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Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...

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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 800-850

QUESTION 1
Which of the following muscle groups comprises the mobile wad of the forearm:
1
Brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevisq
2
Brachioradialis, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
3
Brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor pollicis brevis
4
Brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
5
Extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor digitorum communis
QUESTION 2
Which of the following muscles must be detached from the tibia when decompressing the deep posterior compartment of the leg:
1
Posterior tibialis
2
Flexor hallucis longus
3
Medial gastrocnemius
4
Soleus
5
Flexor digitorum longus
QUESTION 3
Which of the following leg muscles often has its own fascial envelope (separate compartment):
1
Anterior tibialis muscle
2
Posterior tibialis muscle
3
Peroneus longus muscle
4
Flexor digitorum longus muscle
5
Flexor hallucis longus muscle
QUESTION 4
In patients with a tibia fracture, which of the following compartments are most prone to develop a compartment syndrome:
1
Anterior and lateral
2
Anterior and deep posterior
3
Lateral and superficial posterior
4
Lateral and deep posterior
5
Superficial and deep posterior
QUESTION 5
The approximate incidence of compartment syndrome following a tibia fracture is:
1
1% to 2%
2
5% to 10%
3
10% to 20%
4
20% to 30%
5
30% to 40%
QUESTION 6
In patients with a closed tibia fracture and suspected compartment syndrome, the region of the leg that will most likely have the highest tissue pressure measurement is:
1
The middle of the leg
2
5 cm proximal to the fracture site
3
At the level of the fracture
4
5 cm distal to the fracture site
5
The proximal one-third of the leg
QUESTION 7
Which of the following may be beneficial in decreasing the deleterious effects of total muscle ischemia in a patient who has a compartment syndrome:
1
Systemic steroids
2
Hypothermia
3
Elevation of the extremity above the heart
4
Antihypertensive therapy
5
Anticoagulant therapy
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the most sensitive finding in patients who are at risk for compartment syndrome before total muscle and nerve ischemia occurs:
1
Paresthesia
2
Loss of peripheral pulses
3
Pain on passive stretch of muscle
4
Delayed capillary refill
5
Loss of motor function
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the normal resting pressure in skeletal muscle:
1
0 mm Hg to 8 mm Hg
2
10 mm Hg to 16 mm Hg
3
18 mm Hg to 24 mm Hg
4
24 mm Hg to 30 mm Hg
5
30 mm Hg to 36 mm Hg
QUESTION 10
In injured tissues, ischemia begins when the tissue pressure within the compartment comes within mm Hg of the diastolic pressure.
1
10
2
20
3
30
4
40
5
50
QUESTION 11
C omplete ischemia of a peripheral nerve results in irreversible damage after hours.
1
1 to 2 hours
2
2 to 4 hours
3
4 to 6 hours
4
6 to 8 hours
5
8 to 10 hours
QUESTION 12
C omplete muscle ischemia that leads to irreversible muscle damage occurs after which of the following time periods:
1
1 to 2 hours
2
2 to 4 hours
3
4 to 6 hours
4
6 to 8 hours
5
8 to 10 hours
QUESTION 13
Skeletal muscle may remain viable (electrically responsive) following a period of total ischemia. Which of the following is the correct time interval for the tolerance to total muscle ischemia (complete recovery can be expected):
1
3 to 4 hours
2
4 to 6 hours
3
6 to 8 hours
4
8 to 10 hours
5
10 to 12 hours
QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements concerning locking plates is true:
1
The pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is only 30% of a standard bicortical screw.
2
Toggle between the screws and plate is greater than standard plating.
3
Locked bicortical screws have greater toggle than standard bicortical screws.
4
Friction between the plate and cortical bone is greater in locked plating compared to standard plating.
5
Locked plating is biomechanically similar to external fixation with a lower moment arm.
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements concerning locking plates is true:
1
The pullout strength of a locked unicortical screw is only 60% of a standard bicortical screw.
2
Toggle between the screws and plate is greater than standard plating.
3
Locked bicortical screws have greater toggle than standard bicortical screws.
4
Friction between the plate and cortical bone is greater in locked plating compared to standard plating.
5
Locked plating is not biomechanically similar to external fixation with a lower moment arm.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of hemophilia A:
1
Autosomal dominant inheritance
2
Autosomal recessive inheritance
3
Sex-linked dominant
4
Sex-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the most important pathophysiology factor in hemophilic arthropathy:
1
Viral joint infection
2
Bacterial joint infection
3
Hemosiderin depositionq
4
Subchondral bone microfractures
5
Neuropathic damage
QUESTION 18
The âbystander effectâ in cancer gene therapy is:
1
Resistance to gene therapy by neighbor tumor cells after irradiation.
2
The secretion of tumor suppressor cytokines by neighbor cells.
3
The death of neighbor untargeted tumor cells during cell-targeted suicide.
4
Anaphylaxis-like side effects seen during tumor gene therapy.
5
None of the above.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is associated with cleidocranial dysplasia:
1
Type X collagen
2
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
3
C artilage oligomeric protein
4
Fibrillin
5
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is associated with achondroplasia:
1
Type X collagen
2
Sulfate transporter gene
3
Fibrillin
4
Fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF-3) (receptor)
5
Type I collagen (C ol 1A1, 1A2)
QUESTION 21
Which of the following defects occurs in Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (pseudohypoparathyroidism):
1
Type X collagen
2
Sulfate transporter gene
3
Beta glucosidase
4
Galpha S (GNAS1)
5
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
QUESTION 22
Which of the following is associated with Marfan's syndrome:
1
Sulfate transporter gene
2
Fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF-3) (receptor)
3
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Fibrillin
QUESTION 23
Which of the following proteins binds to osteoclast precursor cells and positively effects their final differentiation into osteoclasts:
1
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB (RANK)
2
Osteoprotegerin
3
Bone morphogenetic protein-7
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
QUESTION 24
Which of the following proteins negatively affects osteoclast precursor cells:
1
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB (RANK)
2
Osteoprotegerin
3
Bone morphogenetic protein-7
4
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (C bfa1)
5
Parathyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
QUESTION 25
Which of the following proteins or genes is necessary for bone formation and induces osteocalcin:
1
Sox-9 gene
2
Receptor activator of nuclear factor-kB protein
3
Tumor necrosis factor-related activation induced cytokine
4
Osteoprotegerin
5
C ore binding factor alpha 1 (Cbfa1) gene
QUESTION 26
The human genome is comprised of approximately how many genes:
1
1,000
2
5,000
3
10,000
4
30,000
5
100,000
QUESTION 27
Which of the following portions of a gene directly codes for the messenger RNA for eventual translation into proteins on the ribosome:
1
Promoter region
2
Intron
3
Exon
4
C oding region
5
Activator or repressor binding site
QUESTION 28
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of achondroplasia:
1
X-linked recessive
2
Sporadic
3
Autosomal dominant
4
Autosomal recessive
5
X-linked dominant
QUESTION 29
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Marfanâs syndrome:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 30
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 31
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of multiple hereditary exostoses:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 32
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of polydactyly:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 33
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of hypophosphatasia:
1
Austosomal dominant
2
Austosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 34
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of sickle cell disease:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 35
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Gaucher's disease:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 36
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of homocystinuria:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 37
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern for hypophosphatemic rickets:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 38
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern for hemophilia A:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 39
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Duchennes muscular dystrophy:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 40
Which of the following describes the inheritance pattern of Becker's muscular dystrophy:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
X-linked recessive
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 41
Which of the following conditions is transmitted by an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern:
1
Hemophilia A
2
Hypophosphatemic rickets
3
Duchennes muscular dystrophy
4
Achondroplasia
5
Hypophosphatasia
QUESTION 42
Which of the following conditions is transmitted by an autosomal-dominant pattern:
1
Hemophilia A
2
Achondroplasia
3
Hypophosphatemic rickets
4
Duchennes muscular dystrophy
5
Hypophosphatasia
QUESTION 43
A man with an autosomal-dominant condition married a woman without the condition. What is the probability that one of the offspring will be affected:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
QUESTION 44
A man with a single autosomal-recessive gene marries a woman who does not carry the recessive gene. The chance of one of the children expressing the phenotype of the recessive gene is:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
QUESTION 45
A man with a single autosomal-recessive gene marries a woman who does not carry the recessive gene. The chance of one of the children carrying the recessive gene is:
1
0%
2
25%
3
50%
4
75%
5
100%
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon