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Question 1
A 65-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis sustains an extension injury to his cervical spine. Two days later, a progressive neurologic deficit develops at the C6 level. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
It is common for patients with ankylosing spondylitis to sustain extension-type fractures, typically near the cervicothoracic junction. These fractures can be minimally displaced, making them difficult to diagnose. In addition, the vertebral bodies are vascular and their canals are relatively enclosed, making them vulnerable to epidural bleeding. The MRI scan shows an epidural hematoma posteriorly compressing the cord. Bohlman HH: Acute fractures and dislocations of the cervical spine. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1979;61:1119-1142. Weinstein PR, Karpman RR, Gall EP, et al: Spinal cord injury, spine fracture and spinal stenosis in ankylosing spondylitis. J Neurosurg 1982;57:609-616.
Question 2
What are the most common portals for arthroscopic surgery of the ankle?
Explanation
The most commonly used portals are the anterolateral, anteromedial, and posterolateral portals. They have been shown to be the safest areas for portal placement, allowing no penetration of neurovascular structures. All the other portals involve placing another structure at risk. The anterocentral portal is close to the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibular artery. The trans-Achilles portal is not recommended because of its limited utility and potential to injure the Achilles tendon. The posteromedial portal is too close to the posterotibial artery and nerve, the flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus tendons, and the branches of the calcaneal nerve. Stetson WB, Ferkel RD: Ankle arthroscopy: I. Technique and complications. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1996;4:17-23.
Question 3
A patient who underwent primary total hip arthroplasty 7 years ago that resulted in excellent pain relief and a normal gait now reports pain and a limp. Postoperative and current AP radiographs are shown in Figures 2a and 2b. What is the most likely cause of the pathology seen?
Explanation
Osteolysis in the trochanteric bed can result in weakening of the bone and fracture. Nonsurgical management will provide reasonable clinical and radiographic results in patients with limited fracture displacement. Claus MC, Hopper RH, Engh CA: Fractures of the greater trochanter induced by osteolysis with the anatomic medullary locking prosthesis. J Arthroplasty 2002;17:706-712.
Question 4
The safest surgical approach to the insertion of the tibial posterior cruciate ligament uses the interval between which of the following muscles?
Explanation
Burks and Schaffer described an approach to the tibial insertion of the posterior cruciate ligament that uses the interval between the semimembranosus and the medial gastrocnemius. The medial gastrocnemius muscle is retracted laterally and protects the neurovascular bundle. This approach is used to repair an avulsion of the posterior cruciate ligament tibial attachment or for performing a posterior cruciate ligament tibial inlay reconstruction. Berg EE: Posterior cruciate ligament tibial inlay reconstruction. Arthroscopy 1995;8:95-99.
Question 5
A 50-year-old man with no history of trauma reports new-onset back pain after doing some yard work the previous day. He reports pain radiating down his leg posteriorly and into the first dorsal web space of his foot. MRI scans are shown in Figures 3a through 3c. What nerve root is affected?
Explanation
The MRI scans clearly show an extruded L4-5 disk that is affecting the L5 nerve root on the left side. In addition, the L5 nerve root has a cutaneous distribution in the first dorsal web space. S1 affects the lateral foot. L4 affects the medial calf.
Question 6
A 19-year-old wrestler has numbness along the radial aspect of the forearm after undergoing an open Bankart repair through an anterior deltopectoral approach. Motor weakness would be expected along with what other finding?
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve may be injured by retracting the conjoined tendon medially. This nerve enters the coracobrachialis 5 cm distal to its origin. Its sensory distribution is the radial forearm, and its motor supply is to the biceps and brachialis. Bach BR, O'Brien SJ, Warren RF, et al: An unusual neurologic complication of the Bristow procedure. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1988;70:458-460.
Question 7
A 19-year-old man has had intermittent progressive knee pain with ambulation and pain at night following a rodeo accident 4 weeks ago. Figures 4a through 4e show the radiographs, a bone scan, CT scan, and T2-weighted MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The imaging studies reveal a predominantly blastic lesion in the distal femur with posterolateral periosteal changes. The bone scan shows increased uptake in the distal femur, beyond that expected with radiography. Cross-sectional imaging confirms the presence of a soft-tissue mass extending from the lateral aspect of the femur, with diffuse intramedullary signal changes. This aggressive presentation, particularly in this location and in a patient of this age, is most consistent with osteosarcoma. The mineralization in the soft tissue strongly suggests neoplasm, not the reactive bony changes seen in an infectious process. Menendez LR (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update: Musculoskeletal Tumors. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 175-186.
Question 8
Figures 5a and 5b show the radiographs of an active 52-year-old man who has increasing knee pain and progressive varus deformity after undergoing total knee arthroplasty 7 years ago. Examination reveals a small effusion, but he has good motion and stability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The radiographs show narrowing of the medial joint space, which indicates polyethylene wear and progressive varus alignment. Wear particles incite osteolytic lesions like the one seen on the lateral radiograph. O'Rourke MR, Callaghan JJ, Goetz DG, et al: Osteolysis associated with a cemented modular posterior-cruciate-substituting total knee design. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1362-1371.
Question 9
Which of the following best describes the course of the median nerve at the elbow?
Explanation
The median nerve courses superficial to the ulnar artery, deep to the fibrous arch of the superficialis muscle, and deep to the superficial head of the pronator teres muscle. The median nerve lies within the interval between the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and the flexor digitorium muscle as it progresses toward the wrist. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 118-131.
Question 10
A 62-year-old woman with soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia has severe pain in the left index, middle, ring, and little fingers. History reveals that she does not smoke. The clinical history and arteriogram shown in Figure 6 are consistent with which of the following conditions?
Explanation
The arteriogram shows generalized disease of all vascular structures. Even though the image was obtained following an infusion of nitroglycerin, little flow is present to the fingers. Based on the history of soft-tissue calcifications and telangiectasia, the most likely diagnosis is CREST (chondrocalcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasias). The arteriogram reveals Raynaud's phenomenon or the "R" component of CREST. Buerger's disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans, is strongly associated with a history of smoking. Hypothenar hammer syndrome involves repetitive trauma to the ulnar artery at the wrist, resulting in well-defined filling defects in the superficial palmar arch of the hand. Although not well visualized in this patient, the superficial arch is narrowed, showing no evidence of aneurysmal dilation. Koman LA, Ruch DS, Patterson Smith B, et al: Vascular disorders, in Green DP, Hotchkiss RN, Pederson WC (eds): Green's Operative Hand Surgery, ed 4. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1999, vol 2, pp 2254-2302.
Question 11
During excision of a Baker cyst, the base or stalk is usually found between the
Explanation
Although there are several bursae in the posterior portion of the knee, the most prevalent one with a connection to the knee joint is the one in the interval between the semimembranosus and the medial head of the gastrocnemius muscle. The popliteus muscle and posterior cruciate ligament, the posterior cruciate ligament and lateral gastrocnemius muscle, and the medial gastrocnemius muscle and posterior cruciate ligament are all too lateral and uncommon. The semitendinosus and medial head of the gastrocnemius muscles do not come in contact in the posterior aspect of the knee. Resnick D: Diagnosis of Bone and Joint Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, p 379.
Question 12
A direct lateral (Hardinge) approach is used during total hip arthroplasty. The structure labeled A in Figure 7 is the
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve is located approximately 7.82 cm above the tip of the greater trochanter as it courses through the gluteus medius. This anatomic consideration is relevant during a Hardinge approach to the hip, where excessive proximal dissection or retraction could result in nerve injury. A split of the gluteus medius of no more than 4 cm above the greater trochanter is considered safe. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, pp 333-335.
Question 13
The dorsal digital cutaneous nerve of the great toe shown in Figure 8 is a branch of what nerve?
Explanation
The dorsal digital cutaneous nerve of the great toe is a branch of the medial branch of the superficial peroneal nerve. The deep peroneal nerve supplies the first web space. McMinn RMH, Hutchings RT, Logan BM: Color Atlas of Foot and Ankle Anatomy. Weert, Netherlands, Wolfe Medical Publications, 1982, p 50.
Question 14
In hip arthroplasty, the location of the medial femoral circumflex artery is best described as
Explanation
The obturator artery lies closest to the transverse acetabular ligament. The femoral artery is closest to the anterior rim of the acetabulum. No named vessel lies within the substance of the gluteus minimus or superior to the piriformis tendon. The medial femoral circumflex artery lies medial or deep to the quadratus femoris muscle. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach, ed 1. Philadelphia, PA, JB Lippincott, 1984, Figure 7-53, p 346.
Question 15
A 47-year-old man has acute right shoulder pain after falling off a ladder. The MRI scan shown in Figure 9 reveals
Explanation
The MRI scan reveals a full-thickness rotator cuff tear with retraction and increased signal in the subacromial space indicating joint fluid. Herzog RJ: Magnetic resonance imaging of the shoulder. Instr Course Lect 1998;47:3-20.
Question 16
The oblique radiograph of the foot and the CT scan shown in Figures 10a and 10b show a patient whose symptoms have failed to respond to rest and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. What is the best course of action?
Explanation
The radiograph and MRI scan show elongation and fragmentation of the os peroneum. Although casting, orthoses, and steroid injection may relieve symptoms, excision of the os peroneum and primary repair when necessary, with or without tenodesis of the peroneus longus to the peroneus brevis, have been shown to produce excellent results. Haddad SL: Disorders of tendons: Peroneal tendon dysfunction, in Coughlin MJ, Mann RA (eds): Surgery of the Foot and Ankle, ed 7. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1999, pp 812-817.
Question 17
What is the typical MRI signal intensity of bone marrow affected by acute osteomyelitis?
Explanation
The classic MRI findings of osteomyelitis are a decrease in the normally high signal intensity of marrow on T1-weighted images and normal or increased signal intensity on T2-weighted images. This is the result of replacement of marrow fat by inflammatory cells and edema, which causes lower signal intensity than fat on T1-weighted images and higher signal intensity than fat on T2-weighted images. The addition of gadolinium to a T1-weighted sequence reveals increased signal intensity in the hyperemic marrow. Unger E, Moldofsky P, Gatenby R, et al: Diagnosis of osteomyelitis by MR imaging. Am J Roentgenol 1988;150:605-610. Dormans JP, Drummond DS: Pediatric hematogenous osteomyelitis: New trends in presentation, diagnosis and treatment. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1994;2:333-341.
Question 18
Based on the appearance of the imaging studies shown in Figures 11a through 11c, what structure has most likely been injured?
Explanation
The radiographs reveal marked lateral subluxation of the patella in a patient who has recurrent patellar instability. The medial patellofemoral ligament is the main restraint to lateral subluxation of the patella. Boden BP, Pearsall AW: Patellofemoral instability: Evaluation and management. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1997;5:47-57.
Question 19
In the anterior forearm approach to the distal radius (Henry approach), the radial artery is located between what two structures?
Explanation
The standard approach to the volar aspect of the distal radius is the Henry approach. Following incision of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, the forearm fascia is incised. The radial artery and venae comitantes lie in the interval between the tendons of the flexor carpi radialis muscle and the brachioradialis muscle. This interval is developed, and the radial artery and veins are retracted in a radial direction. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1994, pp 118-131.
Question 20
Following a radial nerve neurapraxia at or above the elbow, return of muscle function can be expected to start at the brachioradialis and return along which of the following progressions?
Explanation
Following a radial nerve neurapraxia above the elbow, muscle recovery can be expected in a predictable pattern. Although variations will occur, the return of function or reinnervation usually occurs in the following order: brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, supinator, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum comminus, extensor digiti minimi, extensor indicis proprious, extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis. Netter F: The Ciba Collection of Medical Illustrations: The Musculoskeletal System. Part 1, Anatomy, Physiology and Metabolic Disorders. West Caldwell, NJ, Ciba-Geigy, 1991, vol 8, p 53.
Question 21
To preserve blood supply to the fractured bone seen in Figures 12a and 12b, care should be taken when exposing which of the following areas?
Explanation
The blood supply to the adult capitellum and lateral trochlea comes from posterior vessels arising from the radial recurrent, radial collateral, and interosseous recurrent arteries. These arteries penetrate the distal humerus posterior and superior to the capitellum.
Question 22
An axial T1-weighted MRI scan of the pelvis is shown in Figure 13. The arrow is pointing to what muscle?
Explanation
The obturator internus muscle originates from the internal pelvic wall and passes laterally through the lesser sciatic foramen, banking around the ischium below the sacrospinous ligament before inserting on the medial aspect of the greater trochanter. Higuchi T: Normal anatomy and magnetic resonance appearance of the pelvis, in Takahashi HE, Morita T, Hotta T, Ogose A (eds): Operative Treatment of Pelvic Tumors. Tokyo, Japan, Springer-Verlag, 2003, pp 4-21.
Question 23
Which of the following radiographic views best depicts a Hill-Sachs defect?
Explanation
The Stryker notch view best shows this type of defect. An outlet view helps evaluate acromial shape, a true AP shows joint space narrowing, a serendipity view evaluates the sternoclavicular joint, and a Zanca view helps evaluate the acromioclavicular joint. An internal rotation AP may also depict a Hill-Sachs defect.
Question 24
What structure provides the major blood supply to the humeral head?
Explanation
The ascending branch of the anterior circumflex humeral artery provides the major blood supply to the humeral head. The posterior circumflex humeral artery supplies a much smaller portion of the proximal humerus. The nutrient humeral artery is the main blood supply for the humeral shaft. The thoracoacromial artery is primarily a muscular branch. The rotator cuff insertions contribute some blood supply to the tuberosities but not a major contribution. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 271-286.
Question 25
Figure 14 shows an intra-articular gadolinium-enhanced MRI scan of a 52-year-old woman who has stopped playing tennis because of pain in her left shoulder while serving. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
The MRI scan shows increased signal intensity along the deep fibers of the supraspinatus near its insertion. This is typical of tendinosis and a probable partial-thickness rotator cuff tear. Herzog RJ: Magnetic resonance imaging of the shoulder. Instr Course Lect 1998;47:3-20.