ABOS Part I Comprehensive Review - Batch 28

Question 1

A 38-year-old male presents to your clinic 6 months after sustaining a high-energy pelvic ring injury (Young & Burgess Vertical Shear type) that was initially treated with anterior plating of the pubic symphysis and percutaneous iliosacral screw fixa

Accepted Answer

Residual pelvic instability requiring further intervention.

Question 2

A 25-year-old female sustains a high-energy pelvic injury. Initial AP pelvis radiographs show significant widening of the pubic symphysis and a subtle widening of the left sacroiliac joint. Inlet and outlet views are difficult to interpret due to pat

Accepted Answer

Interosseous Sacroiliac Ligaments

Question 3

A 42-year-old male presents with chronic left-sided pelvic pain and instability following a motor vehicle collision 1 year prior. Initial radiographs were interpreted as a stable lateral compression injury, but his symptoms have worsened. Current AP

Accepted Answer

Severe posterior ligamentous injury.

Question 4

A 55-year-old male presents with persistent pain and difficulty ambulating 9 months after sustaining a pelvic ring injury. His initial injury was characterized by a widely diastased pubic symphysis and partial disruption of the posterior sacroiliac l

Accepted Answer

Type B: Rotationally unstable, vertically stable

Question 5

A 60-year-old female, 18 months post-pelvic ring injury, presents with chronic, severe, and activity-limiting pain in her right SI joint region. She has a significant waddling gait, requires a walker for ambulation, and reports difficulty with all ac

Accepted Answer

All of the above.

Question 6

A 48-year-old male is scheduled for revision surgery for a symptomatic sacral non-union and persistent vertical instability following a complex pelvic fracture. The surgical plan involves spino-pelvic fixation using S2 Alar-Iliac (S2AI) screws.Which

Accepted Answer

Computed Tomography (CT) Scan with 3D Reconstructions

Question 7

During percutaneous iliosacral screw placement for a residual SI joint diastasis in a 30-year-old male, the surgeon notes a sudden increase in resistance during K-wire insertion into the S1 body, followed by a brief twitching of the patient's great t

Accepted Answer

Lumbosacral plexus (S1 nerve root)

Question 8

A 72-year-old female presents with severe chronic low back and pelvic pain, inability to sit upright, and significant functional disability following a fall 2 years ago. Imaging reveals a high transverse sacral fracture (Denis zone III) with signific

Accepted Answer

Spino-pelvic fixation (e.g., S2 Alar-Iliac screws with lumbar pedicle screws and rods).

Question 9

A 40-year-old male undergoes surgical stabilization of residual pelvic instability involving a symptomatic pubic symphysis non-union and a vertically unstable sacral fracture. The surgeon performs dual plating of the pubic symphysis and two well-plac

Accepted Answer

Protected weight-bearing (toe-touch or partial WB) on the affected side.

Question 10

A 50-year-old male, 1 year after surgical fixation of a vertically unstable pelvic injury, presents with recurrent pain and instability. Radiographs reveal a fractured iliosacral screw and loss of reduction of the SI joint.He is otherwise medically o

Accepted Answer

Revision surgery with removal of failed hardware, re-reduction, and re-fixation with a stronger construct.

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Key Takeaway