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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 651-700
QUESTION 1
At which of the following sites is 25 hydroxyvitamin D3 converted into the active hormone 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3:
1
Skin
2
Liver
3
Kidney
4
Parathyroid hormone
5
Small intestine
Vitamin D3 is converted into its active form in the proximal tubules of the kidney. The active form is 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3. Remember that the liver performs the conversion to 25 hydroxyvitamin D3 and the kidney further hydroxylates to 1,25
dihydroxyvitamin D3. Correct Answer: Kidney
dihydroxyvitamin D3. Correct Answer: Kidney
QUESTION 2
Which of the following causes the conversion of 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3 into the inactive metabolite 24,25 dihydroxyvitamin
D3:
D3:
1
Ultraviolet light
2
Enzymes in the mitochondria of the kidney proximal tubules
3
Liver 1 alpha-hydroxylase
4
Decreased serum parathyroid hormone
5
Decreased serum calcium level
Increased serum calcium, increased serum phosphate level, and decreased parathyroid hormone all convert vitamin D to its inactive from â 24,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3.
Elevated serum parathyroid hormone and decreased calcium and phosphorus levels will increase conversion to the active form â
1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3.
Elevated serum parathyroid hormone and decreased calcium and phosphorus levels will increase conversion to the active form â
1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3.
QUESTION 3
The daily elemental calcium requirement for a postmenopausal woman is:
1
500 mg to 700 mg
2
750 mg
3
1,300 mg
4
1,500 mg
5
2,000 mg
The guidelines for the daily elemental calcium requirement are as follows:
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 1,500 mg
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 1,500 mg
QUESTION 4
The daily elemental calcium requirement for an elderly woman is:
1
500 mg to 700 mg
2
1,200 mg
3
1,500 mg
4
2,000 mg
5
2,500 mg
The guidelines for the daily elemental calcium requirement are as follows:
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 1,200 mg
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 1,200 mg
QUESTION 5
The daily elemental calcium requirement for a pregnant woman is:
1
500 mg to 700 mg
2
1,200 mg
3
1,500 mg
4
2,000 mg
5
2,500 mg
The guidelines for the daily elemental calcium requirement are as follows:
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 1,500 mg
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 1,500 mg
QUESTION 6
The daily elemental calcium requirement for a lactating woman is:
1
500 mg to 700 mg
2
750 mg
3
1,200 mg
4
1,500 mg
5
2,000 mg
The guidelines for the daily elemental calcium requirement are as follows:
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 2,000 mg
Children 500 mg to 700 mg
Growth spurt to young adult
(10 to 25 years of age)
1,300 mg
Adult male 750 mg
Adult female
Postmenopausal Elderly Pregnancy Lactation
  Â
1,500 mg
1,200 mg
1,500 mg
2,000 mg
Note: 1 daily equivalent = 250 mg elemental calcium (one glass of milk) Correct Answer: 2,000 mg
QUESTION 7
The active form of vitamin D has which of the following effects on end organs:
1
Vitamin D strongly stimulates intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus.
2
Vitamin D inhibits osteoclastiCresorption of bone.
3
Vitamin D stimulates renal mitochondria to hydroxylate 25 hydroxyvitamin D.
4
Vitamin D increases renal fractional resorption of filtered calcium.
5
Vitamin D promotes urinary excretion of phosphorus.
Parathyroid hormone, 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D, and calcitonin have the following effects on end organs:
Parathyroid hormone
Kidney
1/. Stimulates 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D formation
2/. Increases fractional resorption of filtered calcium
3/. Promotes urinary excretion of phosphorus
Bone
1/. Stimulates osteoclast resorption of bone
1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
Intestine
1/. Stimulates small intestine absorption of calcium and phosphorus
Calcitonin
Bone
1/. Inhibits osteoclastiCresorption of bone
Parathyroid hormone
Kidney
1/. Stimulates 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D formation
2/. Increases fractional resorption of filtered calcium
3/. Promotes urinary excretion of phosphorus
Bone
1/. Stimulates osteoclast resorption of bone
1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
Intestine
1/. Stimulates small intestine absorption of calcium and phosphorus
Calcitonin
Bone
1/. Inhibits osteoclastiCresorption of bone
QUESTION 8
The net effect of increased parathyroid hormone action on calcium and phosphorus concentration in the extracellular fluid and serum is:
1
Increased calcium, increased phosphate
2
Increased calcium, decreased phosphate
3
Decreased calcium, decreased phosphate
4
Increased calcium, no effect on phosphate
5
Transient decrease in serum calcium
Parathyroid hormone, the active form of vitamin D (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D), and calcitonin each have a net effect on calcium and phosphorus concentrations in extracellular fluid and serum:
Net Effect
Parathyroid hormone Increased serum calcium
Decreased serum phosphate
Vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) Increased serum calcium
Increased serum phosphate
Calcitonin Decreased serum calcium
(transient) Correct Answer: Increased calcium, decreased phosphate
Net Effect
Parathyroid hormone Increased serum calcium
Decreased serum phosphate
Vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) Increased serum calcium
Increased serum phosphate
Calcitonin Decreased serum calcium
(transient) Correct Answer: Increased calcium, decreased phosphate
QUESTION 9
The net effect of 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D3 on the calcium and phosphate concentration of the extracellular fluid and serum is:
1
Increased calcium, increased phosphate
2
Increased calcium, decreased phosphate
3
Decreased calcium, decreased phosphate
4
Increased calcium, no effect on phosphate
5
Transient decrease in serum calcium
Parathyroid hormone, the active form of vitamin D (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D), and calcitonin each have a net effect on calcium and phosphorus concentrations in extracellular fluid and serum:
Net Effect
Parathyroid hormone Increased serum calcium
Decreased serum phosphate
Vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) Increased serum calcium
Increased serum phosphate
Calcitonin Decreased serum calcium
(transient) Correct Answer: Increased calcium, increased phosphate
Net Effect
Parathyroid hormone Increased serum calcium
Decreased serum phosphate
Vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) Increased serum calcium
Increased serum phosphate
Calcitonin Decreased serum calcium
(transient) Correct Answer: Increased calcium, increased phosphate
QUESTION 10
The net effect of calcitonin on the calcium and phosphorus concentrations in the extracellular fluid and serum is:
1
Increased calcium, increased phosphate
2
Increased calcium, decreased phosphate
3
Decreased calcium
4
Increased calcium, no effect on phosphate
5
Transient decrease in serum calcium
Parathyroid hormone, the active form of vitamin D (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D), and calcitonin each have a net effect on calcium and phosphorus concentrations in extracellular fluid and serum:
Net Effect
Parathyroid hormone Increased serum calcium
Decreased serum phosphate
Vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) Increased serum calcium
Increased serum phosphate
Calcitonin Decreased serum calcium
(transient)
Net Effect
Parathyroid hormone Increased serum calcium
Decreased serum phosphate
Vitamin D3 (1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D) Increased serum calcium
Increased serum phosphate
Calcitonin Decreased serum calcium
(transient)
QUESTION 11
In which of the following osteonecrotiCconditions does the marrow cavity become packed with abnormal cells:
1
Caisson disease
2
Gaucher disease
3
Renal transplantation
4
Pancreatitis
5
ChroniCcorticosteroid administration
There are two conditions that cause osteonecrosis secondary to the marrow cavity becoming packed with abnormal cells â
Gaucher disease and sickle cell disease. There is probable occlusion of the intraosseous arteries with both of these conditions.
With Gaucher disease, the marrow cavity is filled with Gaucher cells (macrophages filled with cerebroside). In sickle cell disease, the marrow cavity is filled with sickled red blood cells.
Gaucher disease and sickle cell disease. There is probable occlusion of the intraosseous arteries with both of these conditions.
With Gaucher disease, the marrow cavity is filled with Gaucher cells (macrophages filled with cerebroside). In sickle cell disease, the marrow cavity is filled with sickled red blood cells.
QUESTION 12
Which of the following cells die in osteonecrosis:
1
Osteocytes only
2
Osteoblasts and osteocytes only
3
Osteoblasts, osteocytes, hematopoietiCcells, capillary endothelial cells, and lipocytes
4
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts only
5
Osteoblasts only
There is complete death of all the elements inside the bone in osteonecrosis: osteoblasts, osteocytes, hematopoietiCcells, capillary endothelial cells, and lipocytes.
In animal models, there are no histologiCchanges after the first week, but during the second week, there is evidence of death of all marrow cells. The osteocytes shrink and the lacunae are empty. The fat in the marrow dies and there is release of lysosomes. The pH is lower and the released calcium forms an insoluble soap with the saponified free fatty acids.
In animal models, there are no histologiCchanges after the first week, but during the second week, there is evidence of death of all marrow cells. The osteocytes shrink and the lacunae are empty. The fat in the marrow dies and there is release of lysosomes. The pH is lower and the released calcium forms an insoluble soap with the saponified free fatty acids.
QUESTION 13
The increased radiographiCbone density in osteonecrosis is most likely secondary to:
1
Calcification of the necrotiCbone marrow
2
Insoluble soap from released calcium and free fatty acids
3
Creeping substitution on the dead trabeculae
4
Resorption of the Haversian canal bone
5
NecrotiCcortical bone
The majority of the increased radiographiCbone density in osteonecrosis is caused by new bone formation laid down on the necrotiCbone trabeculae. This occurs through the process of creeping substitution.
There is calcification of the necrotiCmarrow and insoluble soap formation from the combination of the free fatty acids and released calcium. However, this does not cause the majority of the increased radiodensity.
There is resorption of the Haversian canal bone, but this results in decreased radiodensity on the radiograph rather than increased radiodensity.
NecrotiCbone that has not gone through the repair process appears normal on the plain radiograph (neither bone resorption or creeping substitution has occurred).
There is calcification of the necrotiCmarrow and insoluble soap formation from the combination of the free fatty acids and released calcium. However, this does not cause the majority of the increased radiodensity.
There is resorption of the Haversian canal bone, but this results in decreased radiodensity on the radiograph rather than increased radiodensity.
NecrotiCbone that has not gone through the repair process appears normal on the plain radiograph (neither bone resorption or creeping substitution has occurred).
QUESTION 14
A 20-year-old college student sustains a closed distal one-third tibia fracture when he falls while skiing. Which of the following would be the most common fracture pattern and mechanism:
1
Short spiral fracture â torsion
2
Oblique fracture â uneven bending
3
Transverse fracture â pure bending
4
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression
5
Segmental fracture â four-point bending
This college student has sustained a low-energy twisting injury, also known as a boot-top injury. The fracture pattern is a short spiral fracture and the mechanism of injury is torsion loading of the tibia.
The other patterns included:
Oblique fracture â uneven bending: This type of injury typically occurs following motorcycle accidents when the tibia is subjected to uneven bending forces.
Transverse fracture â pure bending: This fracture is typical of a soccer injury because the tibia is subjected to pure bending forces.
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression: This is a common fracture that occurs with low- and high-speed injuries. These fractures may occur from car bumpers and motorcycles.
Segmental fracture â four-point bending: This pattern is typical of high-energy injury, such as a pedestrian being struck by a car bumper.
The other patterns included:
Oblique fracture â uneven bending: This type of injury typically occurs following motorcycle accidents when the tibia is subjected to uneven bending forces.
Transverse fracture â pure bending: This fracture is typical of a soccer injury because the tibia is subjected to pure bending forces.
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression: This is a common fracture that occurs with low- and high-speed injuries. These fractures may occur from car bumpers and motorcycles.
Segmental fracture â four-point bending: This pattern is typical of high-energy injury, such as a pedestrian being struck by a car bumper.
QUESTION 15
A 45-year-old man is struck by the bumper of a fast moving car. He has an open tibia fracture. Which of the following would be the most common fracture pattern and mechanism:
1
Short spiral fracture â torsion
2
Oblique fracture â uneven bending
3
Transverse fracture â pure bending
4
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression
5
Segmental fracture â four-point bending
The mechanism in this patient is four-point bending. A segmental fracture is common. The other patterns included:
Oblique fracture â uneven bending: This type of injury typically occurs following motorcycle accidents when the tibia is subjected to uneven bending forces.
Transverse fracture â pure bending: This fracture is typical of a soccer injury because the tibia is subjected to pure bending forces.
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression: This is a common fracture that occurs with low- and high-speed injuries. These fractures may occur from car bumpers and motorcycles.
Short spiral fracture â torsion: This mechanism is usually from a low velocity skiing injury. Correct Answer: Segmental fracture â four-point bending
Oblique fracture â uneven bending: This type of injury typically occurs following motorcycle accidents when the tibia is subjected to uneven bending forces.
Transverse fracture â pure bending: This fracture is typical of a soccer injury because the tibia is subjected to pure bending forces.
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression: This is a common fracture that occurs with low- and high-speed injuries. These fractures may occur from car bumpers and motorcycles.
Short spiral fracture â torsion: This mechanism is usually from a low velocity skiing injury. Correct Answer: Segmental fracture â four-point bending
QUESTION 16
A 25-year-old soccer player sustained a closed tibia fracture when his planted leg was struck by another player. Which of the following would be the most common fracture pattern and mechanism:
1
Short spiral fracture â torsion
2
Oblique fracture â uneven bending
3
Transverse fracture â pure bending
4
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression
5
Segmental fracture â four-point bending
A transverse fracture is secondary to a pure bending force. The other patterns included:
Oblique fracture â uneven bending: This type of injury typically occurs following motorcycle accidents when the tibia is subjected to uneven bending forces.
Segmental fracture â four-point bending: This injury most commonly follows a high-energy injury, such as a pedestrian being struck by a car bumper.
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression: This is a common fracture that occurs with low- and high-speed injuries. These fractures may occur from car bumpers and motorcycles.
Short spiral fracture â torsion: This mechanism is usually from a low velocity skiing injury. Correct Answer: Transverse fracture â pure bending
Oblique fracture â uneven bending: This type of injury typically occurs following motorcycle accidents when the tibia is subjected to uneven bending forces.
Segmental fracture â four-point bending: This injury most commonly follows a high-energy injury, such as a pedestrian being struck by a car bumper.
Oblique fracture with a butterfly fragment â bending and compression: This is a common fracture that occurs with low- and high-speed injuries. These fractures may occur from car bumpers and motorcycles.
Short spiral fracture â torsion: This mechanism is usually from a low velocity skiing injury. Correct Answer: Transverse fracture â pure bending
QUESTION 17
Which of the following would be a high-energy injury:
1
Transverse tibia fracture after a soccer injury
2
Ulna shaft fracture secondary to being struck by a bat
3
Femur fracture from a bullet with a 1,200 ft/seCmuzzle velocity
4
Segmental fracture from a car bumper
5
Short spiral tibia fracture after a skiing injury
An injury caused by a car bumper is a high-energy injury.
All of the other distracters are low-energy injuries. Note that the cutoff for muzzle velocity between low- and high-energy injuries is 2,000 to 2,500 ft/sec.
All of the other distracters are low-energy injuries. Note that the cutoff for muzzle velocity between low- and high-energy injuries is 2,000 to 2,500 ft/sec.
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a high-energy injury:
1
Comminuted distal radius fracture after a fall on an outstretched hand
2
Comminuted radial head fracture after a fall
3
Humerus fracture from a bullet with a 2,900 ft/seCmuzzle velocity
4
Ulna shaft fracture from a bat
5
Transverse tibia fracture after a soccer injury
Gun shot injuries with a muzzle velocity greater than 2,500 ft/seCare high-energy injuries. These injuries cause cavitation in the soft tissues. Often the projectiles yaw, increasing the amount of soft tissue damage. High-velocity injuries require aggressive debridement. Low-velocity projectiles have a muzzle velocity that is less than 1,500 ft/sec. There is minimal soft tissue damage such that debridement of the wound edge is all that is required.
QUESTION 19
In which of the following fractures is the load to failure the lowest:
1
Transverse tibia fracture after a soccer collision
2
Segmental tibia fracture after an automobile-pedestrian accident
3
A short spiral humerus fracture after throwing a baseball from home to second base
4
A comminuted spiral tibia fracture after a skiing injury
5
A humerus fracture from a bullet with a muzzle velocity of 2,700 ft/sec
The lowest load to failure in long bones occurs with pure torsional forces. A long bone is weakest when loaded in pure torsion. Throwing may cause a humerus fracture through pure torsional loading. The skiing injury is also a torsional injury, however, the comminution indicates a greater amount of energy storage by the bone prior to failure.
QUESTION 20
A hematoma located at a bone fracture site forms a:
1
Fibrin scaffold formation for mechanical stability
2
Source of signaling molecules, such as interleukins 1 and 6
3
Production of matrix vesicles to initiate mineralization
4
Source of perivascular cells as progenitors of osteoblasts
5
Source of matrix vessels for protease and phosphatase production
The hematoma at a bone fracture site is believed to serve as a source of signaling molecules to control cellular events. Inflammatory cells produce cytokines, such as interleukin 1 and 6, and platelets in the clot release transforming growth factor- beta (TGF-B) and platelet derived growth factor (PDGF).
An old theory was that the hematoma served as a fibrin scaffold and added mechanical stability.
The hypertrophied chondrocytes produce matrix vesicles that control mineralization. The hypertrophiCcartilage cells are invaded by blood vessels that bring in the perivascular cells, which are the progenitors of the osteoblasts.
An old theory was that the hematoma served as a fibrin scaffold and added mechanical stability.
The hypertrophied chondrocytes produce matrix vesicles that control mineralization. The hypertrophiCcartilage cells are invaded by blood vessels that bring in the perivascular cells, which are the progenitors of the osteoblasts.
QUESTION 21
Which of the following fractures occurs through a single application of force:
1
A minimally displaced femoral neck fracture in a long distance runner
2
A second metatarsal fracture in a Naval Academy midshipman
3
A fifth rib fracture in a collegiate rower
4
A short spiral humerus fracture in a baseball catcher
5
A proximal one-third posterior tibial cortex fracture in a long distance runner
The femoral neck fracture, metatarsal fracture, rib fracture, and the tibial fracture are stress fractures that result from repetitive loading.
In contrast, the humeral fracture in the baseball catcher is secondary to failure of the humerus secondary to a pure torsional force. Long bones are at their weakest when loaded in pure torsion.
In contrast, the humeral fracture in the baseball catcher is secondary to failure of the humerus secondary to a pure torsional force. Long bones are at their weakest when loaded in pure torsion.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following statements is true concerning the vascularity at a fracture site:
1
Periosteal blood vessels are capable of supplying the endosteal region.
2
Fracture site blood flow peaks at 2 weeks.
3
Reamed intramedullary rods do not significantly interrupt endosteal blood supply.
4
In animal studies, blood flow is greater at 120 days in plated vs. rodded tibias.
5
In animal studies, blood flow is greater at 42 days in rodded vs. plated tibias.
In the normal long bone, the periosteal vessels supply the outer one-third of the cortex. The nutrient artery enters at the diaphysis of a long bone and has ascending and descending vessels that supply the inner two-thirds of the cortex.
Important points to remember:
The periosteal blood supply cannot supply the inner two-thirds of the cortex even if the endosteal blood supply has been interrupted, as in intramedullary reaming.
Blood flow markedly drops at the fracture site at the time of the fracture and peaks at 2 weeks.
Intramedullary reamed rods destroy the endosteal blood supply. In dog experiments, the blood supply is reconstituted to normal in 120 days.
In dog experiments, the blood supply is decreased in both plated and rodded tibias at 42 and 90 days. The decrease is greater in the rodded tibias.
The oxygen tension is low in the fracture hematoma and in the newly formed cartilage and bone. The oxygen tension is highest in the fibrous tissue. The hypoxiCstate favors cartilage formation.
Important points to remember:
The periosteal blood supply cannot supply the inner two-thirds of the cortex even if the endosteal blood supply has been interrupted, as in intramedullary reaming.
Blood flow markedly drops at the fracture site at the time of the fracture and peaks at 2 weeks.
Intramedullary reamed rods destroy the endosteal blood supply. In dog experiments, the blood supply is reconstituted to normal in 120 days.
In dog experiments, the blood supply is decreased in both plated and rodded tibias at 42 and 90 days. The decrease is greater in the rodded tibias.
The oxygen tension is low in the fracture hematoma and in the newly formed cartilage and bone. The oxygen tension is highest in the fibrous tissue. The hypoxiCstate favors cartilage formation.
QUESTION 23
Which of the following statements is true concerning molecular events at the site of a healing fracture:
1
Type II collagen production is lowest during the first 2 weeks.
2
Type I collagen production is highest during the first 2 weeks.
3
Periosteal type III collagen serves as a substrate for migration of osteoprogenitor cells and capillary ingrowth.
4
Type IX collagen initiates mineralization of type II collagen.
5
Types V and XI collagen control the maturation of mineralization crystals.
Important points to remember concerning molecular events at the fracture site:
Type II collagen production is highest during the first 2 weeks. Cartilage is the first tissue produced at the fracture site. The chondrocytes hypertrophy and release matrix vesicles that prepare the extracellular matrix for mineralization of the cartilage. Blood vessels grow into the hypertrophied cartilage cells and perivascular cells become osteoblasts and begin mineralization. This is the exact same process that occurs at the growth plate with formation of the primary and secondary spongiosa.
Type I collagen production is low during the first 2 weeks as cartilage is initially formed. Type I collagen production is highest as the cartilage is mineralized later.
Periosteal type III collagen serves as a substrate for the migration of osteoprogenitor cells and capillary ingrowth. Type IX collagen contributes to the mechanical stability of type II collagen.
Types V and XI collagen regulate the growth and orientation of types I and II collagen fibrils.
Type II collagen production is highest during the first 2 weeks. Cartilage is the first tissue produced at the fracture site. The chondrocytes hypertrophy and release matrix vesicles that prepare the extracellular matrix for mineralization of the cartilage. Blood vessels grow into the hypertrophied cartilage cells and perivascular cells become osteoblasts and begin mineralization. This is the exact same process that occurs at the growth plate with formation of the primary and secondary spongiosa.
Type I collagen production is low during the first 2 weeks as cartilage is initially formed. Type I collagen production is highest as the cartilage is mineralized later.
Periosteal type III collagen serves as a substrate for the migration of osteoprogenitor cells and capillary ingrowth. Type IX collagen contributes to the mechanical stability of type II collagen.
Types V and XI collagen regulate the growth and orientation of types I and II collagen fibrils.
QUESTION 24
Which of the following statements is true concerning the molecular events involved in fracture healing:
1
Osteonectin plays a role in early ossification.
2
Osteocalcin inhibits intramembranous bone formation.
3
Osteopontin plays no role in normal bone remodeling.
4
Fibronectin inhibits cell migration and adhesion.
5
Osteonectin is found in proliferating and hypertrophiCchondrocytes rather than extracellular matrix.
There are several noncollagenous proteins that are important in bone repair and regeneration:
Osteonectin â The gene for osteonectin is expressed at the onset of both intramembranous and enchondral ossification. It may play a role in the regulation of cell function in the early stages of ossification.
Osteocalcin â Osteocalcin is expressed in the fracture callus only by osteoblastiCcells. This protein may have a role in intramembranous subperiosteal bone formation.
Osteopontin â This protein is found in the extracellular matrix and is important in cellular attachment. It is found in osteocytes and osteoprogenitor cells. Osteopontin may play a role in bone remodeling.
Fibronectin â This protein plays a role in early fracture healing and is found in the fracture hematoma within 3 days. Fibronectin mediates adhesion and migration. It is found in the fibrous portions of provisional matrices and in cartilage matrix. The potential role for this protein is the establishment of provisional fibers in cartilaginous matrices.
Osteonectin â The gene for osteonectin is expressed at the onset of both intramembranous and enchondral ossification. It may play a role in the regulation of cell function in the early stages of ossification.
Osteocalcin â Osteocalcin is expressed in the fracture callus only by osteoblastiCcells. This protein may have a role in intramembranous subperiosteal bone formation.
Osteopontin â This protein is found in the extracellular matrix and is important in cellular attachment. It is found in osteocytes and osteoprogenitor cells. Osteopontin may play a role in bone remodeling.
Fibronectin â This protein plays a role in early fracture healing and is found in the fracture hematoma within 3 days. Fibronectin mediates adhesion and migration. It is found in the fibrous portions of provisional matrices and in cartilage matrix. The potential role for this protein is the establishment of provisional fibers in cartilaginous matrices.
QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a clinical sign of rickets?
1
Irritability
2
Frontal bossing
3
Localized bone pain
4
Short stature
5
Enlarged epiphyses
Localized bone pain is not a common finding in rickets. In contrast, in osteomalacia, bone pain is very common. The features of rickets that one should remember include:
* Apathy
* Irritability
* Short stature
* Positive Gowers sign
* Laxity
* Frontal bossing
* RachitiCrosary, Harrisonâs groove enlarged physes
* Apathy
* Irritability
* Short stature
* Positive Gowers sign
* Laxity
* Frontal bossing
* RachitiCrosary, Harrisonâs groove enlarged physes
QUESTION 26
Which of the following clinical findings are not associated with hyperparathyroidism:
1
Bone pain
2
Brown tumors
3
PathologiCfractures
4
Renal stones
5
Tetany
Features of primary hyperparathyroidism include bone pain, brown tumors, pathologiCfractures, and kidney stones. Tetany is not a finding.
Here are some common features to remember: Common, incidence 1 in 500-1,000
Females (usually postmenopausal) greater than men, 3:1
Etiology
Benign, solitary adenoma (80%) Four gland parathyroid hyperplasia Parathyroid carcinoma (
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.q-stem{font-size:1.25rem;margin-bottom:30px;font-weight:500;line-height:1.7;color:#2d3436;}
.q-opt{display:flex;align-items:center;padding:15px;border:2px solid #f1f2f6;border-radius:12px;margin-bottom:15px;cursor:pointer;transition:all 0.2s ease-in-out;background:#fff;}
.q-opt:hover{border-color:#0984e3;background:#f0f7ff;transform:translateX(5px);}
.q-opt-circle{width:35px;height:35px;border:2px solid #ddd;border-radius:50%;display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:center;margin-right:20px;font-weight:bold;background:#fafafa;flex-shrink:0;color:#636e72;}
.q-opt.correct{background:#e3fcef;border-color:#00b894;}
.q-opt.correct .q-opt-circle{background:#00b894;color:#fff;border-color:#00b894;}
.q-opt.wrong{background:#fff5f5;border-color:#ff7675;}
.q-opt.wrong .q-opt-circle{background:#ff7675;color:#fff;border-color:#ff7675;}
.q-opt.selected{border-color:#0984e3;background:#e3f2fd;}
.q-opt.selected .q-opt-circle{background:#0984e3;color:#fff;border-color:#0984e3;}
.q-feedback{margin-top:30px;padding:25px;background:#f8f9fa;border-left:6px solid #0984e3;border-radius:8px;}
.feedback-label{font-weight:bold;margin-bottom:15px;font-size:1.2rem;}
.explanation-text{line-height:1.7;color:#444;font-size:1.05rem;}
var v4E={
m:'study',r:new Map(),
setMode:function(m){this.m=m;document.getElementById('v4s').classList.toggle('active',m=='study');document.getElementById('v4e').classList.toggle('active',m=='exam');document.getElementById('v4xa').style.display=m=='exam'?'block':'none';this.reset();},
reset:function(){document.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(e=>{e.className='q-opt';e.style.pointerEvents='auto';});document.querySelectorAll('.q-feedback').forEach(e=>e.style.display='none');this.r.clear();this.up();},
up:function(){let s=0;this.r.forEach(v=>{if(v===true||v.s==v.c)s++;});const t=document.querySelectorAll('.mcq-v4-card').length;document.getElementById('v4sc').innerText=Math.round((s/t)*100)||0;},
reveal:function(c,s,k){const o=c.querySelectorAll('.q-opt');if(o[k-1])o[k-1].classList.add('correct');if(s!=k && o[s-1])o[s-1].classList.add('wrong');c.querySelector('.q-feedback').style.display='block';const fl=c.querySelector('.feedback-label');fl.innerHTML=s==k?' Correct Answer':' Incorrect';},
finish:function(){this.r.forEach((v,k)=>{this.reveal(document.getElementById('card-'+k),v.s,v.c);});document.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(e=>e.style.pointerEvents='none');window.scrollTo({top:0,behavior:'smooth'});}
};
document.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(el=>{
el.onclick=function(){
const q=this.dataset.q,k=this.dataset.correct,s=this.dataset.idx,p=this.closest('.mcq-v4-card');
if(v4E.m=='study') { if(v4E.r.has(q))return; v4E.r.set(q,s==k); p.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(o=>o.style.pointerEvents='none'); v4E.reveal(p,s,k); }
else { p.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(o=>o.classList.remove('selected')); this.classList.add('selected'); v4E.r.set(q,{s:s,c:k}); }
v4E.up();
};
});
Here are some common features to remember: Common, incidence 1 in 500-1,000
Females (usually postmenopausal) greater than men, 3:1
Etiology
Benign, solitary adenoma (80%) Four gland parathyroid hyperplasia Parathyroid carcinoma (
.v4b{border:2px solid #0984e3;background:#fff;color:#0984e3;padding:8px 20px;border-radius:25px;cursor:pointer;margin-right:10px;font-weight:bold;transition:0.3s;}
.v4b.active{background:#0984e3;color:#fff;}
.v4b:hover:not(.active){background:#e3f2fd;}
.mcq-v4-card{background:#fff;border-radius:15px;padding:35px;margin-bottom:40px;border:1px solid #e1e8ed;box-shadow:0 5px 15px rgba(0,0,0,0.04);}
.card-meta{color:#0984e3;font-weight:800;margin-bottom:20px;letter-spacing:1.5px;font-size:0.95rem;}
.q-stem{font-size:1.25rem;margin-bottom:30px;font-weight:500;line-height:1.7;color:#2d3436;}
.q-opt{display:flex;align-items:center;padding:15px;border:2px solid #f1f2f6;border-radius:12px;margin-bottom:15px;cursor:pointer;transition:all 0.2s ease-in-out;background:#fff;}
.q-opt:hover{border-color:#0984e3;background:#f0f7ff;transform:translateX(5px);}
.q-opt-circle{width:35px;height:35px;border:2px solid #ddd;border-radius:50%;display:flex;align-items:center;justify-content:center;margin-right:20px;font-weight:bold;background:#fafafa;flex-shrink:0;color:#636e72;}
.q-opt.correct{background:#e3fcef;border-color:#00b894;}
.q-opt.correct .q-opt-circle{background:#00b894;color:#fff;border-color:#00b894;}
.q-opt.wrong{background:#fff5f5;border-color:#ff7675;}
.q-opt.wrong .q-opt-circle{background:#ff7675;color:#fff;border-color:#ff7675;}
.q-opt.selected{border-color:#0984e3;background:#e3f2fd;}
.q-opt.selected .q-opt-circle{background:#0984e3;color:#fff;border-color:#0984e3;}
.q-feedback{margin-top:30px;padding:25px;background:#f8f9fa;border-left:6px solid #0984e3;border-radius:8px;}
.feedback-label{font-weight:bold;margin-bottom:15px;font-size:1.2rem;}
.explanation-text{line-height:1.7;color:#444;font-size:1.05rem;}
var v4E={
m:'study',r:new Map(),
setMode:function(m){this.m=m;document.getElementById('v4s').classList.toggle('active',m=='study');document.getElementById('v4e').classList.toggle('active',m=='exam');document.getElementById('v4xa').style.display=m=='exam'?'block':'none';this.reset();},
reset:function(){document.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(e=>{e.className='q-opt';e.style.pointerEvents='auto';});document.querySelectorAll('.q-feedback').forEach(e=>e.style.display='none');this.r.clear();this.up();},
up:function(){let s=0;this.r.forEach(v=>{if(v===true||v.s==v.c)s++;});const t=document.querySelectorAll('.mcq-v4-card').length;document.getElementById('v4sc').innerText=Math.round((s/t)*100)||0;},
reveal:function(c,s,k){const o=c.querySelectorAll('.q-opt');if(o[k-1])o[k-1].classList.add('correct');if(s!=k && o[s-1])o[s-1].classList.add('wrong');c.querySelector('.q-feedback').style.display='block';const fl=c.querySelector('.feedback-label');fl.innerHTML=s==k?' Correct Answer':' Incorrect';},
finish:function(){this.r.forEach((v,k)=>{this.reveal(document.getElementById('card-'+k),v.s,v.c);});document.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(e=>e.style.pointerEvents='none');window.scrollTo({top:0,behavior:'smooth'});}
};
document.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(el=>{
el.onclick=function(){
const q=this.dataset.q,k=this.dataset.correct,s=this.dataset.idx,p=this.closest('.mcq-v4-card');
if(v4E.m=='study') { if(v4E.r.has(q))return; v4E.r.set(q,s==k); p.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(o=>o.style.pointerEvents='none'); v4E.reveal(p,s,k); }
else { p.querySelectorAll('.q-opt').forEach(o=>o.classList.remove('selected')); this.classList.add('selected'); v4E.r.set(q,{s:s,c:k}); }
v4E.up();
};
});