Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
Updated: Feb 2026
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Key Medical Takeaway
Learn more about ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 201-250 and how to manage it. The best position for hip arthrodesis is neutral abduction/adduction, 20-30° flexion, and neutral internal/external rotation. Anterior total hip arthroplasty (THA) dislocations are favored by extension, adduction, and external rotation. Loosening of cemented acetabular components primarily occurs at the cement-bone interface. This is the correct answer q for these orthopedic principles.
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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 201-250
QUESTION 1
Loosening of a cemented metal-backed polyethylene acetabular component occurs at which of the following junctions:
1
The cement-bone interface
2
The cement-metal interface
3
The metal-polyethylene interface as a result of micromotion
4
Result of fracture and dissolution through the structure of the cement
5
Both the cement-bone and cement-metal interface
Autopsy studies show that the loosening of cemented components occurs at the cement-bone interface. Loosening occurs first at the periphery and proceeds toward the dome. The bone resorption at the cement-bone interface is a response to polyethylene debris
QUESTION 2
Placing a screw in the anterior-superior quadrant of the acetabulum places which of the following structures at-risk:
1
External iliaCvein
2
Internal iliaCartery
3
Bladder
4
Obturator vein
5
Common iliaCartery
Placing screws in the acetabular cup in the anterior-superior or anterior-inferior quadrant is not advised due to the proximity of the external iliaCvein and the obturator artery, respectively
QUESTION 3
During revision surgery for total hip arthroplasty, the accepted standard for the presence of an infection on frozen tissue histological analysis is:
1
Five mononuclear cells per high-powered field
2
Ten mononuclear cells per high-powered field
3
Five polymorphonuclear cells per high-powered field
4
Ten polymorphonuclear cells per high-powered field
5
One polymorphonuclear cell per high-powered field
Frozen section analysis is important in revision surgery to determine why a component has become loose. Ten polymorphonuclear cells per high-powered field lower the sensitivity for infection but do not reduce the specificity to diagnose an infection. Five polymorphonuclear cells per high-powered field are the current standard accepted as diagnostiCfor an infection. Mononuclear cells can be present in the face of aseptiCloosening or polywear disease. Polymorphonuclear cells are diagnostiCof biologiCinfectious response
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not an indication for an intertrochanteriCosteotomy:
1
Malunion of a fracture in the trochanter region
2
Shortening, lengthening, or derotation osteotomies to realign the extremity
3
Avascular necrosis involving more than 50% of the femoral head
4
Avascular necrosis involving less than 50% of the femoral head
5
Avascular necrosis involving less than 25% of the femoral head
Malunion fractures in the trochanter region and shortening, lengthening, or derotation osteotomies to realign the extremity are indications for an intertrochanteriCosteotomy. Avascular necrosis involving more than 50% of the femoral head is a contraindication for intertrochanteriCosteotomy
QUESTION 5
Normal activities, such as walking 1 km/hour, create forces across the hip joint of times body weight:
1
1
2
2
3
3
4
4
5
5
Normal activities increase forces over the hip to three times body weight. Jogging increases forces across the hip by five to eight times body weight
QUESTION 6
The principles of osteotomy do not include which of the following:
1
Improving congruency by restoring proper biomechanics
2
Reorienting the weight bearing surfaces to transfer load in compression rather than shear
3
Timely intervention with minimal arthrosis
4
Advanced osteoarthritis
5
Bone-to-bone aposition
Principles of osteotomy include improving congruency by restoring proper mechanics, reorienting the weight bearing surfaces to transfer load in compression rather than shear, bone-to-bone aposition, and timely intervention with minimal arthrosis
QUESTION 7
The technical goals of osteotomy should include all of the following except:
1
Eliminating impingement
2
Correcting deformity
3
Sacrificing motion
4
Restoring pain-free functional range of motion
5
Altering range of motion
Technical goals of osteotomy include eliminating impingement, correcting deformity, and restoring a pain-free functional range of motion. Motion should not be gained or lost, but the range can be altered
QUESTION 8
The best index to measure acetabular deficiency in the coronal plane is:
1
Tear drop ratio
2
Center edge angle of Wiberg
3
Hilgenreiner angle
4
Leg length measurements
5
Greater trochanter-pubiCratio
Literature from Europe and North America suggests that a patient with acetabular dysplasia whose anteroposterior radiograph shows a center edge angle of Wiberg less than 15° is a good candidate for periacetabular osteotomy
QUESTION 9
In cemented total hip arthroplasty, the initial event in the loosening process of the femoral component occurs at the:
1
Bone-cement interface
2
Prosthesis-cement interface
3
Thin cement mantle with fatigue fractures of cement
4
Simultaneously at the bone cement and prosthesis cement interface
5
Large cement mantles
From the long-term observations of radiograph changes occurring around well-performed cemented total hip arthroplasties, fatigue fracture of cement, especially in areas of thin cement mantles, leads to loss of stability of the femoral component within the cement mantle
QUESTION 10
Loosening of the acetabular component in a cemented total hip arthroplasty most often occurs at:
1
Bone-cement interface
2
Prosthesis-cement interface
3
Within the cement
4
Simultaneously at all three locations
5
Within the bone
Loosening on the acetabular side most often occurs at the bone-cement interface. Histiocyte cell membrane proliferation incited by particulate generation proceeds from the periphery of the bone-cement interface to the dome of the acetabulum with eventual loosening
QUESTION 11
The best fatigue strength for the femoral component is:
1
Coated stainless steel
2
Coated chromium cobalt
3
Cold-forged stainless steel
4
Fatigue strength is identical in all
5
Porous-coated stainless steel
Cold-worked, cold-forged micrograin femoral components provide greater fatigue strength than original casting techniques. Coated stainless steel and coated chromium cobalt have less fatigue strength then the other answer choices
QUESTION 12
Femoral components made of which material have the least amount of stiffness:
1
Stainless steel
2
Chromium cobalt
3
Titanium
4
All of the above have approximately the same amount of stiffness
5
Porous-coated stainless steel
Titanium has one-half the material modulus, or stiffness, of chromium cobalt or stainless steel irrespective of the type of porous coating. Titanium also has a high corrosion resistance that is attributed to an oxide layer which is chemically nonreactive to the surrounding tissue
QUESTION 13
Cement fatigue is the main cause of loosening in a cemented femoral component. Cement is strongest in:
1
Extension
2
Tension
3
Compression
4
Shear
5
Flexion
Cement is stronger in compression than in tension. Stem designs incorporate a taper to the mid and distal stem geometry to transfer the load from the stem to the cement primarily in compression
QUESTION 14
The most durable cemented femoral component design has which of the following surface finishes:
1
RA surface more than 1.5 (average roughness)
2
Grit-blasted surface
3
Matte finish surface
4
Polished, smooth surface
5
None of the above
Femoral components with polished, smooth surfaces and low RA surfaces have proved to be more durable than devices with a rougher finish
QUESTION 15
Noncemented femoral components must be able to resist translation and rotation in all of the following except:
1
Translation in the axial plane
2
Translation in the medial-lateral plane
3
Translation in the anteroposterior plane
4
Rotation in the coronal plane
5
Pivot shift test
Implants must resist translation in the axial, medial-lateral, and anteroposterior planes, as well as resisting rotation in the parasagittal, transverse, and coronal planes
QUESTION 16
Which uncemented femoral component design provides the best axial and torsional stability in the metaphyses:
1
Single wedge-shaped implant
2
Wedge-shaped metaphyseal-filling implant
3
Tapered implant
4
Extensively porous-coated implant
5
Diaphyseal-filling implant
The metaphysis provides axial and torsional stability for most wedge-shaped, proximally porous-coated, metaphyseal-filling implants. The other types of implants give stability in other areas than the metaphyses
QUESTION 17
Modularity in noncemented femoral components is popular because the design:
1
Is associated with less loosening
2
Allows more versatility in matching proximal and distal femoral geometry
3
Increases particulate debris
4
Leads to less osteolysis
5
Leads to more osteolysis
Modularity in noncemented femoral components is popular because it allows more versatility in matching proximal and distal femoral geometry. However, additional research is needed to determine if particulate debris leads to osteolysis and failure
QUESTION 18
Patch porous-coated femoral implants failed because they:
1
Provided a poor distal fit
2
Increased micromotion of the implant
3
Caused stress fracture at the porous-coated site
4
Provided channels for egress of particulate debris
5
Caused excessive polyethylene wear
Patch porous-coated femoral implants failed because they provided channels for the particulate debris to move distally, resulting in diaphyseal osteolysis. A poor proximal fit permits the polyethylene particulate debris to erode around the femoral component
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the preferred thickness for hydroxyapatite coatings:
1
5 µm
2
20 µm
3
50 µm
4
200 µm
5
400 µm
Thick hydroxyapatite coatings of 200 µm or more are at risk for fracture and delamination, and thin coatings of 20 µm or less may be resorbed too quickly. The best compromise appears to be 50 µm, which is thick enough so that resorption does not take place too quickly
QUESTION 20
PeriprosthetiCbone loss occurs by all of the following mechanisms except:
1
Stress shielding
2
Osteolysis
3
Implant extraction
4
Impaction grafting
5
Erosion by infection
Stress shielding, osteolysis, and implant extraction result in bone loss and must be minimized to maintain bone stock. Impaction grafting is a technique used to increase bone stock
QUESTION 21
Stress shielding occurs in the proximal femur secondary to:
1
Cemented femoral implants
2
Noncemented femoral implants
3
Stiffer implants that allow more distal bone growth
4
Modular designs
5
All of the above.
Stress shielding occurs secondary to cemented femoral implants, noncemented femoral implants, and stiffer, longer implants that allow more distal bone growth. Stress shielding is also related to the geometry of the implant and bone quality. Modular designs alone do not cause stress shielding
QUESTION 22
Thigh pain in noncemented implants is frequently a consequence of:
1
Stem loosening
2
Fibrous stabilization of implant
3
Bony stabilization of implant
4
Stem loosening and fibrous stabilization
5
Stem loosening and bony stabilization of implant
Thigh pain in noncemented implants is frequently a consequence of stem loosening and fibrous stabilization. Thigh pain has not been associated with bony stabilization of the implant because there is no stem loosening if there is adequate bony stabilization
QUESTION 23
All of the following strategies are used to reduce the micromotion between the flexible bone of the femur and a stiff femoral implant except:
1
Providing external porous coatings to the tip of the stem
2
Reducing contact between the tip of the stem and cortical bone
3
Tapering the stem tip
4
Cementing the femoral component
5
Expanding the stem tip so that it compresses on the cortex
Providing external porous coatings to the tip of the stem, reducing contact between the tip of the stem and cortical bone, and tapering the stem tip are strategies that have been used to reduce micromotion. Cementing the femoral component will also reduce micromotion
QUESTION 24
All of the following methods are used to reduce the modulus of elasticity of the distal stem except:
1
Stems with slots
2
Slimming and boring out the center of the distal stem
3
Enlarging the distal stem tip
4
Hollow distal stems
5
Diaphyseal cutouts
Stems with slots, diaphyseal cutouts, and hollow distal stems have been used to reduce stem stiffness. Enlarging the distal stem tip increases the modulus of elasticity of the distal stem
QUESTION 25
The major biomechanical function of the femoral component in total hip arthroplasty is to:
1
Optimize leg length
2
Anchor the prosthetiCfemoral head to the femur
3
Accomodate the femoral head
4
Equalize leg length
5
Replace poor bone stock
Anchoring the prosthetiCfemoral head to the femur and substituting for the femoral head and neck are the major biomechanical functions of the femoral component in total hip arthroplasty. One can decrease or increase leg lengths by changing the size of a femoral component, specifically the neck length
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the most common cause of osteonecrosis of the femoral head:
1
Corticosteroids
2
Displaced transcervical fracture
3
Nitrogen bubbles
4
Coagulopathies
5
Sickle cell disease
Displaced transcervical fractures of the cervical neck of the femur are the most common cause of osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Although corticosteroid use, nitrogen bubbles, coagulopathies, and sickle cell disease can also cause osteonecrosis, the highest incidence is seen with displaced transcervical fractures
QUESTION 27
In the United States, what percentage of primary total hip replacements are performed due to osteonecrosis:
1
3%
2
5%
3
10%
4
15%
5
20%
In the United States, approximately 10% of primary total hip replacements are performed due to osteonecrosis. The majority of total hip replacements occur secondary to osteoarthritis
QUESTION 28
Osteonecrosis is bilateral in what percentage of patients between 25 and 45 years of age with a diagnosis of AVN of one hip:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
Adults between 25 and 45 years old are most frequently affected with osteonecrosis, and the condition is bilateral in more than
50% of patients. The condition is usually secondary to alcoholism, corticosteroid use, sickle cell disease, and coagulopathies, as opposed to transcervical neck fractures seen in the elderly
QUESTION 29
All of the mechanisms listed below have been implicated in causing osteonecrosis except:
1
Intravascular coagulation
2
Hemodilation of blood
3
Embolization of fat
4
Nitrogen bubbles
5
Sickle cells
Factors causing intravascular coagulation or thrombosis, not hemodilation, are the most important mechanisms implicated in causing osteonecrosis
QUESTION 30
Which of the following is the most common factor implicated in the development of osteonecrosis:
1
Excessive alcohol intake
2
Gout medication
3
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (COX 1)
4
Ciprofloxin administration
5
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (COX 2)
Excessive alcohol intake and chroniCsteroid administration are the common factors implicated in the development of osteonecrosis. Although there have been case reports indicating nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, it is questionable if this was the cause
QUESTION 31
What percentage of patients exposed to heavy alcohol consumption will develop osteonecrosis:
1
5%
2
10%
3
15%
4
20%
5
25%
Less than 5% of patients exposed to heavy alcohol consumption develop osteonecrosis
QUESTION 32
What percentage of patients exposed to high dosages of corticosteroids develop avascular necrosis:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
Five percent to 10% of patients who receive high doses of corticosteroids develop avascular necrosis. Why only a small percentage of patients develop avascular necrosis is poorly understood, and there may be some genetiCpredisposition
QUESTION 33
Subtle coagulation defects are found in what percentage of patients with osteonecrosis:
1
20%
2
30%
3
40%
4
50%
5
70%
Seventy percent of patients with osteonecrosis have some subtle coagulation defect
QUESTION 34
The radiolucent crescent sign on radiographs of the hip:
1
Is present only in the stage II disease avascular necrosis
2
Occurs in the articular cartilage
3
Is caused by collapse of the subchondral trabeculae
4
Is more clearly seen on magnetiCresonance imaging
5
Is present only after articular cartilage loss
The crescent sign is caused by subchondral trabeculae collapse before flattening of the articular surface. The success of core decompression is markedly diminished after this finding is seen on radiographs
QUESTION 35
The articular cartilage of the femoral head remains intact until after trabecular collapse because:
1
Nutrition comes from the metaphyseal bone
2
Nutrition comes from the synovial fluid
3
Nutrition comes from the epiphysis
4
Nutrition comes from the synovial membrane
5
Nutrition comes from the diaphysis by way of vessels in the metaphysis
Cartilage receives its nutrition through the synovial fluid. Only after collapse of the head is articular cartilage subjected to abnormal mechanical pressures that lead to degeneration
QUESTION 36
On radiograph, what stage of osteonecrosis is associated with a dense necrotiClesion with a sclerotiCborder but no crescent sign:
1
Stage I
2
Stage II
3
Stage III
4
Stage IV
5
Stage V
Stage II of osteonecrosis has good cartilage space without collapse, and a dense necrotiClesion with sclerotiCborder but does not have a crescent sign. Stage I is detected on magnetiCresonance imaging, and stages III and IV are advanced forms of osteonecrosis
QUESTION 37
The early stages of osteonecrosis are best detected by:
1
Anteroposterior and lateral radiographs
2
Bone scans
3
MagnetiCresonance image (MRI)
4
Computed tomography
5
Single photon computed tomography
If present, radiographiCchanges are detected by MRI in more than 90% of cases. MRI remains the most sensitive test for osteonecrosis and becomes positive before changes are present on the roentgenogram
QUESTION 38
What percentage of hips diagnosed clinically with osteonecrosis go on to femoral head collapse:
1
30%
2
40%
3
50%
4
70%
5
80%
Approximately 70% of hips diagnosed clinically with osteonecrosis go on to femoral head collapse. The majority of hips progress to the severe form of the disease and will ultimately require total joint arthroplasty
QUESTION 39
The most promising results with electrical stimulation for treatment of osteonecrosis are with:
1
Direct current
2
Capacitive coupling
3
Pulsing electromagnetiCfields
4
Indirect current
5
Concurrent bone grafting
The results of a multicenter study show promising results with pulsing electromagnetiCfields. Pulsing electromagnetiCfields were found effective as a symptomatiCmanagement in precollapsed lesion and as effective as core decompression
QUESTION 40
Core decompression for osteonecrosis of the femoral head does not act through which of the following mechanisms:
1
Decreasing the intraosseous pressure
2
Opening channels for vascular ingrowth
3
Stimulating the repair process
4
Increasing structural integrity
5
Increasing vascularity to the avascular area
Core decompression is affected by a number of mechanisms including decreasing the intraosseous pressure, opening channels for vascular ingrowth, and stimulating the repair process through increased vascularity. Core decompression does not increase structural integrity of the area
QUESTION 41
Urbaniak and associates reported a success rate of treating osteonecrosis before collapse:
1
10%
2
30%
3
50%
4
70%
5
90%
Urbaniak and associates reported a success rate of 70% with mild collapse and 80% before collapse. Their results have not been duplicated as yet. The results of their study are much better than those reported with fibular graft
QUESTION 42
The incidence of deep infection complicating primary total hip arthroplasty is:
1
0.25%
2
0.5%
3
1%
4
2%
5
3%
The incidence of deep infection in primary total hip replacement is 1%. After revision hip surgery, the percentage increases 3% to
4%. Repeated revisions are associated with increasing infection rates
QUESTION 43
The most common organism implicated in an infected total hip replacement is:
1
Staphylococcus aureus
2
Streptococcus
3
Staphylococcus epidermidis
4
Escherichia coli
5
Salmonella typhi
Staphylococcus epidermidis accounts for 50% to 75% of all arthroplasty infections. This is the most common organism cultured from the skin of preoperative patients
QUESTION 44
Organisms survive on biosynthetiCsurfaces, such as total hips, because of:
1
Sulphate molecules on the surface
2
Their natural occurrence in the human body
3
Polysaccharide biofilm on the surface
4
They are protected by the sodium hyalurinate
5
Mucopolysaccharide present in the synovial fluid
AntibiotiCresistance, the organismâs ability to form a glycocalyx or polysaccharide biofilm, and a slime layer enable the organism to survive on implants. This is one of the reasons why it is difficult to clear up an infection using only antibiotics
QUESTION 45
Preoperatively, what percentage of patients undergoing total hip replacement have methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSE) organisms on their skin:
1
10%
2
25%
3
35%
4
40%
5
65%
Preoperatively, 25% of skin swabs taken in 100 patients undergoing total hip replacement were MRSE resistant. This is probably a direct result of the overuse of antibiotics by practicing physicians
QUESTION 46
After analyzing 148,359 primary total hip arthroplasties, the Swedish Registry found the lowest risk of revision was:
1
Ventilated suits
2
Laminar flow
3
Palacos-gentamicin cement
4
Sugeon dependent
5
Palacos cement
The Swedish Registry found the lowest risk of revision was in patients who had palacos-gentamicin cement. No effect was found with ventilated suits or laminar flow
QUESTION 47
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) returns to normal how long after a total hip replacement:
1
6 weeks
2
2 months
3
6 months
4
9 months
5
1 year
The ESR takes more than a year to return to normal after a total hip replacement
QUESTION 48
An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of what level is considered a good cutoff for guiding an index of suspicion for infection:
1
10 mm/hr
2
20 mm/hr
3
30 mm/hr
4
40 mm/hr
5
60 mm/hr
With an ESR of 30 mm/hr to 35 mm/hr, sensitivities have been reported from 0.60 to 0.96 and specificities from 0.65 to
1