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Updated Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedi -...

Updated: Feb 2026 118 Views
Updated Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedi -...
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UPDATED ORTHOPEDIC MCQS

QUESTION 1
A 62-year-old man slips on ice and sustains an elbow dislocation. Post-reduction imaging reveals a highly comminuted radial head fracture and coronoid fracture through its base. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1/. Early passive range-of-motion in a hinged elbow brace
2/. Application of a static spanning external fixator for 6 weeks
1
Radial head excision, coronoid excision, and repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament and medial collateral as needed 4/. Radial head excision, open reduction internal fixation of the coronoid, and repair of the lateral ulnar collateral ligament and medial collateral as needed
2
Radial head replacement, open reduction internal fixation of the coronoid,
QUESTION 2
A 36-year-old male is brought to the trauma center following a motor vehicle accident. Physical exam shows a deformed left lower extremity with a 1-cm open wound over the anterolateral aspect of his leg. Radiographs are provided in Figures A and


1
Which of the following interventions has been shown in the literature to decrease the occurrence of infection at the fracture site? ![img](/media/upload/C2zdEK8Pl5iH83bKqr_TPqqZpc-fwPFe83bU0z0knZLU-UauA7QZRnQWE3kheYqYqAn15JGlaoCXeMrBX6TrEU5IgYQyub_sU6yFj_LEuWDF1AdjWvQWIzj-9uu29x2NZ0kWQ6wOcgdVp42UR5IKtz143UIQ4ViMV6MKSDIre3xvKAdln9GVZup2KoaqBQ) ![img](/media/upload/M8QYitTjEn5LdnKtf88OhjP_s5OA3zrdzEyGoT0MY6npRygo8xuDbPAFJhCO0Sq4sc0CM0yalxCdUKsj4lf8v6zy23iP6biyhSmbQhOJ_oXwE-Em_q978wu2BW-CQ5Jpwhl14KKjXtX0SmoMSFaAcK4opPhPDSsQ82P6JYdrqKDMBaIDzxqg5T3Uu6JF4Q) 1/. Operative debridement within 6 hours of injury 2/. Immediate prophylactic antibiotic administration 3/. Immediate stabilization with internal fixation after debridement
2
Irrigating with a saline solution that is mixed with an antibiotic
3
Irrigating with high pressure pulsatile lavage following surgical debridement
QUESTION 3
A 62-year-old man falls on his porch and sustains an elbow injury. A radiograph is provided in Figure

1
Which of the following is the best treatment? ![img](/media/upload/B1Ijf4loULlm_xdWbOJ1Z3fnOeFGlYos-pEp5DfF-lG1AEvPToynaSRASSiBqPLAALFEXEF-BepexI1G_7yWVhOKfcl-GkXsEDPUBDuCKpA-U6DDLlLWcocwoxiquK4TJSQwVNxydJD42S3AXG7c8k4h1g4XG2VkoJo_ibBjutT9ldYidDd3Sf9GT44LsQ) 1/. Closed reduction and long arm casting 2/. Early motion with a hinged elbow brace 3/. Open reduction internal fixation with a tension band construct
2
Open reduction internal fixation with a plate
QUESTION 4
An 85-year-old woman falls and injures her elbow in her non dominant arm. Radiographs are shown in Figure A and
1
She also suffers from severe osteoporosis, lives independently, and is a low level community ambulator. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? 1/. Hinged elbow brace 2/. Olecranon osteotomy, articular ORIF, locked lateral plating
2
Triceps-splitting approach with double plate fixation
QUESTION 5
A 27-year-old woman gives birth by normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. Two weeks after delivery she reports anterior pelvic pain and a radiograph is obtained (Figure A). What is the next step in management?
1/. Pelvic external fixator
2/. Open reduction and reconstruction plating of the symphysis
1
Protected weightbearing and binder as needed and observation
2
Open reduction and wiring of the symphysis
QUESTION 6
A 24-year-old man who sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen ten hours earlier was brought to the emergency department. On physical examination he was found to have 4 of 5 weakness in his bilateral lower extremities. Radiographs are shown in Figure
1
Computed tomography of the lumbar spine showed retained missile in the vertebral body and paraspinal soft tissues, but not within the spinal canal. His FAST was positive and he underwent an emergent exploratory laparotomy where an injury to the cecum was identified and treated. Management should now include which of the following? 1/. Bullet fragment removal from a transabdominal approach
2
Bullet fragment removal from a retroperitoneal approach
QUESTION 7
A 25-year-old male is involved in an high-speed motor vehicle collision and sustains a closed femoral shaft fracture. During further evaluation, a CT scan of the chest/abdomen/pelvis reveals a non displaced ipsilateral femoral neck fracture. Which of the following treatment options will most likely achieve anatomic healing of the femoral neck and minimize the risk of complications?
1/. Retrograde femoral nail followed by compression hip screw
1
Lag screw fixation followed by plating of the femoral shaft
2
Antegrade femoral nail followed by lag screw fixation
QUESTION 8
A 40-year-old male laborer sustained a fall from height and has isolated pelvic pain. He is otherwise hemodynamically stable. A radiograph is shown in Figure
1
A stress examination under anesthesia does not show any further anterior diastasis or posterior pelvic ring displacement. Computed tomography reveals no asymmetry of the sacroiliac joints. What is the most appropriate management of this injury? 1/. protected weight-bearing and pain control 2/. open reduction and internal fixation 3/. skeletal traction followed by open reduction and internal fixation
2
pelvic external fixation
QUESTION 9
A 40-year-old woman is involved in motorcycle accident 2 hours ago and sustains an isolated right leg injury shown in Figure
1
She has dopplerable posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis artery signals with less than 2 second capillary refill as shown in Figure
2
Sensation is intact in the distribution of the tibial nerve but decreased in the distribution of the peroneal nerve. She is cleared by the general surgery trauma team to go to the operating room for treatment of her leg. What is the most appropriate Gustilo classification and initial treatment for her injury?
QUESTION 10
A 47-year-old male sustains an isolated posterior wall acetabulum fracture after a motor vehicle collision and undergoes open reduction and internal fixation. Post-operative radiographs are shown in Figure
1
Which of the following has been shown to correlate most closely with good outcomes following ORIF of posterior wall fractures? 1/. Degree of displacement seen on preoperative AP pelvis view
2
Degree of displacement seen on preoperative Judet views
3
Degree of displacement seen on preoperative pelvic CT scan
4
Degree of displacement seen on postoperative Judet views
5
Degree of displacement seen on postoperative pelvic CT scan
QUESTION 11
A 68-year-old male sustains the humeral shaft fracture shown in Figures A and
1
Upon presentation, he is unable to extend his thumb, fingers, and wrist. After 4 months of non-operative management, the fracture has healed, but his physical exam is unchanged. What is the next most appropriate step in management? 1/. EMG and nerve conduction tests followed by possible surgical exploration
2
Continued observation
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon