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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 301-350
QUESTION 1
The most effective method of reducing deep infection in total joint replacement is:
1
AntibiotiCbone cement
2
AntibiotiCbone cement plus systemiCantibiotics
3
SystemiCantibiotics
4
No antibiotics
5
Adequate skin preparation
The use of antibiotiCbone cement plus systemiCantibiotics is the most effective strategy in reducing deep infection. This is followed by the use of systemiCantibiotics alone, antibiotiCbone cement alone, and no antibiotics
QUESTION 2
Which of the following bone cements is associated with the lowest risk ratio for revision hip surgery:
1
Sulfix
2
Simplex
3
CMW
4
Palacos
5
Palacos gentamicin
Malchau and colleagues also performed Poisson modeling, assessing the risk of deep infection in revision surgery using different types of bone cement. Using Sulfix bone cement (Sulzer, Winterhur, Switzerland) as the numerator, the investigators assessed Simplex (Stryker Howmedica Osteonics, Allentown, NJ), CMW (Johnson & Johnson DePuy, Warsaw, Ind), Palacos (Merck/Biomet, Warsaw, Ind), and Palacos gentamicin (Merck/Biomet) bone cements. They developed a risk ratio for revision using any of these bone cements. Palacos gentamicin bone cement was associated with the lowest risk ratio for revision
QUESTION 3
Early catastrophiCfailure of the precoat stem was due to:
1
A thin cement mantle
2
Use of low viscosity cement
3
Excessive residual bone
4
Proximal debonding
5
Proximal debonding associated with laser etching of the identifying numbers and letters on the stem
The catastrophiCfailure of the precoat stem was due to proximal debonding associated with laser etching of the identifying numbers and letters on the stem of the prosthesis. Virtually all reported stem failures occurred in left hips because the laser etching caused a local stress concentration effect on the higher stress anterior surface
QUESTION 4
Mallet injuries with greater than percent of the articular surface involved and palmar subluxation as a result will most likely require surgical intervention:
1
30
2
70
3
10
4
50
5
90
Type IVCinjuries include distal phalanx base fractures involving more than 50% of the articular surface. Most surgeons feel that accurate reduction is mandatory to prevent joint deformity, secondary arthritis, and stiffness
QUESTION 5
Slide 1
A 70-year-old man has difficulty ambulating following a knee replacement. The lateral radiograph of the knee is shown (Slide). The most likely cause of the disability is:
A 70-year-old man has difficulty ambulating following a knee replacement. The lateral radiograph of the knee is shown (Slide). The most likely cause of the disability is:
1
Lateral patellar instability
2
Patellar tendon rupture
3
Quadriceps tendon rupture
4
Flexion instability
5
Axial instability
Patients may present with severe knee pain after a mild traumatiCevent. Patients may have the inability to extend the knee or walk. Laxity in flexion (flexion instability) can result in dislocation of the femorotibial articulation. The cam of the femoral component rides up and over the top of the post of the tibial polyethylene insert. The dislocation is usually the result of a traumatiCepisode.
Flexion instability occurs in about 1% to 2% of knee replacements when the knee is not properly balanced following a replacement. The extension and flexion gap must be equal. When balancing a knee, especially one that is tight in extension, the surgeon may choose to place a smaller tibial polyethylene component to achieve full extension with resulting instability of the knee in flexion because the knee flexion gap is larger than the polyethylene insert.
Treatment of flexion instability in posterior stabilized knee replacements can be nonoperative with casting or bracing initially. Two- thirds of patients can be managed successfully nonoperatively. If symptoms persist, revision to a larger polyethylene component can be very effective. If the knee remains unstable, revision to a more constrained prosthesis may be necessary
Flexion instability occurs in about 1% to 2% of knee replacements when the knee is not properly balanced following a replacement. The extension and flexion gap must be equal. When balancing a knee, especially one that is tight in extension, the surgeon may choose to place a smaller tibial polyethylene component to achieve full extension with resulting instability of the knee in flexion because the knee flexion gap is larger than the polyethylene insert.
Treatment of flexion instability in posterior stabilized knee replacements can be nonoperative with casting or bracing initially. Two- thirds of patients can be managed successfully nonoperatively. If symptoms persist, revision to a larger polyethylene component can be very effective. If the knee remains unstable, revision to a more constrained prosthesis may be necessary
QUESTION 6
While performing posterior cruciate sacrificing knee replacement surgery, the surgeon notes a 15° flexion contracture during trial reduction after the bone cuts and soft tissue balancing. The best option is:
1
Placement of a smaller polyethylene insert
2
Resection of additional bone from the proximal tibia
3
Resection of additional bone from the distal femur
4
Resection of additional bone from the proximal tibia and distal femur
5
Accepting the contracture and applying an extension cast postoperatively
This is a common problem. Selection of a smaller polyethylene spacer results in a correction of the flexion contracture but also results in flexion instability as the flexion gap will be larger than the extension gap. First, surgeons should remove any posterior osteophytes from the distal femur. Second, the posterior capsule should be incised. If both of these maneuvers fail to correct the contracture, the surgeon should remove additional bone from the distal femur. The joint line may be raised up to 8 mm when performing posterior stabilized arthroplasties without compromising the result
QUESTION 7
When performing total knee replacement surgery, the following statement is true:
1
The distal femoral cut only effects the extension gap.
2
The proximal tibia cut only effects the extension gap.
3
The proximal tibia cut only effects the flexion gap.
4
The distal femoral cut only effects the flexion gap.
5
The posterior femoral condyle cut effects the flexion and extension gaps.
These are important concepts when balancing the knee following total knee replacement.
The distal femoral cut only effects the extension gap.
The proximal tibia cut effects the flexion and extension gaps. The posterior femoral condyle cut effects the flexion only.
Attention to these principles is very important to prevent both contractures and flexion instability. Correct Answer: The distal femoral cut only effects the extension gap.
The distal femoral cut only effects the extension gap.
The proximal tibia cut effects the flexion and extension gaps. The posterior femoral condyle cut effects the flexion only.
Attention to these principles is very important to prevent both contractures and flexion instability. Correct Answer: The distal femoral cut only effects the extension gap.
QUESTION 8
While performing revision total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notices a flexion gap that is larger than the extension gap. The following statement is most likely true:
1
The femoral component is probably too large.
2
There is posterior translation of the femoral component.
3
There is inadequate distal femoral augmentation.
4
There is excessive thickness of the patellar component.
5
There is excessive thickness of the distal femoral augmentation blocks.
Flexion instability is common following revision total knee replacement. The following principles are important:
Undersizing the femoral component is common. This occurs secondary to the posterior femoral condyle bone loss.
Anterior translation of the femoral component increases the flexion gap. The use of posterior femoral condyle augments or an offset stem can solve this problem.
Distal femoral augments that are too thick will narrow the extension gap. One should set the joint line approximately 25 mm to 30 mm below the epicondylar axis.
Excessive size of the patellar component will restrict knee flexion, however, it will not change the flexion and extension gaps. Correct Answer: There is excessive thickness of the distal femoral augmentation blocks.
Undersizing the femoral component is common. This occurs secondary to the posterior femoral condyle bone loss.
Anterior translation of the femoral component increases the flexion gap. The use of posterior femoral condyle augments or an offset stem can solve this problem.
Distal femoral augments that are too thick will narrow the extension gap. One should set the joint line approximately 25 mm to 30 mm below the epicondylar axis.
Excessive size of the patellar component will restrict knee flexion, however, it will not change the flexion and extension gaps. Correct Answer: There is excessive thickness of the distal femoral augmentation blocks.
QUESTION 9
The stem associated with the highest incidence of osteolysis is the:
1
Proximal coated femoral stem
2
Distal coated femoral stem
3
Fully coated femoral stem
4
Patch-porous coated femoral stem
5
Cemented femoral stem
The noncircumferentially coated titanium alloy patch-porous coated straight Harris-Galante stem was associated with significant osteolysis, thigh pain, subsidence, and endosteal erosion. The patched porous coating is believed to allow ingress of joint fluid and wear debris into the endosteal canal, increasing the effective joint space
QUESTION 10
During controlled perforation for removal of stem and prosthesis, when making 9-mm holes in the femoral diaphysis:
1
The size of the hole should be 20% of the diameter of the shaft
2
The size of the hole must not exceed 30% of the diameter of the shaft
3
The size of the hole should be 60% of the diameter of the shaft
4
Two holes must be one hole diameter apart
5
The holes must be in the posterolateral surface of the femur
The size of the hole must not exceed 30% of the diameter of the shaft. Holes should not be placed any closer than two hole diameters apart, and they should be located in the anterolateral surface of the femur to decrease the stress riser
QUESTION 11
The gold standard for the diagnosis of avascular necrosis of the femoral head is:
1
Bone scan
2
Routine roentgenogram
3
MagnetiCresonance image
4
Segmented bone collapse
5
Elevated sedimentation rate
The gold standard for the diagnosis of avascular necrosis is magnetiCresonance imaging. Changes can be seen earliest with this technique before there are changes on routine roentgenogram and even before a patient is symptomatic
QUESTION 12
The low incidence of infection in ceramic-ceramiCtotal hip replacement is:
1
True only in early infection
2
True only in late infection
3
Has not been reported in the literature and is only anecdotal
4
True because bacteria adhere more strongly to ceramic
5
True because bacteria adhere more strongly to polyethylene
There is a lower incidence of infection reported in ceramic-ceramiCtotal hip replacements by the Swedish Hip Registry. This may
be related to the fact that bacteria typically adhere more strongly to polyethylene than cement, suggesting that both early and late infection may be lower for alumina than polyethylene total hip replacement
be related to the fact that bacteria typically adhere more strongly to polyethylene than cement, suggesting that both early and late infection may be lower for alumina than polyethylene total hip replacement
QUESTION 13
The first step in the development of hip osteoarthritis is:
1
Abnormal glycosaminoglycans
2
Formation of ganglions
3
Abnormal weight gain
4
Fatiguing of labrum under normal stress
5
Abnormal mechanical stress
The first step toward osteoarthritis of the dysplastiChip is fatiguing of the labrum under normal stress. Klaue et al described the different pathomorphologies from a torn labrum to ganglion formation, which has been attributed to acetabular rim syndrome
QUESTION 14
The common iliaCartery gives rise to all of the following vessels except:
1
The external iliaCartery
2
The internal iliaCartery
3
The superior gluteal artery
4
The common femoral artery
5
The internal hypogastriCartery
The common iliaCartery divides at the L5-S1 vertebral disk. The anterior division, the external iliaCartery, continues distally to become the common femoral artery, whereas the posterior division becomes the internal iliaCartery. The internal iliaCartery branches again into a posterior division, which gives rise to the superior gluteal artery, and an anterior division, which gives off the obturator artery before dividing into the inferior gluteal artery and internal pudendal artery
QUESTION 15
The structure at highest risk for injury in total hip arthroplasty (THA) is the:
1
Femoral artery
2
Femoral vein
3
External iliaCartery
4
Inferior gluteal artery
5
Obturator artery
The external iliaCartery and vein are immobile and lie close to the pelvis, and thus are at high risk for injury in THA. The external iliaCvein lies within 7 mm of the anterior column of the pelvis at the anterior inferior iliaCspine and within 4 mm at the acetabula dome. The external iliaCartery is at less risk due to its thicker intima and increased distance from the bone. The external iliaCartery lies within 10 mm of the bone at the anterior inferior iliaCspine and within 7 mm at the acetabular dome. The common femoral artery lies anterior and medial to the hip capsule. Only the iliopsoas lies between the vessel and capsule at this point. The femoral vein lies medial to the artery and is not likely to be injured. The obturator vessels are also at risk, lying fixed within 1 mm of the bony surface at the quadrilateral surface, with their only protection being the interposition of the obturator internus muscle
QUESTION 16
The nerve most commonly injured during total hip arthroplasty (THA) is the:
1
Superior gluteal nerve
2
Obturator nerve
3
Femoral nerve
4
Inferior gluteal nerve
5
Peroneal component of sciatiCnerve
The primary nerves of the region are the sciatic, femoral, inferior and superior gluteal, and obturator. The most common nerve injury during THA is to the peroneal division of the sciatiCnerve, followed by superior gluteal, obturator, and femoral nerves. Injury to these structures can lead to loss of function and poor outcomes
QUESTION 17
Which two quadrants of the acetabulum are most at risk for injury by screws during fixation of total hip arthroplasty (THA):
1
Anterior-superior and posterior-inferior
2
Posterior-superior and posterior inferior
3
Anterior-superior and posterior-superior
4
Anterior-inferior and posterior-superior
5
Anterior-superior and anterior-inferior
The acetabular quadrant system described by Wasielewski and colleagues is useful for determining the location of planned acetabular screw fixation in THA to avoid neurovascular complications. The quadrants are formed by drawing a line from the anterior-superior iliaCspine through the center of the acetabulum and bisecting that line at the center of the acetabulum to form four equal quadrants. The line from the anterior-superior iliaCspine to the center of the acetabulum serves as the dividing line between anterior and posterior, and the bisecting line as the division between superior and inferior.
In cadaver studies, the posterior-superior and posterior-inferior quadrants were shown to have the thickest bone and best potential for obtaining secure fixation with the least risk for injury to vessels. The anterior-superior quadrant (the quadrant of death) and the anterior-inferior quadrant were shown to be the most dangerous quadrants for fixation due to the thin bone and close proximity of the vessels to bone in that region
In cadaver studies, the posterior-superior and posterior-inferior quadrants were shown to have the thickest bone and best potential for obtaining secure fixation with the least risk for injury to vessels. The anterior-superior quadrant (the quadrant of death) and the anterior-inferior quadrant were shown to be the most dangerous quadrants for fixation due to the thin bone and close proximity of the vessels to bone in that region
QUESTION 18
What is the most commonly used surgical approach to the acetabulum:
1
Posterior
2
Ilioinguinal
3
Anterior
4
Medial
5
Anterolateral
The posterior approach to the acetabulum is the least technically demanding approach for total hip arthroplasty (THA) and offers good visualization of the acetabulum, especially of the posterior wall. The posterior approach is the most commonly used approach for THA in the United States. Patients are placed in the lateral position. The approach involves splitting of the gluteus maximus in line with its fibers and no internervous plane is present. The sciatiCnerve is protected by the short external rotators after they are detached from their insertions on the femur and reflected medially
QUESTION 19
In the ilioinguinal approach, what does the first window allow access to:
1
PelviCbrim and superior pubiCramus
2
Quadrilateral plate and retropubiCspace
3
Inferior pubiCramus and sciatiCnotch
4
Ilioschial tuberosity and retropubiCspace
5
Anterior sacroiliaCjoint, internal iliaCfossa, and upper anterior column
The ilioinguinal approach provides improved visualization of the pelviCinner surface and anterior column and medial wall of the acetabulum. The patient is placed supine or in a lazy lateral decubitus position. The principle of this approach is to dissect closely along the inner wall of the pelvis and lift each muscular and neurovascular structure off of the bone. Three windows are present in this approach, each providing access to different structures. The first window allows access to the anterior sacroiliaCjoint, internal iliaCfossa, and upper anterior column
QUESTION 20
The most sensitive method for identifying and quantifying the extent of osteolysis is:
1
Plain radiographs
2
MagnetiCresonance imaging
3
Technetium-99m bone scanning
4
Computed tomography
5
Helical computed tomography
If extensive osteolysis is suspected, computed tomography is recommended because plain radiographs underestimate the extent of lysis. Helical computed tomography with metal artifact minimization is the most sensitive method for identifying and quantifying the extent of lysis
QUESTION 21
The most common cause of vascular injury during total hip arthroplasty (THA) is:
1
Laceration
2
Pseudoaneurysm
3
Arteriovenous fistula
4
True aneurysm
5
ThromboemboliCphenomena
A previous review of vascular injuries sustained during THA revealed the most common etiology of vascular injury as thromboemboliCphenomena, followed by laceration, pseudoaneurysm, and arteriovenous fistula
QUESTION 22
The most common cause of damage to femoral vessels is:
1
Extruded cement
2
Migration of the acetabular cup
3
Capsule dissection
4
Aberrant retractor placement
5
Screw placement
Damage to the femoral vessels is most commonly due to aberrant retractor placement. Care should be taken to ensure that the retractor tip is placed directly on bone, and that the iliopsoas is not interposed between the retractor tip and bone. Extruded cement, acetabular cup migration, and capsule dissection have also been implicated in damage to the femoral vessels
QUESTION 23
The risk of nerve injury following revision total hip arthroplasty (THA) is approximately:
1
0.5%
2
1%
3
1% to 10%
4
10% to 20%
5
More than 20%
Following primary THA, the incidence of nerve palsy is reported to be approximately 1.3%, but may be as high as 5.2% for primary THA performed for developmental dysplasia or dislocation. For revision surgery, the incidence may be as high as
7.60%
7.60%
QUESTION 24
Slide 1
The most likely underlying diagnosis in this patient is:
The most likely underlying diagnosis in this patient is:
1
Gout
2
Rheumatoid arthritis
3
HeterotopiCossification
4
Pigmented villonodular synovitis
5
Synovial chondromatosis
This radiograph presents a Brooker class IV heterotopiCossification in a 79-year-old woman after revision of a monopolar hemiarthroplasty to a press-fit, porous-coated acetabular component and a cemented femoral stem. The patient sustained a cerebrovascular accident 12 weeks before surgery. She had no other risk factors for heterotopiCossification formation after total hip arthroplasty. Other risk factors for heterotopiCossification include previous surgery, men with hypertrophiCosteoarthritis, traumatiCbrain injury, spinal hyperostosis, and posttraumatiCarthritis
QUESTION 25
This radiograph is most typical of:
1
Stress fracture
2
Osteocarcinoma
3
Osteitis pubis
4
Osteomyelitis of the pubiCsymphysis
5
Ewing's sarcoma
Osteomyelitis of the pubiCsymphysis is a rare condition, accounting for less than 1% of all acute hematogenous osteomyelitis cases. The condition is well described in elderly patients following urologic, gynecologic, and pelviCprocedures. Osteomyelitis of the pubiCsymphysis has also been reported in intravenous drug abusers, after cardiaCcatheterization, and can occur spontaneously in athletes and children
QUESTION 26
Which of the following symptoms is least common in patients with osteomyelitis of the pubis:
1
Distal anterior pelviCpain
2
Adductor muscle spasm
3
Rectus muscle spasm
4
Abductor muscle spasm
5
Wide-based waddling gait
Osteomyelitis of the pubiCsymphysis is a rare condition, occurring in 2% to 11% of all patients with osteomyelitis of the pelvis. The osteitis pubis is the least affected area. Signs and symptoms of osteomyelitis of the pubiCsymphysis include distal anterior pelviCpain, adductor and rectus muscle spasms, and a wide-based waddling gait. Fever, leukocytosis, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and positive blood cultures may also be present. Unilateral rarefaction and sclerosis with cystiCchanges may be seen on radiographs 10 to 14 days after symptoms begin. Radionucleotide scans, computed tomography, and magnetiCresonance imaging may aid in the diagnosis
QUESTION 27
Common risk factors associated with extensor mechanism disruption after total knee arthroplasty (TKA) include all of the following except:
1
Limited preoperative range of motion
2
Difficult surgical exposure
3
Medial parapateller exposure
4
Disruption of vascular supply to the patella
5
Obesity
The etiology of extensor mechanism disruption after TKA is unknown. Researchers suggest that disruption of the vascular supply to the patella and patellar mechanism during the exposure may cause weakening of the patella and extensor mechanism. In addition, the frequency of extensor mechanism disruption has been reportedly increased in patients who have a preoperative limited range of motion or difficult surgical exposure
QUESTION 28
Contributing factors causing female athletes to have more anterior cruciate ligament injuries than men include all of the following except:
1
Intercondylar notch width
2
Ligament size
3
Increased quadriceps angle
4
Strong overactive hamstrings
5
Fitness level
Female athletes are two to eight times more likely than men to sustain an anterior cruciate ligament injury when playing sports such as soccer, basketball, and volleyball. The exact etiology of gender-based injuries is unclear. Various intrinsiCfactors (intercondylar notch width, ligament size, quadriceps angle, joint laxity, hormonal effects) and extrinsiCfactors (muscular strength/weakness, fitness level, hamstring:quadriceps ratio) have been proposed as contributing factors. A strong hamstring actually protects the anterior cruciate ligament and is a preventative measure
QUESTION 29
The best results of hip fracture repair occur:
1
In the first 6 hours
2
Within the first day
3
Within the second day
4
Within the third day
5
Three days after repair
Medical consequences of time issues relevant to hip fractures have been examined by several authors. Operation within the first day of injury is superior and provides better results than delaying the procedure. However, the economiCconsequences of such a delay have not been examined
QUESTION 30
Slide 1
This T2-weighted sagittal magnetiCresonance image of a right knee reveals:
This T2-weighted sagittal magnetiCresonance image of a right knee reveals:
1
Avascular necrosis of the distal femur
2
Synovial sarcoma
3
Anterior cruciate ligament rupture
4
Posterior cruciate ligament rupture
5
Popliteal cyst
Baker's or popliteal cyst, described first by Adams and later by Baker, is a distended bursa originating posterior to the medial head of the gastrocnemius muscle or semimembranous tendon and generally presents with posterior knee pain and a palpable mass. This case is unusual in that the dissection was proximal, unlike the typical distal progression of the popliteal cyst
QUESTION 31
What is the main characteristiCshift in the outcome assessment of total hip arthroplasty (THA) in the past decade:
1
Description of more technical details
2
Analysis and measurement of the impact and longevity of the procedure on a patient's quality-of-life
3
Introduction of more hip prosthesis designs
4
Introduction of new functional scoring systems
5
Decreasing number of dislocations
Over the past two decades, a continuous shift toward outcome assessment in medicine has occurred. Publications previously devoted to technical details and surgical technique have started analyzing and measuring the impact and longevity of medical procedures on patients' quality-of-life and have compared the cost-effectiveness of different procedures
QUESTION 32
In the study design for evaluating the effectiveness of total hip replacement, the endpoint can be only:
1
Revision hip surgery
2
RadiographiCloosening of the implant
3
Any well-defined chosen point, such as revision hip surgery or functional level and pain
4
Pain or functional level
5
Range of motion
In the study design, it is paramount that a universal, well-defined endpoint is chosen. In the well-established Scandinavian Hip Registries, this endpoint is revision total hip arthroplasty. Whether this endpoint is sensitive enough is debatable. For more in- depth studies, several other endpoints, such as pain or postoperative functional level, may also be used
QUESTION 33
The single most important criterion to identify the type of hip implant for future analysis in a hip arthroplasty register is:
1
The name of the manufacturer and the year of implant production
2
The name of the implant and the year of implant production
3
The implant's catalogue number provided by the manufacturer
4
The name of the manufacturer and implant
5
The surgeon's name and implant manufacturer
For the implanted prosthesis, manufacturer, name, material, and catalogue numbers are essential for precise future identification. The role of the catalogue numbers cannot be underestimated as successive generations of implants were put on the market with the same brand name (eg, Charnley hip). Without recording the catalogue numbers, it is impossible to determine what generation of implant is being compared to another
QUESTION 34
The main advantage of multicenter studies in analyzing total hip arthroplasty is:
1
The inclusion of different surgeons
2
The inclusion of different countries
3
The ability to obtain a large number of patients
4
The inclusion of different hip implants
5
Giving more accurate data
The main advantage of multicenter studies - although they are time-consuming, expensive, and often frustrating - is obtaining large numbers of patients in a relatively short time. This is important when examining statistical differences between varying results
QUESTION 35
When comparing viral vectors with nonviral vectors for gene delivery, the advantages of nonviral vectors include all of the following except:
1
Safety
2
Less immunogenicity
3
More efficiency
4
Easier production
5
Special packaging cell lines
Because of the safety concerns, immunogenicity issues, and production complications associated with viral vectors, nonviral delivery systems were developed by complexing of genes (DNA) to various chemical formulations. Nonviral delivery systems stabilize DNA and increase its uptake and include plasmids, peptides, cationiCliposomes, DNA-ligand complexes (recognize
specifiCcell-surface receptors, leading to receptor-mediated uptake), and gene gun (particles of gold coated with DNA, forced into the cells with high velocity bombardment). However, nonviral vector efficiency is lower than viral vectors
specifiCcell-surface receptors, leading to receptor-mediated uptake), and gene gun (particles of gold coated with DNA, forced into the cells with high velocity bombardment). However, nonviral vector efficiency is lower than viral vectors
QUESTION 36
All of the following have been used as viral vectors for gene delivery except:
1
Adeno-associated virus
2
Rotavirus
3
Herpes simplex virus
4
Lentivirus
5
Retroviral vector
A retroviral vector derived from the Moloney murine leukemia retrovirus is among the best-developed viral vectors. Other viral vectors include adenovirus, adeno-associated virus, and herpes simplex virus. Novel vector systems based on lentivirus, which is a type of retrovirus that includes human immunodeficiency virus, are being developed
QUESTION 37
The principle of homologous recombination in gene therapy is used to:
1
Replace a defective gene by a wild-type gene
2
Suppress the expression of a mutant gene
3
Supplement a wild-type gene
4
Alter the expression of a mutant gene
5
Replace a defective gene by a normal gene
Novel approaches to treating genetiCdiseases involve gene repair or replacement rather than gene supplementation. One such approach is based on the principle of homologous recombination (replacement of a defective gene by a normal gene)
QUESTION 38
The virus associated with the most immune reactions is:
1
Adeno-associated virus
2
Gutted adenovirus
3
Adenovirus
4
Retrovirus
5
Herpes simplex virus
Adenoviral vectors can cause inflammatory reaction due to immune activation, an event linked to the first death related to gene therapy. This occurred in September 1999 at the University of Pennsylvania in a clinical trial in which an 18-year-old patient received infusion of more than a trillion adenoviral vectors directed to his liver, which triggered a systemiCinflammatory response that became uncontrollable, leading to organ failure and death. Newer-generation gutted or gutless adenovirus vectors are nonimmunogenic
QUESTION 39
Compared with the ex vivo gene delivery system, the in vivo system is:
1
Technically complex
2
Target specific
3
Safer
4
Less invasive
5
More invasive
Two basiCstrategies exist for gene delivery. Direct, or in vivo, gene therapy involves direct introduction of vectors into the body. Indirect, or ex vivo, gene therapy involves removal of target cells from the body, vector introduction by incubation of the cells in vitro, and reimplantation. The in vivo system is less invasive
QUESTION 40
The gene that has been studied in greatest detail for application in osteoarthritis is:
1
p53
2
Interleukin (IL)-13
3
Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases-4
4
IL-1 receptor antagonist
5
Bone morphogenetiCprotein-2
Gene therapy has been suggested as a means of delivering sustained therapeutiClevels of anti-arthritis gene products to diseased joints. Local gene delivery to the synovial tissue is the approach of choice for osteoarthritis and other conditions affecting a few joints. Gene therapy is less suited to address the extra-articular components of systemiCconditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis.
The gene that has been studied in greatest detail encodes the human IL-1 receptor antagonist. Correct Answer: IL-1 receptor antagonist
The gene that has been studied in greatest detail encodes the human IL-1 receptor antagonist. Correct Answer: IL-1 receptor antagonist
QUESTION 41
The osteoinductive potential of LIM mineralization protein (LMP)-1 gene has been studied for clinical application in:
1
Fracture repair
2
Spinal fusion
3
Cartilage regeneration
4
Ligament healing
5
Meniscal injury
Identification of LMP-1, a novel intracellular protein, is a step forward in osteoinductive proteins. Unlike bone morphogenetiCprotein, which is a secreted protein that binds to cell-surface receptor to initiate a response, LMP-1 is an intracellular signaling molecule. Boden and colleagues transfected bone marrow cells from rats ex vivo with LMP-1 gene using DNA plasmid vector and used them during posterior thoraciCand lumbar spinal fusion in rats
QUESTION 42
The gene studied for application in osteoporosis and wear-induced osteolysis is:
1
Osteoprotegerin
2
Bone morphogenetiCprotein
3
Transforming growth factor-Ã1
4
LIM mineralization protein
5
Interleukin (IL)-receptor antagonist
Various cytokines and cytokine antagonists hold promise as new therapeutiCagents for osteoporosis. Baltzer and colleagues showed that intramedullary injection of Ad-IL-1Ra gene in a murine ovariectomy model strongly reduced the loss of bone mass. Using a similar model, Bolon and associates studied the effect of adenovirus-mediated transfer of osteoprotegerin, which showed more bone volume with reduced osteoclast numbers in axial and appendicular bones after 4 weeks compared with sham-operated mice
QUESTION 43
Gene transfer to a cell using viral vectors is called:
1
Transduction
2
Transfection
3
Transformation
4
Conjugation
5
Augmentation
In vivo gene delivery involves the direct injection of vectors containing the genes into the body with the expectation that they will reach and transduce the target cell. Ex vivo gene delivery is a process whereby the target cells are removed from the body, genetically altered in vitro, and reimplanted into the body
QUESTION 44
Which of the following genes has been shown to stimulate proteoglycan synthesis for prevention of disk degeneration:
1
LIM mineralization protein
2
Bone morphogenetiCprotein-7
3
Decorin
4
Transforming growth factor (TGF)-Ã1
5
Osteoprotegerin
Intervertebral disk degeneration has been associated with a progressive decrease in proteoglycan content of nucleus pulposus. The potential application of gene therapy for prevention of disk degeneration is to increase or maintain the proteoglycan content of nucleus pulposus. Thompson and colleagues reported that addition of TGF-Ã1 to canine disk tissue in culture stimulated in vitro proteoglycan synthesis
QUESTION 45
The advantages of an arthroscopic-assisted rotator cuff repair include all of the following except:
1
The surgeon can approach the shoulder from multiple angles.
2
The deltoid attachment is preserved.
3
Operative time is shorter.
4
Postoperative rehabilitation is accelerated.
5
As opposed to other repair methods, a better early range of motion is achieved.
Arthroscopy facilitates a thorough assessment and treatment of a rotator cuff tear by approaching the shoulder from multiple angles. It preserves the deltoid attachment to the acromion and postoperative rehabilitation is potentially accelerated if the deltoid does not need to be protected. Arthroscopy achieves a better early range of motion than other repair methods; however, it requires a longer operative time
QUESTION 46
The disadvantages of a complete arthroscopiCrepair of a rotator cuff include all of the following except:
1
Complete arthroscopiCrepair limits some suture configuration options in the tendon.
2
Postoperative pain is increased.
3
Complete arthroscopiCrepair is technically difficult to perform.
4
Complex instrumentation is required.
5
Operative time is longer.
ArthroscopiCrepair techniques generally require the use of suture anchors and limit some suture configuration options in the tendon. Complete arthroscopiCrepair is technically difficult, requires significantly greater and more complex instrumentation, and has a potentially longer operative time. However, it decreases postoperative pain