Score: 0%
Self-Assessment Examination 2020 Adult Spine MCQS
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Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of the spine of a 20-year-old college football player who complains of severe right arm pain after making a tackle. He has numbness of the right thumb and index finger but has 5/5 strength in both arms, and his neurological examination is otherwise unremarkable. You counsel the patient that he can return to play when/if

Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of the spine of a 20-year-old college football player who complains of severe right arm pain after making a tackle. He has numbness of the right thumb and index finger but has 5/5 strength in both arms, and his neurological examination is otherwise unremarkable. You counsel the patient that he can return to play when/if
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Long-term outcomes that compare two-level anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF) with two-level cervical disk arthroplasty suggest that
Long-term outcomes that compare two-level anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF) with two-level cervical disk arthroplasty suggest that
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Figure 1 is the CT scan of a 36-year-old man who fell from a roof. Eight hours later at the emergency department he describes low-back pain with numbness and weakness in his bilateral lower extremity. A neurologic examination reveals 2/5 strength in his quadriceps and iliopsoas bilaterally, 2/5 strength in his right anterior tibialis and gastrocsoleus, and 1/5 strength in his left anterior tibialis and gastrocsoleus. Two hours later, strength in his lower extremities has diminished markedly. What is the best next step?

Figure 1 is the CT scan of a 36-year-old man who fell from a roof. Eight hours later at the emergency department he describes low-back pain with numbness and weakness in his bilateral lower extremity. A neurologic examination reveals 2/5 strength in his quadriceps and iliopsoas bilaterally, 2/5 strength in his right anterior tibialis and gastrocsoleus, and 1/5 strength in his left anterior tibialis and gastrocsoleus. Two hours later, strength in his lower extremities has diminished markedly. What is the best next step?
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During a minimally invasive surgery (MIS) to perform a lateral lumbar interbody fusion, approach to which level carries the highest risk of injury to the lumbar trunk?
During a minimally invasive surgery (MIS) to perform a lateral lumbar interbody fusion, approach to which level carries the highest risk of injury to the lumbar trunk?
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A patient has sustained the injury shown in the MRI scan in Figure

A patient has sustained the injury shown in the MRI scan in Figure
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Which intervention most effectively prevents surgical-site infections following spine surgery?
Which intervention most effectively prevents surgical-site infections following spine surgery?
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Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and MRI scans, respectively, of a 45-year-old hunter who sustains a fall down a 20-foot ravine, landing on his buttocks. Despite severe low back pain, he is able to walk out of the woods and call for help. Physical examination reveals 5/5 motor strength and normal sensation to light touch to lower extremities. What is the most appropriate additional test/study needed?

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and MRI scans, respectively, of a 45-year-old hunter who sustains a fall down a 20-foot ravine, landing on his buttocks. Despite severe low back pain, he is able to walk out of the woods and call for help. Physical examination reveals 5/5 motor strength and normal sensation to light touch to lower extremities. What is the most appropriate additional test/study needed?
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A 61-year-old woman has a history of a left thigh melanoma that was widely resected approximately 12 years ago. The patient also has a history of nephrolithiasis and has just undergone an abdominal CT scan for evaluation of her kidneys. The patient was incidentally found to have a lytic lesion of the sacrum. A radiograph is shown in Figure

A 61-year-old woman has a history of a left thigh melanoma that was widely resected approximately 12 years ago. The patient also has a history of nephrolithiasis and has just undergone an abdominal CT scan for evaluation of her kidneys. The patient was incidentally found to have a lytic lesion of the sacrum. A radiograph is shown in Figure
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A 35-year old man has had 8 weeks of progressive midback pain and persistent left thigh pain. He tried chiropractic manipulation and lumbar traction, which were both unsuccessful in pain relief. MRI scans reveal a left-sided L2-L3 foraminal disk herniation. He is subsequently referred to an interventional pain specialist. A left transforaminal epidural injection is scheduled. During the procedure, the patient develops rapid bilateral leg weakness and subsequent paraplegia. Post procedure MRI is shown in Figures 1 and

A 35-year old man has had 8 weeks of progressive midback pain and persistent left thigh pain. He tried chiropractic manipulation and lumbar traction, which were both unsuccessful in pain relief. MRI scans reveal a left-sided L2-L3 foraminal disk herniation. He is subsequently referred to an interventional pain specialist. A left transforaminal epidural injection is scheduled. During the procedure, the patient develops rapid bilateral leg weakness and subsequent paraplegia. Post procedure MRI is shown in Figures 1 and
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A 59-year-old woman with a history of gastric bypass 1 year ago and symptomatic L5S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis is seen. She has been symptomatic with bilateral leg pain for 6 months. She has tried physical therapy, selective nerve root injections, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with minimal relief. She is offered surgical intervention consisting of L5-S1 posterior spinal and interbody fusion along with a Gill laminectomy. As part of surgical planning, the surgeon should consider ordering
A 59-year-old woman with a history of gastric bypass 1 year ago and symptomatic L5S1 isthmic spondylolisthesis is seen. She has been symptomatic with bilateral leg pain for 6 months. She has tried physical therapy, selective nerve root injections, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs with minimal relief. She is offered surgical intervention consisting of L5-S1 posterior spinal and interbody fusion along with a Gill laminectomy. As part of surgical planning, the surgeon should consider ordering
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Figures 1 and 2 show CT images from a 24-year-old man who was the unrestrained driver in a single motor vehicle collision. By report, he was ejected from the vehicle and initially was found unresponsive. The patient was intubated in the field and then brought by ambulance to the emergency department, where he was resuscitated aggressively with crystalloid and blood transfusions. Radiographs were taken and showed an intracranial hemorrhage, which required emergent burr hole evacuation by Neurosurgery. In the intensive care unit, his blood pressure is 80/48, and his pulse is 48. He is breathing spontaneously on the ventilator at 16 breaths per minute. He can follow commands. Physical examination reveals absent motor function in the legs, no sensation below the nipple level, and a positive bulbocavernosus reflex. His skin is warm and dry. What best describes his condition?

Figures 1 and 2 show CT images from a 24-year-old man who was the unrestrained driver in a single motor vehicle collision. By report, he was ejected from the vehicle and initially was found unresponsive. The patient was intubated in the field and then brought by ambulance to the emergency department, where he was resuscitated aggressively with crystalloid and blood transfusions. Radiographs were taken and showed an intracranial hemorrhage, which required emergent burr hole evacuation by Neurosurgery. In the intensive care unit, his blood pressure is 80/48, and his pulse is 48. He is breathing spontaneously on the ventilator at 16 breaths per minute. He can follow commands. Physical examination reveals absent motor function in the legs, no sensation below the nipple level, and a positive bulbocavernosus reflex. His skin is warm and dry. What best describes his condition?
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In the MRI scan shown in Figure 1, what is it about this fracture pattern that increases its risk of nonunion?

In the MRI scan shown in Figure 1, what is it about this fracture pattern that increases its risk of nonunion?
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Figures 1 through 4 show the radiographs and MRI scans of a 69-year-old woman with neck and upper extremity pain and progressive deformity of the cervical spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Figures 1 through 4 show the radiographs and MRI scans of a 69-year-old woman with neck and upper extremity pain and progressive deformity of the cervical spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a patient with cervical spondylotic myelopathy disease. Considering outcome and complications, a surgeon selecting anterior decompression approaches to posterior decompression approaches will see

Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a patient with cervical spondylotic myelopathy disease. Considering outcome and complications, a surgeon selecting anterior decompression approaches to posterior decompression approaches will see
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Which type of thoracolumbar injury typically involves all three columns, is most mechanically unstable, and is most associated with complete spinal cord injury?
Which type of thoracolumbar injury typically involves all three columns, is most mechanically unstable, and is most associated with complete spinal cord injury?
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A 57-year-old man is involved in a rear-ended motor vehicle collision. He is able to leave his pickup and assist others involved in the collision. The next day he is seen in the emergency department with low back pain. The patient's radiograph and MRI scans of the lumbosacral spine are shown in Figures 1 through

A 57-year-old man is involved in a rear-ended motor vehicle collision. He is able to leave his pickup and assist others involved in the collision. The next day he is seen in the emergency department with low back pain. The patient's radiograph and MRI scans of the lumbosacral spine are shown in Figures 1 through
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A 57-year-old man has had a 2-week history of neck pain. He has no history of radiating symptoms, and has no complaints of numbness or paresthesias. There was no trauma associated with the onset of the pain. Figure 1 shows the MRI scan initially obtained by his family physician. What should the patient be told regarding the prevalence of the MRI findings in his age group?

A 57-year-old man has had a 2-week history of neck pain. He has no history of radiating symptoms, and has no complaints of numbness or paresthesias. There was no trauma associated with the onset of the pain. Figure 1 shows the MRI scan initially obtained by his family physician. What should the patient be told regarding the prevalence of the MRI findings in his age group?
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The use of demineralized bone matrix (DBM) for posterolateral lumbar fusion has been shown to
The use of demineralized bone matrix (DBM) for posterolateral lumbar fusion has been shown to
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Figures 1 through 3 are the sagittal and axial CT scans and sagittal T2 MR image of a 21-year-old man who was thrown from his motocross bike earlier in the day. He now has significant low-back pain; however, he is neurologically intact and has no trouble voiding urine. A standing plain radiograph obtained the next day is shown in Figure

Figures 1 through 3 are the sagittal and axial CT scans and sagittal T2 MR image of a 21-year-old man who was thrown from his motocross bike earlier in the day. He now has significant low-back pain; however, he is neurologically intact and has no trouble voiding urine. A standing plain radiograph obtained the next day is shown in Figure
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Which radiographic parameter is fixed as an adult (Figures 1 through 4)?

Which radiographic parameter is fixed as an adult (Figures 1 through 4)?
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Figure 1 is an axial MRI at the L4-5 level obtained from a 62-year-old man with a 6month history of severe right leg pain and weakness in the ankle dorsiflexors. He has numbness along the medial ankle and dorsolateral aspect of his foot. The structure identified by the arrow is compressing what neural structure?

Figure 1 is an axial MRI at the L4-5 level obtained from a 62-year-old man with a 6month history of severe right leg pain and weakness in the ankle dorsiflexors. He has numbness along the medial ankle and dorsolateral aspect of his foot. The structure identified by the arrow is compressing what neural structure?
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During the workup of her hearing loss, a 21-year-old woman had imaging which lead to further imaging of her spine shown in Figures 1 and

During the workup of her hearing loss, a 21-year-old woman had imaging which lead to further imaging of her spine shown in Figures 1 and
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Figures 1 through 3 represent the MRI scans from a 28-year-old man who was ejected from a car and sustained a cervical spine injury. He has no motor or sensory function below C5. In comparison to spinal cord injury without facet dislocation, jumped facets are associated with

Figures 1 through 3 represent the MRI scans from a 28-year-old man who was ejected from a car and sustained a cervical spine injury. He has no motor or sensory function below C5. In comparison to spinal cord injury without facet dislocation, jumped facets are associated with
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A 45-year-old man has had 3 months of increasing upper back pain, “balance" issues, and heaviness in his legs. His physical examination reveals a normal neurological examination, but he is noted to be anemic. His MRI scans and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 1 through

A 45-year-old man has had 3 months of increasing upper back pain, “balance" issues, and heaviness in his legs. His physical examination reveals a normal neurological examination, but he is noted to be anemic. His MRI scans and biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 1 through
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A 35-year-old man who has had a 6-month history of low back pain and tenderness now reports worsening pain and stiffness in the hips and entire back. An AP radiograph of the pelvis demonstrates fusion of the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
A 35-year-old man who has had a 6-month history of low back pain and tenderness now reports worsening pain and stiffness in the hips and entire back. An AP radiograph of the pelvis demonstrates fusion of the sacroiliac joints bilaterally. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
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Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 75-year-old patient who has a 1-year history of progressive low back pain. He reports difficulty ambulating, inability to sit for extended periods, and pain when arising from a seated position. His medical history is positive for coronary artery disease, type II diabetes, depression, and mild obesity (BMI 32). His surgical history is positive for a lumbar fusion 3 years previously. Laboratory studies show normal CBC and metabolic profile. HgbA1C is 6.3. What factor is most predictive of his perceived clinical outcome after revision surgery?

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 75-year-old patient who has a 1-year history of progressive low back pain. He reports difficulty ambulating, inability to sit for extended periods, and pain when arising from a seated position. His medical history is positive for coronary artery disease, type II diabetes, depression, and mild obesity (BMI 32). His surgical history is positive for a lumbar fusion 3 years previously. Laboratory studies show normal CBC and metabolic profile. HgbA1C is 6.3. What factor is most predictive of his perceived clinical outcome after revision surgery?
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Figures 1 and 2 are the lumbar spine radiographs of a 72-year-old man with no significant medical history who has had severe back pain for 3 weeks. He denies radiating symptoms, weakness, or numbness when he is seen in the emergency department. He is sent home with a soft corset. At his follow-up visit he continues to describe significant back pain with activity that is not relieved with oral narcotic mediations. A follow-up CT scan shows a nondisplaced fracture through all 3 columns of the spine. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Figures 1 and 2 are the lumbar spine radiographs of a 72-year-old man with no significant medical history who has had severe back pain for 3 weeks. He denies radiating symptoms, weakness, or numbness when he is seen in the emergency department. He is sent home with a soft corset. At his follow-up visit he continues to describe significant back pain with activity that is not relieved with oral narcotic mediations. A follow-up CT scan shows a nondisplaced fracture through all 3 columns of the spine. What is the most appropriate treatment?
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A 42-year-old woman has a 3-week history of acute lower back pain with radiation into the left lower extremity. There is no history of trauma and no systemic symptoms are noted. Examination reveals a positive straight leg test at 25 degrees on the left side. Motor testing reveals mild weakness of the gluteus maximus and weakness of the gastrocnemius at 3/5. Sensory examination reveals decreased sensation along the lateral aspect of the foot. Knee reflex is intact; however, the ankle reflex is absent. MRI scans show a posterolateral disk herniation. The diagnosis at this time is consistent with a herniated nucleus pulposus at what level?
A 42-year-old woman has a 3-week history of acute lower back pain with radiation into the left lower extremity. There is no history of trauma and no systemic symptoms are noted. Examination reveals a positive straight leg test at 25 degrees on the left side. Motor testing reveals mild weakness of the gluteus maximus and weakness of the gastrocnemius at 3/5. Sensory examination reveals decreased sensation along the lateral aspect of the foot. Knee reflex is intact; however, the ankle reflex is absent. MRI scans show a posterolateral disk herniation. The diagnosis at this time is consistent with a herniated nucleus pulposus at what level?
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Figures 1 and 2 are CT scans obtained from a 68-year-old man who has had progressive neck pain and stiffness, worsening gait imbalance, upper extremity weakness, early muscle fatigue, difficulty with fine motor control, and difficulty with activities of daily living over the past few years. On physical examination, he has a wide based stiff legged gait, generalized upper extremity weakness, dense sensory loss in the upper and lower extremities, and markedly brisk reflexes. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Figures 1 and 2 are CT scans obtained from a 68-year-old man who has had progressive neck pain and stiffness, worsening gait imbalance, upper extremity weakness, early muscle fatigue, difficulty with fine motor control, and difficulty with activities of daily living over the past few years. On physical examination, he has a wide based stiff legged gait, generalized upper extremity weakness, dense sensory loss in the upper and lower extremities, and markedly brisk reflexes. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
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A 28-year-old woman is having low back pain that wakes her up at night. A CT scan reveals a lytic lesion in the fifth lumbar vertebrae shown in Figure

A 28-year-old woman is having low back pain that wakes her up at night. A CT scan reveals a lytic lesion in the fifth lumbar vertebrae shown in Figure
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A 23-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department after a diving accident. Radiographs reveal bilateral jumped facets at C6-7. Examination reveals no motor function below the C7 level. There is some maintained sensation in the lower extremities. What is the patient's current grade on the ASIA (American Spinal Injury Association) impairment scale?
A 23-year-old man is evaluated in the emergency department after a diving accident. Radiographs reveal bilateral jumped facets at C6-7. Examination reveals no motor function below the C7 level. There is some maintained sensation in the lower extremities. What is the patient's current grade on the ASIA (American Spinal Injury Association) impairment scale?
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A 23-year-old woman was a restrained driver in a motor vehicle collision yesterday. She develops neck pain and goes to her primary care physician due to no improvement in degree of pain. She has no neurological deficits or radicular arm pain. Workup is negative for fracture. What is the best treatment for her injury shown in Figure 1?

A 23-year-old woman was a restrained driver in a motor vehicle collision yesterday. She develops neck pain and goes to her primary care physician due to no improvement in degree of pain. She has no neurological deficits or radicular arm pain. Workup is negative for fracture. What is the best treatment for her injury shown in Figure 1?
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Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 21-year-old man who has a long history of thoracic back pain. His lumbar spine is asymptomatic. He has failed prolonged nonsurgical treatment. Surgical correction should consist of

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 21-year-old man who has a long history of thoracic back pain. His lumbar spine is asymptomatic. He has failed prolonged nonsurgical treatment. Surgical correction should consist of
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A 73-year-old man goes to the emergency department after tripping and falling down roughly thirteen steps at home. Prior to the injury, the patient had well-controlled medical comorbidities and was independent with all activities of daily living. Figures 1 through 3 show the injury sustained by the patient. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?

A 73-year-old man goes to the emergency department after tripping and falling down roughly thirteen steps at home. Prior to the injury, the patient had well-controlled medical comorbidities and was independent with all activities of daily living. Figures 1 through 3 show the injury sustained by the patient. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?
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A 42-year-old woman reports neck stiffness, upper extremity pain, clumsiness, weakness, and instability of gait. Examination reveals 4+ of 5 strength in the upper extremities and 3+ biceps, brachioradialis, and patellar reflexes with a positive Hoffman sign bilaterally. MRI and CT scans are shown in Figures 1 and

A 42-year-old woman reports neck stiffness, upper extremity pain, clumsiness, weakness, and instability of gait. Examination reveals 4+ of 5 strength in the upper extremities and 3+ biceps, brachioradialis, and patellar reflexes with a positive Hoffman sign bilaterally. MRI and CT scans are shown in Figures 1 and
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Figures 1 through 7 are the radiograph, MRI, and CT scans of a 21-year-old developmentally delayed woman who complains of urinary urgency, low back pain, and gait disturbance. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?


Figures 1 through 7 are the radiograph, MRI, and CT scans of a 21-year-old developmentally delayed woman who complains of urinary urgency, low back pain, and gait disturbance. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
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Figures 1 and 2 are the MRIs obtained from a 58-year-old woman who has symptoms of neurogenic claudication. You elect to treat the patient with a lateral lumbar interbody fusion with posterior pedicle screw instrumentation but no direct neural decompression. When deciding on this treatment option, you consider that

Figures 1 and 2 are the MRIs obtained from a 58-year-old woman who has symptoms of neurogenic claudication. You elect to treat the patient with a lateral lumbar interbody fusion with posterior pedicle screw instrumentation but no direct neural decompression. When deciding on this treatment option, you consider that
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Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI and CT scans, respectively, of a 35-year-old woman with neck pain and decreased range of motion. What condition is associated with this syndrome?

Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI and CT scans, respectively, of a 35-year-old woman with neck pain and decreased range of motion. What condition is associated with this syndrome?
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A 69-year-old patient with diabetes has had acute-onset back pain and difficulty with ambulation for several hours. Evaluation reveals a temperature of 38.3°C, a white blood cell (WBC) count of 14000/μL (reference range [rr], 4500-11000/μL), C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 120 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 130 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h), normal rectal examination findings, and normal sensation to light touch. Motor function testing of the lower extremities reveals 3/5 ankle dorsiflexion and 4/5 plantar flexion strength bilaterally. An MR image reveals a large epidural abscess from L1-5. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
A 69-year-old patient with diabetes has had acute-onset back pain and difficulty with ambulation for several hours. Evaluation reveals a temperature of 38.3°C, a white blood cell (WBC) count of 14000/μL (reference range [rr], 4500-11000/μL), C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 120 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 130 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h), normal rectal examination findings, and normal sensation to light touch. Motor function testing of the lower extremities reveals 3/5 ankle dorsiflexion and 4/5 plantar flexion strength bilaterally. An MR image reveals a large epidural abscess from L1-5. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
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A 28-year-old Hispanic male assembly line worker sustains an injury while lifting a 40-lb bag onto a palette. He experiences immediate low back pain, and within 5 days, he develops severe left leg pain. His MRI scans are shown in Figures 1 and

A 28-year-old Hispanic male assembly line worker sustains an injury while lifting a 40-lb bag onto a palette. He experiences immediate low back pain, and within 5 days, he develops severe left leg pain. His MRI scans are shown in Figures 1 and
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Figure 1 is the sagittal MR image of a 56-year-old woman who has a 3-year history of severe back pain. Her pain is worse with flexion at the lumbosacral junction and is relieved with extension. She denies any pain in her lower extremities and has no symptoms of neurogenic claudication. Which mediators play roles in the pathogenesis of this condition?

Figure 1 is the sagittal MR image of a 56-year-old woman who has a 3-year history of severe back pain. Her pain is worse with flexion at the lumbosacral junction and is relieved with extension. She denies any pain in her lower extremities and has no symptoms of neurogenic claudication. Which mediators play roles in the pathogenesis of this condition?
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Percutaneous pedicle screw fixation can be used in the surgical treatment of adult patients with certain thoracolumbar spine fractures. A limitation of the use of percutaneous pedicle screw fixation for thoracolumbar trauma includes
Percutaneous pedicle screw fixation can be used in the surgical treatment of adult patients with certain thoracolumbar spine fractures. A limitation of the use of percutaneous pedicle screw fixation for thoracolumbar trauma includes
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Advanced imaging, to include MRI and CT, have been obtained in the workup of patients with low back pain. What imaging finding has been associated with reasons for back pain?
Advanced imaging, to include MRI and CT, have been obtained in the workup of patients with low back pain. What imaging finding has been associated with reasons for back pain?
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Figures 1 and 2 show the standing posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 59year-old woman with adult idiopathic scoliosis. She underwent a prior decompressive laminectomy and fusion at L4-S1 to address lumbar stenosis. She now reports progressive lower back pain and a feeling of being shifted to the right. If surgical intervention is considered, what is the most important goal in improving her healthrelated quality of life (HRQL) outcomes?

Figures 1 and 2 show the standing posteroanterior and lateral radiographs of a 59year-old woman with adult idiopathic scoliosis. She underwent a prior decompressive laminectomy and fusion at L4-S1 to address lumbar stenosis. She now reports progressive lower back pain and a feeling of being shifted to the right. If surgical intervention is considered, what is the most important goal in improving her healthrelated quality of life (HRQL) outcomes?
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A 72-year-old woman with a history of lumbar fusion has developed a fixed sagittal deformity for which she compensates with pelvic retroversion. She is unable to walk more than 20 feet because of pain, and she is interested in having a corrective surgery for this problem. She has been told that she will require a three-column osteotomy, along with long posterior thoracolumbar fusion. She has renal disease for which her medication must be adjusted to prevent further renal insufficiency. In addition, she has a remote history of popliteal venous thrombosis after a long flight. She is concerned about her risk of postoperative venous thromboembolism (VTE). How would you counsel her regarding the postoperative VTE?
A 72-year-old woman with a history of lumbar fusion has developed a fixed sagittal deformity for which she compensates with pelvic retroversion. She is unable to walk more than 20 feet because of pain, and she is interested in having a corrective surgery for this problem. She has been told that she will require a three-column osteotomy, along with long posterior thoracolumbar fusion. She has renal disease for which her medication must be adjusted to prevent further renal insufficiency. In addition, she has a remote history of popliteal venous thrombosis after a long flight. She is concerned about her risk of postoperative venous thromboembolism (VTE). How would you counsel her regarding the postoperative VTE?
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Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 15-year-old boy with scoliosis. He has back pain and spinal asymmetry. Examination reveals a spinal curvature without cutaneous manifestations. Neurological examination reveals a normal motor and sensory examination, normal deep tendon reflexes, present superficial abdominal reflexes, and negative Babinski sign. His MRI scans are shown in Figures 2 and

Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 15-year-old boy with scoliosis. He has back pain and spinal asymmetry. Examination reveals a spinal curvature without cutaneous manifestations. Neurological examination reveals a normal motor and sensory examination, normal deep tendon reflexes, present superficial abdominal reflexes, and negative Babinski sign. His MRI scans are shown in Figures 2 and
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A 69-year-old man has nonpainful weakness in the upper and lower extremities. He also notes progressive instability in his gait and increasing difficulty ambulating, as well as manipulating small objects with his hands. MRI scans of his cervical spine are shown in Figures 1 and

A 69-year-old man has nonpainful weakness in the upper and lower extremities. He also notes progressive instability in his gait and increasing difficulty ambulating, as well as manipulating small objects with his hands. MRI scans of his cervical spine are shown in Figures 1 and
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Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 67-year-old woman with ataxic gait and decreased hand dexterity. What has been implicated as being part of the pathophysiologic process leading to the patient’s symptoms?

Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 67-year-old woman with ataxic gait and decreased hand dexterity. What has been implicated as being part of the pathophysiologic process leading to the patient’s symptoms?
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Figures 1 through 3 show sagittal and axial MRIs and a radiograph from a 77-year-old woman with leg pain when standing and walking of 1 year duration. The pain improves when she leans forward. She has been in physical therapy, taken oral analgesics, and had epidural injections with minimal relief. What is the best next step?

Figures 1 through 3 show sagittal and axial MRIs and a radiograph from a 77-year-old woman with leg pain when standing and walking of 1 year duration. The pain improves when she leans forward. She has been in physical therapy, taken oral analgesics, and had epidural injections with minimal relief. What is the best next step?
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A 54-year-old man is diagnosed with a T6 chordoma. Which procedure can provide the least chance of recurrence?
A 54-year-old man is diagnosed with a T6 chordoma. Which procedure can provide the least chance of recurrence?
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What clinical scenario is most consistent with the MR image of the L4-L5 disk level shown in Figure 1?

What clinical scenario is most consistent with the MR image of the L4-L5 disk level shown in Figure 1?
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Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 51-year-old with back pain and right leg pain. The patient has a positive straight leg raise, full strength in the bilateral lower extremity, as well as intact sensation. What is the most common cause of the radicular leg pain?

Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 51-year-old with back pain and right leg pain. The patient has a positive straight leg raise, full strength in the bilateral lower extremity, as well as intact sensation. What is the most common cause of the radicular leg pain?
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After direct lateral (transpsoas) interbody fusion surgery at L3-4, a patient reports numbness in the scrotum, and ipsilateral anterior thigh pain develops. What is the most likely cause?
After direct lateral (transpsoas) interbody fusion surgery at L3-4, a patient reports numbness in the scrotum, and ipsilateral anterior thigh pain develops. What is the most likely cause?
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Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and MRI scans, respectively, of a 35-year-old woman who is injured in a small plane crash. Despite being seat-belted, she sustains a severe distal tibial fracture. She is conscious and complains of back and leg pain. She is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and MRI scans, respectively, of a 35-year-old woman who is injured in a small plane crash. Despite being seat-belted, she sustains a severe distal tibial fracture. She is conscious and complains of back and leg pain. She is neurologically intact. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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Figures 1 through 3 are the MR images and CT scan of a 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and smoking. He has a 6-week history of increasing midback pain, lower extremity pain, and weakness. What is the most likely diagnosis, and how should this diagnosis be confirmed?

Figures 1 through 3 are the MR images and CT scan of a 65-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and smoking. He has a 6-week history of increasing midback pain, lower extremity pain, and weakness. What is the most likely diagnosis, and how should this diagnosis be confirmed?
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Figures 1 through 4 are the MRI scans and radiograph of a 48-year-old woman who has chronic neck pain and severe lower back pain. The pain is constant and seems to worsen at night. Other subjective complaints include: sleep disturbance, difficulty maintaining concentration, chronic fatigue, migraine headaches, morning stiffness, forgetfulness, and difficulty with balance. She also describes frequent episodes of bilateral lower extremity burning-like pain. On examination, she has normal motor and sensory function in upper and lower extremities. She does, however, have multiple sites of palpable tenderness scattered throughout her body. She has tried massage therapy and chiropractic management in the past with marginal results.
Imaging is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Figures 1 through 4 are the MRI scans and radiograph of a 48-year-old woman who has chronic neck pain and severe lower back pain. The pain is constant and seems to worsen at night. Other subjective complaints include: sleep disturbance, difficulty maintaining concentration, chronic fatigue, migraine headaches, morning stiffness, forgetfulness, and difficulty with balance. She also describes frequent episodes of bilateral lower extremity burning-like pain. On examination, she has normal motor and sensory function in upper and lower extremities. She does, however, have multiple sites of palpable tenderness scattered throughout her body. She has tried massage therapy and chiropractic management in the past with marginal results.
Imaging is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment?
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A 78-year-old man is seen in the emergency room 3 hours after a fall from a standing position. The patient sustained a mild scalp laceration and the injury shown in Figure

A 78-year-old man is seen in the emergency room 3 hours after a fall from a standing position. The patient sustained a mild scalp laceration and the injury shown in Figure
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A 45-year-old woman recently had a cervical epidural injection to treat her cervical radicular symptoms. She is at the emergency department 3 days following the injection with worsening neck pain, headaches, and malaise. On examination, she is neurologically intact. MRI of the cervical spine shows an epidural abscess (Figure 1), and blood cultures are negative. If nonsurgical treatment is pursued, what factor is most predictive of success of nonoperative management?

A 45-year-old woman recently had a cervical epidural injection to treat her cervical radicular symptoms. She is at the emergency department 3 days following the injection with worsening neck pain, headaches, and malaise. On examination, she is neurologically intact. MRI of the cervical spine shows an epidural abscess (Figure 1), and blood cultures are negative. If nonsurgical treatment is pursued, what factor is most predictive of success of nonoperative management?
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An obtunded 80-year-old man was found alone in his apartment after an apparent fall. A CT scan performed in the emergency department shows that he has an extensile injury of an ankylosed cervical spine. The fracture extends across the ossified C5-C6 disk space and into the lamina of C5. There is 1.5 cm of widening between the C5 and C6 vertebrae anteriorly. The patient's family asks you about the long-term impact of the fracture on his functional capacity and survival. You advise them that patients with fractures of the cervical spine with ankylosing conditions have
An obtunded 80-year-old man was found alone in his apartment after an apparent fall. A CT scan performed in the emergency department shows that he has an extensile injury of an ankylosed cervical spine. The fracture extends across the ossified C5-C6 disk space and into the lamina of C5. There is 1.5 cm of widening between the C5 and C6 vertebrae anteriorly. The patient's family asks you about the long-term impact of the fracture on his functional capacity and survival. You advise them that patients with fractures of the cervical spine with ankylosing conditions have
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Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a patient with left leg pain. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a patient with left leg pain. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
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Figure 1 is the MRI from a 67-year-old man with severe neck pain 1 week following dental extraction. He has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, he is found to have grade 4 of 5 strength in the bilateral lower extremities.
He is febrile and has an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and an elevated Creactive protein level. His MRI reveals an epidural abscess. What is the best next step?

Figure 1 is the MRI from a 67-year-old man with severe neck pain 1 week following dental extraction. He has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, he is found to have grade 4 of 5 strength in the bilateral lower extremities.
He is febrile and has an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and an elevated Creactive protein level. His MRI reveals an epidural abscess. What is the best next step?
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A 60-year-old woman is at the emergency department with a one-week history of thoracic back pain along with fevers >103°F. She notes that her legs are becoming slightly numb over the last 24 hours, but she is able to walk normally and she has a normal lower extremity motor examination. Her medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus. Her WBC is 13x109 cells/liter. She would like to avoid surgery. Her T1-weighted post gadolinium MRI scans are shown in Figures 1 and

A 60-year-old woman is at the emergency department with a one-week history of thoracic back pain along with fevers >103°F. She notes that her legs are becoming slightly numb over the last 24 hours, but she is able to walk normally and she has a normal lower extremity motor examination. Her medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus. Her WBC is 13x109 cells/liter. She would like to avoid surgery. Her T1-weighted post gadolinium MRI scans are shown in Figures 1 and
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Figures 1 through 3 show the MRI scans of a 56-year-old woman with progressively worsening low back and bilateral lower extremity pain. Based on these images, what muscle or muscle group would be expected to be weak on physical examination?

Figures 1 through 3 show the MRI scans of a 56-year-old woman with progressively worsening low back and bilateral lower extremity pain. Based on these images, what muscle or muscle group would be expected to be weak on physical examination?
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In medical malpractice cases against spine surgeons, what factor is associated with a judgement for the plaintiff?
In medical malpractice cases against spine surgeons, what factor is associated with a judgement for the plaintiff?
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During the approach to the lumbar spine for an L4-L5 anterior lumbar interbody fusion, which structure generally is found overlying the anterior surface of the L4 vertebra?
During the approach to the lumbar spine for an L4-L5 anterior lumbar interbody fusion, which structure generally is found overlying the anterior surface of the L4 vertebra?
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What outcome measuring tool focuses on reliability; precision; and versatility, while mitigating administrative burden?
What outcome measuring tool focuses on reliability; precision; and versatility, while mitigating administrative burden?
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An 80-year-old man who was involved in a fall from ground height is evaluated in the emergency department for head lacerations and mild neck pain. Examination reveals only mild tenderness of the posterior neck region with some limitation of motion. Neurologic examination is normal. Radiographs of the cervical spine are shown in
Figures 1 and

An 80-year-old man who was involved in a fall from ground height is evaluated in the emergency department for head lacerations and mild neck pain. Examination reveals only mild tenderness of the posterior neck region with some limitation of motion. Neurologic examination is normal. Radiographs of the cervical spine are shown in
Figures 1 and
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An 83-year-old woman has leg pain with ambulation. She has tried physical therapy, oral analgesics, and injections, with minimal relief. The symptoms have been present for 1 year. Radiographs reveal an L4-5 spondylolisthesis and greater than 4 mm of motion on flexion-extension. MRI shows moderate to severe central and lateral recess stenosis. The patient should be informed that at her age, surgical intervention
An 83-year-old woman has leg pain with ambulation. She has tried physical therapy, oral analgesics, and injections, with minimal relief. The symptoms have been present for 1 year. Radiographs reveal an L4-5 spondylolisthesis and greater than 4 mm of motion on flexion-extension. MRI shows moderate to severe central and lateral recess stenosis. The patient should be informed that at her age, surgical intervention
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Figure 1 shows the standing lateral radiograph of a 62-year-old woman who reports lower back pain and the inability to stand upright. What permanent anatomic pelvic parameter should be measured and considered when determining the amount of lumbar lordosis correction that will be necessary to obtain sagittal balance?

Figure 1 shows the standing lateral radiograph of a 62-year-old woman who reports lower back pain and the inability to stand upright. What permanent anatomic pelvic parameter should be measured and considered when determining the amount of lumbar lordosis correction that will be necessary to obtain sagittal balance?
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Current U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved indications for cervical disk replacement include
Current U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved indications for cervical disk replacement include
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A 60-year-old woman has progressive neck pain, upper extremity pain, and paresthesias. A lateral cervical spine radiograph and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 1 and

A 60-year-old woman has progressive neck pain, upper extremity pain, and paresthesias. A lateral cervical spine radiograph and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 1 and
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A 73-year-old woman has back and leg pain. Imaging reveals a lumbar degenerative scoliosis. Nonsurgical management, consisting of physical therapy, medications, and injections, has failed. During the surgical planning, dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry is performed, and her T-score returns as -2.6. Intraoperative options to help reduce the risk of instrumentation failure include
A 73-year-old woman has back and leg pain. Imaging reveals a lumbar degenerative scoliosis. Nonsurgical management, consisting of physical therapy, medications, and injections, has failed. During the surgical planning, dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry is performed, and her T-score returns as -2.6. Intraoperative options to help reduce the risk of instrumentation failure include
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An otherwise healthy 47-year-old woman has numbness and weakness in her bilateral lower legs. Her physical examination reveals an ataxic gait and +3/4 patella and Achilles reflexes. Her upper extremity neurological examination is normal. Her MRI scans are shown in Figures 1 through

An otherwise healthy 47-year-old woman has numbness and weakness in her bilateral lower legs. Her physical examination reveals an ataxic gait and +3/4 patella and Achilles reflexes. Her upper extremity neurological examination is normal. Her MRI scans are shown in Figures 1 through
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Figures 1 through 3 show the CT and radiographs of a 45-year-old woman who has low back pain and severe left leg pain in the L5 distribution that is not responsive to nonoperative management (physical therapy, epidural injections, pain medications) for 9 months. What is an appropriate treatment option for this patient?

Figures 1 through 3 show the CT and radiographs of a 45-year-old woman who has low back pain and severe left leg pain in the L5 distribution that is not responsive to nonoperative management (physical therapy, epidural injections, pain medications) for 9 months. What is an appropriate treatment option for this patient?
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When posteriorly instrumenting the lumbar spine in the scoliosis shown in the radiograph in Figure 1, a compressive force across the convexity of the curve will result in

When posteriorly instrumenting the lumbar spine in the scoliosis shown in the radiograph in Figure 1, a compressive force across the convexity of the curve will result in
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Figures 1 and 2 are MR images of a 34-year-old man who is referred to your office by his primary care physician after failing 4 months of nonsurgical treatment that included epidural steroids for severe right arm pain occurring in a C6 distribution. He also has associated paresthesias in this region. The patient is weak in elbow flexion and wrist extension. What are his likely outcomes if he is treated with a posterior foraminotomy instead of anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF)?

Figures 1 and 2 are MR images of a 34-year-old man who is referred to your office by his primary care physician after failing 4 months of nonsurgical treatment that included epidural steroids for severe right arm pain occurring in a C6 distribution. He also has associated paresthesias in this region. The patient is weak in elbow flexion and wrist extension. What are his likely outcomes if he is treated with a posterior foraminotomy instead of anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion (ACDF)?
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Interspinous devices work by distracting the posterior elements and widening the spinal canal via blockage of the spinous process. It can be performed with or without a decompression. The use of interspinous devices increases
Interspinous devices work by distracting the posterior elements and widening the spinal canal via blockage of the spinous process. It can be performed with or without a decompression. The use of interspinous devices increases
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Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He was wearing his seat belt and is now complaining of midthoracic back pain. Radiographs in the emergency department do not reveal a fracture. What is the most appropriate next step?

Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a patient who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He was wearing his seat belt and is now complaining of midthoracic back pain. Radiographs in the emergency department do not reveal a fracture. What is the most appropriate next step?
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With regards to cervical surgery, the perioperative risk of venous thromboembolic
(VTE) disease is increased by
With regards to cervical surgery, the perioperative risk of venous thromboembolic
(VTE) disease is increased by
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A 56-year-old man has had a 2-year history of slowly progressive neck pain and bilateral arm aching. Over the past year, he has noticed intermittent, diffuse numbness in both hands, with decreased grip strength and mild hand clumsiness. He denies any problems with balance. Examination shows a wide-based gait, intrinsic wasting, and a positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is shown in Figure

A 56-year-old man has had a 2-year history of slowly progressive neck pain and bilateral arm aching. Over the past year, he has noticed intermittent, diffuse numbness in both hands, with decreased grip strength and mild hand clumsiness. He denies any problems with balance. Examination shows a wide-based gait, intrinsic wasting, and a positive Hoffman's sign bilaterally. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is shown in Figure
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A 24-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision. A CT scan of the cervical spine shows the injury in Figures 1 and

A 24-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle collision. A CT scan of the cervical spine shows the injury in Figures 1 and
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What is the chief mechanism of action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the treatment of patients with osteoporosis?
What is the chief mechanism of action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the treatment of patients with osteoporosis?
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A 20-year-old woman involved in a motor vehicle collision sustains a C4 burst fracture and an incomplete spinal cord injury. The patient undergoes urgent surgical decompression and stabilization. She is admitted to the intensive care unit with an arterial line place and mean arterial pressure (MAP) elevated to >85 mmHg. What is the underlying premise for elevating the MAPs following spinal cord injury?
A 20-year-old woman involved in a motor vehicle collision sustains a C4 burst fracture and an incomplete spinal cord injury. The patient undergoes urgent surgical decompression and stabilization. She is admitted to the intensive care unit with an arterial line place and mean arterial pressure (MAP) elevated to >85 mmHg. What is the underlying premise for elevating the MAPs following spinal cord injury?
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A 78-year-old woman has a history of chronic low back pain. She denies any extremity problems. Her pain is worse in the morning, and gets better, although it does not go away, as the day goes on. An MRI scan of the lumbar spine is shown in Figure

A 78-year-old woman has a history of chronic low back pain. She denies any extremity problems. Her pain is worse in the morning, and gets better, although it does not go away, as the day goes on. An MRI scan of the lumbar spine is shown in Figure
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A 22-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle crash. He is neurologically intact. His CT scan and MRI scans, respectively, are shown in Figures 1 through

A 22-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle crash. He is neurologically intact. His CT scan and MRI scans, respectively, are shown in Figures 1 through
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A 29-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department with a 24-hour history of severe back and leg pain precipitated by weight-lifting. The patient reports bilateral leg pain and is unable to urinate. She has dense anesthesia in the perineal region on examination. A MRI scan is shown in Figure

A 29-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department with a 24-hour history of severe back and leg pain precipitated by weight-lifting. The patient reports bilateral leg pain and is unable to urinate. She has dense anesthesia in the perineal region on examination. A MRI scan is shown in Figure
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The risk for perioperative venous thromboembolism (VTE) during spine surgery is most associated with
The risk for perioperative venous thromboembolism (VTE) during spine surgery is most associated with
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Figures 1 and 2 are the CT and MR spine images of an 82-year-old man who has a history of ankylosing spondylitis falls onto his back. He has no neurologic deficits upon examination in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate next step?

Figures 1 and 2 are the CT and MR spine images of an 82-year-old man who has a history of ankylosing spondylitis falls onto his back. He has no neurologic deficits upon examination in the emergency department. What is the most appropriate next step?
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Compared with iliac crest bone graft, rh2 bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) has a higher rate of
Compared with iliac crest bone graft, rh2 bone morphogenetic protein (BMP) has a higher rate of
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Figure 1 depicts the cervical MRI from a 40-year-old woman with a 1-month history of neck pain, neck stiffness, and electric-like right arm pain with certain neck movements. She has tried anti-inflammatory medication for the pain. On physical examination, she has a normal tandem gait, her motor and sensory functions are intact, and she has normal reflexes. She displays a positive Spurling sign. The patient states that she can relieve her symptoms temporarily by raising her right arm over her head. What is the best next step?

Figure 1 depicts the cervical MRI from a 40-year-old woman with a 1-month history of neck pain, neck stiffness, and electric-like right arm pain with certain neck movements. She has tried anti-inflammatory medication for the pain. On physical examination, she has a normal tandem gait, her motor and sensory functions are intact, and she has normal reflexes. She displays a positive Spurling sign. The patient states that she can relieve her symptoms temporarily by raising her right arm over her head. What is the best next step?
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A 36-year-old man has a 2-day history of acute lower back pain with severe radicular symptoms in the left lower extremity. The patient has a positive straight leg test at 40 degrees on the left side and mild decreased sensation on the dorsum of the left foot. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
A 36-year-old man has a 2-day history of acute lower back pain with severe radicular symptoms in the left lower extremity. The patient has a positive straight leg test at 40 degrees on the left side and mild decreased sensation on the dorsum of the left foot. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
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Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 68-year-old woman who fell out of a second story building and sustained a U-shaped sacral fracture. She is neurologically intact and has no other major injuries. The patient is offered the option of either lumbopelvic fixation or iliosacral fixation of her U-shaped sacral fracture. The patient inquires as to the advantage lumbopelvic as compared with iliosacral screw fixation. She should be told that lumbopelvic fixation

Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 68-year-old woman who fell out of a second story building and sustained a U-shaped sacral fracture. She is neurologically intact and has no other major injuries. The patient is offered the option of either lumbopelvic fixation or iliosacral fixation of her U-shaped sacral fracture. The patient inquires as to the advantage lumbopelvic as compared with iliosacral screw fixation. She should be told that lumbopelvic fixation
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Which of the angles depicted in Figure 1 has been found to most closely correlate with a patient's lumbar lordosis, thoracic kyphosis, and overall sagittal alignment?

Which of the angles depicted in Figure 1 has been found to most closely correlate with a patient's lumbar lordosis, thoracic kyphosis, and overall sagittal alignment?
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Which injury has been shown to have the greatest impact on quality of life in a 35year-old man with a traumatic sacral fracture?
Which injury has been shown to have the greatest impact on quality of life in a 35year-old man with a traumatic sacral fracture?
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Figures 1 through 3 are the preoperative radiographs and a T2-weighted MR image of a patient treated with surgery for spondylolisthesis and neuroforaminal stenosis. Figure 4 is the postsurgical radiograph. Interbody fusion offers which advantage over posterolateral fusion (PLF)?

Figures 1 through 3 are the preoperative radiographs and a T2-weighted MR image of a patient treated with surgery for spondylolisthesis and neuroforaminal stenosis. Figure 4 is the postsurgical radiograph. Interbody fusion offers which advantage over posterolateral fusion (PLF)?
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On examination, a clinician finds that a patient has difficulty with grip and release, loss of motor strength, sensory changes, intrinsic wasting, the finger escape sign, and spasticity. These findings are best described as
On examination, a clinician finds that a patient has difficulty with grip and release, loss of motor strength, sensory changes, intrinsic wasting, the finger escape sign, and spasticity. These findings are best described as
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Figures 1 through 3 show the radiograph and CT images of a 68-year-old woman who sustained a cervical injury after tripping over her cat. She has mild facial trauma, which includes a broken upper incisor and a nonsurgical nasal fracture. She is neurologically intact. Her past medical history is consistent with obstructive sleep apnea, non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (hemoglobin A1c level of 9.0), and morbid obesity, with a body mass index of 40. What is the preferred treatment for this patient?

Figures 1 through 3 show the radiograph and CT images of a 68-year-old woman who sustained a cervical injury after tripping over her cat. She has mild facial trauma, which includes a broken upper incisor and a nonsurgical nasal fracture. She is neurologically intact. Her past medical history is consistent with obstructive sleep apnea, non–insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (hemoglobin A1c level of 9.0), and morbid obesity, with a body mass index of 40. What is the preferred treatment for this patient?
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A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by paramedics following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He has obvious head trauma as seen by bilateral periorbital ecchymoses, substantial facial swelling, and a large bitemporal scalp laceration. He is not alert, but he is responsive to painful stimuli, and he moves all four extremities. What radiographic test would you order first to assess his cervical spine for potential injury?
A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by paramedics following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He has obvious head trauma as seen by bilateral periorbital ecchymoses, substantial facial swelling, and a large bitemporal scalp laceration. He is not alert, but he is responsive to painful stimuli, and he moves all four extremities. What radiographic test would you order first to assess his cervical spine for potential injury?
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A 65-year-old otherwise healthy woman has had 7 months of progressive low back pain that prevents her from sleeping at night. Her MRI scan is shown in Figures 1 and

A 65-year-old otherwise healthy woman has had 7 months of progressive low back pain that prevents her from sleeping at night. Her MRI scan is shown in Figures 1 and