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Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...

Updated: Feb 2026 73 Views
Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 201-250

QUESTION 1
Loosening of a cemented metal-backed polyethylene acetabular component occurs at which of the following junctions:
1
The cement-bone interface
2
The cement-metal interface
3
The metal-polyethylene interface as a result of micromotion
4
Result of fracture and dissolution through the structure of the cement
5
Both the cement-bone and cement-metal interface
QUESTION 2
Placing a screw in the anterior-superior quadrant of the acetabulum places which of the following structures at-risk:
1
External iliaCvein
2
Internal iliaCartery
3
Bladder
4
Obturator vein
5
Common iliaCartery
QUESTION 3
During revision surgery for total hip arthroplasty, the accepted standard for the presence of an infection on frozen tissue histological analysis is:
1
Five mononuclear cells per high-powered field
2
Ten mononuclear cells per high-powered field
3
Five polymorphonuclear cells per high-powered field
4
Ten polymorphonuclear cells per high-powered field
5
One polymorphonuclear cell per high-powered field
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not an indication for an intertrochanteriCosteotomy:
1
Malunion of a fracture in the trochanter region
2
Shortening, lengthening, or derotation osteotomies to realign the extremity
3
Avascular necrosis involving more than 50% of the femoral head
4
Avascular necrosis involving less than 50% of the femoral head
5
Avascular necrosis involving less than 25% of the femoral head
QUESTION 5
Normal activities, such as walking 1 km/hour, create forces across the hip joint of times body weight:
1
1
2
2
3
3
4
4
5
5
QUESTION 6
The principles of osteotomy do not include which of the following:
1
Improving congruency by restoring proper biomechanics
2
Reorienting the weight bearing surfaces to transfer load in compression rather than shear
3
Timely intervention with minimal arthrosis
4
Advanced osteoarthritis
5
Bone-to-bone aposition
QUESTION 7
The technical goals of osteotomy should include all of the following except:
1
Eliminating impingement
2
Correcting deformity
3
Sacrificing motion
4
Restoring pain-free functional range of motion
5
Altering range of motion
QUESTION 8
The best index to measure acetabular deficiency in the coronal plane is:
1
Tear drop ratio
2
Center edge angle of Wiberg
3
Hilgenreiner angle
4
Leg length measurements
5
Greater trochanter-pubiCratio
QUESTION 9
In cemented total hip arthroplasty, the initial event in the loosening process of the femoral component occurs at the:
1
Bone-cement interface
2
Prosthesis-cement interface
3
Thin cement mantle with fatigue fractures of cement
4
Simultaneously at the bone cement and prosthesis cement interface
5
Large cement mantles
QUESTION 10
Loosening of the acetabular component in a cemented total hip arthroplasty most often occurs at:
1
Bone-cement interface
2
Prosthesis-cement interface
3
Within the cement
4
Simultaneously at all three locations
5
Within the bone
QUESTION 11
The best fatigue strength for the femoral component is:
1
Coated stainless steel
2
Coated chromium cobalt
3
Cold-forged stainless steel
4
Fatigue strength is identical in all
5
Porous-coated stainless steel
QUESTION 12
Femoral components made of which material have the least amount of stiffness:
1
Stainless steel
2
Chromium cobalt
3
Titanium
4
All of the above have approximately the same amount of stiffness
5
Porous-coated stainless steel
QUESTION 13
Cement fatigue is the main cause of loosening in a cemented femoral component. Cement is strongest in:
1
Extension
2
Tension
3
Compression
4
Shear
5
Flexion
QUESTION 14
The most durable cemented femoral component design has which of the following surface finishes:
1
RA surface more than 1.5 (average roughness)
2
Grit-blasted surface
3
Matte finish surface
4
Polished, smooth surface
5
None of the above
QUESTION 15
Noncemented femoral components must be able to resist translation and rotation in all of the following except:
1
Translation in the axial plane
2
Translation in the medial-lateral plane
3
Translation in the anteroposterior plane
4
Rotation in the coronal plane
5
Pivot shift test
QUESTION 16
Which uncemented femoral component design provides the best axial and torsional stability in the metaphyses:
1
Single wedge-shaped implant
2
Wedge-shaped metaphyseal-filling implant
3
Tapered implant
4
Extensively porous-coated implant
5
Diaphyseal-filling implant
QUESTION 17
Modularity in noncemented femoral components is popular because the design:
1
Is associated with less loosening
2
Allows more versatility in matching proximal and distal femoral geometry
3
Increases particulate debris
4
Leads to less osteolysis
5
Leads to more osteolysis
QUESTION 18
Patch porous-coated femoral implants failed because they:
1
Provided a poor distal fit
2
Increased micromotion of the implant
3
Caused stress fracture at the porous-coated site
4
Provided channels for egress of particulate debris
5
Caused excessive polyethylene wear
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the preferred thickness for hydroxyapatite coatings:
1
5 µm
2
20 µm
3
50 µm
4
200 µm
5
400 µm
QUESTION 20
PeriprosthetiCbone loss occurs by all of the following mechanisms except:
1
Stress shielding
2
Osteolysis
3
Implant extraction
4
Impaction grafting
5
Erosion by infection
QUESTION 21
Stress shielding occurs in the proximal femur secondary to:
1
Cemented femoral implants
2
Noncemented femoral implants
3
Stiffer implants that allow more distal bone growth
4
Modular designs
5
All of the above.
QUESTION 22
Thigh pain in noncemented implants is frequently a consequence of:
1
Stem loosening
2
Fibrous stabilization of implant
3
Bony stabilization of implant
4
Stem loosening and fibrous stabilization
5
Stem loosening and bony stabilization of implant
QUESTION 23
All of the following strategies are used to reduce the micromotion between the flexible bone of the femur and a stiff femoral implant except:
1
Providing external porous coatings to the tip of the stem
2
Reducing contact between the tip of the stem and cortical bone
3
Tapering the stem tip
4
Cementing the femoral component
5
Expanding the stem tip so that it compresses on the cortex
QUESTION 24
All of the following methods are used to reduce the modulus of elasticity of the distal stem except:
1
Stems with slots
2
Slimming and boring out the center of the distal stem
3
Enlarging the distal stem tip
4
Hollow distal stems
5
Diaphyseal cutouts
QUESTION 25
The major biomechanical function of the femoral component in total hip arthroplasty is to:
1
Optimize leg length
2
Anchor the prosthetiCfemoral head to the femur
3
Accomodate the femoral head
4
Equalize leg length
5
Replace poor bone stock
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the most common cause of osteonecrosis of the femoral head:
1
Corticosteroids
2
Displaced transcervical fracture
3
Nitrogen bubbles
4
Coagulopathies
5
Sickle cell disease
QUESTION 27
In the United States, what percentage of primary total hip replacements are performed due to osteonecrosis:
1
3%
2
5%
3
10%
4
15%
5
20%
QUESTION 28
Osteonecrosis is bilateral in what percentage of patients between 25 and 45 years of age with a diagnosis of AVN of one hip:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
QUESTION 29
All of the mechanisms listed below have been implicated in causing osteonecrosis except:
1
Intravascular coagulation
2
Hemodilation of blood
3
Embolization of fat
4
Nitrogen bubbles
5
Sickle cells
QUESTION 30
Which of the following is the most common factor implicated in the development of osteonecrosis:
1
Excessive alcohol intake
2
Gout medication
3
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (COX 1)
4
Ciprofloxin administration
5
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (COX 2)
QUESTION 31
What percentage of patients exposed to heavy alcohol consumption will develop osteonecrosis:
1
5%
2
10%
3
15%
4
20%
5
25%
QUESTION 32
What percentage of patients exposed to high dosages of corticosteroids develop avascular necrosis:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
QUESTION 33
Subtle coagulation defects are found in what percentage of patients with osteonecrosis:
1
20%
2
30%
3
40%
4
50%
5
70%
QUESTION 34
The radiolucent crescent sign on radiographs of the hip:
1
Is present only in the stage II disease avascular necrosis
2
Occurs in the articular cartilage
3
Is caused by collapse of the subchondral trabeculae
4
Is more clearly seen on magnetiCresonance imaging
5
Is present only after articular cartilage loss
QUESTION 35
The articular cartilage of the femoral head remains intact until after trabecular collapse because:
1
Nutrition comes from the metaphyseal bone
2
Nutrition comes from the synovial fluid
3
Nutrition comes from the epiphysis
4
Nutrition comes from the synovial membrane
5
Nutrition comes from the diaphysis by way of vessels in the metaphysis
QUESTION 36
On radiograph, what stage of osteonecrosis is associated with a dense necrotiClesion with a sclerotiCborder but no crescent sign:
1
Stage I
2
Stage II
3
Stage III
4
Stage IV
5
Stage V
QUESTION 37
The early stages of osteonecrosis are best detected by:
1
Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs
2
Bone scans
3
MagnetiCresonance image (MRI)
4
Computed tomography
5
Single photon computed tomography
QUESTION 38
What percentage of hips diagnosed clinically with osteonecrosis go on to femoral head collapse:
1
30%
2
40%
3
50%
4
70%
5
80%
QUESTION 39
The most promising results with electrical stimulation for treatment of osteonecrosis are with:
1
Direct current
2
Capacitive coupling
3
Pulsing electromagnetiCfields
4
Indirect current
5
Concurrent bone grafting
QUESTION 40
Core decompression for osteonecrosis of the femoral head does not act through which of the following mechanisms:
1
Decreasing the intraosseous pressure
2
Opening channels for vascular ingrowth
3
Stimulating the repair process
4
Increasing structural integrity
5
Increasing vascularity to the avascular area
QUESTION 41
Urbaniak and associates reported a success rate of treating osteonecrosis before collapse:
1
10%
2
30%
3
50%
4
70%
5
90%
QUESTION 42
The incidence of deep infection complicating primary total hip arthroplasty is:
1
0.25%
2
0.5%
3
1%
4
2%
5
3%
QUESTION 43
The most common organism implicated in an infected total hip replacement is:
1
Staphylococcus aureus
2
Streptococcus
3
Staphylococcus epidermidis
4
Escherichia coli
5
Salmonella typhi
QUESTION 44
Organisms survive on biosynthetiCsurfaces, such as total hips, because of:
1
Sulphate molecules on the surface
2
Their natural occurrence in the human body
3
Polysaccharide biofilm on the surface
4
They are protected by the sodium hyalurinate
5
Mucopolysaccharide present in the synovial fluid
QUESTION 45
Preoperatively, what percentage of patients undergoing total hip replacement have methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSE) organisms on their skin:
1
10%
2
25%
3
35%
4
40%
5
65%
QUESTION 46
After analyzing 148,359 primary total hip arthroplasties, the Swedish Registry found the lowest risk of revision was:
1
Ventilated suits
2
Laminar flow
3
Palacos-gentamicin cement
4
Sugeon dependent
5
Palacos cement
QUESTION 47
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) returns to normal how long after a total hip replacement:
1
6 weeks
2
2 months
3
6 months
4
9 months
5
1 year
QUESTION 48
An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of what level is considered a good cutoff for guiding an index of suspicion for infection:
1
10 mm/hr
2
20 mm/hr
3
30 mm/hr
4
40 mm/hr
5
60 mm/hr
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon