Orthopedics Hyperguide Review | Dr Hutaif General Ortho -...
Updated: Feb 2026
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Key Medical Takeaway
In this comprehensive guide, we discuss everything you need to know about ORTHOPEDICS HYPERGUIDE MCQ 151-200. Steroid injections for osteoarthritic knees inhibit lysosomal enzyme release, decrease phagocytes, and reduce inflammatory mediators like prostaglandin and interleukin-1 by up to 50%. They also increase hyaluronic acid concentration. These non-surgical treatments, including hyaluronic acid injections, are often explored to manage knee pain and delay the need for a total knee replacement tkr.
Increasing the hyaluroniCacid concentration in a joint
4
Decreasing the hyaluroniCacid concentration in a joint
5
Intra-articular steroids do not change synovial fluid characteristics
Intra-articular steroids change synovial fluid characteristics by increasing hyaluroniCacid concentration
QUESTION 2
To reduce the chance of irritation when injecting a knee with hyaluroniCacid, which of the following approaches is recommended:
1
A medial approach in a partially bent knee
2
A direct straight injection
3
A direct lateral injection
4
A medial approach in an extended knee
5
A direct injection through the patellar tendon
The chance of an injection site irritation is 5.2% with a medial approach in a partially bent knee, 2.4% with a straight injection, and 1.5% with a direct lateral approach. There is also an increased chance of irritation with a direct patellar tendon injection
QUESTION 3
Indications for high tibial osteotomy include all of the following except:
1
10° to 15° of varus deformity on weight-bearing radiographs
2
90° preoperative range of motion
3
Flexion contracture less than 15°
4
60° preoperative range of motion
5
Age younger than 60 years
Indications for a high tibial osteotomy include age younger than 60 years, 10° to 15° varus deformity, 90° preoperative arCrange of motion, and flexion contracture less than 15°
QUESTION 4
Contraindications to high tibial osteotomy include:
1
Lateral compartment narrowing
2
Lateral tibial subluxation more than 1 cm
3
Medial compartment bone loss of more than 3 mm
4
Ligament instability
5
All of the above
Lateral compartment narrowing, lateral tibial subluxation of more than 1 cm, medial compartment bone loss of more than 3 mm, and ligament instability are contraindications to high tibial osteotomy
QUESTION 5
The incidence of lateral gonarthrosis in women is:
1
Lower than men
2
Same as men
3
Two times higher in women
4
Three times higher in women
5
Five times higher in women
The incidence of primary lateral gonarthrosis in women is five times higher than in men, and the average age of patients is 55 to
60 years. The body habitus of women tend to align more weight on the lateral compartment when compared to men.Correct
Answer: Five times higher in women
QUESTION 6
The majority of patients with lateral compartment arthritis have:
1
Rheumatoid arthritis
2
NeurologiCcondition (e.g., Polio)
3
Collagen vascular disease
4
Osteoarthritis
5
Trauma
Rheumatoid arthritis usually involves the lateral compartment because it is a bicompartmental disease. Although most patients with osteoarthritis have medial compartment arthritis, they still have a significant higher incidence of lateral arthritis than any other disease. The incidence of lateral compartment arthritis is lower in trauma, collagen vascular disease, or patients with neurologiCconditions like polio
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a good indication for a varus-producing supracondylar femoral osteotomy (SFO):
1
Valgus deformity less than 15°
2
Valgus joint-line tilt more than 10°
3
90° arCof range of motion
4
Old patients
5
Young patients
Varus producing supracondylar femoral osteotomy is indicated for a valgus deformity less than 15°, valgus joint line tilt more than 10° in a patient with at least a 90° arCof motion. The procedure is also best indicated in stout, young patients who are involved in heavy labor jobs
QUESTION 8
When performing a supracondylar femoral osteotomy, it is recommended to correct the tibiofemoral angle:
1
2°
2
2° to 4°
3
4° to 6°
4
6° to 8°
5
More than 8°
Correcting the tibiofemoral angle between 4° to 6° transfers 80% of the weight to the medial angle
QUESTION 9
The most common problem encountered with total knee arthroplasty (TKA) after high tibial osteotomy is:
1
Offset of tibial plateau from tibial shaft
2
Patella infera
3
Dealing with skin incision
4
Tracking of patella
5
High riding patella
Patella infera is encountered 80% of the time after a high tibial osteotomy. Patella infera makes it difficult for a surgeon to visualize and dislocate the patella laterally, and it also makes for a difficult salvage for a total knee replacement
QUESTION 10
When careful evaluation after primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is performed, the results of TKA after previous high tibial osteotomy (HTO) have a Knee Society good-to-excellent score what percentage of the time:
1
20%
2
40%
3
60%
4
80%
5
90%
Primary TKA with respect to Knee Society scores and operative complications shows that a primary TKA group scored 88% good to excellent results compared to 63% for the post-HTO group
QUESTION 11
Subchondral drilling for cartilage defects is effective for:
1
Varus alignment
2
Valgus alignment
3
Subchondral sclerosis
4
Fibrocartilage formation
5
Rheumatoid arthritis
Subchondral drilling allows the blood supply to form clot-containing stem cells from which fibrocartilage forms. It is not indicated in patients with systemiCdisease like rheumatoid arthritis. It is ineffective for varus or valgus alignment or subchondral sclerosis
QUESTION 12
When performing a mosaicplasty for cartilage defects, the defects must be:
1
Less than 1 cm
2
Less than 1.5 cm
3
Less than 2 cm
4
Less than 2.5 cm
5
Less than 3 cm
When performing a mosaicplasty for cartilage defects, the best results are obtained with defects less than 2 cm. The plugs should measure 2.5 mm in length. Mosaicplasty results for defects larger than 2 cm have not been as gratifying
QUESTION 13
Mobile-bearing total knee replacement (TKR) implants are designed to have how many articulations:
1
0
2
1
3
2
4
3
5
4
Mobile-bearing TKR implants are designed to have two articulations, one between the femoral and tibial component and the other between the tibial component and base plate on the tibia
QUESTION 14
After 5 years, cemented all-polyethylene components in total knee replacement have a loosening rate of:
1
10%
2
20%
3
30%
4
40%
5
50%
At 5 years, cemented all-polyethylene tibial components in total knee replacement have a loosening rate of 20%. A loosening rate of 20% is unacceptable, therefore, cemented all-polyethylene tibial components are no longer used in total knee replacements. New all poly tibial components are presently being investigated, but not for general use presently
QUESTION 15
When performing a total knee replacement (TKR) on a patient with previous skin incisions on the knee, if a different skin incision is to be made it is recommended that the distance between the incisions should be:
1
2 cm
2
3 cm
3
4 cm
4
5 cm
5
7 cm
Most authors recommend a 7-cm distance between skin incisions. If the distance between the incisions is less than 7 cm, then the chance of skin slough increases
QUESTION 16
The medial parapatellar skin incision for total knee replacement (TKR):
1
Limits lateral side exposure and interferes with the blood supply of the lateral skin flap
2
Necessitates a lateral release
3
Makes the lateral skin flap smaller
4
Increases the blood supply to the patella
5
Provides excellent exposure for a TKR
The medial parapatellar skin incision limits exposure of the lateral compartment and interferes with the blood supply of the lateral skin flap
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is not true regarding a subvastus arthrotomy for total knee replacement (TKR):
1
A lift of the entire quadriceps mechanism
2
A poor exposure of the lateral aspect of the knee joint
3
A danger of causing injury to the femoral artery
4
Provides fair exposure in a thin patient
5
Provides good visualization in an obese patient
All of the answers are associated with the subvastus arthrotomy. A subvastus arthrotomy is a particularly difficult approach in obtaining visualization in an obese patient
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a true statement concerning the quadriceps snip technique:
1
The quadriceps snip technique involves lengthening the tendon in a
2
The quadriceps snip technique enters the quadriceps tendon with a
3
The quadriceps snip technique significantly weakens the extensor tendon.
4
The quadriceps snip technique permits extended exposure.
5
The quadriceps snip technique involves a horizontal cut in the extensor tendon.
The quadriceps snip technique entails dividing the tendon proximally in an oblique fashion to permit extended exposure.Correct
Answer: The quadriceps snip technique permits extended exposure.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is a true statement regarding intramedullary instrumentation when performing bone cuts in total knee replacement (TKR):
1
Intramedullary instrumentation is equally as accurate as extramedullary devices in all knees.
2
Intramedullary instrumentation is less accurate than extramedullary devices in varus knees.
3
Intramedullary instrumentation is less accurate than extramedullary devices in valgus knees.
4
Intramedullary instrumentation is more accurate than extramedullary devices in varus knees.
5
Intramedullary instrumentation is more accurate than extramedullary devices in valgus knees.
Valgus in the tibia shaft may be up to 70%, and intramedullary rods cannot be fully placed into the tibia. Extramedullary techniques are recommended
QUESTION 20
When total knee replacement surgery is complete, the alignment of the knee must be:
1
Neutral
2
2° of valgus in the tibia
3
5° of valgus in the femur
4
7° of valgus in the tibia
5
7° of valgus in the femur
The tibial cut is perpendicular to the tibial axis, the femoral cut is made in 4° to 6° valgus, and the knee aligned in 4° to 6° of valgus provided the ligaments are balanced
QUESTION 21
Overall objectives in total knee replacement (TKR) should include all of the following except:
1
Valgus aligned knee
2
Range of motion 0° to 125°
3
Midline tracking patella
4
Collateral ligament balance at full extension and 90°
5
Neutral aligned knee
To have a satisfactory alignment one should have a valgus aligned knee, not a neutral aligned knee. Range of motion should be
0° to 125° with midline tracking patella. The collateral ligament should be balanced at full extension an 90°
QUESTION 22
What is the measured resection technique when performing a total knee replacement:
1
Removes 20% more bone than cut
2
Removes an exact amount of bone to fit in the prosthetiCdevice
3
Entails ligament balancing in extension
4
Entails ligament balancing in flexion
5
Incorporates ligament balancing in flexion and extension
The measured resection technique is a philosophy that removes the exact amount of bone necessary to fit in the prosthetiCdevice for the femur and tibia, and does not detail ligament balancing. The flexion-extension gap technique incorporates ligament balancing with the bony cuts that give equal flexion and extension gaps
QUESTION 23
When performing a total knee replacement, if you discover that the gap in flexion is larger than the gap in full extension, you should:
1
Remove more bone from the tibia
2
Remove more bone from the femur in flexion
3
Remove more bone from the femur in extension
4
Remove more bone from the posterior femur
5
Put in a posterior stabilized prosthesis
By removing more bone from the femur in extension and using a higher polyethylene component, the flexion and extension gaps can be equalized. If this does not correct the problem, then one should proceed to a posterior stabilized prosthesis
QUESTION 24
When performing a total knee replacement, if you discover that the gap in flexion is smaller than the gap in extension:
1
More bone should be removed from the femur in extension
2
A larger polyehtylene component should be used
3
More bone should be removed from the posterior femur
4
The femoral component should be upsized
5
A smaller polyethylene component should be used
If the flexion gap is smaller than the extension gap, the knee should be balanced by removing more posterior bone from the femur or downsizing the femoral component
QUESTION 25
Which of the following can lead to patellar dislocation in total knee replacement:
1
Internal rotation of femoral component
2
External rotation of femoral component
3
Too large a femoral component
4
External rotation of tibial component
5
Too large a tibial component
Internal rotation of either the femoral or tibial component may lead to patellar dislocation. External rotation of the femoral or tibial component does not usually lead to dislocation, and increased size of the femoral or tibial component will not predispose to patella dislocation
QUESTION 26
Epidural analgesia in the postoperative period after total joint replacement is widely used and is associated with all of the following complications except:
1
Nausea
2
Respiratory depression
3
Peroneal nerve palsy
4
Femoral nerve palsy
5
Hypotension
Nausea, hypotension, respiratory depression, and peroneal nerve palsy are associated with epidural analgesia. Be aware of an epidural bleed secondary to anticoagulation efforts for deep venous thrombosis prophylaxis
QUESTION 27
Painful "clunking" sensations upon active extension from 60° to 30° in patients with total knee replacements are:
1
Fibrous nodules under patellar tendon
2
Seen only in posterior-stabilized total knee replacement because of fibrous build up in the nodule
3
Fibrous nodule under distal quadriceps tendon
4
Seen only in posterior cruciate retaining total knee replacements
5
Oversized tibial components
This painful clunking sensation from 60° to 30° is caused by a fibrous nodule under the distal quadriceps tendon. Contributing factors include a large patellar component with proximal overhang and an abrupt change in the radius of curvature of the femoral component that irritates the quadriceps tendon
QUESTION 28
All of the following are reported advantages of metal-backed patella components except:
1
Metal-backed patella components minimize deformity of overlying polyethylene.
2
Metal-backed patella components permit more evenly distribution of load transmissions.
3
Metal-backed patella components allow for cementless fixation.
4
Metal-backed patella components increase deformity of the overlying polyethylene.
5
Metal-backed patella components reduce the polyethylene thickness at the periphery of the implant.
Metal-backed patella components minimize deformity of the overlying polyethylene and do not increase deformity. These components enable an even distribution of load transmissions and reduce the polyethylene thickness at the periphery of the implant. Metal-backed patella components also allow for cementless fixation of the patellae component
QUESTION 29
Failure modes of metal-backed patella designs include all of the following except:
1
Dissociation of polyethylene and metal plate
2
Component fractures
3
Femoral component exposed to the metal of the patella component
4
Increased risk of patella dislocation
5
MetalliCsynovitis
The polyethylene wear exposing the metal to wear against the femoral component is the ultimate result of all of the above failure modes except increased patella dislocation
QUESTION 30
The incidence of patella component loosening is:
1
4%
2
10%
3
2%
4
8%
5
15%
The incidence of patella component loosening is less than 2%. Factors predisposing to loosening include cementation into deficient bone, component malposition, patellar subluxation or fracture, patellar avascular necrosis, asymmetriCpatellar bone resection, and loosening of other components. Treatment options include observation, component revision, patellectomy or component removal, and patellar arthroplasty if bone stock is sufficient
QUESTION 31
The preferred means for fixation of patellar components is:
1
Large, central patellar lugs
2
Two parallel patellar lugs
3
Three large patellar-fixation lugs
4
Three small peripheral-fixation lugs
5
One central and two peripheral-fixation lugs
Large, central patellar-fixation lugs remove a significant amount of bone, which contributes to patellar fractures. Three small peripheral-fixation lugs are preferred in most designs
QUESTION 32
The majority of patellofemoral instability cases are secondary to:
1
Trauma
2
Failure to perform a lateral release
3
Surgical technique
4
ProsthetiCdesign
5
Patient related
Trauma, failure to perform a lateral release, and prosthetiCdesign are associated with patellofemoral instability, but the majority
of patellofemoral instability cases are secondary to errors in surgical judgement and technique
QUESTION 33
Which of the following conditions related to the femur does not influence patellofemoral mechanics and stability:
1
Selecting an oversized femoral component
2
Improper femoral component rotation
3
Medial positioning of the femoral component
4
Excessive axial valgus alignment
5
Excessive flexion gap
The femoral component size, rotation, position, and alignment influence patellofemoral mechanics. For instance, an oversized femoral component leads to "overstuffing" that results in decreased flexion of the knee. Excessive flexion gap does not influence patellofemoral mechanics
QUESTION 34
The position of the tibial component influences patellar biomechanics. The best position to place the component is:
1
Internal rotation of the tibial component
2
External rotation of the tibial component
3
Medialization of tibial component
4
Lateralization of tibial component
5
External rotation and lateralization
The tibial component must be positioned in external rotation and lateralized when possible. Internal rotation or medialization predispose to patellar subluxation
QUESTION 35
Which of the following is not a risk factor for fracture of the distal femur proximal to total knee replacement (TKR):
1
Rheumatoid arthritis and osteopenia
2
Anterior femoral notching
3
Osteoarthritis
4
Steroid use
5
Revision arthroplasty
The risk factors associated with fracture of the distal femur proximal to TKR are anterior femoral notching (especially if more than
3 mm in depth), rheumatoid arthritis, steroid use, osteopenia, revision arthroplasty, neuromuscular disorders, stiff knee, or poor flexion of the TKR
QUESTION 36
Risk factors for peroneal nerve palsy after total knee replacement (TKR) include all of the following except:
1
Severe valgus deformity
2
Flexion contracture
3
Epidural anethesia
4
Previous lumbar laminectomy and valgus osteotomy
5
Increased flexion gap
Severe valgus deformity, flexion contracture, and epidural anesthesia are risk factors associated with peroneal nerve palsy following TKR. Previous lumbar laminectomy and previous valgus osteotomy of the tibia also increase a patientâs chance of peroneal nerve palsy
QUESTION 37
The most common cause of stiffness after total knee replacement (TKR) is:
1
Implant selection
2
Poor preoperative range of motion
3
Flexion contracture of the contralateral extremity
4
A large spacer
5
Tight posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) after implanting a PCL-retaining knee
Poor preoperative range of motion is the main cause of stiffness after TKR
QUESTION 38
The femoral component can be malaligned in how many different directions:
1
1
2
2
3
4
4
6
5
8
The femoral component can be malaligned in one of eight different directions
QUESTION 39
What size tibial insert is associated with easy failure and accelerated osteolysis:
1
6 mm
2
8 mm
3
10 mm
4
12 mm
5
15 mm
Inserts thinner than 6 mm are associated with easy failure and osteolysis, caused by fracture and wear of the polyethylene
QUESTION 40
Which of the following tests helps in the diagnosis of reflex sympathetiCdystrophy:
1
MagnetiCresonance imaging
2
Computerized tomography scanning
3
Bone scanning
4
Ultrasonography
5
Tomography
Usually, reflex sympathetiCdystrophy is a diagnosis of exclusion characterized by a syndrome of pain out of proportion to the clinical findings; a bone scan may demonstrate increased uptake in the affected area
QUESTION 41
Erythema, warmth, stiffness, and cutaneous hypersensitivity after total knee replacement associated with pain is usually caused by:
1
Infection
2
Reflex sympathetiCdystrophy
3
Gout
4
Patellar malalignment
5
Vascular insufficiency
These symptoms, in addition to pain out of proportion to clinical findings, characterize a slow postoperative course. Poor function after total knee replacement is usually secondary to reflex sympathetiCdystrophy
QUESTION 42
Aspirating synovial fluid prior to total knee replacement revision surgery after ensuring that a patient is not concurrently on antibiotiCtherapy has a sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of:
1
20% to 40%
2
60% to 80%
3
Less than 20%
4
40% to 60%
5
90% to 100%
Providing the patient is off antibiotics, the sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of snynovial fluid aspiration is 100%. AntibiotiCadministration before or during the aspiration will mask the analysis
QUESTION 43
The principal thrombogeniCstimulus that leads to the production of venous thromboemboliCdisease during total hip arthroplasty occurs:
1
During the induction of anesthesia
2
During the preparation of the femoral canal
3
12 hours postoperative
4
24 hours postoperative
5
7 days postoperative
The process of thrombosis starts during the preparation of the femoral canal. Elevation in thrombogeniCfactors is most pronounced during preparation of the femoral canal, especially with insertion of a cemented femoral component. Mechanical manipulation of the limb (dislocation of the femoral head) may also cause intimal damage or occlusion of the femoral vein
QUESTION 44
Place the following in the correct order of increasing modulus of elasticity (least to greatest):
Modulus of elasticities are as follows in Gpa (psi 3 106 ): Compact bone: 21 (3)
Titanium: 96 (14) Stainless steel: 193 (28) Cobalt-chrome: 235 (34)
QUESTION 45
Which of the following precautionary measures should be taken to prevent a periprosthetiCfracture when removing components from a patient with a previous compression hip screw:
1
Cemented femoral component with cement augmentation of the screw holes and full weight bearing
2
Plate augmentation with circlage wires and protected weight bearing
3
Toe touch weight bearing for 6 weeks
4
Cortical strut allograft and protected weight bearing
5
Bypass the last screw hole with a cemented femoral component by two cortical diameters and protected weight bearing
Stress risers are generated when a screw is removed from the femur, weakening the bone for at least 4 weeks. Larger defects (50%) of the cortical width can reduce torsional strength up to 44%. Bypassing the defect by two cortical diameters with a cemented stem doubles the boneâs strength
QUESTION 46
Which of the following radiographiCchanges is apparent after placement of a fully porous-coated, cobalt-chrome femoral stem:
1
Proximal-femoral osteopenia
2
Distal-femoral osteopenia
3
Radiolucency around the acetabular cup
4
Increased mineralization proximally
5
Osteopenia adjacent to the entire femoral component
The most severe stress shielding occurs with an extensively porous-coated chrome-cobalt stem. Stress shielding occurs as the load is transferred from the hip joint to the proximal femur. The load that was previously carried by the hip joint is now shared with the implant. This change leads to remodeling of the proximal femur, resulting in a decreased density and thinning of the proximal portion of the femur. In a group of patients characterized as having severe stress-shielding based on plain radiographs, no adverse effects were noted in terms of hip scores, presence of osteolysis, or need for revision
QUESTION 47
Noncircumferential-porous coating leads to which of the following adverse effects:
1
Increased rates of infection
2
Increased rates of stress shielding
3
Increased rates of distal osteolysis and late femoral loosening
4
Increase rates of thigh pain
5
Increase rates of thigh pain
Noncircumferential-porous coating allows a pathway for particulate debris (polywear) to the distal part of the stem, promoting osteolysis. The polyethylene wear debris migrates through the pathway promoting osteolysis and, ultimately, failure