fractures in skeletally immature patients. J Pediatr Orthop 1996;16:578-584.
Question 66
The spread of malignant cells to the vertebrae is often through
Explanation
In 1940, Batson described a valveless plexus of veins that extend from the dural venous sinuses of the skull to the sacrum. This system permits retrograde blood flow and enables tumor cells to enter vertebral bodies at multiple levels. Increased intra-abdominal pressure will enhance this retrograde blood flow.
Question 67
A 10-year-boy has had thigh pain for the past several months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals no soft-tissue mass, and mild tenderness. Figures 33a and 33b show the plain radiograph and MRI scan, and the biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 33c and 33d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The diagnosis is eosinophilic granuloma. The plain radiograph and MRI scan show a lesion in the midshaft of the femur. There is no soft-tissue mass. There is reactive bone about the lesion that suggests a less aggressive tumor. The histology reveals eosinophils in an otherwise bland cellular background with no evidence of mitotic figures or malignant cells to suggest sarcoma. The diagnostic elements are the amphophilic (ie, pale purple) histiocytes with cigar-shaped nuclei, some of which have linear longitudinal grooves. There is no histologic evidence of infection. Lymphoma of bone would be an unusual occurrence in this age group, and the histology is not consistent with that diagnosis.
Question 68
A 35-year-old patient has right hip pain. Figures 34a and 34b show the coronal MRI scan and the biopsy specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Alcohol abuse, steroids, Caisson disease, sickle cell disease, and radiation therapy are the leading causes of nontraumatic osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Arlet J: Nontraumatic avascular necrosis of the femoral head: Past, present, and future. Clin Orthop 1992;277:12-21.
Question 69
A 16-year-old girl has a painful foot mass. A radiograph, MRI scan, and biopsy specimens are shown in Figures 35a through 35d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Synovial sarcoma should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a foot mass; however, the histopathology shows a typical example of PVNS, with hemosiderin, giant cells, and synovium. Synovial chondromatosis would have metaplastic cartilage in the synovium. The radiograph shows subtle erosion of the lateral cortex of the cuboid, and the MRI scan shows a soft-tissue mass. Ghert MA, Scully SP, Harrelson JM: Pigmented villonodular synovitis of the foot and ankle: A review of six cases. Foot Ankle Int 1999;20:326-330. Jones BC, Sundaram M, Kransdorf MJ: Synovial sarcoma: MR imaging findings in 34 patients. Am J Roentgenol 1993;161:827-830. Sartoris DJ, Resnick D: Magnetic resonance imaging of pediatric foot and ankle disorders. J Foot Surg 1990;29:489-494.
Question 70
What is the most common diagnosis in a patient older than age 40 years with a destructive bony lesion?
Explanation
The most common destructive lesions in a patient older than age 40 years are, in decreasing incidence, metastatic carcinoma, multiple myeloma, lymphoma, and chondrosarcoma. Osteosarcoma is found primarily in younger patients.
Question 71
A 78-year-old man being seen for routine follow-up studies reports mild to moderate pain in his left arm. The patient has a history of lung cancer and severe heart disease. A radiograph and a bone scan are shown in Figures 36a and 36b. Treatment should consist of
Explanation
The patient has lung cancer metastatic to the left humerus that is mildly to moderately symptomatic. Radiographically, the lesion is small and is not associated with significant cortical destruction. Metastatic lesions in the upper extremity have a lower incidence of pathologic fracture than lesions in the lower extremity.
Question 72
Which of the following benign bone lesions can develop lung metastases?
Explanation
Although considered benign bone lesions, lung metastases can develop in giant cell tumors and chondroblastomas. These often can be treated with multiple thoracotomies, resulting in long-term survival. Roberts PF, Taylor JG: Multifocal benign chondroblastomas: Report of a case. Hum Pathol 1980;11:296-298.
Question 73
The radiographic feature seen in Figure 37 that best indicates a slow-growing process is the
Explanation
For the fibula (or any bone) to bow, a long-standing process needs to be present. Pressure from a rapid process would cause erosion, not allowing the bone to remodel. The other features are helpful confirmatory findings but also may be associated with aggressive processes. In this patient, the fibular deformity is caused by a sessile osteochondroma of the tibia. Lodwick GS, Wilson AJ, Farrell C, Virtama P, Dittrich F: Determining growth rates of focal lesions of bone from radiographs. Radiology 1980;134:577-583.
Question 74
A 52-year-old man has a stage IIB malignant fibrous histiocytoma of the distal femur. Local treatment should consist of
Explanation
Local control of malignant fibrous histiocytoma of bone typically consists of wide excision. Curettage and bone grafting is a procedure with an intralesional surgical margin, with an unacceptable rate of local recurrence. Prophylactic fixation is considered for patients with metastatic disease. Radiation therapy alone is not adequate for local control of this tumor. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is often used primarily for systemic tumor control.
Question 75
A patient undergoes excision of a 3- x 3-cm soft-tissue sarcoma. The final histology results show tumor at the surgical margin. The surgical procedure performed is classified as
Explanation
Surgical margins are classified according to the plane of dissection in relation to the tumor. An intralesional procedure is where the plane of dissection passes through the tumor. A marginal resection involves a resection where the plane of dissection is through the reactive zone of the tumor. A wide resection is through completely normal tissue outside of the reactive zone. A radical resection removes all of the muscles and/or bone of the compartment that are involved by the tumor.