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Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...

Updated: Feb 2026 65 Views
Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 301-350

QUESTION 1
The most effective method of reducing deep infection in total joint replacement is:
1
AntibiotiCbone cement
2
AntibiotiCbone cement plus systemiCantibiotics
3
SystemiCantibiotics
4
No antibiotics
5
Adequate skin preparation
QUESTION 2
Which of the following bone cements is associated with the lowest risk ratio for revision hip surgery:
1
Sulfix
2
Simplex
3
CMW
4
Palacos
5
Palacos gentamicin
QUESTION 3
Early catastrophiCfailure of the precoat stem was due to:
1
A thin cement mantle
2
Use of low viscosity cement
3
Excessive residual bone
4
Proximal debonding
5
Proximal debonding associated with laser etching of the identifying numbers and letters on the stem
QUESTION 4
Mallet injuries with greater than percent of the articular surface involved and palmar subluxation as a result will most likely require surgical intervention:
1
30
2
70
3
10
4
50
5
90
QUESTION 5
Slide 1
A 70-year-old man has difficulty ambulating following a knee replacement. The lateral radiograph of the knee is shown (Slide). The most likely cause of the disability is:
1
Lateral patellar instability
2
Patellar tendon rupture
3
Quadriceps tendon rupture
4
Flexion instability
5
Axial instability
QUESTION 6
While performing posterior cruciate sacrificing knee replacement surgery, the surgeon notes a 15° flexion contracture during trial reduction after the bone cuts and soft tissue balancing. The best option is:
1
Placement of a smaller polyethylene insert
2
Resection of additional bone from the proximal tibia
3
Resection of additional bone from the distal femur
4
Resection of additional bone from the proximal tibia and distal femur
5
Accepting the contracture and applying an extension cast postoperatively
QUESTION 7
When performing total knee replacement surgery, the following statement is true:
1
The distal femoral cut only effects the extension gap.
2
The proximal tibia cut only effects the extension gap.
3
The proximal tibia cut only effects the flexion gap.
4
The distal femoral cut only effects the flexion gap.
5
The posterior femoral condyle cut effects the flexion and extension gaps.
QUESTION 8
While performing revision total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices a flexion gap that is larger than the extension gap. The following statement is most likely true:
1
The femoral component is probably too large.
2
There is posterior translation of the femoral component.
3
There is inadequate distal femoral augmentation.
4
There is excessive thickness of the patellar component.
5
There is excessive thickness of the distal femoral augmentation blocks.
QUESTION 9
The stem associated with the highest incidence of osteolysis is the:
1
Proximal coated femoral stem
2
Distal coated femoral stem
3
Fully coated femoral stem
4
Patch-porous coated femoral stem
5
Cemented femoral stem
QUESTION 10
During controlled perforation for removal of stem and prosthesis, when making 9-mm holes in the femoral diaphysis:
1
The size of the hole should be 20% of the diameter of the shaft
2
The size of the hole must not exceed 30% of the diameter of the shaft
3
The size of the hole should be 60% of the diameter of the shaft
4
Two holes must be one hole diameter apart
5
The holes must be in the posterolateral surface of the femur
QUESTION 11
The gold standard for the diagnosis of avascular necrosis of the femoral head is:
1
Bone scan
2
Routine roentgenogram
3
MagnetiCresonance image
4
Segmented bone collapse
5
Elevated sedimentation rate
QUESTION 12
The low incidence of infection in ceramic-ceramiCtotal hip replacement is:
1
True only in early infection
2
True only in late infection
3
Has not been reported in the literature and is only anecdotal
4
True because bacteria adhere more strongly to ceramic
5
True because bacteria adhere more strongly to polyethylene
QUESTION 13
The first step in the development of hip osteoarthritis is:
1
Abnormal glycosaminoglycans
2
Formation of ganglions
3
Abnormal weight gain
4
Fatiguing of labrum under normal stress
5
Abnormal mechanical stress
QUESTION 14
The common iliaCartery gives rise to all of the following vessels except:
1
The external iliaCartery
2
The internal iliaCartery
3
The superior gluteal artery
4
The common femoral artery
5
The internal hypogastriCartery
QUESTION 15
The structure at highest risk for injury in total hip arthroplasty (THA) is the:
1
Femoral artery
2
Femoral vein
3
External iliaCartery
4
Inferior gluteal artery
5
Obturator artery
QUESTION 16
The nerve most commonly injured during total hip arthroplasty (THA) is the:
1
Superior gluteal nerve
2
Obturator nerve
3
Femoral nerve
4
Inferior gluteal nerve
5
Peroneal component of sciatiCnerve
QUESTION 17
Which two quadrants of the acetabulum are most at risk for injury by screws during fixation of total hip arthroplasty (THA):
1
Anterior-superior and posterior-inferior
2
Posterior-superior and posterior inferior
3
Anterior-superior and posterior-superior
4
Anterior-inferior and posterior-superior
5
Anterior-superior and anterior-inferior
QUESTION 18
What is the most commonly used surgical approach to the acetabulum:
1
Posterior
2
Ilioinguinal
3
Anterior
4
Medial
5
Anterolateral
QUESTION 19
In the ilioinguinal approach, what does the first window allow access to:
1
PelviCbrim and superior pubiCramus
2
Quadrilateral plate and retropubiCspace
3
Inferior pubiCramus and sciatiCnotch
4
Ilioschial tuberosity and retropubiCspace
5
Anterior sacroiliaCjoint, internal iliaCfossa, and upper anterior column
QUESTION 20
The most sensitive method for identifying and quantifying the extent of osteolysis is:
1
Plain radiographs
2
MagnetiCresonance imaging
3
Technetium-99m bone scanning
4
Computed tomography
5
Helical computed tomography
QUESTION 21
The most common cause of vascular injury during total hip arthroplasty (THA) is:
1
Laceration
2
Pseudoaneurysm
3
Arteriovenous fistula
4
True aneurysm
5
ThromboemboliCphenomena
QUESTION 22
The most common cause of damage to femoral vessels is:
1
Extruded cement
2
Migration of the acetabular cup
3
Capsule dissection
4
Aberrant retractor placement
5
Screw placement
QUESTION 23
The risk of nerve injury following revision total hip arthroplasty (THA) is approximately:
1
0.5%
2
1%
3
1% to 10%
4
10% to 20%
5
More than 20%
QUESTION 24
Slide 1
The most likely underlying diagnosis in this patient is:
1
Gout
2
Rheumatoid arthritis
3
HeterotopiCossification
4
Pigmented villonodular synovitis
5
Synovial chondromatosis
QUESTION 25
This radiograph is most typical of:
1
Stress fracture
2
Osteocarcinoma
3
Osteitis pubis
4
Osteomyelitis of the pubiCsymphysis
5
Ewing's sarcoma
QUESTION 26
Which of the following symptoms is least common in patients with osteomyelitis of the pubis:
1
Distal anterior pelviCpain
2
Adductor muscle spasm
3
Rectus muscle spasm
4
Abductor muscle spasm
5
Wide-based waddling gait
QUESTION 27
Common risk factors associated with extensor mechanism disruption after total knee arthroplasty (TKA) include all of the following except:
1
Limited preoperative range of motion
2
Difficult surgical exposure
3
Medial parapateller exposure
4
Disruption of vascular supply to the patella
5
Obesity
QUESTION 28
Contributing factors causing female athletes to have more anterior cruciate ligament injuries than men include all of the following except:
1
Intercondylar notch width
2
Ligament size
3
Increased quadriceps angle
4
Strong overactive hamstrings
5
Fitness level
QUESTION 29
The best results of hip fracture repair occur:
1
In the first 6 hours
2
Within the first day
3
Within the second day
4
Within the third day
5
Three days after repair
QUESTION 30
Slide 1
This T2-weighted sagittal magnetiCresonance image of a right knee reveals:
1
Avascular necrosis of the distal femur
2
Synovial sarcoma
3
Anterior cruciate ligament rupture
4
Posterior cruciate ligament rupture
5
Popliteal cyst
QUESTION 31
What is the main characteristiCshift in the outcome assessment of total hip arthroplasty (THA) in the past decade:
1
Description of more technical details
2
Analysis and measurement of the impact and longevity of the procedure on a patient's quality-of-life
3
Introduction of more hip prosthesis designs
4
Introduction of new functional scoring systems
5
Decreasing number of dislocations
QUESTION 32
In the study design for evaluating the effectiveness of total hip replacement, the endpoint can be only:
1
Revision hip surgery
2
RadiographiCloosening of the implant
3
Any well-defined chosen point, such as revision hip surgery or functional level and pain
4
Pain or functional level
5
Range of motion
QUESTION 33
The single most important criterion to identify the type of hip implant for future analysis in a hip arthroplasty register is:
1
The name of the manufacturer and the year of implant production
2
The name of the implant and the year of implant production
3
The implant's catalogue number provided by the manufacturer
4
The name of the manufacturer and implant
5
The surgeon's name and implant manufacturer
QUESTION 34
The main advantage of multicenter studies in analyzing total hip arthroplasty is:
1
The inclusion of different surgeons
2
The inclusion of different countries
3
The ability to obtain a large number of patients
4
The inclusion of different hip implants
5
Giving more accurate data
QUESTION 35
When comparing viral vectors with nonviral vectors for gene delivery, the advantages of nonviral vectors include all of the following except:
1
Safety
2
Less immunogenicity
3
More efficiency
4
Easier production
5
Special packaging cell lines
QUESTION 36
All of the following have been used as viral vectors for gene delivery except:
1
Adeno-associated virus
2
Rotavirus
3
Herpes simplex virus
4
Lentivirus
5
Retroviral vector
QUESTION 37
The principle of homologous recombination in gene therapy is used to:
1
Replace a defective gene by a wild-type gene
2
Suppress the expression of a mutant gene
3
Supplement a wild-type gene
4
Alter the expression of a mutant gene
5
Replace a defective gene by a normal gene
QUESTION 38
The virus associated with the most immune reactions is:
1
Adeno-associated virus
2
Gutted adenovirus
3
Adenovirus
4
Retrovirus
5
Herpes simplex virus
QUESTION 39
Compared with the ex vivo gene delivery system, the in vivo system is:
1
Technically complex
2
Target specific
3
Safer
4
Less invasive
5
More invasive
QUESTION 40
The gene that has been studied in greatest detail for application in osteoarthritis is:
1
p53
2
Interleukin (IL)-13
3
Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases-4
4
IL-1 receptor antagonist
5
Bone morphogenetiCprotein-2
QUESTION 41
The osteoinductive potential of LIM mineralization protein (LMP)-1 gene has been studied for clinical application in:
1
Fracture repair
2
Spinal fusion
3
Cartilage regeneration
4
Ligament healing
5
Meniscal injury
QUESTION 42
The gene studied for application in osteoporosis and wear-induced osteolysis is:
1
Osteoprotegerin
2
Bone morphogenetiCprotein
3
Transforming growth factor-Ã1
4
LIM mineralization protein
5
Interleukin (IL)-receptor antagonist
QUESTION 43
Gene transfer to a cell using viral vectors is called:
1
Transduction
2
Transfection
3
Transformation
4
Conjugation
5
Augmentation
QUESTION 44
Which of the following genes has been shown to stimulate proteoglycan synthesis for prevention of disk degeneration:
1
LIM mineralization protein
2
Bone morphogenetiCprotein-7
3
Decorin
4
Transforming growth factor (TGF)-Ã1
5
Osteoprotegerin
QUESTION 45
The advantages of an arthroscopic-assisted rotator cuff repair include all of the following except:
1
The surgeon can approach the shoulder from multiple angles.
2
The deltoid attachment is preserved.
3
Operative time is shorter.
4
Postoperative rehabilitation is accelerated.
5
As opposed to other repair methods, a better early range of motion is achieved.
QUESTION 46
The disadvantages of a complete arthroscopiCrepair of a rotator cuff include all of the following except:
1
Complete arthroscopiCrepair limits some suture configuration options in the tendon.
2
Postoperative pain is increased.
3
Complete arthroscopiCrepair is technically difficult to perform.
4
Complex instrumentation is required.
5
Operative time is longer.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon