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Pediatric Orthopaedic Self Ass Review | Dr Hutaif Pedia -...

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Pediatric Orthopaedic Self Ass Review | Dr Hutaif Pedia -...
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Pediatric Orthopaedic MCQS Self-Assessment Examination 2020

QUESTION 1
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of an 11-year-old girl who is having right elbow pain after “trying to beat up a snowman.” She cannot extend her elbow, has point tenderness to palpation over the proximal ulna. Her underlying condition is associated with a mutation in which gene?
1
Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)
2
Diastrophic dysplasia sulfate transporter (DTDST)
3
COL1A1, COL1A2
4
COL2A1
QUESTION 2
of 100
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 7-year-old girl who sustained complex orthopaedic injuries falling from an all-terrain vehicle. She underwent successful treatment, which healed all of the injuries with no evidence of avascular necrosis or physeal arrest of the right proximal femur, but complete physeal arrest of the distal femur is noted 12 months post-injury. She returns at age 13 years complaining of leg-length discrepancy (LLD). Bone age is age 13. Based on her predicted leg length discrepancy at maturity, which procedure is most appropriate?
1
Contralateral closed femoral shortening
2
Limb lengthening with distraction osteogenesis
3
Open Phemister epiphysiodesis of the contralateral femur
4
Guided growth epiphysiodesis of the contralateral distal femur ■
QUESTION 3
of 100
A 13-year-old boy is complaining of elbow and wrist pain following a fall off a bike. Radiographs are taken in the emergency department (Figures 1 through 4). The wrist injury is unstable, and the patient is taken to the operating room for closed reduction and pinning of the distal radius fracture, closed treatment of the proximal fractures. Subsequent to surgery, the patient is noted to have increased irritability and progressively requires more IV pain medication throughout the night. He is anxious, argumentative, and refuses to comply with neurovascular assessments of his upper extremity. What is the best next step in treatment for this patient?
1
Provide diazepam (Valium) for anxiety and muscle spasms
2
Continue with ice, elevation, anti-inflammatory drugs to improve pain and swelling
3
Measure compartment pressures within the volar and dorsal forearm compartments
4
Return to the operating room for emergent volar and dorsal compartment fasciotomies
QUESTION 4
of 100
Figure 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 5-year-old girl who is being evaluated for back pain and intermittent headaches. Her parents deny any injury, changes in bowel or bladder function, or significant family history. Her neurological exam is normal. What is the best next step in her management?
1
Physical therapy
2
Observation
3
MRI of the entire spine
4
Thoracolumbar sacral orthosis (TLSO)
QUESTION 5
of 100
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 4-year-old girl who is being evaluated for genu varum. She has a family history of bowed legs and short stature. She has a mutation in the PHEX gene. Identify the laboratory studies most consistent with this diagnosis.
1
Decreased phosphorus, increased serum alkaline phosphatase, normal calcium and vitamin D 25-OH
2
Decreased phosphorus and calcium, increased serum alkaline phosphatase and increased PTH, decreased 1,25 OH vitamin D
3
Increased phosphorus, increased calcium, decreased alkaline phosphatase
4
Increased phosphorus, decreased calcium, increased alkaline phosphatase, and increased PTH
QUESTION 6
of 100
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 7-month-old boy who is being evaluated for an isolated right forefoot deformity that has not improved over time. His parents are worried about difficulty with shoe wear in the future. In addition to excising the duplicated medial digit, what is the most appropriate combined procedure to perform on this patient?
1
Osteotomy of the first metatarsal
2
Physiolysis
3
Osteotomy of the proximal phalanx
4
Release of the abductor hallucis muscle
QUESTION 7
of 100
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after one week of left shoulder pain after lifting weights. He is also complaining of fever, chills, nausea, and fatigue. He appears in distress; his skin is mottled. He decompensates and is transferred to the ICU. Vital signs are temperature of 39.4°C, heart rate 165 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/55. WBC count at admission is 22.4; CRP level is 37.7 mg/dL. Which antibiotic should be started empirically?
1
Vancomycin
2
Clindamycin
3
Ticarcillin-clavulanate
4
Cefazolin
QUESTION 8
of 100
Which factor leads to the worst long-term prognosis in slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), most likely requiring total hip arthroplasty (THA)?
1
Avascular necrosis (AVN)
2
Age at onset of SCFE
3
Slip severity or slip angle
4
Femoral acetabular impingement (FAI) with degenerative changes
QUESTION 9
of 100
Figures 1 through 4 are the injury radiographs and postsurgical open treatment radiographs of a 13-year-old girl who fell while on a trampoline and sustained an injury to her right-dominant elbow. The skin is closed and she has normal vascular and neurologic examination findings. Which complication most likely could occur as a result of this injury and treatment?
1
Compartment syndrome
2
Loss of elbow motion
3
Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the radial head
4
Nonunion of the fracture site
QUESTION 10
of 100
Second-impact syndrome following a concussion
1
poses minimal concern for morbidity or mortality.
2
is less common in adolescents than in adults.
3
is related to a disruption of cerebral autoregulation.
4
refers to a second head injury after the athlete has been medically cleared to return to play.
QUESTION 11
of 100
Figure 1 is the initial radiograph of a 7-year-old boy who fell from monkey bars 4 hours ago. He has intact motor function in his fingers and normal capillary refill, but his radial pulse is not palpable. Figures 2 and 3 are the radiographs following closed reduction and pinning. This boy's hand and fingers remain pink, but his radial pulse remains nonpalpable. What is the best next step?
1
An arteriogram to evaluate the brachial artery
2
Open exploration and repair of the brachial artery
3
Pin removal to rereduce the fracture
4
Additional splinting and continued observation in the hospital
QUESTION 12
of 100
Figures 1 through 3 are the clinical photograph and radiographs of a 5-year-old boy who fell and injured his right elbow. His radial pulse is thready. Which neurologic deficit is most commonly associated with this injury?
1
Anesthesia in the first dorsal web space
2
Inability to extend the fingers
3
Inability to abduct the fingers
4
Inability to flex the thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint
QUESTION 13
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs after attempted reduction of an injury in a 9-year-old girl. Which anatomic structure is most likely to be interposed?
1
Brachialis muscle
2
Radial nerve
3
Median nerve
4
Ulnar nerve
QUESTION 14
of 100
A 17-year-old cross country athlete runs 7 miles per day, 6 days per week. She has new-onset right groin pain. Passive flexion of her hip is normal, but internal rotation of the hip, resisted hip flexion, and knee extension reproduce the pain. Hip radiograph findings are normal. What is the best next step?
1
Recommend decreasing training regimen
2
Obtain a bone scan
3
Obtain an MRI scan
4
Obtain a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
QUESTION 15
of 100
A 5-year-old boy has an asymptomatic 2.5 by 1.5-cm soft-tissue mass in the popliteal fossa of the right knee (Figure 1). His mother noted the mass when giving the child a bath last week. The mass trans illuminates.
Radiographs were normal and ultrasonography demonstrated a cystic mass. The best next step in treatment is
1
obtain an MRI scan because the mass in highly associated with a torn discoid lateral meniscus in children.
2
surgical excision of the mass and send the specimen to pathology.
3
chest CT, complete blood count (CBC), erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP) level, and refer the patient to an oncologist.
4
observation.
QUESTION 16
of 100
Physeal sparing and physeal respecting anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction techniques have been developed for use in skeletally immature athletes to minimize the risk of
1
tibial procurvatum and meniscal tears.
2
limb length inequality and tibial procurvatum.
3
tibial recurvatum and angular deformity.
4
chondral damage and femoral varus angulation.
QUESTION 17
of 100
A 12-year-old girl soccer player has a 4-week history of pain, swelling, and tenderness of the right knee. She has not started her menstrual periods. The patient practices 4 nights per week and plays up to 4 games each weekend but is now unable to compete because of the pain. Examination reveals a tender mass at the right tibial tubercle. The cruciate ligaments are stable and the meniscal signs are negative. She demonstrates an antalgic limp. Radiographs are shown in Figures 1 and

1
The best next step is ![img](/media/upload/zCJ1IPQublKaBhasxKs00ziu9dQ0rAa1ZLI--fWln71yqHMMKNSB317u-EdZE6q1jC3OUCxmRzpWjEm-Wu959mIb2N8Jw0uQPlFps2KxxxpLjsN7N3TI01s19Lbed44zno-K5GC4cBsnmpD9rSuEUuImkZVCDNP9KH96eMJGGjgG6nrYPiHTt0QluSyS)
2
obtain an MRI scan of the knee and a CT scan of the chest.
3
complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein level, and blood cultures.
4
immediate surgical excision of the tibial tubercle ossicle.
5
ice, rest from soccer, and NSAIDs.
QUESTION 18
of 100
Which of the radiographs reveals an atypical spine manifestation for patients who are known to have rhizomelic dwarfism and fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 mutation?
1
Figure 1
2
Figure 2
3
Figure 3
4
Figure 4
QUESTION 19
of 100
Figures 1 through 4 are the lateral, oblique, and AP radiographs of an 11-year-old boy who presents to the clinic with complaints of activity-related pain in his right foot, progressive flatfoot deformity, and frequent ankle sprains. On examination, he has slightly increased hindfoot valgus compared with the opposite side with mild flatfoot, and his arch does not improve with toe raise. What is the best next step in evaluation?
1
MRI of the foot and ankle
2
CT scan of the foot
3
Complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein level
4
Referral to a rheumatologist
QUESTION 20
of 100
An 11-year-old gymnast sustains a right dominant elbow dislocation. She undergoes a closed reduction in the emergency department with conscious sedation. Figures 1 and 2 are the postreduction radiographs. The best next step in treatment is
1
cast application with follow-up in 2 to 3 weeks.
2
MRI of the elbow to look for ligamentous injuries.
3
CT scan to assess the intra-articular bone anatomy.
4
open reduction and internal fixation.
QUESTION 21
of 100
Figure 1 is the AP radiograph of a 22-month-old toddler who is being evaluated for bowed legs. His parents note that the deformity seems to be worsening and that it does not appear to cause any pain. Clinically, the child has severe genu varum with tibiofemoral angles of 25 degrees. The best next step in management should be
1
parental reassurance.
2
institute brace treatment.
3
schedule for corrective osteotomy.
4
send for blood work, calcium, phosphorus, alkaline phosphatase, and vitamin D, as well as renal function tests.
QUESTION 22
of 100
A 2-week-old, otherwise healthy neonate presents at the emergency department with a 1-day history of fever, pain with diaper changes, and poor feeding. The complete blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and white blood cell count are all elevated. On examination, the baby holds the leg flexed, abducted, and externally rotated and has pain with any attempts at ranging the hip. Plain radiographs are negative, but hip ultrasonography shows a large hip joint effusion. The patient is taken to the operating room and undergoes a hip aspirate and irrigation and debridement of this septic hip. What is the most likely organism causing the infection?
1
Beta-hemolytic streptococcus
2
Haemophilus influenzae
3
Kingella kingae
4
Escherichia coli
QUESTION 23
of 100
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 6-year-old 40-kg boy who landed awkwardly onto his left leg on a trampoline. He has immediate pain and deformity of the thigh and is unable to ambulate. His canal diameter is 7 cm, and he is treated with two 3.0-mm titanium flexible elastic nails (TENs) and nonweightbearing. His fracture shortens 2 cm postoperatively and falls into 20 degrees of varus angulation. What characteristic is most responsible for the malunion?
1
His weight exceeds recommendations for TENs.
2
He had inadequately sized TENs placed.
3
His fracture pattern is rotationally unstable.
4
His fracture pattern is length-unstable.
QUESTION 24
of 100
When compared with intravenous (IV) antibiotics via a peripherally inserted central catheter, postdischarge treatment of pediatric acute osteomyelitis with oral antibiotics is associated with a
1
lower rate of treatment failure.
2
higher rate of treatment failure.
3
lower rate of rehospitalization or return visit to the emergency department.
4
higher rate of rehospitalization or return visit to the emergency department.
QUESTION 25
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 12-year-old boy who has been experiencing increased pain in his right, dominant elbow while pitching. He notes that his velocity is decreasing, and he can no longer throw as many pitches without discomfort. Examination reveals tenderness on palpation of his medial distal humerus, but no evidence is seen of instability to valgus stress at either 0° or 30° of elbow flexion. What is the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
1
Cessation of throwing for at least 4 to 6 weeks
2
Surgical fixation of the medial epicondyle
3
MRI evaluation of the elbow
4
Surgical reconstruction of the ulnar collateral ligament
QUESTION 26
of 100
A 3-year-old girl is seen for an evaluation of short stature. Physical examination reveals angular deformities of the upper and lower extremities, as well as blue coloration of the sclera and abnormal dentition. Lower extremity imaging shows diffuse osteopenia and mild angular deformities of the tibia and femur bilaterally. These physical and radiographic findings are consistent with a genetic abnormality that most commonly affects the formation of which type of collagen?
1
Type I
2
Type II
3
Type IV
4
Type X
QUESTION 27
of 100
A 5-year-old girl sustained a nondisplaced fracture of the proximal tibial metaphysis, which was treated with a long leg cast and which healed uneventfully. Clinical examination and the image seen in Figure 1 reveals a deformity at 1 year postinjury. The most appropriate management at this time would be
1
continued observation.
2
MRI evaluation of the proximal tibia.
3
medial proximal tibial-guided growth procedure.
4
Proximal tibial osteotomy and acute realignment.
QUESTION 28
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the AP and lateral radiographs of a 5-year-old African-American boy who has a 1-month history of pain and swelling in his upper arm. His mother reports a medical history that includes sickle cell disease. Laboratory studies demonstrate elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level, and a white blood cell count of 17,000. What organism is most likely associated with this process in the patient?
1
Salmonella
2
Group B streptococcus
3
Staphylococcus aureus
4
Kingella kingae
QUESTION 29
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are MR images of a 13-year-old boy with activity-related left knee pain and swelling without mechanical symptoms. He does not have a history of a clear injury but has been having symptoms for 8 months. He has taken a month here and there off from his sports, without real relief. The best next step in management is to
1
provide a knee brace so that he can continue to play with less pain.
2
restrict weightbearing, initiate immobilization, and recheck imaging in 6 weeks.
3
refer him to physical therapy for patellofemoral pain and quadriceps strengthening.
4
offer arthroscopic surgery for correction of the problem.
QUESTION 30
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 25-month-old boy who sustained an isolated right leg injury leaping from the couch. The patient underwent closed manipulation with immediate spica-cast application. One week following the injury, radiographs in the cast reveal just <2 cm of shortening at the fracture. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
1
Continue cast immobilization
2
Remanipulation of the fracture with revision spica-cast application
3
Open reduction with internal fixation
4
Closed reduction with flexible intramedullary nailing
QUESTION 31
of 100
Figures 1 through 4 are the radiographs and clinical photograph of a 6-month-old girl whose parents are seeking a second opinion of her feet. Since birth, her parents noted bilateral foot deformities, with some improvement in flexibility and alignment achieved with a stretching program recommended by her pediatrician. What is the most appropriate course of action?
1
Continue with stretching program. These deformities are expected to resolve; no formal treatment needed
2
Reverse Ponseti serial casting with stabilization of the talonavicular joint and Achilles tenotomy
3
Ponseti casting for 5 to 7 weeks followed by Achilles tenotomy and bracing
4
Single-stage extensive surgical soft-tissue release
QUESTION 32
of 100
Figures 1 through 4 are the AP and lateral radiographs and MR images of a 12-year-old postmenarchal girl who injured her right knee playing basketball 2 weeks ago. She developed significant swelling and pain and was unable to bear weight. How should the family be counseled regarding expectations and outcomes following this injury?
1
Surgical reconstruction should be delayed until skeletal maturity
2
Her risk of repeat injury to the knee is the same as that of skeletally mature individuals undergoing similar reconstructions
3
She has a significant risk of sustaining a similar injury to the contralateral knee
4
She will not be able to return to sports that require cutting and pivoting
QUESTION 33
of 100
Figures 1 through 5 are the AP and lateral radiographs and MR images of a 16-year-old boy who has a 1-year history of low back pain. The pain bothers him only at night, and it awakens him from sleep. NSAIDs allow him to return to sleep. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?

1
Radiofrequency ablation
2
Chemotherapy
3
Radiation therapy
4
Excision
QUESTION 34
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the clinical photographs of a 2-month-old infant with a foot deformity. The parents have been doing stretching exercises at home with some improvement in foot position. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?
1
Institute serial casting and schedule for surgical intervention
2
Provide parental reassurance and follow-up as needed
3
Commence brace treatment until deformity is corrected
4
Obtain AP and lateral tibia views, and plan follow-up until maturity
QUESTION 35
of 100
Figures 1 through 4 are the radiographs and MRI of a 7-year-old girl who came to the emergency department with a one-week history of ankle pain. For the past 24 hours, she has refused to bear weight. There is no history of injury or antecedent systemic infection. She has had an episodic low-grade fever. She has a mildly elevated WBC count, and CRP and ESR levels. Blood cultures are pending. The best next step in treatment should be to
1
refer to a musculoskeletal oncologist.
2
perform operative debridement and begin antibiotics.
3
perform a needle biopsy for source culture.
4
start broad-spectrum antibiotics and assess response to treatment.
QUESTION 36
of 100
A 2-year-old girl has a 1-day history of refusal to bear weight. She has had a low-grade fever. On examination, her knee is warm, red, and swollen and her range of motion (ROM) is limited. Hip and ankle ROM are painfree. ESR and CRP levels are mildly elevated, and her WBC count is 12,000. Knee aspirate has a WBC of 20,000 with no organisms seen. The most appropriate next step in confirming the diagnosis is to
1
obtain an MRI of the lower extremity.
2
await culture results.
3
send synovial fluid for polymerase chain reaction for Kingella kingae.
4
acquire blood cultures.
QUESTION 37
of 100
A 10-year-old right-hand dominant boy has a radial neck fracture that is angulated 70°. He undergoes two attempts at closed reduction with sedation in the emergency department and post-reduction films now show 50° of angulation. The best next step in treatment is
1
application of a long arm cast in 70-90° of flexion with follow-up in 3 weeks.
2
immediate open reduction and internal fixation in the operating room.
3
percutaneous reduction with or without internal fixation in the operating room.
4
repeat closed reduction in the emergency department with application of a long arm posterior splint.
QUESTION 38
of 100
A 4-week-old girl is referred for an evaluation of her hips. She was the product of a full-term uncomplicated pregnancy. She was delivered by Cesarean section because of breech presentation. She has an older sister treated for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). On examination her hips are stable on Barlow and Ortolani testing. Her primary care practitioner obtained a bilateral dynamic hip ultrasonography. On the ultrasound exam, both hips are stable with stress. The alpha angles are 53°, and there is 48% femoral head coverage. What is the best next step in management?
1
Application of a Pavlik harness
2
No treatment with no scheduled follow-up
3
Closed reduction under general anesthesia with application of a spica cast
4
Repeat ultrasonography in 4-6 weeks
QUESTION 39
of 100
The radiographs (Figures 1 and

1
demonstrate the phenotype for mutation of * **![img](/media/upload/ewZ4pZiTRZGG42miBS5ch6W__8aAO6_tvmpRSigInjTL4mAsbCyV81t9cO1SvstQvZ18tBLguprVyc27W_1GTyZ-pkDAVO5ENpxfxMCJznFiQP3YaZswwtCu4kVHj4dIfUFlraaghBbAPeLxZgTOk3_NI8-rfX-q1w8m143w2Yk5JALDxQpU8ndVsKAg)
2
EXT1 and EXT2 genes.
3
COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes.
4
NF1 gene.
5
FGFR-3 gene.
**
QUESTION 40
of 100
A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with osteomyelitis and subperiosteal abscess of the distal tibia demonstrated on the MRI. CRP is 13 mg/l. He is taken to the operating room (OR) for incision and drainage. Intraoperative cultures as well as blood cultures grow methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). On postoperative day 2, he develops swelling in the leg, as well as an increased oxygen requirement. What should be the next step in evaluation?
1
Repeat MRI of the leg
2
CT scan of chest
3
Radiograph of chest
4
Return to the OR for repeat incision and drainage
QUESTION 41
of 100
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 12-month-old girl with a history of type 3 fibroblast growth factor receptor mutation, rhizomelic shortening of the limbs, and dwarfism who is noted to have a thoracolumbar kyphosis (TLK) of 25°. Spontaneous resolution of her thoracolumbar kyphosis is closely associated with
1
appropriate developmental motor progress.
2
absence of ventriculoperitoneal shunt.
3
foramen magnum decompression.
4
gender.
QUESTION 42
of 100
Figures 1 through 5 are the clinical photographs and radiographs of a 7-year-old boy who has a history of a left elbow supracondylar fracture treated with closed reduction and pinning one year ago. He is referred due to a left arm deformity the family is noticing over the last year. He has no pain. What most accurately describes the nature of this deformity?
1
A cosmetic problem
2
It could lead to tardy posteromedial rotatory instability
3
A varus, extension, and rotational deformity of the distal humerus
4
It has no long-term sequela
QUESTION 43
of 100
1
missense mutation of the alpha subunit of the G protein (GNSA1).
2
translocation of chromosome 11 and 12.
3
mutation of EXT1 and EXT2 genes.
4
mutations of COLA1 and COLA2 genes.
QUESTION 44
of 100
During the loading response of the foot through a gait cycle, what muscle activity restrains the rapid plantar flexion of the foot?
1
Eccentric contraction of the pretibial muscles (tibialis anterior and long toe extensors)
2
Concentric contraction of the pretibial muscles (tibialis anterior and long toe extensors)
3
Eccentric contracture of the gastrocnemius-soleus muscle complex
4
Elastic recoil of the Achilles tendon
QUESTION 45
of 100
A 5-year-old girl with increasing lower extremity bowing and short stature is diagnosed to have X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets. The underlying pathology is due to

1
fibroblast growth factor 23 protein increase.
2
alkaline phosphatase deficiency.
3
1![img](/media/upload/W7XJK_zG7eagYjvRrZZcZ4IR1QWstR844wCmQDSiDsmu3PfCA0QBLomEyrxC2KUpon7YDyIBUQqXBRZmRCtN7ZYbJP7PCglsm4D7bc883tyyw5fmLq3ZVoU-yE2TUQ2U0ZsCHD8nvCl7GA4eCYKPzfznRbRHBKOs6-xawbUcEedi9Nd_wvc1IjIyHBhE) -hydroxylase deficiency.
4
carbonic anhydrase deficiency.
QUESTION 46
of 100
A 6-year-old African-American boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset, severe pain through his right leg and left arm. His medical history is significant for sickle cell disease (HgbSS). His clinical exam is consistent with increased warmth and erythema to touch over his extremities, though he can move them, and his inflammatory markers are slightly elevated. He has no fever upon presentation. What is the best next step in the management of this child?
1
Parenteral opioids, aggressive hydration, and oxygen supplementation
2
Radionuclide bone marrow and bone scan
3
Gadolinium-enhanced MRI scan
4
Bone aspirate and broad-spectrum antibiotics
QUESTION 47
of 100
A 4-year-old boy with recent onset of limping and right hip pain is diagnosed with Perthes disease. His radiographs reveal femoral head epiphysis fragmentation and partial collapse consistent with lateral pillar classification B and mild lateral extrusion. His prognosis strongly correlates with his
1
sex.
2
age at the onset of disease.
3
orthopaedic management.
4
ability to bear weight on the extremity.
QUESTION 48
of 100
An 8-year-old girl with a history of Down syndrome is being evaluated to participate in gym activities. She is otherwise doing well and has appropriate motor developmental milestones. Her neurological exam is normal and cervical spine AP, lateral, flexion and extension radiographs reveal an atlanto-dens interval (ADI) of 7 mm, and normal occipitoatlantal mobility. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
1
Can participate but limit high-risk activities
2
Full, unrestricted activities
3
Limit activities and seek neurology consultation
4
Surgical fusion of the cervical spine
QUESTION 49
of 100
A 14-year-old girl with a history of aortic root dilation and FBN1 gene mutation and arachnodactyly presents with a thoracolumbar curve of 55°. When compared with patients with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis, the expected outcome with posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation of this patient's scoliosis would be (a) higher
1
fixation failure.
2
pseudoarthrosis rate.
3
blood loss.
4
neurological complications.
QUESTION 50
of 100
A 12-year-old boy with a history of Duchenne muscular dystrophy is being evaluated for progressive scoliosis. He now has 35° long thoracolumbar scoliosis, which was 20° only 6 months ago. He has a pelvic obliquity of 20°. He is a full-time wheelchair user. What is the most appropriate next step for this patient's spine deformity care?
1
Immediate bracing for at least 20 hours a day until skeletal maturity
2
If he is not on glucocorticoids, consider to start
3
Posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation down to pelvis
4
Posterior spinal fusion and instrumentation down to L5
QUESTION 51
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of an 8-year-old boy who was brought to the emergency department after falling from monkey bars. The clinical finding in Firgure 3 is caused by impingement of the proximal bone fragment on which structure?
1
Brachialis fascia
2
Biceps tendon
3
Median nerve
4
Lacertus fibrosus
QUESTION 52
of 100
A 5-year-old boy develops immediate left elbow pain and swelling following a fall from his hover board. His fracture is demonstrated in Figures 1 and

1
He is taken to the operating room and treated with open reduction and unburied pin fixation. The main advantage of unburied pin fixation compared with buried pin fixation method is ![img](/media/upload/Pn-64ikjJGz7NMI7CSPA_34CWvtxWslCwlWNUX2cCjdjIq4TMYmLtuGmANUzFfrFWYfH2ur69xgIXHoxkNIJOahDkHmULwTNuhk0iz0WPkTw8AM8O-wR6MB8cRi1zd7aJX_9DaQMbVKSDdc_ZijlmqSBtYN4z6_od0II2z2-TkcTjttvqffXLOPGjkOo)
2
unburied pins require more return trips to the operating room.
3
union rate is higher with unburied pins.
4
infection rate is lower with unburied pins.
5
unburied pins are associated with lower patient costs.
QUESTION 53
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 13-year-old girl who stumbled off a porch. Damage to which artery is implicated in the development of compartment syndrome in this patient?
1
Recurrent branch of anterior tibial artery
2
Perforating branch of profunda femoral artery
3
Inferior lateral geniculate artery
4
Posterior tibial artery
QUESTION 54
of 100
What would be the expected outcome following appropriate management of the injury revealed in Figures 1 and 2?
1
The patient is unlikely to return to sports or strenuous activity after this injury.
2
The patient is at high risk of recurrence of this injury over time.
3
The patient is expected to develop osteoarthritis earlier than uninjured peers.
4
The patient is expected to have a functionally stable knee and resume normal activity.
QUESTION 55
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 5-year-old boy who was treated for a nondisplaced ulna fracture. Eight months later, he complains of a painful prominence over the elbow, causing pain with direct trauma during activity, occurring for several months. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
1
Excision of the radial head
2
Osteotomy of the ulnar deformity
3
Annular ligament reconstruction
4
Osteotomy of the ulna and radius
QUESTION 56
of 100
A 4-year-old girl who has midlumbar myelomeningocele and hydrocephalus is being evaluated for her uneven gait. A hip examination reveals a right hip dislocation. Bilateral hips are pain-free with full range of motion and no fixed deformity. What is the most appropriate course of action?
1
Obtain standing AP pelvis to evaluate the hips; plan open reduction of the right hip when the patient starts having hip pain
2
Obtain supine AP pelvis to evaluate the hips; plan open reduction of the right hip as soon as possible
3
Inform the family that the dislocated hip will not limit the ability to ambulate and will not benefit from reduction
4
Inform the family that the patient's ambulatory potential is poor due to the hip dislocation, which cannot be treated successfully
QUESTION 57
of 100
An 11-month-old boy is being evaluated for scoliosis. Radiographs reveal a right thoracic curve of 20° with a rib-vertebral angle difference of 16°. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
1
A total spine MRI should be obtained, followed by serial casting
2
A thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) should be fabricated for this patient and used 23 hrs/day
3
The patient does not require any intervention or follow-up for this normal finding and can be discharged from follow-up
4
A repeat examination and PA radiograph should be obtained in 3 months
QUESTION 58
of 100
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 12-year-old female soccer player, who presents with insidious onset of right knee swelling and pain with activity, including walking, over the last month. She has been placed on crutches by the urgent care for comfort. Examination reveals intraarticular effusion, tenderness over the lateral anterior knee, and some discomfort with motion limited by swelling.
Ligamentous examination is stable. What is the best next step in evaluation and/or management?
1
Obtain noncontrast CT of the knee
2
Obtain noncontrast MRI of the knee
3
Perform diagnostic arthroscopy
4
Begin physical therapy for rehabilitation
QUESTION 59
of 100
A 15-year-old football player sustains a concussion on the field. His mother and coach are asking when it will be safe for him to begin a return-to-play program. For the best outcome, he should be advised to wait until he
1
is confident he has fully recovered.
2
completes a week of complete brain rest.
3
undergoes a brain MRI showing no evidence of injury.
4
is completely symptom-free at rest.
QUESTION 60
of 100
The four anatomic sites with highest risk of concomitant pediatric septic arthritis and osteomyelitis are
1
proximal humerus, distal femur, proximal femur, and distal forearm.
2
proximal humerus, proximal ulna, proximal femur, and proximal tibia.
3
proximal humerus, proximal radius, proximal femur, and distal fibula.
4
proximal radius, distal forearm, proximal femur, and distal tibia.
QUESTION 61
of 100
Community-acquired (CA)-methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is one of the most common organisms causing severe musculoskeletal infections in children. In contrast to its methicillinsensitive counterpart, CA-MRSA is associated with
1
a more severe, fulminant illness and need for multiple operative procedures.
2
C-reactive protein levels <4 mg/dL.
3
a first-line of antibiotic treatment with linezolid.
4
less of a risk of deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary thromboembolic events.
QUESTION 62
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 6-year-old boy who came to the emergency department with a twisting injury to the right leg sustained while skiing. He is nonweightbearing, has no pain with passive motion of his ankle and toes, and remains neurovascularly intact. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of his injury?
1
Flexible intramedullary nailing
2
Long leg casting
3
External fixation
4
Plate and screw fixation
QUESTION 63
of 100
A 12-year-old boy at 5’5”, 180 pounds comes to the outpatient clinic with 2 months of left anterior knee pain without discrete injury. He has a slight antalgic gait on the left, has full knee range of motion, stable ligaments, and mild tenderness at his tibial tubercle. He has restricted hip internal rotation and worsening knee pain with hip motion. Knee radiographs are negative. What is the best next step in treatment?
1
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and physical therapy for tibial tubercle apophysitis
2
MRI of the left knee for evaluation of stress fracture
3
Protected weight bearing with crutches and repeat evaluation in one week
4
AP and frog-lateral pelvis radiographs
QUESTION 64
of 100
A 162-cm, 11-year-old boy who plays baseball year-round has had 6 weeks of progressive left medial elbow pain, which is worse after throwing. He was last seen 4 months prior for calcaneal apophysitis. At that time, his height was 150 cm, and he recovered without missing activities. His examination is notable for full elbow motion, no pain with valgus stress, mild tenderness at proximal medial epicondyle, and negative Tinel's sign. The most significant risk factor for this injury is his
1
recent significant height increase.
2
bat swing velocity.
3
increased shoulder internal rotation.
4
ulnar nerve symptoms.
QUESTION 65
of 100
A 2-year-old girl is being evaluated for 3 to 4 weeks of limping. She has been afebrile and has stopped walking, prefering to crawl. Unable to stand from a seated position, she has not gained weight over the last 3 months. She has a non-toxic appearance and has no bruises. Her hips have minimal pain with range of motion. She is able to walk with a waddling/lurching gait. A radiograph and MRI of the pelvis were obtained (Figures 1 and 2). The most appropriate next step in management is/are
1
hip aspiration.
2
a CT-guided biopsy.
3
antistaphylococcal antibiotics.
4
chromosomal analysis.
QUESTION 66
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the clinical photograph and radiograph of a newborn who is seen for evaluation of his feet. A rigid rocker bottom foot is present with dorsal foot crease. The most appropriate next step in management is
1
serial casting with talonavicular reduction and fixation and Achilles tenotomy.
2
operative release at age 18 months.
3
tendon transfer after age 18 months.
4
observation, physical therapy, and transition into an ankle foot orthosis.
QUESTION 67
of 100
A 7-year-old girl comes to the emergency department after falling from monkey bars and landing on her outstretched hand. Radiographs show an extension Gartland type III supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Immediately following the fall, she complains of pain and swelling of the right elbow. Examination reveals absent radial and ulnar pulses and associated anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) injury. The hand is pink with brisk capillary refill. Pulses are undetectable by Doppler ultrasonography. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
1
Immediate closed reduction in the emergency department under sedation
2
Emergent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
3
Open reduction (OR) and exploration of the brachial artery
4
CT angiography for evaluation of the brachial artery
QUESTION 68
of 100
A 10-year-old boy undergoes standard transphyseal anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with hamstring autograft. What is the most likely angular deformity associated with this technique?
1
Varus
2
Valgus
3
Procurvatum
4
Recurvatum
QUESTION 69
of 100
An 11-year-old boy goes to the emergency department after a twisting injury to his left knee during a soccer game. Radiographs reveal a McKeever type 3 tibial eminence fracture. The most common associated finding with this injury is
1
meniscal tear.
2
meniscal entrapment.
3
displaced chondral fracture.
4
posterior cruciate ligament injury.
QUESTION 70
of 100
Figure 1 is the clinical photograph of an 11-year-old otherwise healthy boy who presents to the emergency department following 3 days of progressive left lateral ankle pain, difficulty bearing weight, swelling, and fever. He has a temperature of 102°F and other vitals are normal. He denies other areas of pain. He tolerates gentle ankle motion, and has exquisite point tenderness overlying the region of the distal fibular metaphysis. Radiographs of the ankle are normal. CRP is 32 mg/dL, ESR is 17, WBC count is 10.4. An MRI (Figure

1
and axial T1 fat-saturated post-contrast image are obtained. The most appropriate next step in management is ![img](/media/upload/FNRyREKrWTYoElcVu3_x49tmLoeEGGIDZbidigdAe9OsCF523T5CIoZoT4KQeGnbeibFGUITh3JwvP9dNdnAFCfLNkDOqaJQtqPgLFs9wsSSc4_jIS3_2JlrobNTzTdpoQXAP-Yx36CS-JP-_s8II1OKHmB95rAr7_RMoDLhXngr9JdF4W_m-rbpl0nZ)
2
hospital admission to begin empiric antibiotics and await results of blood cultures.
3
consult infectious disease for nonoperative management of osteomyelitis.
4
urgent surgical drainage of his subperiosteal abscess.
5
begin empiric oral antibiotics and outpatient therapy for his cellulitis.
QUESTION 71
of 100
What is the most common complication after successful treatment of a distal femoral physeal fracture?
1
Nonunion
2
Compartment syndrome
3
Knee stiffness
4
Premature physeal closure
QUESTION 72
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 10-year-old boy who came to the emergency department after sustaining a basketball injury. He has a large effusion and increased translation on Lachman’s examination. What is the most appropriate management of this injury?
1
Long leg casting in extension
2
Surgical treatment with open or arthroscopic reduction and internal fixation
3
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with a transphyseal technique
4
ACL reconstruction with a physeal sparing technique
QUESTION 73
of 100
A 17-year-old boy sustains a witnessed loss of consciousness during a tackle at a football game. Sideline testing shows no amnesia, with baseline cognition and balance testing. The patient has no history of previous concussions. He is not experiencing any concussive symptoms. What is the most appropriate approach to allowing this athlete to return to play?
1
Immediate return, as he has no symptoms of concussion
2
He should be encouraged to not play contact sports again due to the risk of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE).
3
The patient should be held out of all sports for 2 weeks and then allowed to return.
4
Completion of a supervised graduated return to play program that is dependent on remaining symptom-free.
QUESTION 74
of 100
A 2-year-old boy falls at the playground and sustains an oblique femoral shaft fracture with minimal shortening. There are no other injuries and no skin compromise. Which appropriate treatment is associated with the highest parent satisfaction?
1
Flexible intramedullary nails
2
Single leg spica casting
3
Double leg spica casting
4
Submuscular bridge plating
QUESTION 75
of 100
A 15-year-old girl has had 4 months of right hip and groin pain. Upon examination, she has 25° of internal rotation with the hip flexed, which causes pain on the right side. Her left side shows 20° of internal rotation but no significant pain. Plain radiographs show that the patient has no dysplasia and an alpha angle of 68° on the right side and 70° on the left side. She has not undergone any formal treatment to date. What is the best course of initial management?
1
Right hip arthroscopic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) surgery
2
Bilateral FAI surgery
3
Delayed gadolinium-enhanced MRI of cartilage (dGEMRIC), MRI of bilateral hips
4
Trial of physical therapy
QUESTION 76
of 100
The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring him for follow-up after undergoing conservative management for Osgood-Schlatter disease with rest and a stretching program. At this time, the patient is no longer symptomatic. He has a 2-cm, fixed, palpable, nontender bony mass over his tibial tubercle. There are no skin changes, and it is confluent with the underlying bone and does not transilluminate. Plain radiographs show a 2-cm ossicle within the patellar tendon adjacent to the tibial tubercle. The most appropriate next step in management is
1
further diagnostic workup with MRI.
2
reassurance with no formal treatment.
3
physical therapy for quadriceps stretching exercises.
4
excisional biopsy.
QUESTION 77
of 100
A 9-year-old boy is admitted from the emergency department after undergoing closed reduction and long leg casting for a displaced tibial shaft fracture. The nursing staff report that he is becoming increasingly anxious and agitated. In addition, he has maxed out the dosing for IV narcotics. The most appropriate next step in management is
1
increasing the dose of narcotic medications as he is currently being undertreated for pain.
2
adding in an anxiolytic medication for the child’s anxiety.
3
splitting the cast, underlying cast padding, and the anterior portion of the cast and reassessment.
4
immediate compartment measurements via invasive technique.
QUESTION 78
of 100
The genetic mutation responsible for the condition seen in Figure 1 involves
1
GNAS
2
EXT1
3
COL1A1
4
FGFR3
QUESTION 79
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 16-year-old boy who falls following a seizure. He is unable to bear weight on the right lower extremity following the fall. Over the subsequent 24 hours, his leg becomes progressively more painful and swollen. He is taken to the emergency department where on initial assessment his pain is out of proportion, positive stretch pain, tense leg swelling, and decreased motor function of his foot muscles with decreased sensations throughout the foot. Toes are warm and well-perfused. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
1
Emergent fasciotomy of the leg
2
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the fracture
3
CT scan of the knee
4
Closed reduction with long leg cast application
QUESTION 80
of 100
A 4-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, a limp, and left knee pain and swelling. There is no history of recent trauma. Her temperature is 102.6° F. Her left knee is warm, erythematous, and tender with restricted range of motion. Her WBC count is 14,500, ESR is 72, CRP level is 10.2. What is the most appropriate next step for management of this patient?
1
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
2
MRI scan of left knee
3
Aspiration of left knee
4
Emergent incision and drainage
QUESTION 81
of 100
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 10-year-old boy who has had insidious onset of right shoulder pain for 4 months. He plays baseball 3-4 times per week. He is right-hand dominant. His pain mostly occurs when throwing the ball, but can also occur with non-throwing activities. He is also reporting that his velocity is now decreasing. Physical examination and radiographs of the shoulder are normal. What is the best next best step in management of this patient?
1
Shoulder arthroscopy for superior labral anterior to posterior (SLAP) repair
2
Physical therapy and continued participation in sport
3
MRI scan of the shoulder
4
Complete cessation of throwing activities for 6 weeks
QUESTION 82
of 100
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs and 3D reconstruction of a 13-year-old right-hand dominant boy who landed onto a flexed right elbow and now has pain, swelling, and crepitation in the right elbow.
The most appropriate treatment would be

1
open reduction with percutaneous pinning with 2.0 mm Kirschner wires.
2
closed reduction and percutaneous pinning with 2.0 mm Kirschner wires.
3
open reduction and internal fixation.
4
traction.
QUESTION 83
of 100
Figures 1 through 6 are the radiographs of a 10-year-old boy who is seen in the emergency department following a roll-over ATV accident. He is alert; oriented; and conversive, and has a 5-mm posteromedial tibial wound; a 15-cm suprafascial popliteal fossa degloving injury; and obvious thigh and leg deformity. Physical examination reveals compressible thigh and leg compartments, intact motor and sensory function in the involved distal extremity, and 2+ palpable pedal pulses with capillary refill <2 seconds. No additional injuries are noted in the full trauma workup, and the patient is hemodynamically stable. Following emergent surgical irrigation and debridement of his open wounds, what are the best next steps in surgical intervention?
1
Application of popliteal fossa vacuum assisted dressing, trochanteric entry intramedullary (IM) nailing of femoral fracture, and flexible intramedullary nailing of tibial fracture
2
Intraoperative vascular surgical consultation for on-table angiogram and popliteal exploration
3
Application of popliteal fossa vacuum-assisted dressing and spanning femoral-tibial external fixator
4
Application of popliteal fossa vacuum-assisted dressing and reamed IM nailing of both femoral and tibial fractures
QUESTION 84
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the MR images of a previously healthy 2-year-old girl who transfers from an outside hospital with a 3-day history of irritability, fevers >39.0°C, and new onset refusal to bear weight on the left lower extremity. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates elevated WBC count of 18.6, ESR of 42, and CRP level of 6.9. Blood cultures from the outside hospital are positive for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and sensitive to clindamycin, which has been initiated. Physical examination demonstrates persistent tachycardia, mild hypotension, marked left thigh and leg swelling, and an apparent left foot drop. What are the most appropriate next steps in treatment?
1
Addition of IV vancomycin to broaden coverage for MRSA and echocardiogram to rule out infectious valve vegetations
2
Addition of IV vancomycin to broaden coverage for MRSA and bedside aspiration of posterior thigh abscess
3
Emergent surgical irrigation and debridement of posterior thigh abscess and postoperative duplex ultrasonography
4
In-patient admission with plans for irrigation and debridement in the morning
QUESTION 85
of 100
A 4-week-old girl with an unremarkable birth history is being evaluated for facial hypertelorism, depressed nasal bridge, generalized laxity and hypotonia, bilateral elbow flexion contractures with normal appearing flexion creases, bilateral shortened, telescoping thighs, bilateral recurvatum deformity of the knees, and flexible bilateral clubfoot deformity. Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographic survey of the pelvis and upper and lower extremities. What is the genetic etiology of this presentation?
1
Autosomal dominant FLNB mutation
2
Sporadic inheritance with no recognized genetic defect
3
Genetic mutation of the FGFR3 gene
4
Genetic mutation in the COL3A1 gene
QUESTION 86
of 100
A 16-year-old boy is being evaluated for cervical spine clearance 1 week after he was undercut playing basketball and landed striking the back of his head with a hyperflexion force on his neck. He had immediate complaints of isolated midline neck pain and tenderness. Plain radiographs of the cervical spine and neurological examination was normal at time of injury, and the patient was discharged home in a hard cervical collar. On examination in the office, the patient has resolution of neck pain with complaints of vague headache and difficulty concentrating in school, supple active cervical range of motion, maintained normal neurological examination, and isolated left trapezial tenderness to palpation. Dynamic flexion-extension lateral cervical radiographs are normal. What is the most appropriate next step?
1
Continuation of rigid cervical collar and MRI cervical spine to rule out occult ligamentous injury
2
Clinical and radiographic cervical spine clearance and clearance to return to athletics
3
Physical therapy for persistent trapezial spasm and strain
4
Clinical and radiographic cervical spine clearance and prompt referral to traumatic brain injury clinic
QUESTION 87
of 100
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 6-year-old boy who falls off a tire swing and sustains an isolated left femur fracture that is treated with submuscular plating (Figure 2). He went on to uneventful union and full return to activity without disability. Recommendations should include
1
implant removal given the high likelihood of requiring future hip arthroplasty.
2
observation with implant removal only if the patient is symptomatic in the future.
3
implant removal to minimize the risk of valgus deformity.
4
implant retention to avoid potential morbidity of pathologic fracture following removal.
QUESTION 88
of 100
A limping 13-year-old boy is seen in the emergency department several months after returning from summer camp complaining of 5 days of progressive knee swelling and low-grade fever. The patient does not recall a rash or tick bite but notes that several friends had ticks removed while at camp. A physical examination reveals a large right knee effusion, moderately noxious arc of passive motion from 30-95°, and a fever of 38.1°C. Laboratory evaluation evidences a WBC count of 12.3, ESR of 42, and CRP level of 4.4. Knee aspirate obtains 40 cc of cloudy synovial fluid with cell count of 64,000 WBC with 72% PMNs. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?
1
Emergent arthroscopic lavage
2
Observation and IV non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) with repeat aspiration in the morning
3
Emergent MRI with contrast of the right knee
4
Serologic Lyme titer testing and initiation of doxycycline and NSAIDs
QUESTION 89
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the MR images of a 5-year-old who has had progressive right knee pain and swelling, fevers to 38.4°C, and refusal to bear weight for the past several days. Laboratory evaluation reveals hematocrit 29.9, WBC count 17.5 with 92% neutrophil on differential count, ESR 48, and CRP level of 8.2. What is the most appropriate course of action?
1
Whole body bone scan, CT chest, open biopsy and hematology/oncology consultation
2
Empiric IV antibiotics and serial inflammatory markers to assess response
3
Surgical irrigation and drainage of the right distal femur
4
Arthroscopic lavage of the right knee
QUESTION 90
of 100
Figures 1 through 4 are the radiographs and CT scans of a 13-year-old male cross-country runner who has had vague posterior thigh pain for more than a year. Pain is worse at night than while running. History is negative for trauma, fevers, or constitutional signs or symptoms. Pain is relieved with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Labs and inflammatory markers are all normal. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
1
CT-guided biopsy to confirm diagnosis and enable prognostic prediction
2
Continued symptomatic management with NSAID therapy with expected resolution of symptoms
3
Activity restriction and touch down weightbearing with potential need for stress fracture stabilization
4
Empiric antibiotics with expectant resolution of lesion after 6 weeks of therapy
QUESTION 91
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 10-year-old girl who injured her elbow in an all-terrain vehicle accident. Figures 3 and 4 are radiographs of the elbow following closed manipulation. What is the best next step in management?
1
Immobilization in a long arm cast
2
Percutaneous reduction and pin fixation, if required
3
Open reduction and pin fixation, if required
4
Open reduction and screw-plate fixation
QUESTION 92
of 100
Figure 1 is the CT scan of a 12-month-old boy who has a neck injury from a motor vehicle accident. He is neurologically intact without any other injuries. Following successful closed reduction of the fracture, what is the best next step in management?
1
Immobilization in a cervical collar
2
Immobilization in a Minerva cast or halo cast
3
Anterior odontoid fixation
4
Posterior C1-C2 instrumented arthrodesis
QUESTION 93
of 100
A 14-year-old male cross-country runner is being evaluated for exercise-induced leg pain. The pain is localized along the distal two-thirds of the posteromedial tibia. Radiographs are normal. What is likely to be the greatest risk factor for this condition?
1
Greater hip internal rotation
2
Increased body mass index
3
Excessive foot supination
4
Reduced dorsiflexor muscle endurance
QUESTION 94
of 100
Figures 1 through 5 are the radiograph, MRI scan, and clinical photograph of a 9-year-old boy who has a new wound of the posteromedial heel without recent injury or fevers. He has a 2-month history of heel pain and has been treated for calcaneal apophysitis with a walking boot. Complete blood count, CRP level, and ESR are normal. What is the best next step?
1
Iliac crest aspiration
2
Biopsy and debridement
3
Bone scan
4
Skeletal survey
QUESTION 95
of 100
An 8-year-old boy with distal femoral osteomyelitis has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) bacteremia, and a vancomycin infusion is started. He develops a mild erythematous, pruritic rash over his face, neck, and upper torso. No other symptoms are noted and vital signs remain normal. The infusion is stopped. The most appropriate next step is to
1
restart the infusion after a dose of rifampin.
2
wait 2 hours and restart the infusion at 50% of the original rate.
3
start linezolid.
4
administer diphenhydramine and ranitidine.
QUESTION 96
of 100
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 14-year-old girl who is being evaluated for a soccer-related injury. Examination of the right knee reveals full motion, no effusion, and a stable ligamentous examination. Skin examination demonstrates numerous light brown macules. The gene product responsible for this patient’s disorder is likely to be
1
Gs alpha protein.
2
isocitrate dehydrogenase.
3
neurofibromin.
4
EXT glycosyltransferases.
QUESTION 97
of 100
A 7-year-old boy is treated for a femoral shaft fracture with flexible intramedullary (IM) nailing. At 2 years postoperative, 1.5-cm overgrowth of the injured side is noted. Which factors increase the risk of overgrowth?
1
Length stable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio <0.8
2
Length stable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio ≥0.8
3
Length unstable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio <0.8
4
Length unstable fracture pattern and nail canal diameter ratio ≥0.8
QUESTION 98
of 100
A 5-year-old boy is being evaluated after 4 days of refusal to walk, fever to 101.6°F, and left hip pain. The patient prefers to maintain the hip in extension. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates a CRP level of 160 mg/L and platelets of 200x103 cells/uL. A left hip effusion is noted on ultrasonography. In addition to aspiration and synovial fluid analysis of the hip joint, what is the best next step in management?
1
Deep vein thrombosis scan
2
MRI pelvis
3
Bone scan
4
Operative debridement
QUESTION 99
of 100
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 6-year-old girl who has a displaced supracondylar humerus fracture. Lateral entry pin fixation with two 2.0 mm pins was performed (Figures 3 and


1
Intraoperative internal rotation stress testing demonstrates instability of the medial column with a lateral rotation percentage of 61% (Figure 3). To improve rotational stability of the fracture, what is the best next step? ![img](/media/upload/KlrErhoJJxnYvczSZ7u-xneZ1hg8rbgYgqhQcKk8v0NPlnXIpKjaizfrYKnoYOS4sTG7D1LCpFqMEfU82VJPKlVhAvhQtATkvFZL5iBRIo4ikfIkx3C92VEtyfbvqAxywl2G2S2PYp4jgJPFjzAAKpXQidUqgYM_2nMbYHLJZXdSoK_x3rHcDgIGKXXS)
2
Immobilize with a long arm cast
3
Remove pins, repeat reduction maneuvers, and replace the pins
4
Supplement fixation with a 3rd lateral entry pin or a medial entry pin
5
Revise fixation with larger diameter pins
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon