Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
Updated: Feb 2026
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Key Medical Takeaway
For anyone wondering about ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 401-450, Patients with sickle cell disease face significant surgical risks, including osteonecrosis commonly affecting the femoral head. Preoperative transfusion therapy is indicated for severe anemia, while intraoperative active warming is crucial. Postoperative acute chest syndrome is a primary concern. Such detailed management protocols are essential for any surgery in these patients, including a unicondylar knee arthroplasty uka.
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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 401-450
QUESTION 1
Intraoperatively, all patients with sickle cell disease require which of the following:
1
CardiaCrhythm monitoring
2
Oxygen saturation monitoring
3
Active warming
4
Blood pressure monitoring
5
All of the above
The most common intraoperative complications are excessive blood loss (53%), followed by hypothermia (11%). Therefore, patients require extensive monitoring of cardiaCrhythm, blood pressure, temperature, and oxygen saturation. They also need active intraoperative warming, which usually consists of a combination of a warming blanket, humidifier, blood/fluid warmer, and heat lamp
QUESTION 2
Which of the following postoperative thromboemboliCprophylaxis options is of greatest benefit in patients with sickle cell disease:
1
Low-molecular-weight heparin
2
Low-dose heparin
3
Warfarin
4
Warfarin and foot pumps
5
Aspirin
Few published reports exist on the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients with sickle cell disease following orthopediCprocedures. In sickle cell disease, platelets do not contribute to the pathophysiology of microvascular occlusion. However, due to spleniCsequestration, patients with sickle cell disease often have thrombocytopenia. Factors associated with vaso-occlusion include the increased adhesion of the sickle cells to the endothelium and the activation of the clotting cascade with thrombin formation. Thrombin induces endothelial retraction resulting in the exposure of proadhesive extracellular components. It also upregulates endothelial expression of P-selectin, which increases binding among erythrocytes, white cells, platelets, and
endothelial cells. Both of these events can facilitate thrombus formation. Following hip surgery, there is already a definable risk of
DVT attributable to surgical trauma and immobility.
The goal of lower limb arthroplasty is optimal pain control with early mobilization to minimize the risk of respiratory and thromboemboliCcomplications. Results of a meta-analysis of DVT after hip surgery suggest that patients with sickle cell disease undergoing THR are best managed with foot pumps and warfarin postoperatively to decrease the likelihood of thromboses in these patients.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the most common indication for total hip arthroplasty in patients with sickle cell disease:
1
SeptiCarthritis
2
Avascular necrosis
3
Osteoarthritis
4
Pain crisis
5
Fracture
The mean age of patients with sickle cell disease undergoing hip surgery is approximately 34 years, with the most frequent procedure being THR for avascular necrosis. Some patients undergo bipolar hemiarthroplasty, which can be complicated by acetabular protrusio. Because hip surgery often is more complex in patients with sickle cell disease, it often is associated with longer anesthesia time and greater blood loss. Mean blood loss in THR in patients with sickle disease is approximately 1200 mL, which is significantly greater than in patients without sickle cell disease
QUESTION 4
The common genetiCbasis of sickle cell disease is a mutation on what chromosome:
1
Chromosome 2
2
Chromosome 8
3
Chromosome 11
4
Chromosome X
5
Chromosome 14
The common genetiCbasis of sickle cell disease is a mutation on chromosome 11 that results in an amino-acid substitution of valine for glutamiCacid at the sixth position of the beta-globin subunit of hemoglobin that results in hemoglobin S (HbS). In the heterozygote carrier, this sickle gene mutation offers potential resistance to endemiCPlasmodium falciparum malaria infections. Diagnosis of the disease is confirmed by hemoglobin electrophoresis
QUESTION 5
In the heterozygote carrier, the presence of this sickle gene mutation offers potential resistance to:
1
Bartonella infections
2
Clostridium infections
3
Pneumococcal infections
4
Plasmodium falciparum malaria infections
5
Typhoid fever
The common genetiCbasis of sickle cell disease is a mutation on chromosome 11 that results in an amino-acid substitution of valine for glutamiCacid at the sixth position of the beta-globin subunit of hemoglobin that results in hemoglobin S (HbS). In the heterozygote carrier, this sickle gene mutation offers potential resistance to endemiCPlasmodium falciparum malaria infections. Diagnosis of the disease is confirmed by hemoglobin electrophoresis
QUESTION 6
The minimally invasive surgical technique for unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
Everts the patella
2
Resurfaces the patella
3
Subluxes the patella
4
Removes a portion of the patella
5
Violates the suprapatellar synovial pouch
New surgical technique and instrumentation leads to less invasion of the extensor mechanism. The patella is not everted, and the suprapatellar synovial pouch remains untouched
QUESTION 7
The early failures of unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) were due to:
1
Patient selection
2
Implant design
3
Surgical technique
4
Implant design and surgical technique
5
Patient selection, implant design, and surgical technique
The initial high failure rate of UKA in early reports was related to improper patient selection, incorrect surgical technique, and poor implant design
QUESTION 8
In unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) for a varus knee:
1
The medial collateral ligament should be released
2
The medial collateral ligament should be tightened
3
The medial collateral ligament should not be changed
4
The lateral collateral ligament should be tightened
5
Knee alignment is corrected to 6° of valgus
In total knee arthroplasty (TKA), knee alignment is corrected to an anatomiC6º or 7º of valgus. In UKA, this alignment leads to excessive medial compartment tightness and overload of the opposite lateral compartment. A varus knee in UKA should remain in neutral or a few degrees of varus. In TKA, a flexion contracture can be readily corrected with additional resection of both femoral condyles. In UKA, resection of the single distal femoral condyle helps to correct the flexion contracture but also changes the distal femoral valgus. Ligament releases in UKA are not as predictable as in TKA because only one compartment is replaced in the UKA, and the forces on the opposite compartment are more difficult to balance
QUESTION 9
In comparing high tibial osteomtomy to unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
Patients with high tibial osteotomy recover faster than patients with UKA.
2
High tibial osteotomy has better 10-year results than UKA.
3
High tibial osteotomy has better early results than UKA.
4
High tibial osteotomy is better for patients who work as heavy laborers.
5
High tibial osteotomy has fewer operative complications than UKA.
Although a successful UKA can eliminate pain and improve the patientâs function, heavy labor and high impact athletiCactivities are not encouraged. High tibial osteotomy allows a patient to perform more aggressive activities
QUESTION 10
Contraindications to unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) includes all of the following except:
1
Bilateral knee disease
2
Tibial subluxation
3
Varus deformity >15°
4
Inflammatory arthritis
5
>10° flexion contracture
A patientâs symptoms and physical findings should be isolated to one tibiofemoral compartment, but disease can be present in both the right and left knee as long as its just one compartment. Patient history must be thoroughly evaluated to ensure that there are no associated patellofemoral symptoms in the opposite compartment
QUESTION 11
Patellofemoral arthritis in the knee undergoing unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
Is an absolute contraindication
2
Is a relative contraindication
3
Does not affect the result of UKA
4
Is always present in UKA
5
Is more symptomatiCthan patellar impingement
Kozinn and Scott have emphasized that pain in the patellofemoral joint is a relative contraindication for UKA surgery. Degenerative changes of the patellofemoral joint also affected patient function, but the symptoms were less severe than in patients with patellar impingement. If patients report significant symptoms related to the patellofemoral joint, then UKA is contraindicated
QUESTION 12
When performing unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA), it is best to use polyethylene:
1
With a thickness of >10 mm
2
With a thickness of >8 mm
3
With a thickness of >6 mm
4
With a thickness of >4 mm
5
With a thickness of >2 mm
Manufacturing of polyethylene is improving, and cross-linking processes are increasing the wear properties. Most surgeons believe that it is safest to use a thickness of at least 6 mm with conventional polyethylene
QUESTION 13
Radiographs of the UKA over a period of years after surgery show:
1
Some progression of arthritis in the opposite compartment
2
No arthritis in the opposite compartment
3
Advanced arthritis in the opposite compartment
4
No arthritis in the patellofemoral joint
5
Unacceptable rate of subsidence of the tibial compartment
Marmor reported no significant increase in the opposite compartment. Kozinn and Scott reported failures due to progression in the opposite compartment; however, this may have been due to over correction of the knee. Berger and colleagues reported minimal change in the opposite compartment with 12-year follow-up radiographs
QUESTION 14
The minimally invasive surgical technique for unicondylar knee arthroplasty(UKA)
1
Everts the patella
2
Resurfaces the patella
3
Subluxes the patella
4
Removes a portion of the patellar
5
Violates the suprapatellar pouch
The minimally onvasive surgical technique for UKA subluxes the patella and leads to less invasion of the extensor mechanism. The patella is not everted and the suprapatellar synovial pouch remains untouched
QUESTION 15
The most common organism identified in bone cultures taken from patients with sickle cell disease with osteomyelitis is:
1
Salmonella typhimurium
2
Staphylococcus aureus
3
Haemophilus influenzae
4
Plasmodium falciparum
5
Staphylococcus epidermis
Although Salmonella infections are highly specifiCto patients with sickle cell disease, the most common organism identified in bone cultures taken from patients with sickle cell disease with osteomyelitis is S aureus. Due to autoinfarction, 95% of individuals develop functional asplenia by age 5 years. This condition has been associated with a decrease in opsonin production and phagocytiCactivity. Thus, in infants with sickle cell disease the major cause of death is pneumococcal sepsis. It has been recommended that patients with sickle cell disease have pneumococcal vaccine administered every 3 to 5 years
QUESTION 16
Second-generation cement technique implies which of the following:
1
Cement is hand-packed in the shaft of the femur.
2
The medullary canal is rinsed out by medullary lavage.
3
Cement is hand-mixed, medullary lavage is performed, and a canal plug is used.
4
The canal is brushed, jet lavage is performed, and a vacuum or centrifuge machine is used.
5
External pressurization is used.
First-generation cement technique implies that cement is hand-packed in the shaft of the femur. A cement plug is not used and a lavage of the femoral canal is not performed. Second-generation technique implies that cement is hand-mixed in a bowl,
medullary lavage is performed, and a canal plug is used. Third-generation technique refers to performing high-pressure jet lavage of the femoral canal, brushing the canal of all particles, using a vacuum or centrifuge machine in the mixing procedure, and using external pressurization on a closed canal
QUESTION 17
When comparing syringe-mixing versus bowl-mixing of bone cement, which of the following is not true:
1
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a greater density.
2
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a greater bending modulus.
3
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a lesser bending modulus.
4
Syringe-mixed bone cement has a higher bending strain.
5
Centrifuged or syringe-mixed bone cement, under vacuum conditions, is of greater strength than aerated bowl-mixed cement.
When analyzing bone cement for void content and failure in four-part bending, the results show that syringe-mixed bone cement has a greater density and a greater bending modulus and is of greater strength than aerated bowl-mixed cement
QUESTION 18
In an obese patient undergoing unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
The results are worse than in a normal weight patient.
2
The results are better than in a normal weight patient.
3
The results are not predictably better or worse.
4
The results depend on the design of the prosthesis.
5
Results are gender dependent.
The knee should have less than 15° of deformity in varus or valgus and less than 10° flexion contracture. Inflammatory or crystalline-induced arthritis, knee subluxation, gross ligamentous laxity, and obesity are relative contraindications to the procedure. Scott and colleagues found that increased body weight contributed to failure in UKA and suggested that the best candidates are less than 180 lb
QUESTION 19
The percentage of patients with a natural history of untreated asymptomatiCosteonecrosis of the femoral head with sickle cell disease that will develop progression to pain is:
1
10%
2
30%
3
50%
4
70%
5
90%
In a study involving 121 patients with untreated asymptomatiCosteonecrosis of the femoral head, 110 of the patients went on to develop significant hip pain. Spontaneous resolution of osteonecrosis of the femoral head was not observed in asymptomatiChips
QUESTION 20
Which of the following statement is true regarding osteonecrosis and sickle cell disease:
1
Sickle cell patients with total hip replacement have outcomes equivalent to patients with osteonecrosis secondary to steroid use.
2
Physical therapy alone is the most effective means of treatment in sickle cell patients with osteonecrosis.
3
Core decompression alone is the most effective means of treatment in sickle cell patients with osteonecrosis.
4
Physical therapy alone is as effective as hip core decompression followed by physical therapy.
5
Bone grafting has the best outcome for sickle cell patients.
In a randomized prospective study performed by Neumayr and colleagues, physical therapy alone appeared to be as effective as hip core decompression followed by physical therapy in improving hip function and postponing the need for additional surgical intervention at a mean of 3 years after treatment
QUESTION 21
In the varus knee, unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA) should correct the deformity:
1
7° of anatomiCvalgus
2
10° of anatomiCvalgus
3
0°
4
Permit implant positioning with 2 mm of laxity in flexion and full extension
5
5° of anatomiCvarus
In the medial UKA with preoperative varus, most of the reviews suggest an alignment of 0° with reference to the anatomiCaxis of the lower extremity or slightly less than 0° with reference to the mechanical axis. In the study by Kennedy and White on 100
UKAs, they reported that superior results were obtained when the postoperative mechanical axis of the operated limb fell in the center of the knee or slightly medial to the center
QUESTION 22
The most common risk factors for stress fractures is:
1
Leg length discrepancy
2
Training regimen
3
Muscle strength
4
Low bone mineral density
5
Footwear
Numerous risk factors for stress fracture exist. Most commonly, the scenario is doing âtoo much too soon.â Survey data have shown 86% of runners suffering stress fracture have had a change in duration, frequency, or intensity of training immediately prior to injury. The best independent predictors for stress fracture development in women appear to be age of menarche and calf girth
QUESTION 23
Which of the following exerts protective effects on bone:
1
Ligaments
2
Muscle flexibility
3
Muscle-tendon unit
4
Articular cartilage
5
Hormonal factors
The muscle-tendon unit exerts a protective effect on cortical bone by acting as the major shock absorber. With muscle contraction, cortical bone surface bending strains are reduced. In most weight-bearing bones it is believed that with muscle fatigue, the shock-absorbing effect is lessened and more force is transmitted directly to bone, increasing the likelihood of microdamage accumulation
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is not associated with increased risk of stress fractures:
1
Eating disorder
2
Hyperthyroidism
3
Prolonged corticosteroid use
4
Hypothyroidism
5
CeliaCsprue
Any history of frequent or prolonged corticosteroid use, hyperparathyroidism, rheumatoid arthritis, hyperthyroidism, celiaCsprue, previous stress fractures or overuse injuries as well as signs or symptoms of an eating disorder also should draw oneâs attention to the possibility of a reduced bone mass
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are both markers of bone formation:
1
Osteocalcin and bone specifiCalkaline phosphatase
2
Collagen degradation products and leptin
3
IGF-1 and serum C-telopeptide
4
Urine N-telopeptide and serum C-telopeptide
5
IGF-1 and leptin
Several metaboliChormones that influence bone formation (IGF-1, T3, leptin) as well as bone formation markers (serum Type I procollagen carboxyl and amino terminal propeptides, osteocalcin, bone specifiCalkaline phosphatase) and bone resorption markers (collagen degradation products, urine N-telopeptide, and serum C-telopeptide) can be followed to form an impression on the overall bone turnover status
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is not a component of the female athlete triad:
1
Disordered eating
2
Osteopenia
3
Menstrual dysfunction
4
Low bone density
5
Excessive training
The female athlete triad, first described in 1993, initially consisted of three interrelated conditions: eating disorders, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis. The definition has since been broadened to disordered eating, menstrual dysfunction, and low bone density (osteopenia or osteoporosis) to include all those at risk for the detrimental effects to bone
QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not appropriate in the conservative management of stress fractures:
1
Relative rest
2
Maintenance of athletiCfitness
3
Modification of training errors
4
Pain relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
5
Gradual return to activity
Literature regarding nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use in stress fracture healing is lacking; however, there has been research into its risks associated with complete fractures and nonunion after surgery. Prostaglandins play a crucial role in bone metabolism and repair. Cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) products have been found to be essential to bone repair in animal studies. Animal studies have shown that NSAIDs including indomethacin, aspirin, ibuprofen, and COX-2 inhibitors cause delayed fracture healing that may or may not be reversible on cessationCorrect Answer: Pain relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
QUESTION 28
How much should training time and intensity be increased per week to avoid bone stress injury:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
Generally, it is best to increase training time and intensity by 150 nm) can stimulate phagocytosis in specialized cells such as macrophages. Once internalized, metal particles can induce cytotoxicity, chromosomal damage, and oxidative stress. The toxicity of particles is modified by passivation and particle size. These factors both influence the dissolution of metal from the surface, which may account for biological activity. Evidence of cell damage, such as irregular cell membranes and enlarged mitochondria, may be induced by the physical properties of the particles
QUESTION 29
The pattern of inflammation in the periprosthetiCtissue of loose metal-on-metal articulations is characterized by:
1
Perivascular infiltration of eosinophils
2
Perivascular infiltration of lymphocytes
3
Perivascular infiltration of plasma cell
4
Perivascular infiltration of polymorphonuclears
5
Perivascular infiltration of lymphocytes and accumulation of plasma cells
The pattern of inflammation in the periprosthetiCtissue of loose metal-on-metal articulations is significantly different to that of metal-on-metal polyethylene articulations, and is characterized by perivascular infiltration of lymphocytes and the accumulation of plasma cells. Experimental data suggest that orthopediCmetals induce immunological effects that support a cell-mediated hypersensitivity response
QUESTION 30
The International Agency for Research on Cancer classified Cr (VI) and Ni (II) as:
1
Non carcinogenic
2
Carcinogenic
3
Possibly carcinogenic
4
Moderately carcinogenic
5
Moderately carcinogenic
The International Agency for Research on Cancer, which publishes information on the risks posed by chemicals on the development of human cancers, has classified Cr (VI) and Ni (II) as carcinogenic, metalliCNi and soluble Co as possibly carcinogenic, and metalliCCr, Cr (III) compounds and implanted orthopediCalloys as unclassifiable
QUESTION 31
Which of the following metals is likely to induce developmental toxicity in pregnancy as suggested by animal studies:
1
Cr
2
Co
3
Ni and V
4
Cr and Co
5
Cr, Co, NI, V and Al
Experimental animal studies suggest that several metals, including Cr, Co, Ni, V and Al, may induce development toxicity. For example, Cr (VI) exposure in male and/or female mice either before or during gestation can affect the number of implantations and viable fetuses resulting from conception. Many metals can also induce teratogeniCmalformations, including Cr, Ni, and V
QUESTION 32
The accumulation of what metal was attributed to the 1996 episode of âbeer-drinkersâ cardiomyopathy:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
The accumulation of Co in the myocardium can induce cardiomyopathy, which was particularly evident after the 1996 episode of âbeer-drinkersâ cardiomyopathy, during which Co was used as a foam-stabilizing agent in beer
QUESTION 33
The deposition of what metal in bone has been linked to osteomalacia, bone pain, and pathological fractures:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
Deposition of A1 in the bone occurs as a consequence of chroniCexposure and has been linked to osteomalacia, bone pain, pathological fractures, proximal myopathy, and the failure to respond to vitamin D therapy
QUESTION 34
Which of the following metals has been documented to cause serve retinal degeneration:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Ni
4
Al and Co
5
Al, Co, and Ni
Al, Co, and Ni can cause severe retinal degeneration at high-concentrations in experimental animals
QUESTION 35
The incidence of dermal reactions and positive skin-patch testing to Co, Ni, and Cr in patients with total joint replacement with stable prostheses is:
1
5% above those of the general population
2
10% above those of the general population
3
15% above those of the general population
4
30% above those of the general population
5
50% above those of the general population
Metal-induced skin reactions can include contact dermatitis, urticaria, and/or vasculitis. The incidence of dermal reactions and positive skin-patch testing to Co, Ni, and Cr in patients with total joint replacement with stable and loose prostheses increases by
15% and 50% respectively, above those of the general population
QUESTION 36
The incidence of dermal reactions and positive skin-patch testing to Co, Ni, and Cr in patients with total joint replacement with unstable prostheses is:
1
5% above those of the general population
2
10% above those of the general population
3
15% above those of the general population
4
30% above those of the general population
5
50% above those of the general population
Metal-induced skin reactions can include contact dermatitis, urticaria ,and/or vasculitis. The incidence of dermal reactions and positive skin-patch testing to Co, Ni, and Cr in patients with total joint replacement with stable and loose prostheses increases by
15% and 50% respectively, above those of the general population
QUESTION 37
Hepatocellular necrosis has been observed with high levels of in the body.
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
Hepatocellular necrosis often occurs in response to high levels of metal in the body, as observed after acute ingestion of Cr (VI) in humans
QUESTION 38
Which metal ion concentrates in the epithelial cells of the proximal tubules and can impair renal function, induce tubular necrosis, and cause marked interstitial changes in experimental animals and humans:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
Cr is concentrated in the epithelial cells of the proximal renal tubules and can impair renal function, induce tubular necrosis, and cause marked interstitial changes in experimental animals and humans. Indicators of tubular dysfunction have been identified in human objects exposed to Cr (VI) through occupation. Al, Ni, and Co are all rapidly excreted by the kidney, hence renal toxicity tends to require significantly larger doses
QUESTION 39
Severe neurological manifestations have been attributed with accumulation of what metal ion in the brain:
1
Al
2
Co
3
Cr
4
V
5
Ni
Several neurological manifestations have been attributed to Al intoxication in humans, including memory loss, jerking, ataxia, and neurofibrillary degeneration. The development of some neuropathological conditions, including amyotrophiClateral sclerosis, Parkinsonian, dementia, dialysis encephalopathy, and senile plaques of Alzheimerâs disease, may be related to the accumulation of Al in the brain
QUESTION 40
What is the preferred imaging modality to determine the glenoid wear pattern in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis:
1
Plain radiographs
2
Fluoroscopically positioned plain radiographs
3
MagnetiCresonance image
4
Tomograms
5
Computed tomography scan
A computed tomography scan provides important information in regard to the version of the glenoid, wear pattern, amount of wear, glenohumeral subluxation, as well as desired entry point
QUESTION 41
What is the most common reason for revision among patients who undergo shoulder arthroplasty for rheumatoid arthritis:
1
Infection
2
Instability
3
Humeral component loosening
4
Glenoid component loosening
5
Painful glenoid arthritis
The most common reason for revision surgery among patients with rheumatoid arthritis is painful glenoid arthritis. The rate of revision for painful glenoid arthritis is higher than that for glenoid component loosening