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Orthopedic With Answers Review | Dr Hutaif General Orth -...

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ORTHOPEDIC MCQS WITH ANSWERS ONLINE FOOT AND ANKLE 06

QUESTION 1
A 47-year-old man has an acute swollen, red, painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He denies any history of similar symptoms. What is the first step in evaluation?
1
Serum uric acid level studies and administration of indomethacin
2
Administration of colchicine
3
Administration of allopurinol
4
Aspiration with evaluation of crystals, cell count, and culture
5
Aspiration with evaluation of crystals and steroid injection
QUESTION 2
A 7-year-old boy sustained an acute puncture wound of the foot after stepping barefoot on a piece of glass 1 day ago. His mother states that she is not sure if she got the piece of glass out; however, she reports that his immunizations are up-to-date. Examination reveals that the wound is slightly erythematous, less than 1 mm in length on the heel, and is not currently draining. What is the next most appropriate step im management?
1
Antibiotic coverage for pseudomonas
2
Tetanus booster
3
Radiographs of the foot
4
MRI to evaluate for possible abscess or osteomyelitis
5
Surgical debridement of the wound
QUESTION 3
Figures 2a and 2b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 16-year-old cheerleader who fell on her left lower extremity while performing a pyramid. Following adequate sedation, closed reduction is performed, but an incomplete reduction is noted. What structure is most likely preventing a reduction?
1
Extensor digitorum brevis
2
Anterior talofibular
3
Posterior tibial tendon
4
Anterior tibial tendon
5
Peroneus brevis tendon
QUESTION 4
Figures 3a and 3b show the current radiographs of a 59-year-old woman who has pain and deformity after undergoing bunion surgery 1 year ago. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
1
revision first metatarsal osteotomy.
2
medial soft-tissue release and lateral plication.
3
metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis.
4
transfer of the extensor hallucis longus tendon.
5
reverse Akin osteotomy of the proximal phalanx.
QUESTION 5
A 30-year-old man who sustained a tibial fracture with a peroneal nerve palsy 2 years ago now has a drop foot and weak eversion of the foot. He reports success with stretching exercises, but he catches his toes when his foot tires. Examination reveals that the foot is plantigrade and supple. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
Posterior tibial tendon transfer to the cuboid
2
Anterior tibial tendon transfer to the cuboid
3
Achilles tendon lengthening
4
Ankle-foot orthosis with dorsiflexion assist
5
Nerve grafting
QUESTION 6
Removal of both hallucal sesamoids should be reserved as a salvage procedure because of the high incidence of which of the following postoperative complications?
1
Hallux rigidus
2
Hallux varus
3
Flexion contracture of the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint
4
Persistent neuritic pain
5
Cock-up deformity of the great toe and hallux valgus
QUESTION 7
A 35-year-old man who snowboards sustained the injury shown in Figures 4a through 4c. What is the mechanism of injury?
1
Inversion and external rotation
2
Axial loading and internal rotation
3
Plantar flexion, axial loading, and inversion
4
Dorsiflexion and axial loading
5
Dorsiflexion, axial loading, inversion, and external rotation
QUESTION 8
A 40-year-old man has a painful mass on his anterior ankle joint with limited range of motion. A radiograph, MRI scan, a gross specimen, and a hematoxylin/eosin biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 5a through 5d. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Infection
2
Tuberculosis
3
Pigmented villonodular synovitis
4
Synovial chondromatosis
5
Metastatic adenocarcinoma
QUESTION 9
A 63-year-old woman with a history of poliomyelitis has a fixed 30-degree equinus contracture of the ankle, rigid hindfoot valgus, and normal knee strength and stability. She reports persistent pain and has had several medial forefoot ulcerations despite a program of stretching, bracing, and custom footwear. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
CROW walker
2
Hyperbaric oxygen treatment
3
Triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening
4
Transtibial amputation
5
Ankle arthrodesis
QUESTION 10
What is the most common foot deformity associated with myelomeningocele?
1
Talipes equinovarus
2
Congenital vertical talus
3
Calcaneus valgus
4
Calcaneus varus
5
Cavus
QUESTION 11
Where is the watershed zone for tarsal navicular vascularity?
1
Medial one third
2
Central one third
3
Lateral one third
4
Tuberosity
5
Inferior pole
QUESTION 12
A 37-year-old woman has had intermittent paresthesias and numbness in the plantar foot for the past 6 months. She reports that the symptoms are worse with activity, and the paresthesias are beginning to awaken her at night. MRI scans are shown in Figures 6a and 6b. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Lipoma
2
Giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath
3
Synovial sarcoma
4
Metastatic adenocarcinoma
5
Ganglion cyst
QUESTION 13
Figure 7 shows the CT scan of a 25-year-old soccer player who has had posterior ankle pain with plantar flexion for the past 2 years. Immobilization has failed to provide relief. He is ambulatory. Management should consist of
1
a local steroid injection into the flexor hallucis longus tendon sheath.
2
range-of-motion exercises.
3
open reduction and internal fixation.
4
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
5
excision of the fragment.
QUESTION 14
Figure 8 shows the CT scan of an 11-year-old boy who has had a 1-year history of worsening painful flatfeet. He reports pain associated with physical education at school, especially with running and jumping. Management consisting of activity restriction, anti-inflammatory drugs, and casting has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
1
a subtalar arthroereisis with a titanium implant.
2
triple arthrodesis.
3
resection of the accessory navicular and advancement of the posterior tibial tendon bilaterally.
4
resection of the talocalcaneal middle facet coalition in each foot.
5
resection of the calcaneonavicular coalition in both feet.
QUESTION 15
An elite skier training for the Olympics sustains an isolated traumatic dislocation of the peroneal tendons that have spontaneously reduced. The games are 9 months away and the athlete does not want to miss them. Treatment should consist of
1
acute repair of the superior peroneal retinaculum with possible deepening of the fibular groove.
2
non-weight-bearing cast immobilization for 6 weeks, followed by intensive rehabilitation.
3
immediate initiation of sport-specific physical therapy modalities.
4
ankle bracing and taping and resumption of training in 2 weeks.
5
a steroid injection, followed by cast boot immobilization for 6 weeks.
QUESTION 16
What is the optimum position of immobilization of the foot and ankle immediately after Achilles tendon repair to maximize skin perfusion?
1
Ten degrees of dorsiflexion
2
Ten degrees of plantar flexion
3
Twenty degrees of plantar flexion
4
Neutral
5
Resting equinus
QUESTION 17
A 32-year-old man who sustained a tarsometatarsal (Lisfranc) injury 3 years ago now reports increasing pain in the left foot. Orthotics, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and injections have provided only temporary relief. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness over the tarsometatarsal joints. Radiographs show advanced arthrosis of the first and second tarsometatarsal joints. Management should now include
1
midfoot arthrodesis.
2
a rocker sole shoe with orthotic inserts.
3
shock wave or orthotripsy.
4
an ankle-foot orthosis.
5
triple arthrodesis.
QUESTION 18
The Lisfranc ligament connects the base of the
1
first metatarsal and the medial cuneiform.
2
first metatarsal and the base of the second metatarsal.
3
first metatarsal and the middle cuneiform.
4
second metatarsal and the medial cuneiform.
5
second metatarsal and the middle cuneiform.
QUESTION 19
An 11-year-old girl has had pain in the medial arch of her foot for the past 3 months. She reports that pain is present even with daily activities such as walking to class at school, and ibuprofen provides some relief. She denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals a flexible pes planus with focal tenderness over a prominent tarsal navicular tuberosity. Radiographs show a prominent accessory navicular. Management should consist of
1
cast immobilization for 4 to 6 weeks.
2
posterior tibial tendon advancement and repair (Kidner procedure).
3
corticosteroid injection of the posterior tibial tendon insertion.
4
triple arthrodesis.
5
needle biopsy of the trochar.
QUESTION 20
Figures 9a and 9b show the radiographs of a 28-year-old woman who sustained a head injury and a closed injury, without soft-tissue compromise, to her right lower extremity in a motor vehicle accident. Appropriate management of the foot injury should include
1
external fixation with a circular frame.
2
open reduction and internal fixation with screws.
3
closed reduction and percutaneous pinning.
4
closed reduction and cast immobilization.
5
amputation.
QUESTION 21
An active 47-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis reports forefoot pain and deformity and has difficulty with shoe wear. Examination reveals hallux valgus
and claw toes. A radiograph is shown in Figure 10. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
1
Distal chevron osteotomy bunionectomy with lesser metatarsal head resections
2
Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy with flexor-to-extensor tendon transfer for the lesser toes
3
First metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis with lesser metatarsal head resections
4
First tarsometatarsal realignment arthrodesis (Lapidus procedure) with flexor-to-extensor tendon transfer for the lesser toes
5
Resection of the base of the hallux proximal phalanx (Keller procedure) with flexor-to-extensor tendon transfer for the lesser toes
QUESTION 22
Figure 11 shows the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 22-year-old man who sustained a midfoot injury in a motor vehicle accident 9 days ago. Treatment should consist of
1
open reduction and internal fixation.
2
a short leg weight-bearing cast.
3
a short leg non-weight-bearing cast.
4
first tarsometatarsal fusion.
5
functional brace application and early range of motion.
QUESTION 23
A 32-year-old woman has left second toe dactylitis (sausage toe). Radiographs show a “pencil in cup” distal interphalangeal joint deformity. Examination reveals that subtalar motion is markedly reduced. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Rheumatoid arthritis
2
Lyme disease
3
Psoriatic arthritis
4
Crohn’s disease arthropathy
5
Gout
QUESTION 24
What nerve is at the highest risk for injury with a percutaneous repair of an Achilles tendon injury?
1
Posterior tibial
2
Calcaneal
3
Intermediate branch of the superficial peroneal
4
Lateral plantar
5
Sural
QUESTION 25
Which of the following tendons is the primary antagonist of the posterior tibialis tendon?
1
Anterior tibialis
2
Achilles
3
Peroneus brevis
4
Peroneus longus
5
Flexor digitorum longus
QUESTION 26
Which of the following is considered the most common infectious organism causing osteochondritis in pediatric puncture wounds of the foot?
1
Eikenella corrodens
2
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3
Pasteurella multocida
4
Serratia marcescens
5
Proteus mirabilis
QUESTION 27
An 18-year-old man sustains an injury to his lateral ankle after being kicked while playing soccer. He reports persistent pain on the lateral ankle as well as a popping sensation with attempted ankle dorsiflexion and eversion. Which of the following structures anatomically restrains the retracted structure shown in Figure 12?
1
Posterior talofibular ligament
2
Calcaneofibular ligament
3
Superior peroneal retinaculum
4
Inferior peroneal retinaculum
5
Peroneal tubercle
QUESTION 28
A 22-year-old man who sustained a Gustilo-Anderson grade IIIC open fracture of the right tibia and fibula was treated with an immediate open transtibial amputation. After two serial debridements, he underwent wound closure with a posterior myocutaneous soft-tissue flap. What is the preferred method of early rehabilitation?
1
Bulky gauze dressings with no compression of the traumatized tissues and early non-weight-bearing ambulation
2
Bulky gauze dressings with snug compression of the residual limb and early non-weight-bearing ambulation
3
Immediate intraoperative prosthetic fitting with a vacuum-formed prosthetic limb, followed by immediate weight bearing
4
Rigid plaster dressing, a cast change at 5 to 7 days, and partial weight bearing with an attached pylon when the wound shows signs of healing without infection
5
Compression dressing and delayed application of a weight-bearing pylon until the sutures are removed and the wound is well healed
QUESTION 29
Figure 13 shows the clinical photograph of a 66-year-old man who has had an increasingly painful right foot deformity for the past 3 years. Examination reveals that the subtalar joint is fixed in 15° of valgus, and forefoot supination can be corrected to 10° from neutral. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
1
medial sliding calcaneal osteotomy with flexor digitorum longus (FDL) transfer.
2
isolated subtalar arthrodesis.
3
isolated talonavicular arthrodesis.
4
triple arthrodesis.
5
subtalar arthroereisis.
QUESTION 30
When evaluating a patient with hallux rigidus, what is the most important clinical factor indicating the need for an arthrodesis as opposed to a cheilectomy?
1
Dorsal foot pain with shoe wear
2
Pronounced limited motion in the first metatarsophalangeal joint
3
Pain at the midrange of motion in the first metatarsophalangeal joint
4
Large dorsal osteophytes clinically and radiographically
5
Flattened first metatarsal head with periarticular sclerosis
QUESTION 31
A patient who has recalcitrant medial plantar heel pain and pain directly over the medial side of the heel undergoes open release of the plantar fascia. After releasing a portion of the plantar fascia, the deep fascia of the abductor hallucis muscle is released to relieve pressure on which of the following structures?
1
Lateral plantar artery
2
Tibial nerve
3
First branch of the lateral plantar nerve
4
Sural nerve
5
Flexor hallucis brevis muscle
QUESTION 32
A 47-year-old woman has a painful bunion of the right foot, and shoe wear modifications have failed to provide relief. Examination reveals a severe hallux valgus with dorsal subluxation of the second toe. Radiographs are shown in Figures 14a and 14b. The most appropriate management should include
1
hallux metatarsophalangeal arthrodesis.
2
custom orthotics.
3
Chevron osteotomy with second toe correction.
4
Keller resection arthroplasty with second toe correction.
5
proximal metatarsal osteotomy with second toe correction.
QUESTION 33
What is the most appropriate orthosis for hallux rigidus?
1
Morton’s extension
2
Metatarsal arch pad
3
Full-length semi-rigid longitudinal arch support
4
Full-length semi-rigid longitudinal arch support with medial hindfoot posting
5
Full-length semi-rigid longitudinal arch support with lateral forefoot posting
QUESTION 34
While experts disagree whether the postpolio syndrome is caused by a reactivation of the dormant virus or by an attritional aging phenomena of muscles that have been overworked over a period of time, both groups recommend which of the following guidelines for optimizing function in this population?
1
Refrain from exercise.
2
Exercise muscles to exhaustion, but allow 1 day in between exercise sessions to allow the muscles to recover.
3
Exercise muscles to exhaustion, but allow 2 days in between exercise sessions to allow the muscles to recover.
4
Exercise daily at a subexhaustion level.
5
Exercise should be limited to postural and antigravity muscles.
QUESTION 35
Figures 15a through 15c show the radiographs of a 23-year-old football player who was injured when another player fell on his flexed and planted foot. He reports severe pain in the midfoot with a feeling of numbness on the dorsum of the foot, and he is unable to bear weight on the limb. Examination reveals mild swelling. Management should consist of
1
casting.
2
closed reduction, casting, and no weight bearing for 6 weeks.
3
open reduction and internal fixation.
4
closed reduction and percutaneous Kirschner wire fixation.
5
closed reduction and percutaneous screw fixation.
QUESTION 36
Which of the following methods best aids in diagnosis of an interdigital neuroma?
1
Ultrasound
2
MRI
3
Web space injection
4
Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies
5
History and physical examination
QUESTION 37
A 58-year-old man has had a 3-year history of recurrent ulcerations of the left ankle and instability despite multiple attempts at custom bracing, contact casting, and surgical debridement. He has an ankle-brachial index of 0.76. A clinical photograph and radiographs are shown in Figures 16a through 16c. Treatment should now consist of
1
transtibial amputation.
2
a double upright brace.
3
dressing changes with platelet-derived growth factor.
4
tibiocalcaneal arthrodesis.
5
total ankle arthroplasty.
QUESTION 38
Figures 17a and 17b show the radiographs of a 32-year-old professional athlete who sustained an injury to the first metatarsal. A view of the opposite noninjured side is shown in Figure 17c. Management of the fracture should consist of
1
open reduction and internal fixation.
2
a postoperative stiff-soled shoe with weight bearing as tolerated.
3
a postoperative shoe with no weight bearing for 3 weeks.
4
a short leg cast with no weight bearing.
5
percutaneous pinning.
QUESTION 39
Which of the following are considered appropriate nonsurgical bracing/orthotic options for a supple adult-acquired flatfoot deformity with forefoot abduction, secondary to posterior tibial tendon insufficiency?
1
Rigid orthotic with a lateral post
2
Custom-molded leather and polypropylene orthosis (Arizona brace)
3
UCBL with lateral posting
4
One quarter-inch lateral heel and sole wedge applied to the shoe
5
Three-quarter heel lift
QUESTION 40
A 28-year-old man underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a closed, displaced, intra-articular calcaneal fracture 8 weeks ago. Examination now reveals that the lateral wound is red and draining purulent material. Cultures obtained from the wound grow out Staphylococcus aureus. Radiographs show early healing of the fracture. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
Intravenous antibiotics
2
Debridement of the wound without hardware removal
3
Debridement of the wound with hardware removal
4
Vacuum-assisted closure (VAC) and negative pressure therapy
5
Total calcanectomy
QUESTION 41
A 37-year-old man with a history of congenital flatfoot reports worsening pain on the medial aspect of his ankle for the past year. The pain is worse with weight bearing and is better with rest and the use of an ankle brace. What findings are shown on the MRI scans shown in Figures 18a through 18c?
1
The flexor digitorum longus tendon is ruptured.
2
The posterior tibial tendon has a normal appearance.
3
The posterior tibial tendon has a physiologic amount of fluid in its sheath.
4
The posterior tibial tendon is completely ruptured and retracted (type III tear).
5
The posterior tibial tendon has a chronic longitudinal split with enlargement (type II tear).
QUESTION 42
A 60-year-old man reports increasing pain in his right foot with limited ankle dorsiflexion and anterior ankle pain after sustaining a fracture of the calcaneus in a fall several years ago. Bracing, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and cortisone injections have failed to provide significant relief. Radiographs are shown in Figures 19a and 19b. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
Subtalar distraction arthrodesis
2
Subtalar arthroscopy with debridement
3
Custom orthotics
4
Ankle arthrodesis
5
Calcaneal osteotomy
QUESTION 43
A 58-year-old woman sustained a ruptured Achilles tendon 1 year ago, and management consisted of an ankle-foot orthosis. She now reports increasing difficulty with ambulation and increasing pain. An MRI scan shows a 6-cm defect in the right Achilles tendon. Management should now consist of
1
continued use of an ankle-foot orthosis.
2
direct repair of the Achilles tendon.
3
V-Y repair of the Achilles tendon.
4
transfer of the plantaris tendon.
5
Achilles tendon turndown with flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer.
QUESTION 44
A 29-year-old woman reports dysesthesias and burning after undergoing bunion surgery that consisted of a proximal crescentic first metatarsal osteotomy 6 months ago. Examination reveals a positive Tinel’s sign at the proximal aspect of the healed incision. What injured nerve is responsible for her continued symptoms?
1
Recurrent branch of the deep peroneal
2
Recurrent branch of the sural
3
Terminal cutaneous branch of the saphenous
4
Dorsomedial cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal
5
Medial plantar
QUESTION 45
Figure 20 shows the clinical photograph of a man who has had diabetes mellitus controlled with oral medication for the past 10 years. He wears soft-soled shoes and only uses leather-soled shoes for important business meetings. Examination reveals palpable dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses, although they are somewhat diminished. He is insensate to pressure with the Semmes-Weinstein 5.07 monofilament. The ulcer heals after treatment with a full contact cast. What is the best course of action at this time?
1
Referral to his primary care physician
2
Foot-specific patient education, depth-inlay shoes, custom accommodative foot orthoses, and follow-up observation
3
Dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first and third metatarsals
4
Excision of the second and third metatarsal heads
5
Achilles tendon lengthening and dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first and third metatarsals
QUESTION 46
Figures 21a and 21b show the clinical photograph and radiograph of a 15-year-old girl who has a deformity of her feet. Her parents are concerned because there is a family history of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. The patient reports some mild instability of the ankle and has noticed mild early callosities; however, she is not having any significant pain. Coleman block testing reveals a forefoot valgus and supple hindfoot. She has weakness to eversion and dorsiflexion. Initial management should consist of
1
dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal with peroneus longus to brevis transfer.
2
plantar fasciotomy with dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal and calcaneal osteotomy.
3
a stretching and strengthening physical therapy program and accommodative inserts.
4
observation.
5
calcaneal osteotomy, dorsiflexion osteotomy of the first metatarsal, peroneus longus to brevis transfer, plantar fascia release, Achilles tendon lengthening, and midfoot osteotomy.
QUESTION 47
A 50-year-old woman reports a burning sensation on the plantar aspect of her left forefoot, distal to the metatarsal heads between her third and fourth digits. Palpation of the third web space recreates her symptoms. Which of the following will most accurately aid in confirming a diagnosis?
1
History and physical examination
2
Ultrasonography
3
MRI
4
Radiographs
5
Nerve conduction velocity studies
QUESTION 48
When performing surgery on a patient with insertional Achilles tendinitis and a Haglund’s deformity, how much of the Achilles tendon insertion can be safely detached without having to consider reattachment with bone anchors?
1
10%
2
33%
3
50%
4
66%
5
75%
QUESTION 49
A 12-year-old child with spina bifida paraplegia requires brace management for ankle stability. Which of the following principles applies to brace management in this individual?
1
A shorter lever arm is more effective in limiting pressure.
2
Limbs with mild contractures do better with bracing than flaccid limbs through increased force concentration.
3
Three-point pressure effect works best to prevent the joint from buckling.
4
Four-point pressure effect works best to prevent the joint from buckling.
5
Smaller base support provides increased stability.
QUESTION 50
A 64-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus underwent open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced ankle fracture 8 weeks ago. Examination now reveals recent onset erythema, warmth, and swelling of the midfoot. Radiographs are shown in Figures 23a through 23d. What is the most likely reason for the swelling of the foot?
1
Infection
2
Charcot arthropathy
3
Delayed compartment syndrome
4
Deep venous thrombosis
5
Gout
QUESTION 51
When considering a flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer as part of the surgical treatment in patients with symptomatic flatfoot deformity caused by posterior tibial tendon insufficiency, which of the following patients is the most appropriate candidate?
1
A 45-year-old woman with a hypermobile foot
2
A 45-year-old man with a rigid hindfoot valgus deformity
3
A thin 55-year-old woman with mild hemiparesis affecting the symptomatic foot from a previous stroke
4
An active 55-year-old woman with a progressively worsening supple hindfoot valgus
5
A moderately obese 70-year-old woman with a supple hindfoot
QUESTION 52
What is the most likely cause of recurrent symptoms following excision of a third web space neuroma?
1
Traumatic neuroma tethered by plantar neural branches
2
Regeneration of the transverse intermetatarsal ligament
3
Development of an intermetatarsal synovial cyst
4
Complex regional pain syndrome
5
Metatarsophalangeal joint synovitis
QUESTION 53
A 45-year-old woman has had radiating pain in the medial ankle for the past 3 months. Examination reveals a small mass in the retromedial ankle region and a positive Tinel’s sign. An intraoperative photograph and a hematoxylin/eosin biopsy specimen are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. Treatment should consist of
1
chemotherapy.
2
radiation therapy.
3
marginal excision.
4
wide excision.
5
above-knee amputation.
QUESTION 54
An 83-year-old woman with a long history of her foot slowly and progressively “turning out” now reports significant ankle pain. History reveals that she has significant cardiac disease and exercise-induced angina. Examination reveals a deficiency in the posterior tibial tendon; however, the hindfoot remains moderately supple. Radiographs reveal a valgus tilt of the tibiotalar joint and early arthrosis. What is the most appropriate orthotic management?
1
Total contact orthotic
2
UCBL orthotic
3
Molded articulated ankle-foot orthosis
4
Molded ankle gauntlet (Arizona brace)
5
Lateral heel flare
QUESTION 55
What complication is frequently associated with the Weil lesser metatarsal osteotomy (distal, oblique) in the treatment of claw toe deformities?
1
Floating toe
2
Nonunion
3
Osteonecrosis
4
Inadequate shortening
5
Dorsal displacement
QUESTION 56
What are the five major compartments of the foot?
1
Medial, lateral, central, interosseous, and calcaneal
2
Medial, lateral, central, interosseous, and dorsal
3
Medial, lateral, central, dorsal, and calcaneal
4
Medial, lateral, dorsal, interosseous, and calcaneal
5
Dorsal, lateral, central, interosseous, and calcaneal
QUESTION 57
Figures 25a and 25b show the radiographs of a 66-year-old man who has had a long history of bilateral painful flatfoot deformities. Examination reveals that his foot is partially correctable passively, albeit with discomfort, and he has an Achilles tendon contracture. An ankle-foot orthosis has failed to provide relief. Treatment should now consist of
1
UCBL orthoses.
2
triple arthrodesis with Achilles tendon lengthening.
3
medial calcaneal osteotomy with posterior tibial tendon reconstruction and flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer.
4
medial calcaneal osteotomy with posterior tibial tendon reconstruction, flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer, and lateral column lengthening.
5
gastrocnemius lengthening and serial casting.
QUESTION 58
A 77-year-old man with diabetes mellitus has had a nonhealing Wagner grade I ulcer under the medial sesamoid for the past 3 months. He smokes tobacco regularly. He has undergone several debridements and total contact casting. Examination reveals no palpable pulses. He has no erythema or purulence, and he is afebrile. Radiographs reveal no abnormalities. What is the best initial diagnostic test to help determine why the ulcer has failed to heal?**
1
5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament
2
Bone scan
3
Thompson’s test
4
CT
5
Noninvasive vascular studies
QUESTION 59
A 28-year-old man who sustained an ankle fracture in a motor vehicle accident underwent open reduction and internal fixation 3 months ago. He continues to report significant ankle pain with ambulation. Radiographs are shown in Figure 26. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
Articulated ankle-foot orthosis
2
Revision open reduction and internal fixation of the syndesmosis with debridement of the medial gutter
3
Ankle arthrodesis
4
Syndesmosis arthrodesis
5
Ankle arthroscopy and debridement
QUESTION 60
The first branch of the lateral plantar nerve innervates the
1
interossei.
2
quadratus plantae.
3
flexor digitorum brevis.
4
abductor hallucis brevis.
5
abductor digiti quinti.
QUESTION 61
The radiograph shown in Figure 27 shows measurement of what angle?
1
Hallux valgus
2
Distal metatarsal articular
3
Intermetatarsal
4
Sesamoid divergence
5
Angle of joint congruence
QUESTION 62
Which of the following orthotic features best reduces pain in patients with hallux rigidus?
1
Plastazote layer to absorb shock
2
Medial posting to offload the medial forefoot
3
Rigid shank or forefoot rocker
4
Metatarsal bar to offload the first metatarsal head
5
Full length as opposed to three-quarter length
QUESTION 63
An 11-year-old girl sustained an injury to her right foot when a 500-lb headstone fell on it. The headstone was removed after 3 minutes. Radiographs show multiple midfoot fractures. Examination reveals severe pain that is worse with passive toe motion. Clinical photographs are shown in Figure 28. Management should consist of
1
a short leg cast and elevation of the foot.
2
fasciotomies of the foot.
3
MRI.
4
CT.
5
stress radiographs.
QUESTION 64
A 5-year-old boy has had midfoot pain with activity for the past 3 months. He has no pain at rest. Radiographs are shown in Figures 29a and 29b. Management should
consist of
1
a vascularized pedicle bone graft.
2
a short leg walking cast.
3
a custom-molded orthotic.
4
surgical debridement followed by antibiotics.
5
a bone stimulator.
QUESTION 65
A 62-year-old man with diabetes mellitus has had a persistent 2-cm ulcer under the third metatarsal head for the past 4 months. He reports that he has had similar ulcers twice before, and both healed with nonsurgical management. He has used multiple types of commercial walking braces, shoes, and commercial dressings without resolution. He is insensate to the Semmes-Weinstein 5.07 monofilament. When the wound is probed with culture swab, there is no communication with the metatarsal head. Radiographs, bone scans, and laboratory studies reveal no evidence of osteomyelitis. What is the most predictable method of accomplishing wound healing without recurrence?
1
Transmetatarsal amputation
2
Excision of the third metatarsal head
3
Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening and a total contact cast
4
Viral recombitant growth factor and a commercial removeable walking boot
5
A non-weight-bearing total contact cast that is changed every week until the ulcer is healed
QUESTION 66
Figure 30 shows the radiograph of a 38-year-old man who reports persistent pain laterally and plantarly about the fifth metatarsal head. Examination reveals calluses dorsolaterally and plantarly about the fifth metatarsal head. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. Surgical treatment should include
1
simple lateral eminence resection.
2
distal chevron osteotomy of the fifth metatarsal.
3
oblique mid-diaphyseal osteotomy of the fifth metatarsal.
4
proximal diaphyseal osteotomy of the fifth metatarsal.
5
excision of the fifth metatarsal head.
QUESTION 67
An 11-year-old boy stepped on a nail and sustained a puncture to the right forefoot 6 days ago. He was wearing tennis shoes at the time of injury. Treatment in the emergency department consisted of local debridement and tetanus prophylaxis; a radiograph was negative for foreign body, chondral defect, or fracture. He was discharged with a 3-day prescription of amoxicillin and clavulanate. The patient now has increasing pain and tenderness at the puncture site. What is the best course of action?
1
Change the antibiotic to ciprofloxacin
2
Initiate gentamicin
3
Resume the prescription for amoxicillin and clavulanate
4
Observation and follow-up in 48 hours
5
Surgical debridement
QUESTION 68
A 20-year-old elite college football player has ecchymosis, swelling, and pain on the lateral side of his foot after a game. Radiographs are shown in Figures 31a through 31c. Management should consist of
1
open reduction and internal fixation with a plate and screws.
2
open treatment with calcaneal bone graft.
3
percutaneous screw fixation with a 4.5-mm screw.
4
weight-bearing cast for 8 weeks.
5
spanning external fixation.
QUESTION 69
Which of the following structures are found in the anterior tarsal tunnel?
1
Extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, dorsalis pedis artery, deep peroneal nerve
2
Extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, dorsalis pedis artery, superficial peroneal nerve
3
Extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, dorsalis pedis artery, deep peroneal nerve, superficial peroneal nerve
4
Extensor hallucis brevis, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, dorsalis pedis artery, deep peroneal nerve
5
Dorsalis pedis artery, deep peroneal nerve, superficial peroneal nerve
QUESTION 70
A 55-year-old man who runs on the weekends reports a 1-year history of continued pain directly posteriorly in the heel. Management consisting of anti-inflammatory drugs, icing techniques, a heel-counter in his shoe split, and physical therapy consisting of stretching, contrast baths, custom orthotics, and iontophoresis has failed to provide relief. Not only is his lifestyle disrupted with respect to running, but he now has pain with normal ambulation with all forms of shoe wear. He is not necessarily concerned with returning to running; he is primarily seeking pain relief. A lateral radiograph and clinical photograph are shown in Figures 32a and 32b. Treatment should now consist of
1
injection directly into the tendon with triamcinolone or methylprednisolone.
2
shock wave treatment to the posterior heel to break up calcific deposits.
3
brisement.
4
a simple lateral surgical approach to the posterior heel, with resection of the Haglund’s exostosis.
5
a central-splitting surgical approach through the tendon, excision of the Haglund’s exostosis and the insertional calcifications, bursectomy, flexor hallucis longus tendon transfer to the posterior tuberosity, and attachment of the tendon to the calcaneus.
QUESTION 71
A 45-year-old man who has had recurrent pain and swelling of the left Achilles tendon insertion for the past 10 years reports that physical therapy and activity modification have provided relief in the past. He now has continued pain despite these efforts. He also reports occasional bouts of dysuria that he attributes to a history of prostatitis. He also notes recent eye irritation that he attributes to allergies. A lateral heel radiograph is shown in Figure 33. Which of the following laboratory studies would best aid in diagnosis?
1
Glucose tolerance test
2
CBC count with differential
3
Urethral swab and culture
4
HLA-B27
5
Antiphospholipid antibody
QUESTION 72
A 29-year-old man reports severe knee instability and popliteal pain. History reveals that he had polio of the left lower extremity as a child and has been brace-free his entire life. Examination reveals that he walks with 40° of knee hyperextension and has a fixed ankle equinus deformity of 30° . He has no active motors about the knee or ankle. Which of the following methods will provide knee stability and pain relief?
1
Knee-ankle-foot orthosis with locking joints
2
Knee and ankle fusion
3
Soft-tissue release of the ankle and a locked knee orthosis
4
Soft-tissue release of the ankle and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked ankle and drop-lock knee joint
5
Ankle fusion and a knee-ankle-foot orthosis
QUESTION 73
Figures 34a and 34b show the clinical photographs of a 46-year-old woman who has a painful deformity of the second toe. Surgical treatment consisting of metatarsophalangeal capsulotomy and proximal interphalangeal joint resection arthroplasty resulted in satisfactory correction, but the toe remains unstable at the metatarsophalangeal joint. What is the next most appropriate step?
1
Flexor digitorum longus tenotomy
2
Resection of the metatarsal head and pin fixation
3
Transfer of the flexor digitorum longus to the extensor tendon
4
Excision at the base of the proximal phalanx and syndactyly with the third toe
5
Arthrodesis of the second metatarsophalangeal joint
QUESTION 74
A 40-year-old man fell 10 feet from a tree and sustained the closed isolated injury shown in Figures 35a and 35b. Management consists of splinting. At his 2-week follow-up visit, he clinically passes the wrinkle test. He agrees to open reduction and internal fixation. What is the best surgical approach to obtain anatomic reduction and limit wound dehiscence?
1
Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
2
Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral approach, extensile right-angled lateral incision, vertical limb 0.5 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon, and horizontal limb at the junction of the lateral skin and the plantar glabrous skin
3
Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral approach, extensile right-angled lateral incision, vertical limb 2.0 cm anterior to the Achilles tendon, and horizontal limb 2.0 cm proximal to the line marking the plantar glabrous skin
4
Sinus tarsi approach
5
Ollier approach
QUESTION 75
In the treatment of all magnitudes of bunionette deformities, what is the most common complication associated with lateral condylectomy of the fifth metatarsal head?
1
Metatarsophalangeal arthrosis
2
Transfer metatarsalgia
3
Recurrent deformity
4
Overcorrection of the deformity
5
Dislocation of the metatarsophalangeal joint
QUESTION 76
A 17-year-old patient sustained a closed calcaneal fracture when he jumped off of a roof 2 years ago, and he underwent nonsurgical management at the time of injury. The patient now reports lateral hindfoot pain that is worse with weight-bearing activities. Anti-inflammatory drugs and orthoses have failed to provide relief. Coronal and sagittal CT scans are shown in Figures 36a and 36b. What is the best course of action?
1
In situ subtalar arthrodesis
2
Cortisone injection in the subtalar joint followed by casting for 4 to 6 weeks
3
UCBL insert
4
Lateral wall exostectomy
5
Bone block arthrodesis of the subtalar joint
QUESTION 77
A 52-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus has had a plantar foot ulcer under the second metatarsal head for the past week. The patient had a similar ulcer 2 months ago, and total contact casting resulted in healing. Examination reveals no signs of infection. What procedure will best prevent recurrence of the ulcer?
1
Flexor hallucis longus transfer to the Achilles tendon
2
Peripheral vascular bypass
3
Jones procedure (extensor hallucis longus transfer to the first metatarsal with interphalangeal joint fusion)
4
Posterior tibial tendon transfer to the anterior tibialis tendon
5
Achilles tendon lengthening
QUESTION 78
Figures 37a and 37b show the clinical photographs of a 43-year-old patient with type I diabetes mellitus who has a stump ulcer after undergoing successful transtibial amputation 1 year ago. Which of the following is considered the most predictable method of healing the ulcer and preventing recurrent ulceration?
1
Refrain from using the prosthesis until the ulcer heals.
2
Refrain from using the prosthesis and apply platelet-derived growth factor daily until the ulcer heals.
3
Have a prosthetist relieve the area of the anterior-distal tibia to eliminate pressure and allow the ulcer to heal.
4
Replace the prosthetic socket liner with a thick silicone liner.
5
Perform a wedge resection of the infected tissue, create a soft-tissue envelope with muscle covering the bone, and allow primary healing of the skin.
QUESTION 79
A 15-year-old girl who plays high school basketball has had worsening forefoot pain and swelling that is aggravated by activity for the past 5 weeks. She denies any history of an injury. Examination reveals no deformities. A radiograph is shown in Figure 38. Initial management should consist of
1
no weight bearing.
2
weight bearing as tolerated in a hard-soled shoe.
3
a short leg walking cast.
4
second metatarsophalangeal joint debridement and metatarsal osteotomy.
5
a longitudinal arch support with metatarsal head relief.
QUESTION 80
A 56-year-old woman has a painful mass on the bottom of her left foot, and orthotic management has failed to provide relief. Examination reveals that the mass is contiguous with the plantar fascia. An MRI scan shows a homogenous nodule within the plantar fascia. Resection of the tumor is shown in the clinical photograph in Figure 39. What type of cell is most likely responsible for the formation of this tumor?
1
Myocyte
2
T-cell
3
Synovial cell
4
Osteocyte
5
Fibromyoblast
QUESTION 81
A 34-year-old man underwent a transtibial amputation as the result of a work-related injury. The amputation was performed at the inferior level of the tibial tubercle. The residual limb has a soft-tissue envelope composed of gastrocnemius muscle that is used as soft-tissue cushioning for the distal tibia. Despite undergoing several prosthetic fittings, he continues to report pain and instability. Examination reveals that the prosthesis appears to fit well with no apparent pressure points or areas of skin breakdown. He is not willing to have any further surgery. Which of the following modifications will most likely provide relief?
1
Add double metal uprights and a leather corset.
2
Add a supracondylar suspension to the soft suspension.
3
Add supracondylar and suprapatellar suspensions to the socket design.
4
Replace the socket insert with a silicone suction socket with locking bolt suspension.
5
Replace the prosthetic socket with a negative pressure vacuum system.
QUESTION 82
The Coleman block test is used to evaluate the cavovarus foot. What is the most important information obtained from this test?
1
Determines the patient’s ability to balance
2
Determines hindfoot flexibility
3
Determines forefoot flexibility
4
Assesses the patient for Achilles tendon contractures
5
Evaluates peroneus longus strength
QUESTION 83
Figures 41a and 41b show the radiographs of a 22-year-old woman who has a bunion on her left foot. She denies pain in the foot, but she reports increasing difficulty with shoe wear. Management should consist of
1
distal Chevron osteotomy.
2
proximal metatarsal osteotomy with soft-tissue release.
3
shoe wear modifications.
4
dorsal cheilectomy with Moberg osteotomy.
5
hallux metatarsophalangeal joint arthroplasty.
QUESTION 84
A 35-year-old woman has had significant pain and swelling in the left medial ankle inferior to the medial malleolus for the past 8 months. Physical therapy, brace and orthotic management, and immobilization have failed to provide relief. She is now requesting a more aggressive option to assist in pain relief. Clinical photographs and radiographs are seen in Figures 42a through 42f. Following exposure, a complete rupture of the posterior tibial tendon is visible. What is the most appropriate surgical reconstruction?
1
Subtalar arthrodesis
2
Flexor digitorum longus transfer
3
Flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer, medial slide calcaneal osteotomy, and spring ligament repair
4
Primary repair of the posterior tibial tendon
5
Talonavicular arthrodesis
QUESTION 85
A 48-year-old man reports localized plantar forefoot pain. Examination reveals a discrete callus (intractable plantar keratosis) with well-localized tenderness beneath the second metatarsal head. The callus most likely lies beneath what structure?
1
Lateral (fibular) condyle of the second metatarsal head
2
Second metatarsophalangeal sesamoid
3
Plantar condyle of the base of the proximal phalanx
4
Exostosis of the plantar second metatarsal head
5
Osteochondroma of the second metatarsal distal metaphysis
QUESTION 86
A 65-year-old woman with a history of diabetes mellitus and plantar ulcers has an erythematous and swollen right foot and ankle. Despite IV antibiotics, the erythema spreads to her lower calf within 24 hours. She has a systolic blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 120. Laboratory studies show a creatinine level of 1.5 mg. Initial management should consist of
1
continued IV antibiotics and observation.
2
hyperbaric oxygen treatment.
3
rapid IV fluid boluses.
4
surgical debridement.
5
whirlpool therapy.
QUESTION 87
A 15-year-old boy has hindfoot pain and very limited subtalar motion. A CT scan reveals a talocalcaneal coalition involving 40% of the middle facet. He has no degeneration of the posterior subtalar facet. Following failure of nonsurgical management, treatment should consist of
1
resection of the coalition with fat graft interposition.
2
Grice extra-articular subtalar arthrodesis.
3
subtalar arthroereisis.
4
intra-articular subtalar fusion.
5
medial sliding calcaneal osteotomy.
QUESTION 88
A 55-year-old patient is seeking a surgical consultation for a painful flatfoot deformity that has failed to respond to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, shoe and activity modifications, and orthoses. The patient is of medium build, a nonsmoker, and has no history of diabetes mellitus. Radiographs are shown in Figures 43a through 43c. Based on these findings, treatment should consist of
1
triple arthrodesis.
2
lateral column lengthening with flexor digitorum longus tendon transfer.
3
medial calcaneal displacement osteotomy, flexor digitorum longus transfer, and gastrocnemius recession.
4
midfoot arthrodesis.
5
subtalar arthroereisis with a Maxwell-Brancheau Arthroereisis titanium implant.
QUESTION 89
A 32-year-old construction worker reports a persistent burning, tingling sensation on the dorsum of his right foot and significant sensitivity on the plantar surface after a 500-lb steel beam dropped on it 8 weeks ago. Initial radiographs revealed no fractures, and the skin remained intact at the time of injury. Physical therapy, anti-inflammatory drugs, and a serotonin reuptake inhibitor have failed to provide relief. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
Continued physical therapy
2
Alteration of medication to include an anti-epileptic
3
Tarsal tunnel release
4
Sympathetic blocks
5
Neurostimulation
QUESTION 90
What nerve is most likely to develop a traumatic neuroma following open reducation and internal fixation of a talar neck fracture via a posterolateral approach?
1
Dorsal intermediate cutaneous
2
Sural
3
Saphenous
4
Medial plantar
5
Lateral plantar (Baxter)
QUESTION 91
Patients with tarsal tunnel syndrome are most likely to obtain a favorable outcome
from decompression of the posterior tibial nerve if which of the following conditions
is present?
1
A space-occupying lesion is compressing the tarsal tunnel.
2
Nerve conduction velocity studies reveal slowing across the medial malleolus.
3
The posterior tibial tendon is ruptured.
4
The integrity of the posterior tibial tendon is compromised.
5
The spring ligament is ruptured, resulting in the development of a dynamic flatfoot.
QUESTION 92
A 30-year-old man has chronic pain, joint stiffness, and symmetrical polyarthropathy but no significant synovitis. Examination reveals enlargement of the second and third metatarsal heads. Radiographs show chondrocalcinosis of the ankles and bony enlargement of the midfoot; no marginal erosions are evident at the metatarsophalangeal level. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Osteoarthritis
2
Rheumatoid arthritis
3
Hemochromatosis
4
Reiter’s syndrome
5
Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease)
QUESTION 93
The strongest biomechanical construct for open reduction and internal fixation of a talar neck fracture uses what interval and entry point?
1
Anterior tibialis, abductor hallucis; anteromedial head of the talus
2
Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus; anteromedial head of the talus
3
Peroneus brevis, flexor hallucis longus; posterolateral tubercle of the talus
4
Extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius; anterolateral head of the talus
5
Flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus; posteromedial tubercle of the talus
QUESTION 94
A 14-year-old boy with a history of cerebral palsy has a clawed hallux, cavus foot deformity, and associated pain. Examination reveals pain under the first metatarsal head and a rigid first tarsometatarsal joint. Treatment should consist of
1
extensor hallus longus lengthening.
2
midfoot osteotomy.
3
first metatarsal osteotomy.
4
transfer of the extensor hallucis longus to the neck of the first metatarsal.
5
transfer of the extensor hallucis longus to the neck of the first metatarsal with first metatarsal osteotomy.
QUESTION 95
A 45-year-old woman with stage II posterior tibial tendinitis has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. Recommended treatment now includes posterior tibial
tendon debridement and medial calcaneal displacement osteotomy along with transfer
of what tendon?
1
Flexor hallucis longus
2
Flexor digitorum longus
3
Flexor digitorum brevis
4
Peroneus longus
5
Split anterior tibial tendon
QUESTION 96
A 38-year-old marathon runner has had Achilles tendon pain for the past 2 months. Examination reveals that the tendon is thickened and tender proximal to the calcaneal insertion. The tendon sheath is not thickened or tender. The pathophysiology of the tendon is best described as
1
acute inflammation.
2
chronic inflammation.
3
partial tendon rupture.
4
anaerobic degeneration.
5
impaired collagen cross-linking.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon