Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
Updated: Feb 2026
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Key Medical Takeaway
In this comprehensive guide, we discuss everything you need to know about ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 800-850. Articular cartilage primarily features Type II collagen (90-95%), with Type IX forming cross-links and Type XI regulating fibril diameter. Its composition and organization can be affected by various factors, where analysis of specific conditions often describes the inheritance patterns observed in certain chondropathies. Collagen turnover is normally slow, influenced by anabolic factors like TGF-beta.
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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 800-850
QUESTION 1
Which of the following muscle groups comprises the mobile wad of the forearm:
Brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
5
Extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
The forearm contains the anterior, dorsal, and mobile wad. The following muscles are located in each compartment: Mobile wad
Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Volar compartment
Flexor carpi ulnaris
Flexor digitorum profundus Flexor digitorum superficialis Palmaris longus
Flexor carpi radialis
Flexor pollicis longus
QUESTION 2
Which of the following muscles must be detached from the tibia when decompressing the deep posterior compartment of the leg:
1
Posterior tibialis
2
Flexor hallucis longus
3
Medial gastrocnemius
4
Soleus
5
Flexor digitorum longus
Of the four compartments, the deep posterior compartment is the most difficult to release. The surgeon must release the soleus muscle from the tibia to decompress the deep posterior compartment.
The tibialis posterior muscle often has its own fascial sheath in the deep posterior compartment. When a surgeon releases the deep posterior compartment, this fascial sheath (if present) should be released.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following leg muscles often has its own fascial envelope (separate compartment):
1
Anterior tibialis muscle
2
Posterior tibialis muscle
3
Peroneus longus muscle
4
Flexor digitorum longus muscle
5
Flexor hallucis longus muscle
Of the four compartments, the deep posterior compartment is the most difficult to release. The surgeon must release the soleus muscle from the tibia to decompress the deep posterior compartment.
The tibialis posterior muscle often has its own fascial sheath in the deep posterior compartment. When a surgeon releases the deep posterior compartment, this fascial sheath (if present) should be released.
QUESTION 4
In patients with a tibia fracture, which of the following compartments are most prone to develop a compartment syndrome:
1
Anterior and lateral
2
Anterior and deep posterior
3
Lateral and superficial posterior
4
Lateral and deep posterior
5
Superficial and deep posterior
In a study by Heckman and colleagues, the level of the fracture site is the region with the highest tissue pressure. This was found to be true in all four components. The highest pressures are located in the anterior and deep posterior components.Correct Answer: Anterior and deep posterior
QUESTION 5
The approximate incidence of compartment syndrome following a tibia fracture is:
1
1% to 2%
2
5% to 10%
3
10% to 20%
4
20% to 30%
5
30% to 40%
C ompartment syndromes occur in approximately 5% to 10% of tibia fractures. Patients with tibia fractures have the highest risk of all fracture patients.
Adult fracture patients at risk for compartment syndrome include (in descending order): Tibia shaft fractures
Femoral shaft fractures
Both bone forearm fractures
Distal radius fractures
C hildren with fractures who are at risk include (in descending order): Tibial shaft fractures
Supracondylar humerus fractures
Both bone forearm fractures
QUESTION 6
In patients with a closed tibia fracture and suspected compartment syndrome, the region of the leg that will most likely have the highest tissue pressure measurement is:
1
The middle of the leg
2
5 cm proximal to the fracture site
3
At the level of the fracture
4
5 cm distal to the fracture site
5
The proximal one-third of the leg
In a study by Heckman and colleagues, the level of the fracture site is the region with the highest tissue pressure. This was found to be true in all four components. The highest pressures are located in the anterior and deep posterior components.
QUESTION 7
Which of the following may be beneficial in decreasing the deleterious effects of total muscle ischemia in a patient who has a compartment syndrome:
1
Systemic steroids
2
Hypothermia
3
Elevation of the extremity above the heart
4
Antihypertensive therapy
5
Anticoagulant therapy
Aside from performing a fasciotomy, little can be done for patients with a compartment syndrome. Hypothermia, systemic corticosteroids, and anticoagulation therapy may increase muscle tolerance to ischemia.
Steroids and anticoagulation are not reasonable options because there is an impaired blood supply to the muscle (ie, these agents cannot enter the muscle). Hypothermia can be used to gain some time if immediate fasciotomy cannot be performed.
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the most sensitive finding in patients who are at risk for compartment syndrome before total muscle and nerve ischemia occurs:
1
Paresthesia
2
Loss of peripheral pulses
3
Pain on passive stretch of muscle
4
Delayed capillary refill
5
Loss of motor function
C ompartment syndromes are difficult to diagnose. It is important to diagnosis compartment syndrome before irreversible muscle and nerve damage occurs.
Pain out of proportion to the injury and pain with passive stretch are the most important subjective and objective findings before a compartment syndrome has fully developed. Pain will subside after a prolonged period of ischemia. The muscle and nerves in the compartment are no longer viable, and the pain will diminish.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the normal resting pressure in skeletal muscle:
1
0 mm Hg to 8 mm Hg
2
10 mm Hg to 16 mm Hg
3
18 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg
4
24 mm Hg to 30 mm Hg
5
30 mm Hg to 36 mm Hg
Normal resting muscle tissue pressure is between 0 mm Hg and 8 mm Hg. Remember, if one squeezes the muscle or pushes on it, then the compartment pressure increases.
Normal tissues have adequate tissue perfusion with increases in compartment pressure to within 10 mm Hg of the diastolic pressure. In damaged tissue (eg, tibia fracture), perfusion can be impaired when the diastolic pressure reaches within 20 mm Hg of the diastolic pressure.
One should remember that hypotensive patients with extremity injuries are prone to compartment syndromes. Correct Answer: 0 mm Hg to 8 mm Hg
QUESTION 10
In injured tissues, ischemia begins when the tissue pressure within the compartment comes within mm Hg of the diastolic pressure.
1
10
2
20
3
30
4
40
5
50
Normal tissues have adequate tissue perfusion with increases in compartment pressure to within 10 mm Hg of the diastolic pressure. In damaged tissue (eg, tibia fracture), perfusion can be impaired when the diastolic pressure reaches within 20 mm Hg of the diastolic pressure.
One should remember that hypotensive patients with extremity injuries are prone to compartment syndromes. Correct Answer: 20
QUESTION 11
C omplete ischemia of a peripheral nerve results in irreversible damage after hours.
1
1 to 2 hours
2
2 to 4 hours
3
4 to 6 hours
4
6 to 8 hours
5
8 to 10 hours
Loss of nerve electrical conduction begins after 2 hours of complete ischemia. Peripheral nerves can tolerate up to 4 hours of complete ischemia. A neurapraxic (loss of conduction capability) injury usually recovers. After 8 hours of complete ischemia, nerves cannot recover.
Patients will lose the sense of pain in a compartment with total ischemia after 2 to 8 hours because there is no conduction to the nerve. One can expect little recovery once this painless state has occurred.
QUESTION 12
C omplete muscle ischemia that leads to irreversible muscle damage occurs after which of the following time periods:
1
1 to 2 hours
2
2 to 4 hours
3
4 to 6 hours
4
6 to 8 hours
5
8 to 10 hours
Skeletal muscle tolerates periods of complete muscle ischemia for 3 to 4 hours without irreversible damage. Variable recovery occurs with ischemia for 6 to 8 hours. When the period of ischemia is more than 8 hours, there is irreversible muscle damage. After 8 hours, the muscle cells degenerate and, grossly, the muscle contracts as the muscle cells are replaced with scar tissue and contracture may result.
Remember to let a tourniquet down after 2 hours of ischemia. One does not want to enter the tolerance period of 3 to 4 hours. Correct Answer: 8 to 10 hours
QUESTION 13
Skeletal muscle may remain viable (electrically responsive) following a period of total ischemia. Which of the following is the correct time interval for the tolerance to total muscle ischemia (complete recovery can be expected):
1
3 to 4 hours
2
4 to 6 hours
3
6 to 8 hours
4
8 to 10 hours
5
10 to 12 hours
Skeletal muscle tolerates periods of complete muscle ischemia for 3 to 4 hours without irreversible damage. Variable recovery occurs with ischemia for 6 to 8 hours. When the period of ischemia is more than 8 hours, there is irreversible muscle damage. After 8 hours, the muscle cells degenerate and, grossly, the muscle contracts as the muscle cells are replaced with scar tissue and contracture may result.
Remember to let a tourniquet down after 2 hours of ischemia. One does not want to enter the tolerance period of 3 to 4 hours. Correct Answer: 3 to 4 hours
QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements concerning locking plates is true:
1
The pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is only 30% of a standard bicortical screw.
2
Toggle between the screws and plate is greater than standard plating.
3
Locked bicortical screws have greater toggle than standard bicortical screws.
4
Friction between the plate and cortical bone is greater in locked plating compared to standard plating.
5
Locked plating is biomechanically similar to external fixation with a lower moment arm.
Locking plates have become a popular, effective method of stabilizing metaphyseal/epiphyseal fractures with comminution and short articular fragments.
Important biomechanical features of locking plates include1 :
Locked screws can function as individual blade plates in the distal fragment.
Locking plates can effectively serve as bridge plates, providing excellent fixation in short distal articular fragments. C ompression of the plate against the bone is less than that of conventional plating, resulting in less devascularization of the underlying cortex.
There is no toggling between the locked screws and the plate.
The pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is approximately 60% of a standard bicortical screw. Locking plates are similar biomechanically to an external fixator.
Moment arms are less because the plate is closer to the bone's neutral axis than the connecting bar of the external fixator.
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements concerning locking plates is true:
1
The pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is only 60% of a standard bicortical screw.
2
Toggle between the screws and plate is greater than standard plating.
3
Locked bicortical screws have greater toggle than standard bicortical screws.
4
Friction between the plate and cortical bone is greater in locked plating compared to standard plating.
5
Locked plating is not biomechanically similar to external fixation with a lower moment arm.
Locking plates have become a popular and effective method of stabilizing metaphyseal/epiphyseal fractures with comminution and short articular fragments.
Important biomechanical features of locking plates include:
locked screws can function as individual blade plates in the distal fragment locking plates can effective serve as bridge plates
excellent fixation in short distal articular fragments
compression of the plate against the bone is less than that of conventional plating less devascularization of the underlying cortex
there is no toggling between the locked screws and the plate
pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is approximately 60% a standard bicortical screw
locking plates are similar biomechanically to an external fixator moment arms are less because the plate is closer to the bone's neutral axis than the connecting bar of the external fixator
QUESTION 16
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of hemophilia A:
1
Autosomal dominant inheritance
2
Autosomal recessive inheritance
3
Sex-linked dominant
4
Sex-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
Hemophilia A is transmitted by a sex-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Important points to remember:
Hemophilia A (classic hemophilia) Factor VIII deficiency
Sex-linked recessive trait
Incidence - 1/5000 live male births
25% of cases are sporadic (no family history) Hemophilia B (C hristmas disease)
Factor IX deficiency
Sex-linked recessive trait
Incidence - 1/30,000 live male births
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the most important pathophysiology factor in hemophilic arthropathy:
1
Viral joint infection
2
Bacterial joint infection
3
Hemosiderin depositionq
4
Subchondral bone microfractures
5
Neuropathic damage
Hemosiderin deposition leads to synovial hypertrophy, bone erosions, recurrent bleeding, and eventual destruction of the articular surfaces and arthrofibrosis.
Synovial A cells (surface layer phagocytic cells) ingest hemosiderin
Mixed inflammatory cell population
Lymphocytes Plasma cells Histiocytes
Leads to bone erosion from the thickened synovium
QUESTION 18
The âbystander effectâ in cancer gene therapy is:
1
Resistance to gene therapy by neighbor tumor cells after irradiation.
2
The secretion of tumor suppressor cytokines by neighbor cells.
3
The death of neighbor untargeted tumor cells during cell-targeted suicide.
4
Anaphylaxis-like side effects seen during tumor gene therapy.
5
None of the above.
The âbystander effectâ is the death of neighbor untargeted tumor cells during cell-targeted suicide, whereby HSV thymine kinase gene targeted cells commit suicide by absorbing gancyclovir, a prodrug that is turned intracellularly into a toxic metabolite by the targeting gene through phosphorylation.Correct Answer: The death of neighbor untargeted tumor cells during cell-targeted suicide.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is associated with cleidocranial dysplasia:
1
Type X collagen
2
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
3
C artilage oligomeric protein
4
Fibrillin
5
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
The defect in cleidocranial dysplasia involves C bfa1.
C bfa1 is a transcription factor (coded by the C bfa1 gene) that is necessary and sufficient for differentiation of cells into osteoblasts and facilitates chondrocyte differentiation during enchondral bone formation.
The other responses refer to:
Metaphyseal chondrodysplasia (Schmid type): Type X collagen Osteopetrosis: C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump Metaphyseal epiphyseal dysplasia: C artilage oligomeric protein Marfan's syndrome: Fibrillin
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is associated with achondroplasia:
1
Type X collagen
2
Sulfate transporter gene
3
Fibrillin
4
Fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF-3) (receptor)
5
Type I collagen (C ol 1A1, 1A2)
Achondroplasia is caused by a defect in FGF-3 receptor, resulting in an inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis. One possible theory is that this mutation results in a receptor that is active even without binding of the fibroblast growth factor ligand, thereby causing an overactive receptor. This is a gain of function mutation (Dietz).
The other responses refer to:
Metaphyseal chondrodysplasia (Schmid type): Type X collagen
Diastrophic dysplasia: Sulfate transporter gene Osteogenesis imperfecta: Type I collagen (C ol 1A1, 1A2) Marfanâs syndrome: Fibrillin
QUESTION 21
Which of the following defects occurs in Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (pseudohypoparathyroidism):
1
Type X collagen
2
Sulfate transporter gene
3
Beta glucosidase
4
Galpha S (GNAS1)
5
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
Pseudohypoparathyroidism (PHP) (Albright Hereditary Osteodystrophy [AHO]) - end organ insensitivity; in AHO, germline mutation that leads to loss of function of Galpha S (GNAS1); causes end-organ resistance to PTH (Zaleske).
1/. PHP - short stature, short metacarpals (4th and 5th), rounded facies a. Mental retardation, tetany
b. Sex-linked dominant
2/. Laboratory features a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hyperphopshatemia c. Normal PTH
3/. Other features
The other responses refer to:
Metaphyseal chondrodysplasia (Schmid type): Type X collagen
Diastrophic dysplasia: Sulfate transporter gene
Gaucher's disease: Beta glucosidase
Osteopetrosis: C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is associated with Marfan's syndrome:
1
Sulfate transporter gene
2
Fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF-3) (receptor)
3
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Fibrillin
The defective gene (located on chromosome 15) in Marfan's syndrome encodes for fibrillin. Fibrillin is a structural component of elastin and contains microfibrils (Dietz).
Features of Marfan's syndrome include: Long, thin limbs (dolichostenomelia)
Pectus excavatum, carinatum
Scoliosis
High and narrow palate
Ectopia lentis
Dilation of the ascending aorta
Dural ectasia
The other responses refer to:
Achondroplasia: FGF-3 receptor
Diastrophic dysplasia: Sulfate transporter gene
C leidocranial dysplasia: C bfa1
Osteopetrosis: C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
QUESTION 23
Which of the following proteins binds to osteoclast precursor cells and positively effects their final differentiation into osteoclasts:
1
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB (RANK)
2
Osteoprotegerin
3
Bone morphogenetic protein-7
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
Four proteins that regulate osteoclast activation have been discovered:
1/. RANK binds to a receptor on osteoclast precursor cells and positively effects their final differentiation into osteoclasts.
2/. Osteoprotegerin is a soluble decoy receptor that resembles RANK and inhibits osteoclasts.
3/. Tumor necrosis factor-related activation induced cytokine (TRANC E)
4/. Osteoclast differentiation factor
Note:
C bfa1 is a transcription factor (coded by the C bfa1 gene) that is necessary and sufficient for differentiation of cells into osteoblasts and facilitates chondrocyte differentiation during enchondral bone formation.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following proteins negatively affects osteoclast precursor cells:
1
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB (RANK)
2
Osteoprotegerin
3
Bone morphogenetic protein-7
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
Four proteins that regulate osteoclast activation have been discovered:
1/. RANK binds to a receptor on osteoclast precursor cells and positively effects their final differentiation into osteoclasts.
2/. Osteoprotegerin is a soluble decoy receptor that resembles RANK and inhibits osteoclasts.
3/. Tumor necrosis factor-related activation induced cytokine (TRANC E)
4/. Osteoclast differentiation factor
Note:
C bfa1 is a transcription factor (coded by the C bfa1 gene) that is necessary and sufficient for differentiation of cells into osteoblasts and facilitates chondrocyte differentiation during enchondral bone formation.
QUESTION 25
Which of the following proteins or genes is necessary for bone formation and induces osteocalcin:
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1) and its gene (Cbfa1) have been described as anabolic regulators of bone. C bfa1 is a transcription factor and is responsible for the differentiation of precursor cells into osteoblasts. It also enhances differentiation of chondrocytes during enchondral bone formation. When there is deficiency of C bfa1, there can be abnormal bone development as in cleidocranial dysplasia.
QUESTION 26
The human genome is comprised of approximately how many genes:
1
1,000
2
5,000
3
10,000
4
30,000
5
100,000
The human genome is composed of 30,000 unique genes. Each gene is composed of a promotor or regulator region, and a transcriptional or coding region. Regulatory proteins or transcription factors bind to the promoter region of the gene to signal the beginning of transcription of the DNA into RNA or repress the expression of the gene. The coding region contains both introns and exons. Exon sequences of the gene directly code for the proteins, and the introns are spacers. The intron sequences are enzymatically removed from the newly transcribed messenger RNA by a splicing mechanism.
QUESTION 27
Which of the following portions of a gene directly codes for the messenger RNA for eventual translation into proteins on the ribosome:
1
Promoter region
2
Intron
3
Exon
4
C oding region
5
Activator or repressor binding site
The human genome is composed of 30,000 unique genes. Each gene is composed of a promotor or regulator region, and a transcriptional or coding region. Regulatory proteins or transcription factors bind to the promoter region of the gene to signal the beginning of transcription of the DNA into RNA or repress the expression of the gene. The coding region contains both introns and exons. Exon sequences of the gene directly code for the proteins, and the introns are spacers. The intron sequences are enzymatically removed from the newly transcribed messenger RNA by a splicing mechanism.
QUESTION 28
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of achondroplasia:
1
X-linked recessive
2
Sporadic
3
Autosomal dominant
4
Autosomal recessive
5
X-linked dominant
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-dominant conditions:
Achondroplasia Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia Marfan's syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta (I, IV) Multiple hereditary exostosis Polydactyly
QUESTION 29
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Marfanâs syndrome:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-dominant conditions: Achondroplasia
Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
Marfan's syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta (I, IV) Multiple hereditary exostosis Polydactyly
QUESTION 30
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-dominant conditions: Achondroplasia
Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
Marfan's syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta (I, IV) Multiple hereditary exostosis Polydactyly
QUESTION 31
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of multiple hereditary exostoses:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-dominant conditions: Achondroplasia
Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
Marfan's syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta (I, IV) Multiple hereditary exostosis Polydactyly
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of polydactyly:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-dominant conditions: Achondroplasia
Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
Marfan's syndrome Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta (I, IV) Multiple hereditary exostosis Polydactyly
QUESTION 33
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of hypophosphatasia:
1
Austosomal dominant
2
Austosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-recessive conditions: Sickle cell disease
Osteogenesis imperfecta (Types II, III)
Hypophosphatasia Homocystinuria Gaucher's disease
QUESTION 34
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of sickle cell disease:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-recessive conditions:
Sickle cell disease
Osteogenesis imperfecta (Types II, III) Hypophosphatasia
Homocystinuria
Gaucher's disease
QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Gaucher's disease:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-recessive conditions: Sickle cell disease
Osteogenesis imperfecta (Types II, III)
Hypophosphatasia Homocystinuria Gaucher's disease
QUESTION 36
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of homocystinuria:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
Structural defects are usually transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern. In contrast, with metabolic or enzyme deficiencies, the condition is usually transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern.
Remember the major autosomal-recessive conditions: Sickle cell disease
Osteogenesis imperfecta (Types II, III)
Hypophosphatasia Homocystinuria Gaucher's disease
QUESTION 37
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern for hypophosphatemic rickets:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
C ommon inheritance patterns that should be known for examinations:
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Achondroplasia Sickle cell Hypophosphatemic rickets Hemophilia (A, B)
SED (congenital) OI (II, III) Duchennes muscular dystrophy
MED Hypophosphatasia Hunters syndrome
Marfanâs syndrome Homocystinuria SED (tarda)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Gaucherâs disease Beckerâs muscular dystrophy
Abbreviations: OI (I,IV)=Osteogenesis imperfecta, SED=Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, MED=Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, MHE=Multiple hereditary exostosis
QUESTION 38
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern for hemophilia A:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
C ommon inheritance patterns are shown in the Table below:
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Achondroplasia Sickle cell Hypophosphatemic rickets Hemophilia (A, B)
SED (congenital) OI (II, III) Duchennes muscular dystrophy
MED Hypophosphatasia Hunters syndrome
Marfanâs syndrome Homocystinuria SED (tarda)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Gaucherâs disease Beckerâs muscular dystrophy
Abbreviations: OI (I,IV)=Osteogenesis imperfecta, SED=Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, MED=Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, MHE=Multiple hereditary exostosis
QUESTION 39
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Duchennes muscular dystrophy:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
C ommon inheritance patterns that should be known for examinations:
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Achondroplasia Sickle cell Hypophosphatemic rickets Hemophilia (A, B)
SED (congenital) OI (II, III) Duchennes muscular dystrophy
MED Hypophosphatasia Hunters syndrome
Marfanâs syndrome Homocystinuria SED (tarda)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Gaucherâs disease Beckerâs muscular dystrophy
Abbreviations: OI (I,IV)=Osteogenesis imperfecta, SED=Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, MED=Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, MHE=Multiple hereditary exostosis
QUESTION 40
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Becker's muscular dystrophy:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
C ommon inheritance patterns that should be known for examinations:
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Achondroplasia Sickle cell Hypophosphatemic rickets Hemophilia (A, B)
SED (congenital) OI (II, III) Duchennes muscular dystrophy
MED Hypophosphatasia Hunters syndrome
Marfanâs syndrome Homocystinuria SED (tarda)
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome Gaucherâs disease Beckerâs muscular dystrophy
Abbreviations: OI (I,IV)=Osteogenesis imperfecta, SED=Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia, MED=Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia, MHE=Multiple hereditary exostosis
QUESTION 41
Which of the following conditions is transmitted by an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern:
1
Hemophilia A
2
Hypophosphatemic rickets
3
Duchennes muscular dystrophy
4
Achondroplasia
5
Hypophosphatasia
There is only one condition that must be remembered for examinations that is transmitted through an X-linked dominant pattern - hypophosphatemic rickets.
Remember: the conditions which are x-linked recessive
Hemophilia A, B - X-linked recessive
Duchennes muscular dystrophy - X-linked recessive Achondroplasia - Autosomal dominant Hypophosphatasia - Autosomal recessive
QUESTION 42
Which of the following conditions is transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern:
1
Hemophilia A
2
Achondroplasia
3
Hypophosphatemic rickets
4
Duchennes muscular dystrophy
5
Hypophosphatasia
Achondroplasia has an autosomal-dominant pattern of inheritance. Structural problems are usually transmitted via autosomal- dominant pattern.
If an affected individual is married to an unaffected person, then the chance of transmission to the children is 50%. The other conditions have the following transmission pattern:
Hemophilia A, B - X-linked recessive
Duchennes muscular dystrophy - X-linked recessive Achondroplasia - Autosomal dominant Hypophosphatasia - Autosomal recessive
QUESTION 43
A man with an autosomal-dominant condition married a woman without the condition. What is the probability that one of the offspring will be affected:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
For autosomal dominant, if one parent is a heterozygote and the other is normal, then the risk of transmission is to 50% of the offspring. Because of the dominance of the allele, heterozygotes manifest the condition.
For autosomal recessive, parents are usually not affected because they are heterozygotes. The risk of transmission is to 25% of the offspring. The children must have both recessive alleles to be affected.
QUESTION 44
A man with a single autosomal-recessive gene marries a woman who does not carry the recessive gene. The chance of one of the children expressing the phenotype of the recessive gene is:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
For autosomal dominant, if one parent is a heterozygote and the other is normal, then the risk of transmission is to 50% of the offspring. Because of the dominance of the allele, heterozygotes manifest the condition.
For autosomal recessive, parents are usually not affected because they are heterozygotes. The risk of transmission is to 25% of the offspring. The children must have both recessive alleles to be affected.
Because only one parent contains the gene, none of the children will be affected, although 25% of the children will carry the recessive gene.
QUESTION 45
A man with a single autosomal-recessive gene marries a woman who does not carry the recessive gene. The chance of one of the children carrying the recessive gene is:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
For autosomal dominant, if one parent is a heterozygote and the other is normal, then the risk of transmission is to 50% of the offspring. Because of the dominance of the allele, heterozygotes manifest the condition.
For autosomal recessive, parents are usually not affected because they are heterozygotes. The risk of transmission is to 25% of the offspring. The children must have both recessive alleles to be affected.
Because only one parent contains the gene, none of the children will be affected, although 25% of the children will carry the recessive gene.