العربية

Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...

Updated: Feb 2026 76 Views
Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
Score: 0%

ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 401-450

QUESTION 1
Intraoperatively, all patients with sickle cell disease require which of the following:
1
CardiaCrhythm monitoring
2
Oxygen saturation monitoring
3
Active warming
4
Blood pressure monitoring
5
All of the above
QUESTION 2
Which of the following postoperative thromboemboliCprophylaxis options is of greatest benefit in patients with sickle cell disease:
1
Low-molecular-weight heparin
2
Low-dose heparin
3
Warfarin
4
Warfarin and foot pumps
5
Aspirin
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the most common indication for total hip arthroplasty in patients with sickle cell disease:
1
SeptiCarthritis
2
Avascular necrosis
3
Osteoarthritis
4
Pain crisis
5
Fracture
QUESTION 4
The common genetiCbasis of sickle cell disease is a mutation on what chromosome:
1
Chromosome 2
2
Chromosome 8
3
Chromosome 11
4
Chromosome X
5
Chromosome 14
QUESTION 5
In the heterozygote carrier, the presence of this sickle gene mutation offers potential resistance to:
1
Bartonella infections
2
Clostridium infections
3
Pneumococcal infections
4
Plasmodium falciparum malaria infections
5
Typhoid fever
QUESTION 6
The minimally invasive surgical technique for unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
Everts the patella
2
Resurfaces the patella
3
Subluxes the patella
4
Removes a portion of the patella
5
Violates the suprapatellar synovial pouch
QUESTION 7
The early failures of unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) were due to:
1
Patient selection
2
Implant design
3
Surgical technique
4
Implant design and surgical technique
5
Patient selection, implant design, and surgical technique
QUESTION 8
In unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) for a varus knee:
1
The medial collateral ligament should be released
2
The medial collateral ligament should be tightened
3
The medial collateral ligament should not be changed
4
The lateral collateral ligament should be tightened
5
Knee alignment is corrected to 6° of valgus
QUESTION 9
In comparing high tibial osteomtomy to unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
Patients with high tibial osteotomy recover faster than patients with UKA.
2
High tibial osteotomy has better 10-year results than UKA.
3
High tibial osteotomy has better early results than UKA.
4
High tibial osteotomy is better for patients who work as heavy laborers.
5
High tibial osteotomy has fewer operative complications than UKA.
QUESTION 10
Contraindications to unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) includes all of the following except:
1
Bilateral knee disease
2
Tibial subluxation
3
Varus deformity >15°
4
Inflammatory arthritis
5
>10° flexion contracture
QUESTION 11
Patellofemoral arthritis in the knee undergoing unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
Is an absolute contraindication
2
Is a relative contraindication
3
Does not affect the result of UKA
4
Is always present in UKA
5
Is more symptomatiCthan patellar impingement
QUESTION 12
When performing unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA), it is best to use polyethylene:
1
With a thickness of >10 mm
2
With a thickness of >8 mm
3
With a thickness of >6 mm
4
With a thickness of >4 mm
5
With a thickness of >2 mm
QUESTION 13
Radiographs of the UKA over a period of years after surgery show:
1
Some progression of arthritis in the opposite compartment
2
No arthritis in the opposite compartment
3
Advanced arthritis in the opposite compartment
4
No arthritis in the patellofemoral joint
5
Unacceptable rate of subsidence of the tibial compartment
QUESTION 14
The minimally invasive surgical technique for unicondylar knee arthroplasty(UKA)
1
Everts the patella
2
Resurfaces the patella
3
Subluxes the patella
4
Removes a portion of the patellar
5
Violates the suprapatellar pouch
QUESTION 15
The most common organism identified in bone cultures taken from patients with sickle cell disease with osteomyelitis is:
1
Salmonella typhimurium
2
Staphylococcus aureus
3
Haemophilus influenzae
4
Plasmodium falciparum
5
Staphylococcus epidermis
QUESTION 16
Second-generation cement technique implies which of the following:
1
Cement is hand-packed in the shaft of the femur.
2
The medullary canal is rinsed out by medullary lavage.
3
Cement is hand-mixed, medullary lavage is performed, and a canal plug is used.
4
The canal is brushed, jet lavage is performed, and a vacuum or centrifuge machine is used.
5
External pressurization is used.
QUESTION 17
When comparing syringe-mixing versus bowl-mixing of bone cement, which of the following is not true:
1
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a greater density.
2
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a greater bending modulus.
3
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a lesser bending modulus.
4
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a higher bending strain.
5
Centrifuged or syringe-mixed bone cement, under vacuum conditions, is of greater strength than aerated bowl-mixed cement.
QUESTION 18
In an obese patient undergoing unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
The results are worse than in a normal weight patient.
2
The results are better than in a normal weight patient.
3
The results are not predictably better or worse.
4
The results depend on the design of the prosthesis.
5
Results are gender dependent.
QUESTION 19
The percentage of patients with a natural history of untreated asymptomatiCosteonecrosis of the femoral head with sickle cell disease that will develop progression to pain is:
1
10%
2
30%
3
50%
4
70%
5
90%
QUESTION 20
Which of the following statement is true regarding osteonecrosis and sickle cell disease:
1
Sickle cell patients with total hip replacement have outcomes equivalent to patients with osteonecrosis secondary to steroid use.
2
Physical therapy alone is the most effective means of treatment in sickle cell patients with osteonecrosis.
3
Core decompression alone is the most effective means of treatment in sickle cell patients with osteonecrosis.
4
Physical therapy alone is as effective as hip core decompression followed by physical therapy.
5
Bone grafting has the best outcome for sickle cell patients.
QUESTION 21
In the varus knee, unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) should correct the deformity:
1
7° of anatomiCvalgus
2
10° of anatomiCvalgus
3
4
Permit implant positioning with 2 mm of laxity in flexion and full extension
5
5° of anatomiCvarus
QUESTION 22
The most common risk factors for stress fractures is:
1
Leg length discrepancy
2
Training regimen
3
Muscle strength
4
Low bone mineral density
5
Footwear
QUESTION 23
Which of the following exerts protective effects on bone:
1
Ligaments
2
Muscle flexibility
3
Muscle-tendon unit
4
Articular cartilage
5
Hormonal factors
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is not associated with increased risk of stress fractures:
1
Eating disorder
2
Hyperthyroidism
3
Prolonged corticosteroid use
4
Hypothyroidism
5
CeliaCsprue
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are both markers of bone formation:
1
Osteocalcin and bone specifiCalkaline phosphatase
2
Collagen degradation products and leptin
3
IGF-1 and serum C-telopeptide
4
Urine N-telopeptide and serum C-telopeptide
5
IGF-1 and leptin
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is not a component of the female athlete triad:
1
Disordered eating
2
Osteopenia
3
Menstrual dysfunction
4
Low bone density
5
Excessive training
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not appropriate in the conservative management of stress fractures:
1
Relative rest
2
Maintenance of athletiCfitness
3
Modification of training errors
4
Pain relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
5
Gradual return to activity
QUESTION 28
How much should training time and intensity be increased per week to avoid bone stress injury:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
QUESTION 29
The pattern of inflammation in the periprosthetiCtissue of loose metal-on-metal articulations is characterized by:
1
Perivascular infiltration of eosinophils
2
Perivascular infiltration of lymphocytes
3
Perivascular infiltration of plasma cell
4
Perivascular infiltration of polymorphonuclears
5
Perivascular infiltration of lymphocytes and accumulation of plasma cells
QUESTION 30
The International Agency for Research on Cancer classified Cr (VI) and Ni (II) as:
1
Non carcinogenic
2
Carcinogenic
3
Possibly carcinogenic
4
Moderately carcinogenic
5
Moderately carcinogenic
QUESTION 31
Which of the following metals is likely to induce developmental toxicity in pregnancy as suggested by animal studies:
1
Cr
2
Co
3
Ni and V
4
Cr and Co
5
Cr, Co, NI, V and Al
QUESTION 32
The accumulation of what metal was attributed to the 1996 episode of âbeer-drinkersâ cardiomyopathy:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
QUESTION 33
The deposition of what metal in bone has been linked to osteomalacia, bone pain, and pathological fractures:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
QUESTION 34
Which of the following metals has been documented to cause serve retinal degeneration:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Ni
4
Al and Co
5
Al, Co, and Ni
QUESTION 35
The incidence of dermal reactions and positive skin-patch testing to Co, Ni, and Cr in patients with total joint replacement with stable prostheses is:
1
5% above those of the general population
2
10% above those of the general population
3
15% above those of the general population
4
30% above those of the general population
5
50% above those of the general population
QUESTION 36
The incidence of dermal reactions and positive skin-patch testing to Co, Ni, and Cr in patients with total joint replacement with unstable prostheses is:
1
5% above those of the general population
2
10% above those of the general population
3
15% above those of the general population
4
30% above those of the general population
5
50% above those of the general population
QUESTION 37
Hepatocellular necrosis has been observed with high levels of in the body.
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
QUESTION 38
Which metal ion concentrates in the epithelial cells of the proximal tubules and can impair renal function, induce tubular necrosis, and cause marked interstitial changes in experimental animals and humans:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
QUESTION 39
Severe neurological manifestations have been attributed with accumulation of what metal ion in the brain:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
QUESTION 40
What is the preferred imaging modality to determine the glenoid wear pattern in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis:
1
Plain radiographs
2
Fluoroscopically positioned plain radiographs
3
MagnetiCresonance image
4
Tomograms
5
Computed tomography scan
QUESTION 41
What is the most common reason for revision among patients who undergo shoulder arthroplasty for rheumatoid arthritis:
1
Infection
2
Instability
3
Humeral component loosening
4
Glenoid component loosening
5
Painful glenoid arthritis
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon