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Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...

Updated: Feb 2026 54 Views
Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
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ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 151-200

QUESTION 1
Intra-articular steroids change synovial fluid characteristincs by:
1
Stabilizing phagocytes
2
Stabilizing synthesis of inflammatory mediators
3
Increasing the hyaluroniCacid concentration in a joint
4
Decreasing the hyaluroniCacid concentration in a joint
5
Intra-articular steroids do not change synovial fluid characteristics
QUESTION 2
To reduce the chance of irritation when injecting a knee with hyaluroniCacid, which of the following approaches is recommended:
1
A medial approach in a partially bent knee
2
A direct straight injection
3
A direct lateral injection
4
A medial approach in an extended knee
5
A direct injection through the patellar tendon
QUESTION 3
Indications for high tibial osteotomy include all of the following except:
1
10° to 15° of varus deformity on weight-bearing radiographs
2
90° preoperative range of motion
3
Flexion contracture less than 15°
4
60° preoperative range of motion
5
Age younger than 60 years
QUESTION 4
Contraindications to high tibial osteotomy include:
1
Lateral compartment narrowing
2
Lateral tibial subluxation more than 1 cm
3
Medial compartment bone loss of more than 3 mm
4
Ligament instability
5
All of the above
QUESTION 5
The incidence of lateral gonarthrosis in women is:
1
Lower than men
2
Same as men
3
Two times higher in women
4
Three times higher in women
5
Five times higher in women
QUESTION 6
The majority of patients with lateral compartment arthritis have:
1
Rheumatoid arthritis
2
NeurologiCcondition (e.g., Polio)
3
Collagen vascular disease
4
Osteoarthritis
5
Trauma
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a good indication for a varus-producing supracondylar femoral osteotomy (SFO):
1
Valgus deformity less than 15°
2
Valgus joint-line tilt more than 10°
3
90° arCof range of motion
4
Old patients
5
Young patients
QUESTION 8
When performing a supracondylar femoral osteotomy, it is recommended to correct the tibiofemoral angle:
1
2°
2
2° to 4°
3
4° to 6°
4
6° to 8°
5
More than 8°
QUESTION 9
The most common problem encountered with total knee arthroplasty (TKA) after high tibial osteotomy is:
1
Offset of tibial plateau from tibial shaft
2
Patella infera
3
Dealing with skin incision
4
Tracking of patella
5
High riding patella
QUESTION 10
When careful evaluation after primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is performed, the results of TKA after previous high tibial osteotomy (HTO) have a Knee Society good-to-excellent score what percentage of the time:
1
20%
2
40%
3
60%
4
80%
5
90%
QUESTION 11
Subchondral drilling for cartilage defects is effective for:
1
Varus alignment
2
Valgus alignment
3
Subchondral sclerosis
4
Fibrocartilage formation
5
Rheumatoid arthritis
QUESTION 12
When performing a mosaicplasty for cartilage defects, the defects must be:
1
Less than 1 cm
2
Less than 1.5 cm
3
Less than 2 cm
4
Less than 2.5 cm
5
Less than 3 cm
QUESTION 13
Mobile-bearing total knee replacement (TKR) implants are designed to have how many articulations:
1
0
2
1
3
2
4
3
5
4
QUESTION 14
After 5 years, cemented all-polyethylene components in total knee replacement have a loosening rate of:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
QUESTION 15
When performing a total knee replacement (TKR) on a patient with previous skin incisions on the knee, if a different skin incision is to be made it is recommended that the distance between the incisions should be:
1
2 cm
2
3 cm
3
4 cm
4
5 cm
5
7 cm
QUESTION 16
The medial parapatellar skin incision for total knee replacement (TKR):
1
Limits lateral side exposure and interferes with the blood supply of the lateral skin flap
2
Necessitates a lateral release
3
Makes the lateral skin flap smaller
4
Increases the blood supply to the patella
5
Provides excellent exposure for a TKR
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is not true regarding a subvastus arthrotomy for total knee replacement (TKR):
1
A lift of the entire quadriceps mechanism
2
A poor exposure of the lateral aspect of the knee joint
3
A danger of causing injury to the femoral artery
4
Provides fair exposure in a thin patient
5
Provides good visualization in an obese patient
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a true statement concerning the quadriceps snip technique:
1
The quadriceps snip technique involves lengthening the tendon in a
2
The quadriceps snip technique enters the quadriceps tendon with a
3
The quadriceps snip technique significantly weakens the extensor tendon.
4
The quadriceps snip technique permits extended exposure.
5
The quadriceps snip technique involves a horizontal cut in the extensor tendon.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a true statement regarding intramedullary instrumentation when performing bone cuts in total knee replacement (TKR):
1
Intramedullary instrumentation is equally as accurate as extramedullary devices in all knees.
2
Intramedullary instrumentation is less accurate than extramedullary devices in varus knees.
3
Intramedullary instrumentation is less accurate than extramedullary devices in valgus knees.
4
Intramedullary instrumentation is more accurate than extramedullary devices in varus knees.
5
Intramedullary instrumentation is more accurate than extramedullary devices in valgus knees.
QUESTION 20
When total knee replacement surgery is complete, the alignment of the knee must be:
1
Neutral
2
2° of valgus in the tibia
3
5° of valgus in the femur
4
7° of valgus in the tibia
5
7° of valgus in the femur
QUESTION 21
Overall objectives in total knee replacement (TKR) should include all of the following except:
1
Valgus aligned knee
2
Range of motion 0° to 125°
3
Midline tracking patella
4
Collateral ligament balance at full extension and 90°
5
Neutral aligned knee
QUESTION 22
What is the measured resection technique when performing a total knee replacement:
1
Removes 20% more bone than cut
2
Removes an exact amount of bone to fit in the prosthetiCdevice
3
Entails ligament balancing in extension
4
Entails ligament balancing in flexion
5
Incorporates ligament balancing in flexion and extension
QUESTION 23
When performing a total knee replacement, if you discover that the gap in flexion is larger than the gap in full extension, you should:
1
Remove more bone from the tibia
2
Remove more bone from the femur in flexion
3
Remove more bone from the femur in extension
4
Remove more bone from the posterior femur
5
Put in a posterior stabilized prosthesis
QUESTION 24
When performing a total knee replacement, if you discover that the gap in flexion is smaller than the gap in extension:
1
More bone should be removed from the femur in extension
2
A larger polyehtylene component should be used
3
More bone should be removed from the posterior femur
4
The femoral component should be upsized
5
A smaller polyethylene component should be used
QUESTION 25
Which of the following can lead to patellar dislocation in total knee replacement:
1
Internal rotation of femoral component
2
External rotation of femoral component
3
Too large a femoral component
4
External rotation of tibial component
5
Too large a tibial component
QUESTION 26
Epidural analgesia in the postoperative period after total joint replacement is widely used and is associated with all of the following complications except:
1
Nausea
2
Respiratory depression
3
Peroneal nerve palsy
4
Femoral nerve palsy
5
Hypotension
QUESTION 27
Painful "clunking" sensations upon active extension from 60° to 30° in patients with total knee replacements are:
1
Fibrous nodules under patellar tendon
2
Seen only in posterior-stabilized total knee replacement because of fibrous build up in the nodule
3
Fibrous nodule under distal quadriceps tendon
4
Seen only in posterior cruciate retaining total knee replacements
5
Oversized tibial components
QUESTION 28
All of the following are reported advantages of metal-backed patella components except:
1
Metal-backed patella components minimize deformity of overlying polyethylene.
2
Metal-backed patella components permit more evenly distribution of load transmissions.
3
Metal-backed patella components allow for cementless fixation.
4
Metal-backed patella components increase deformity of the overlying polyethylene.
5
Metal-backed patella components reduce the polyethylene thickness at the periphery of the implant.
QUESTION 29
Failure modes of metal-backed patella designs include all of the following except:
1
Dissociation of polyethylene and metal plate
2
Component fractures
3
Femoral component exposed to the metal of the patella component
4
Increased risk of patella dislocation
5
MetalliCsynovitis
QUESTION 30
The incidence of patella component loosening is:
1
4%
2
10%
3
2%
4
8%
5
15%
QUESTION 31
The preferred means for fixation of patellar components is:
1
Large, central patellar lugs
2
Two parallel patellar lugs
3
Three large patellar-fixation lugs
4
Three small peripheral-fixation lugs
5
One central and two peripheral-fixation lugs
QUESTION 32
The majority of patellofemoral instability cases are secondary to:
1
Trauma
2
Failure to perform a lateral release
3
Surgical technique
4
ProsthetiCdesign
5
Patient related
QUESTION 33
Which of the following conditions related to the femur does not influence patellofemoral mechanics and stability:
1
Selecting an oversized femoral component
2
Improper femoral component rotation
3
Medial positioning of the femoral component
4
Excessive axial valgus alignment
5
Excessive flexion gap
QUESTION 34
The position of the tibial component influences patellar biomechanics. The best position to place the component is:
1
Internal rotation of the tibial component
2
External rotation of the tibial component
3
Medialization of tibial component
4
Lateralization of tibial component
5
External rotation and lateralization
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is not a risk factor for fracture of the distal femur proximal to total knee replacement (TKR):
1
Rheumatoid arthritis and osteopenia
2
Anterior femoral notching
3
Osteoarthritis
4
Steroid use
5
Revision arthroplasty
QUESTION 36
Risk factors for peroneal nerve palsy after total knee replacement (TKR) include all of the following except:
1
Severe valgus deformity
2
Flexion contracture
3
Epidural anethesia
4
Previous lumbar laminectomy and valgus osteotomy
5
Increased flexion gap
QUESTION 37
The most common cause of stiffness after total knee replacement (TKR) is:
1
Implant selection
2
Poor preoperative range of motion
3
Flexion contracture of the contralateral extremity
4
A large spacer
5
Tight posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) after implanting a PCL-retaining knee
QUESTION 38
The femoral component can be malaligned in how many different directions:
1
1
2
2
3
4
4
6
5
8
QUESTION 39
What size tibial insert is associated with easy failure and accelerated osteolysis:
1
6 mm
2
8 mm
3
10 mm
4
12 mm
5
15 mm
QUESTION 40
Which of the following tests helps in the diagnosis of reflex sympathetiCdystrophy:
1
MagnetiCresonance imaging
2
Computerized tomography scanning
3
Bone scanning
4
Ultrasonography
5
Tomography
QUESTION 41
Erythema, warmth, stiffness, and cutaneous hypersensitivity after total knee replacement associated with pain is usually caused by:
1
Infection
2
Reflex sympathetiCdystrophy
3
Gout
4
Patellar malalignment
5
Vascular insufficiency
QUESTION 42
Aspirating synovial fluid prior to total knee replacement revision surgery after ensuring that a patient is not concurrently on antibiotiCtherapy has a sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of:
1
20% to 40%
2
60% to 80%
3
Less than 20%
4
40% to 60%
5
90% to 100%
QUESTION 43
The principal thrombogeniCstimulus that leads to the production of venous thromboemboliCdisease during total hip arthroplasty occurs:
1
During the induction of anesthesia
2
During the preparation of the femoral canal
3
12 hours postoperative
4
24 hours postoperative
5
7 days postoperative
QUESTION 44
Place the following in the correct order of increasing modulus of elasticity (least to greatest):
1
Cobalt-chrome, titanium, compact bone, stainless steel
2
Titanium, compact bone, cobalt-chrome, stainless steel
3
Compact bone, titanium, cobalt-chrome, stainless steel
4
Compact bone, titanium, stainless steel, cobalt-chrome
5
Titanium, compact bone, stainless steel, cobalt-chrome
QUESTION 45
Which of the following precautionary measures should be taken to prevent a periprosthetiCfracture when removing components from a patient with a previous compression hip screw:
1
Cemented femoral component with cement augmentation of the screw holes and full weight bearing
2
Plate augmentation with circlage wires and protected weight bearing
3
Toe touch weight bearing for 6 weeks
4
Cortical strut allograft and protected weight bearing
5
Bypass the last screw hole with a cemented femoral component by two cortical diameters and protected weight bearing
QUESTION 46
Which of the following radiographiCchanges is apparent after placement of a fully porous-coated, cobalt-chrome femoral stem:
1
Proximal-femoral osteopenia
2
Distal-femoral osteopenia
3
Radiolucency around the acetabular cup
4
Increased mineralization proximally
5
Osteopenia adjacent to the entire femoral component
QUESTION 47
Noncircumferential-porous coating leads to which of the following adverse effects:
1
Increased rates of infection
2
Increased rates of stress shielding
3
Increased rates of distal osteolysis and late femoral loosening
4
Increase rates of thigh pain
5
Increase rates of thigh pain
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon