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Orthopedic Sport Review | Dr Hutaif Sports Medicine Rev -...

Updated: Feb 2026 60 Views
Orthopedic Sport Review | Dr Hutaif Sports Medicine Rev -...
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Orthopedic Mcqs Sport 0019

QUESTION 1
Figures 1 and 2 are intrasurgical photographs from the posterolateral viewing portal that were taken at the beginning and end of a right shoulder arthroscopic procedure performed on a 54-year-old man. This technique demonstrates superior results compared with traditional arthroscopic techniques when evaluating which outcome?
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1
Time to healing
2
Retear rate
3
Functional outcome scores
4
Postsurgical pain scores
QUESTION 2
Figures 1 and 2 are the MR arthrogram images of a 16-year-old, right-hand-dominant baseball player who injured his left shoulder 4 weeks ago during a game. He now has pain, weakness, and the inability to swing a bat and can no longer do push-ups. He denies prior injury to his left shoulder. Radiographs are unremarkable. If present, what is the most likely complication after surgical treatment in this scenario?
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1
Recurrent instability
2
Degenerative joint disease
3
Shoulder stiffness
4
Axillary nerve injury
QUESTION 3
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 19-year-old man who has an acute anterior shoulder dislocation. The bony fragment occupies 10% of the glenoid articular surface. What is the most appropriate treatment?
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1
Open structural iliac crest graft
2
Open reduction and internal fixation
3
Arthroscopic coracoid transfer
4
Arthroscopic repair incorporating the bone lesion
QUESTION 4
A 32-year-old volleyball player has dull posterior shoulder pain. An examination reveals moderate
external rotation weakness with his arm at his side but normal strength on supraspinatus isolation. Deltoid and supraspinatus bulk appear normal, although there appears to be mild infraspinatus atrophy. Sensation is normal throughout the shoulder and shoulder girdle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Calcified transverse scapular ligament
2
Parsonage-Turner syndrome
3
Spinoglenoid notch cyst
4
Quadrilateral space syndrome
QUESTION 5
A 26-year-old weightlifter has increasing pain in his left shoulder for 4 months. Nonsurgical treatment
consisting of anti-inflammatory medication, corticosteroid injections, and rest fails to alleviate his symptoms. He undergoes an arthroscopic distal clavicle resection with excision of the distal 8 mm of clavicle (Mumford procedure). Three months after surgery, he reports mild pain and popping by his clavicle. His clavicle demonstrates mild posterior instability on examination without any obvious deformity on his radiographs. What structures were compromised during his excision?
1
Anterior and superior acromioclavicular joint ligaments
2
Posterior and superior acromioclavicular joint ligaments
3
Conoid ligament
4
Trapezoid ligament
QUESTION 6
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 24-year-old male wrestler who underwent surgery for recurrent shoulder dislocations using coracoid autograft. At his first postoperative visit, the patient complains of decreased sensation on the lateral aspect of his forearm. The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to injury of the





1
axillary nerve.
2
musculocutaneous nerve.
3
median nerve.
4
radial nerve.
QUESTION 7
A 19-year-old collegiate offensive lineman injures his left elbow in a scrimmage. He reports reaching out with his left arm to prevent the defensive player from getting around him, and, as he grabbed the player, his elbow was forced into extension. He had immediate pain and weakness and heard a “pop.” He has mild swelling in the antecubital fossa and a prominent-appearing biceps muscle belly. His hook test result is abnormal at the elbow.The most substantial functional deficit that may develop if no surgical treatment is provided is
1
elbow flexion strength.
2
elbow supination strength.
3
lack of terminal extension at the elbow.
4
decrease of elbow pronation strength.
QUESTION 8
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 55-year-old man who has a 3-year history of right shoulder pain. He has maximized nonoperative management and is interested in operative treatment. He had an open Bankart repair 20 years ago and did well until a few years ago. What is most important to know when deciding on the best surgical treatment for this patient?
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1
Range of motion
2
Infraspinatus strength
3
Activity level
4
Quality of the subscapularis
QUESTION 9
Figure 1 is the T2 axial MRI scan of a 21-year-old man who was injured while playing for his college football team. His pain was aggravated with blocking maneuvers and alleviated with rest, and he had to stop playing because of the pain. What examination maneuver most likely will reproduce his pain?
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1
Forward elevation in the scapular plane
2
External rotation and abduction
3
Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
4
Flexion and abduction
QUESTION 10
A 13-year-old right-hand dominant pitcher was treated for Little League shoulder. What finding increases his risk of recurrence?
1
Hyperlaxity
2
Rotator cuff weakness
3
Increased height
4
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit
QUESTION 11
Figures 1 and 2 are the MR arthrogram images of a 20-year-old right-hand dominant collegiate basketball player who sustained an initial shoulder dislocation 1 year ago. In the month prior to presentation, he dislocated his shoulder two more times. Each time it occurred when going up for a rebound and an opponent grabbed the ball from behind him, hyperextending his shoulder. Physical examination demonstrates full range of motion, absence of atrophy, a positive apprehension sign and relocation test, and a positive Kim test. What is the best next step?
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1
Anterior labral repair
2
Anterior labral repair and remplissage
3
Posterior labral repair and rotator interval closure
4
Anterior and posterior labral repair
QUESTION 12
A 23-year-old student complains of recurrent left shoulder instability. He first dislocated his shoulder in high school while playing lacrosse and was managed with physical therapy. A second dislocation occurred one year later while skiing. He has since sustained two more dislocations and says that his shoulder feels “loose.” Examination reveals grade II anterior load and shift, positive apprehension and relocation tests, and normal rotator cuff strength. An MRI arthrogram is ordered and surgical treatment is recommended. What factor would most strongly represent an indication for a procedure including bone augmentation (e.g. Latarjet) rather than a soft-tissue-only stabilization (isolated labral repair/capsulorrhaphy)?
1
Patient’s intention to resume lacrosse and other contact sports after surgery
2
Presence of a 270° labral tear
3
2-cm “on-track” Hill-Sachs lesion
4
Anterior bony loss measuring 30% of inferior glenoid width
QUESTION 13
A 19-year-old collegiate offensive lineman injures his left elbow in a scrimmage. He reports reaching out with his left arm to prevent the defensive player from getting around him, and, as he grabbed the player, his elbow was forced into extension. He had immediate pain and weakness and heard a “pop.” He has mild swelling in the antecubital fossa and a prominent-appearing biceps muscle belly. His hook test result is abnormal at the elbow. The athlete undergoes repair of the injury, and postsurgical radiographs are shown in Figures 1 and









1
At his first postsurgical visit, he reports no pain but describes weakness in his hand and decreased sensation over his lateral forearm. Upon examination, he has decreased 2-point discrimination over the lateral forearm and an inability to actively extend his thumb and fingers at the metacarpophalangeal joints. He can extend at the finger interphalangeal joints. He can extend his wrist weakly, and it deviates radially as he extends. His distal sensation is intact. Considering his examination findings, which two nerves are injured? ![img](/media/upload/d6eab57b-6dc0-4c4c-997e-4426103b5a21.png) ![img](/media/upload/dd34e75d-605f-4e42-800c-b2f4c4c3c179.png) ![img](/media/upload/904fbba0-7681-4b1b-bbac-e9066058ff25.png) ![img](/media/upload/019093d9-0f26-403f-a2b6-dfe785d54a61.png) ![img](/media/upload/3b258a5b-79de-4c78-a9fe-bae12e98c23b.png)
2
PIN and radial nerve
3
PIN and lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve (LABCN)
4
Median nerve and LABCN
5
Radial nerve and LABCN
QUESTION 14
Based on the injury shown on the axial MRI scan of the shoulder in Figure 1, what other pathology should be closely examined for during surgery?
1
Subscapularis tear
2
Supraspinatus tear
3
Superior labral anterior-posterior (SLAP) tear
4
Bankart tear
QUESTION 15
Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of a 57-year-old man who dislocated his left shoulder after a fall while playing tennis. On examination, he had full passive shoulder range of motion, but he was unable to actively elevate his injured shoulder. Sensation was intact to light touch over the lateral shoulder. What is the most likely etiology of his shoulder weakness?
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1
Axillary nerve injury
2
Cervical radiculopathy involving the C6 nerve root
3
Massive rotator cuff tear with loss of the transverse force couple
4
Long head of the biceps tendon rupture with loss of superior stabilizing effect
QUESTION 16
A 19-year-old collegiate offensive lineman injures his left elbow in a scrimmage. He reports reaching out
with his left arm to prevent the defensive player from getting around him, and, as he grabbed the player, his elbow was forced into extension. He had immediate pain and weakness and heard a “pop.” He has mild swelling in the antecubital fossa and a prominent-appearing biceps muscle belly. His hook test result is abnormal at the elbow. Which type of contraction of the involved muscle most likely resulted in this lineman's injury?
1
Eccentric
2
Concentric
3
Isometric
4
Isokinetic
QUESTION 17
Figures 1 and 2 are the MR arthrogram images of a 16-year-old, right-hand-dominant baseball player who injured his left shoulder 4 weeks ago during a game. He now has pain, weakness, and the inability to swing a bat and can no longer do push-ups. He denies prior injury to his left shoulder. Radiographs are unremarkable. The patient fails an extensive course of physical therapy and is unable to return to baseball. He and his orthopaedic surgeon elect to proceed with surgery. During a repeat evaluation, he has negative sulcus and Beighton sign findings, and radiographs show 5° of glenoid retroversion. What is the most appropriate surgical plan?
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1
Arthroscopic infraspinatus tenodesis
2
Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
3
Arthroscopic capsular shift and rotator interval closure
4
Posterior glenoid opening-wedge osteotomy
QUESTION 18
Figure 1 is the radiograph of an 11-year-old baseball pitcher who has had right shoulder pain for the past 3 months. He has full range of motion and normal strength in both external rotation and abduction,
although all tests cause him discomfort over the lateral and anterior shoulder. What is the most likely basis for his injury?
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1
Increased external rotation with an associated decrease in internal rotation
2
Excessive pitch counts
3
Use of breaking pitches such as sliders and curve balls
4
Congenital humeral cyst
QUESTION 19
Figures 1 and 2 are the most recent radiographs of an 18-year-old high school student who sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation playing recreational football. He has a low Beighton score on physical examination. He was closed reduced and underwent a course of physical therapy but had a second dislocation playing recreational basketball. What is the most appropriate course of treatment, with the lowest complication rate, to prevent further dislocation?
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1
Arthroscopic Bankart procedure
2
Physical therapy
3
SAWA shoulder brace
4
Latarjet procedure
QUESTION 20
Figures 1 and 2 are the right shoulder MRI scans of a 22-year-old right-handed professional male volleyball player with 4 months of right shoulder pain. The pain began insidiously and is exacerbated by overhead activities and hitting during games. He has maintained a daily program of shoulder stretching and strengthening exercises but has experienced a steady decline in function to the point of not being able to participate in volleyball. Examination reveals some mild atrophy at the posterior shoulder, full forward elevation, mild weakness of external rotation on the right shoulder, negative empty-can testing, positive O’Brien’s and negative apprehension. Surgical intervention would aim to resolve pathology related to which nerve?
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1
Lower subscapular nerve
2
Suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch
3
Suprascapular nerve at the suprascapular notch
4
Axillary nerve
QUESTION 21
A 24-year-old collegiate pitcher has had increasing pain over his medial elbow for 3 months. He has point tenderness over his medial epicondyle and reproduction of his symptoms with a valgus stress test. Which phase of the throwing cycle shown in Figure 1 will most likely reproduce his symptoms?
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1
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
QUESTION 22
Figures 1 and 2 are the MR arthrogram images of a 16-year-old, right-hand-dominant baseball player who injured his left shoulder 4 weeks ago during a game. He now has pain, weakness, and the inability to swing a bat and can no longer do push-ups. He denies prior injury to his left shoulder. Radiographs are unremarkable.
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Which of the four muscles of the rotator cuff provides the most resistance to this patient's direction of instability?


1
Subscapularis
2
Supraspinatus
3
Infraspinatus
4
Teres minor
QUESTION 23
A 47-year-old man who is an avid tennis player and laborer has had one year of shoulder pain and weakness. His pain occurs at night and radiates to the deltoid laterally. The patient denies any anterior based pain. He reports no prior surgeries and has been managed with steroid injections and physical therapy. On examination, he has full passive motion with significant weakness with external rotation. His neurologic examination is unremarkable. MRI evaluation reveals a posterior-superior rotator cuff tear with Goutallier grade 4 fatty infiltrate in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with retraction beyond the glenoid. He is concerned about the lack of rotation of his arm and reports that this disability creates significant disability with his occupation as a mason. What is the best next step?
1
Shoulder scope and subacromial decompression
2
Tendon transfer
3
Total shoulder arthroplasty
4
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
QUESTION 24
Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of a 35-year-old right-hand dominant man who has right elbow pain after trying to lift a large television at home. An examination reveals ecchymosis, an abnormal hook
test, and altered biceps muscle contour. What treatment is most likely to result in a satisfactory and predictable outcome?
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1
Period of immobilization followed by physical therapy
2
Local corticosteroid injection
3
Surgical repair
4
Platelet-rich plasma (PRP)
QUESTION 25
Figure 1 is the T2 coronal MRI scan(Massive atraumatic rotator cuff tear) of a 52-year-old woman with
a 6-month history of shoulder pain. She does not recall a history of trauma. Physical therapy is recommended. What is the most significant predictor of failure of nonoperative treatment?
1
Tear size
2
Pain scale score
3
Strength deficit
4
Patient expectations
QUESTION 26
A 17-year-old high school football linebacker sustains an injury while making a tackle. His initial symptoms
are right shoulder pain, bilateral biceps weakness, and right arm numbness. The symptoms only last a few minutes, and he continues to play in the game. He tells his parents after the game, and they bring him to your office for evaluation the next day. He no longer has any symptoms, and his examination findings and cervical spine radiographs are normal. What is the best next step?
1
Allow him to continue playing football
2
Order an EMG
3
Observe and if symptoms are negative for one week, then a return to football
4
Order a cervical MRI scan
QUESTION 27
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 43-year-old man who has left shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. An examination reveals active forward elevation at 120° and positive Yergason and lift-off test examination findings. Arthroscopy reveals that the articular surfaces of the glenohumeral joint have a normal appearance without significant degenerative changes. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
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1
Rotator cuff repair and biceps tenodesis
2
Rotator cuff repair and loose body removal
3
Latissimus dorsi transfer
4
Bankart repair
QUESTION 28
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 31-year-old man who had left shoulder pain after a fall during a snowboarding jump. Residual displacement of 5 mm after closed reduction is most likely to result in
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1
nonunion.
2
osteonecrosis.
3
altered rotator cuff mechanics.
4
normal shoulder function.
QUESTION 29
What factor highly correlates with poor outcomes after surgery for femoroacetabular impingement?
1
Age <20
2
Tonnis grade 2
3
Prominence of the femoral head in cam impingement
4
The patient is a professional athlete
QUESTION 30
Figure 1 is the axial cut MRI scan of a 35-year-old woman who has had posteriorly based right hip pain
for 3 months. Examination demonstrates full and symmetric range of motion between the right and left hips, negative impingement test, but reproduction of her pain with passive extension of the right hip. Which muscle is indicated by the arrow?
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1
Piriformis
2
Obturator internus
3
Superior gemellus
4
Quadratus femoris
QUESTION 31
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 21-year-old college lacrosse player who has a 2-year history of progressive left groin pain that is exacerbated by activity. Pain is preventing him from participating with his team. Examination reveals a fit man without tenderness to palpation around the hip. No clicking or popping occurs with hip range of motion. Strength of all muscles about the hip is normal, but there is some mild pain with resisted hip flexion and hip adduction. While lying supine, progressive hip flexion with internal rotation and adduction reproduces his groin pain. The patient experiences little improvement with activity modification and more physical therapy. An intra-articular corticosteroid injection provides excellent relief, but relief only lasts for 1 month. The player requests further treatment for his hip and is counseled regarding surgical intervention. Hip arthroscopy is performed. Intraoperatively, a capsulolabral separation is observed with an underlying pincer lesion. No articular cartilage injury is seen. Which treatment is most appropriate considering these findings?
1
Debridement of the labral tear plus bony resection of the pincer lesion
2
Debridement of the labral tear and no bony resection of the pincer lesion
3
Femoral neck osteoplasty plus labral repair using suture anchor
4
Resection of the bony pincer lesion plus labral repair using suture anchor
QUESTION 32
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 20-year-old college multisport athlete who has had longstanding pain in his left hip. He denies any specific event that initiated his pain, but he notes that he had hip problems when he was an infant. He denies pain with activities of daily living, but he believes his pain is increasingly limiting his ability to exercise. He localizes the pain to his groin. He denies low-back or buttock pain or pain that radiates down his leg. What is the most likely diagnosis for the source of this patient's pain?
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1
Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
2
Pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement
3
Hip flexor strain
4
Athletic pubalgia
QUESTION 33
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 21-year-old college lacrosse player who has a 2-year history of progressive left groin pain that is exacerbated by activity. Pain is preventing him from participating with his team. Examination reveals a fit man without tenderness to palpation around the hip. No clicking or popping occurs with hip range of motion. Strength of all muscles about the hip is normal, but there is some mild pain with resisted hip flexion and hip adduction. While lying supine, progressive hip flexion with internal rotation and adduction reproduces his groin pain.What is the most likely cause of this patient's pain?
1
Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
2
Osteoarthritis of the sacroiliac joint
3
Intra-articular loose body
4
Trochanteric bursitis
QUESTION 34
Figure 1 is an MRI scan of the right hip of a 19-year-old woman with a 6-month history of right groin pain. She was diagnosed with a stress fracture and was treated with 3 months of limited weight bearing. Figure 2 is a repeat MRI scan in which the edema pattern changed minimally but the pain worsened. Ibuprofen alleviates most of her pain. What is the best next step?
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1
Hip arthroscopy with labrum repair
2
MRI arthrogram
3
Percutaneous screw fixation
4
CT scan with fine cuts
QUESTION 35
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 21-year-old college lacrosse player who has a 2-year history of progressive left groin pain that is exacerbated by activity. Pain is preventing him from participating with his team. Examination reveals a fit man without tenderness to palpation around the hip. No clicking or popping occurs with hip range of motion. Strength of all muscles about the hip is normal, but there is some mild pain with resisted hip flexion and hip adduction. While lying supine, progressive hip flexion with internal rotation and adduction reproduces his groin pain. The patient participates in physical therapy for 8 weeks with his team's trainer but notes little improvement. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step to determine the cause of his pain?
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1
Diagnostic arthroscopy of the hip
2
Hip bone scan
3
Hip MRI arthrogram
4
Hip ultrasonography
QUESTION 36
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 20-year-old college multisport athlete who has had longstanding pain in his left hip. He denies any specific event that initiated his pain, but he notes that he had hip problems when he was an infant. He denies pain with activities of daily living, but he believes his pain is increasingly limiting his ability to exercise. He localizes the pain to his groin. He denies low-back or buttock pain or pain that radiates down his leg. Images from an MRI scan of this patient's left hip are shown in Figures 3 through





1
What is the most likely cause of his acute pain? ![img](/media/upload/56ae6243-614d-42c3-860c-b42717a06140.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/ee9b8b35-8a38-4913-9204-347a1ff60f26.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/6adb1aa2-c07e-40d8-9f62-d1067d96796a.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/d958acfd-5f78-40fc-8918-6415747f5f0f.jpg) ![img](/media/upload/953b47f7-9f48-4653-a0ad-bdb5e8ba3753.jpg)
2
Significant cartilage loss on the acetabulum
3
Labral tear
4
Femoral neck stress fracture
5
Tendinopathy of the rectus femoris
QUESTION 37
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 20-year-old college multisport athlete who has had longstanding pain in his left hip. He denies any specific event that initiated his pain, but he notes that he had hip problems when he was an infant. He denies pain with activities of daily living, but he believes his pain is increasingly limiting his ability to exercise. He localizes the pain to his groin. He denies low-back or buttock pain or pain that radiates down his leg. What examination findings are most consistent with the pathology seen in the radiographs?
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1
Pain with resisted hip flexion
2
Pain with a half sit-up, plus tenderness at the pubic ramus
3
Pain with a combination of hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
4
Tenderness to palpation at the greater trochanter
QUESTION 38
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 21-year-old college lacrosse player who has a 2-year history of progressive left groin pain that is exacerbated by activity. Pain is preventing him from participating with his team. Examination reveals a fit man without tenderness to palpation around the hip. No clicking or popping occurs with hip range of motion. Strength of all muscles about the hip is normal, but there is some mild pain with resisted hip flexion and hip adduction. While lying supine, progressive hip flexion with internal rotation and adduction reproduces his groin pain. Further workup confirms an anterosuperior tear of the acetabular labrum and prominence of the acetabulum. What is the most likely location of a chondral injury associated with these findings?
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1
Posterosuperior acetabulum
2
Posteroinferior acetabulum
3
Femoral head above the fovea
4
Femoral head below the fovea
QUESTION 39
A 40-year-old man who is a manual laborer has had 3 years of worsening medial-sided left knee pain that has inhibited his ability to work. He reports undergoing a left subtotal medial meniscectomy 10 years ago. He has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and two different corticosteroids, with the most recent injection given 1 month ago. Each injection provided him with a few weeks of pain control. His medical history is unremarkable, and he has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last 15 years. His BMI is 22. On examination, he has varus alignment of the involved leg and medial joint line tenderness and no lateral or patellofemoral pain. His knee range of motion is 3° shy of full extension to 130° of flexion. He has negative Lachman and posterior drawer test results. He demonstrates no lateral thrust with ambulation. The patient is offered a VPHTO. What aspect of his history will determine the most appropriate VPHTO technique?
1
Prior arthroscopy
2
Current smoking history
3
BMI of 22
4
Age of 40
QUESTION 40
A football player injures his knee when he is tackled and falls awkwardly. He does not note any discreet “pop,” but pain prevents him from returning to the game. An effusion is noted the following day and an MRI scan is ordered. Selected images are shown in Figures 1 through






1
Based on these images, physical examination findings likely include ![img](/media/upload/d7a90384-a1ed-401b-beb1-e616d2a0f24f.png) ![img](/media/upload/84d8340f-60e8-4741-8adc-160651d360fc.png) ![img](/media/upload/ea113d21-f1ec-4ebc-ad8f-ac28e865d4fe.png) ![img](/media/upload/525f1f0e-49ab-40dd-8284-be3ef06873c6.png) ![img](/media/upload/6849e945-e2de-4bee-a149-5fd351a167d1.png) ![img](/media/upload/b98f3f58-d923-4486-9ec9-9a722fbe6a40.png)
2
positive Lachman test, normal posterior drawer, positive pivot shift.
3
positive Lachman test, positive posterior drawer, negative pivot shift.
4
normal Lachman test, positive posterior drawer, positive pivot shift.
5
normal Lachman test, positive posterior drawer, negative pivot shift.
QUESTION 41
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and MRI scan of a 16-year-old boy who injured his right knee by a lateral side impact while playing football. The MRI indicates what structure was most likely injured?
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---



1
Lateral collateral ligament
2
Tibial spine
3
Medial meniscus
4
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
QUESTION 42
Figures 1 through 4 are the CT scans and intraoperative image of a 17-year-old boy who sustained a gunshot wound to his knee. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management for his articular cartilage defect?
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---
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1
Microfracture
2
Autologous chondrocyte implantation
3
Osteochondral allograft transfer
4
Dejour trochleoplasty
QUESTION 43
Figures 1 through 3 are the weight-bearing radiograph and MRI scans of a 27-year-old man who twisted his knee coming down awkwardly from a lay-up during a basketball game. He felt a sharp stabbing pain in the posterior aspect of his knee at the time of the injury. Physical examination reveals a trace effusion, full range of motion but pain with hyperflexion >90° degrees and tenderness over the affected joint line. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
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---
---




1
Lateral meniscus repair
2
Corticosteroid injection and physical therapy
3
Medial meniscus repair
4
Unloader brace
QUESTION 44
A 16-year-old boy falls while playing soccer. He reports that his knee buckled when he planted his leg to kick a ball. He noticed an obvious deformity of his knee, which spontaneously resolved with a “clunk.” He could not finish the game but was able to bear weight with a limp. He has had two similar episodes but has never sought medical attention. An initial examination demonstrated an effusion, tenderness at the proximal medial collateral region and medial patellofemoral retinaculum, decreased range of motion, and patella apprehension. A lateral patellar glide performed at 30° of flexion was 3+. He was otherwise ligamentously stable, and there were no other noteworthy findings. What do Figures 1 and 2 reveal?
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1
Medial femoral condyle physeal widening
2
An osseous or osteochondral loose fragment
3
Osgood-Schlatter disease
4
A patella nondisplaced fracture
QUESTION 45
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 36-year-old athlete who is tackled from behind and falls forward onto his left knee. He has pain, swelling, and stiffness. Examination includes a moderate effusion, positive quadriceps active test, and normal Lachman test finding. Risk for vascular injury during transtibial drilling for reconstruction of this injury is increased by
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1
accessory incisions.
2
use of tapered drill bits.
3
use of oscillating drills.
4
greater knee extension.
QUESTION 46
Figures 1 and 2 are the AP and lateral radiographs of a 32-year-old man 10 years after anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. The patient now has worsening medial knee pain and a failed ACL with instability. What is the best surgical option?
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1
Revision ACL with bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) allograft and meniscal transplant
2
Distal femoral osteotomy
3
Pure sagittal osteotomy
4
Closing wedge and slope neutralizing high-tibial osteoto
QUESTION 47
A 24-year-old former high school wrestler had anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with hamstring autograft 6 years ago. He now experiences daily instability of his knee with routine activities including walking. Examination reveals a grade 3+ Lachman test with a soft endpoint, varus laxity at 30°, and a positive dial test at 30° that dissipates at 90° of knee flexion. He has mild medial joint line tenderness. When walking, there is a slight varus thrust. What treatment is most likely to lead to a successful outcome?
1
Hamstring autograft
2
Revision ACL reconstruction and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction
3
Revision ACL reconstruction and posteromedial corner reconstruction
4
Revision ACL reconstruction and posterolateral corner reconstruction
QUESTION 48
A 19-year-old running back lands directly on his anterior knee after being tackled. He has mild anterior
knee pain, a trace effusion, a 2+ posterior drawer, a grade 1+ stable Lachman, no valgus laxity, and negative dial tests at 30° and 90°. What is the best treatment strategy at this time?
1
Physical therapy with a focus on quadriceps strengthening
2
Physical therapy and delayed posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction
3
PCL reconstruction
4
PCL and posterolateral corner reconstruction
QUESTION 49
An otherwise healthy 31-year-old man has had right knee pain for the past 9 months. His former physician
administered a cortisone injection and ordered 6 months of physical therapy. The patient later had an arthroscopy with debridement of the right knee by another physician and completed another course of physical therapy. The patient received minimal relief from these treatments and still is not able to walk longer distances or go on hikes. On examination, he is a healthy appearing male with a body mass index of 24 kg/m2. He has a small effusion, minimal quadriceps atrophy, no tenderness about the knee, full range of motion, stable to varus and valgus stress at 30° of flexion, a grade 1 Lachman test, and a normal posterior drawer. Figures 1 through 4 are his arthroscopic views, radiograph and MRI scan from his prior surgical procedure. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?
---
---
---
---








1
Bracing with physical therapy focusing on quadriceps/vastus medialis obliquus (VMO) and hamstring strengthening
2
Osteotomy
3
Osteochondral allograft to femoral condyle
4
Arthroscopy with femoral condyle microfracture
QUESTION 50
A 40-year-old man who is a manual laborer has had 3 years of worsening medial-sided left knee pain that has inhibited his ability to work. He reports undergoing a left subtotal medial meniscectomy 10 years ago. He has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and two different corticosteroids, with the most recent injection given 1 month ago. Each injection provided him with a few weeks of pain control. His medical history is unremarkable, and he has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last 15 years. His BMI is 22. On examination, he has varus alignment of the involved leg and medial joint line tenderness and no lateral or patellofemoral pain. His knee range of motion is 3° shy of full extension to 130° of
flexion. He has negative Lachman and posterior drawer test results. He demonstrates no lateral thrust with ambulation. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
1
Repeat corticosteroid injection
2
Trial of a medial unloader brace
3
MRI scan of the knee to evaluate for recurrent medial meniscus tear
4
Referral to pain management
QUESTION 51
A 9-year-old boy is injured while playing soccer. His examination reveals painful range of motion between 5° and 75°. There is tenderness on the medial side of his knee. There is no effusion, a grade 1A Lachman test, and severe pain over the medial epicondyle of the knee. Varus stress is negative and pain is elicited with valgus stress. Initial radiographs were negative for abnormality. What is the next diagnostic step?
1
Repeat radiographs while the patient is weight bearing
2
Ultrasonography of the lower extremity and calf
3
Stress radiographs
4
CT scan
QUESTION 52
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 36-year-old athlete who is tackled from behind and falls forward onto his left knee. He has pain, swelling, and stiffness. Examination includes a moderate effusion, positive quadriceps active test, and normal Lachman test finding. The injured structure is composed of an
---

1
anterolateral bundle that is tight in flexion and a posteromedial bundle that is tight in extension.
2
anterolateral bundle that is tight in extension and a posteromedial bundle that is tight in flexion.
3
anteromedial bundle that is tight in flexion and a posterolateral bundle that is tight in extension.
4
anteromedial bundle that is tight in extension and a posterolateral bundle that is tight in flexion.
QUESTION 53
Figures 1 through 5 are the MR images of a 12-year-old boy with left lateral-sided knee pain following a football injury. He has a several-year history of recurrent knee pain that improves with rest. An examination reveals a moderate effusion. Range of motion is 0° to 90° and is limited by pain in deep flexion. He has tenderness to palpation along the lateral joint line, and no instability is noted. What other finding may be noted in patients with this diagnosis?
---
---
---
---
---





1
Symmetric knee pathology
2
Excessive joint laxity
3
Recurrent patella instability
4
Extra-articular manifestations
QUESTION 54
A 9-year-old boy is injured while playing soccer. His examination reveals painful range of motion
between 5° and 75°. There is tenderness on the medial side of his knee. There is no effusion, a grade 1A Lachman test, and severe pain over the medial epicondyle of the knee. Varus stress is negative and pain is elicited with valgus stress. Initial radiographs were negative for abnormality. What is the most likely area of injury?
1
Femoral attachment of the medial collateral ligament
2
Tibial attachment of the medial collateral ligament
3
Hypertrophic zone of the growth plate
4
Proliferative zone of the growth plate
QUESTION 55
A 20-year-old healthy female endurance athlete has lower leg pain and dorsal foot paresthesias after
running for 30 minutes. She has seen another physician and has been ruled out for a bone stress injury. She has tried extensive nonsurgical measures such as shoe modification and an extended period without running. You suspect chronic exertional compartment syndrome and perform intramuscular compartment pressure measurements at three separate time points with the following results:

**Baseline**

**1 Minute**

**5 Minutes**
---|---|---|---
**Anterior**

7

32

25
**Lateral**

8

29

23
**Superficial Posterior**

12

25

17
**Deep Posterior**

14

22

16
The patient decides to pursue surgical intervention. Which compartments should be released?
1
Anterior and lateral
2
Anterior, lateral, and deep posterior
3
Anterior, lateral and superficial posterior
4
Lateral and superficial posterior

QUESTION 56
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 14-year-old football player who injured his right knee during a game. He describes feeling a "pop" and then needing help walking off the field. His knee is visibly swollen. Knee range of motion is between 0° and 70°. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
---

1
Open reduction and internal fixation of the lateral condyle
2
Microfracture of the chondral defect
3
Immediate anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction
4
Delayed ACL reconstruction

QUESTION 57
What do the T2-weighted, fat-saturated MRI scans shown in Figures 1 through 4 reveal?
---
---
---
---




1
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear, isolated
2
PCL tear and medial meniscus tear
3
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear, isolated
4
ACL tear and medial meniscus tear

QUESTION 58
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 14-year-old football player who injured his right knee during a game. He describes feeling a "pop" and then needing help walking off the field. His knee is visibly swollen. The patient undergoes surgery to repair/reconstruct the damaged structure and has no postsurgical complications and begins physical therapy rehabilitation. The boy and his parents stress they want to “get the therapy over with as fast as possible" to expedite his return to sports, and the surgeon and rehabilitation team consider their request. Compared with nonaccelerated rehabilitation, patients who follow an early accelerated rehabilitation protocol experience
---

1
increased laxity.
2
increased risk for graft failure.
3
no differences in long-term results.
4
lower Knee Injury and Osteoarthritis Outcome Score (KOOS).

QUESTION 59
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 15-year-old boy who has had knee pain with running for 5 months. Radiographs show an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the medial femoral condyle. What is the most appropriate treatment?
---

1
Arthroscopic or open reduction and internal fixation
2
Arthroscopic loose body removal
3
Activity restriction for up to 9 months
4
Subchondral drilling

QUESTION 60
Figures 1 through 5 are the MR images of a 12-year-old boy with left lateral-sided knee pain following a football injury. He has a several-year history of recurrent knee pain that improves with rest. An examination reveals a moderate effusion. Range of motion is 0° to 90° and is limited by pain in deep flexion. He has tenderness to palpation along the lateral joint line, and no instability is noted. Based on the pathology noted, which finding may be found on plain knee radiographs?
---
---
---
---
---





1
Shallow trochlear groove
2
Squaring of the lateral femoral condyle
3
Deepening of the sulcus terminalis
4
Medial joint space narrowing

QUESTION 61
A 9-year-old girl, who is an avid soccer player, has intermittent spontaneous snapping in her left knee that has worsened. There is no reported trauma or prior surgeries to her knee. Despite working with her trainer, she has developed anterior-based knee pain and lacks full extension. Her knee skin is unremarkable, but there is fullness to palpation on the lateral aspect of her knee. Her range of motion demonstrates a lack of 15° of terminal extension and ligamentous examination is unremarkable. Considering possible surgical treatments for this patient, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
1
Arthroscopic lateral release with reconstruction of medial patellofemoral ligament
2
Growth plate sparing anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
3
Arthroscopic meniscal saucerization
4
Microfracture versus stabilization of osteochondral lesion

QUESTION 62
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 50-year old woman with lateral-sided left knee pain. She noticed the pain over the last few months and has had no new injury. She had a microfracture performed of her lateral femoral condyle 5 years ago. What is the likely cause of the finding noted on her radiograph?
---

1
Uncontained cartilage lesion
2
Removal of the subchondral plate
3
Removal of the calcified cartilage layer
4
Failure to remove the calcified cartilage layer

QUESTION 63
Figures 1 through 5 are the MR images of a 12-year-old boy with left lateral-sided knee pain following a football injury. He has a several-year history of recurrent knee pain that improves with rest. An examination reveals a moderate effusion. Range of motion is 0° to 90° and is limited by pain in deep flexion. He has tenderness to palpation along the lateral joint line, and no instability is noted. Treatment should include
---
---
---
---
---





1
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction with lateral meniscus repair.
2
partial lateral meniscectomy with saucerization.
3
lateral meniscus transplant.
4
protected weight bearing with referral for genetic testing.

QUESTION 64
Figures 1 through 4 are selected sagittal MR images of an otherwise healthy 20-year-old collegiate football running back who was tackled during a game and has immediate onset of right knee pain. Video analysis of the injury shows that his flexed knee impacted the field. He is not able to return to play. On examination in the training room the following morning, he has a moderate effusion, no patellar instability, minimal joint line tenderness, and is stable to varus and valgus stress at 30° of knee flexion. A dial test is also negative. He has increased laxity in the anterior to posterior direction. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
---




1
Rehabilitation initially focused on closed chain quadriceps strengthening
2
Rehabilitation initially focused on hamstring strengthening
3
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using autograft tissue
4
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction using autograft tissue

QUESTION 65
During anatomic medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, the surgeon notes that the graft
is becoming too tight with greater knee flexion. What is the most likely cause?
1
Femoral attachment placed too distal
2
Femoral attachment placed too proximal
3
Patellar attachment placed too distal
4
Patellar attachment placed too proximal

QUESTION 66
A 40-year-old man who is a manual laborer has had 3 years of worsening medial-sided left knee pain that
has inhibited his ability to work. He reports undergoing a left subtotal medial meniscectomy 10 years ago. He has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and two different corticosteroids, with the most recent injection given 1 month ago. Each injection provided him with a few weeks of pain control. His medical history is unremarkable, and he has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last 15 years. His BMI is 22. On examination, he has varus alignment of the involved leg and medial joint line tenderness and no lateral or patellofemoral pain. His knee range of motion is 3° shy of full extension to 130° of flexion. He has negative Lachman and posterior drawer test results. He demonstrates no lateral thrust with ambulation. The patient is provided with a medial unloader brace that provides substantial pain relief, and he is able to work while wearing the brace. After 4 months, he returns to work and reports that while the brace enables him to work, it is uncomfortable. Consequently, his symptoms return when he is not wearing the brace, and he is requesting a surgical intervention for his problem. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
1
Valgus-producing high tibial osteotomy (VPHTO)
2
Repeat knee arthroscopy
3
Total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
4
Medial meniscus transplant

QUESTION 67
Figures 1 and 2 are the T2-weighted MR images of a 54-year-old woman with medial knee pain and catching of 6 months’ duration. Which treatment option is most likely to be associated with a favorable outcome?
---
---



1
Physical therapy
2
Meniscal repair
3
Menisectomy
4
Reconstruction

QUESTION 68
Figure 1 is the MR image of a high school soccer player who sustained a right knee injury during a game while making a cut toward the ball. He felt a pop and his leg gave way. During physical examination, as the knee is moved from full extension into flexion with an internal rotation and valgus force, you notice a "clunk" within the knee. What is the most likely biomechanical basis for the "clunk"?
---



1
In extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the medial tibial plateau is subluxated; with flexion, the medial tibial plateau reduces.
2
In extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the medial tibial plateau is reduced; with flexion, the medial tibial plateau subluxates.
3
In extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the lateral tibial plateau is reduced; with flexion, the lateral plateau subluxates.
4
In extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the lateral tibial plateau is subluxated; with flexion, the lateral plateau reduces.

QUESTION 69
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a patient with recurrent knee instability, which persists after a period of nonsurgical treatment. Anatomic reconstruction of the torn ligament is recommended. What radiographic finding is the most important independent predictor of recurrent instability following surgery?
---

1
Tibial tubercle to trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance
2
Patella alta
3
Tibial slope
4
Trochlear dysplasia

QUESTION 70
When reconstructing the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) with autograft, what is the most common
source of surgical failure?
1
Graft choice
2
Tunnel position
3
Tibial fixation
4
Femoral fixation

QUESTION 71
A 28-year-old woman undergoes a closing-wedge high tibial osteotomy (HTO) for medial compartment
overload after medial meniscectomy. Postsurgically, she reports improvement in her medial pain and resumes normal activities. About 9 months after her surgery, however, she reports burning pain in the front of her knee with running. Her examination reveals no joint line tenderness, mild pain with patellar compression, and limited patellar glides. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
1
Patella infera (baja)
2
Patella alta
3
Recurrence of medial joint overload
4
Nonunion of the osteotomy

QUESTION 72
Figures 1 through 5 are the MR images of a 12-year-old boy with left lateral-sided knee pain following a
football injury. He has a several-year history of recurrent knee pain that improves with rest. An examination reveals a moderate effusion. Range of motion is 0° to 90° and is limited by pain in deep flexion. He has tenderness to palpation along the lateral joint line, and no instability is noted. What is the underlying cause of the pathology noted in the figures?
---
---
---
---
---





1
Genetic mutation
2
Recurrent trauma
3
Shallow intercondylar notch
4
Congenital abnormality

QUESTION 73
Figure 1 is an arthroscopic view of the intercondylar notch of a right knee from an anterolateral portal. What is the main function of the structure delineated by the black asterisks?
---

1
Resist anterior translation during knee flexion
2
Resist posterior translation during knee flexion
3
Resist rotatory loads during knee flexion
4
Resist rotatory loads during knee extension

QUESTION 74
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 35-year-old female soccer player who injured her knee during a game. Given the findings of the scan, physical examination is most likely to reveal


1
grade 2 pivot shift.
2
positive Thessaly test.
3
positive quadriceps active test.
4
positive dial test at 30°.

QUESTION 75
A 29-year-old recreational basketball player has developed pain to the distal aspect of her patella that
occurs during warm-ups and returns toward the end of the game. She reports no history of trauma, effusions, instability, and no mechanical symptoms. On examination, she is point tender at the inferior pole of the patella, lacks patella apprehension, and has a Q-angle of 15°. She has no ligamentous laxity. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the best next step?
1
Therapy with an emphasis on eccentric exercises
2
Steroid injection
3
Platelet-rich plasma
4
Extracorporeal shock therapy

QUESTION 76
A 40-year-old man who is a manual laborer has had 3 years of worsening medial-sided left knee pain that
has inhibited his ability to work. He reports undergoing a left subtotal medial meniscectomy 10 years ago. He has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and two different corticosteroids, with the most recent injection given 1 month ago. Each injection provided him with a few weeks of pain control. His medical history is unremarkable, and he has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last 15 years. His BMI is 22. On examination, he has varus alignment of the involved leg and medial joint line tenderness and no lateral or patellofemoral pain. His knee range of motion is 3° shy of full extension to 130° of
flexion. He has negative Lachman and posterior drawer test results. He demonstrates no lateral thrust with ambulation. What imaging study is most appropriate to determine treatment options for this patient?
1
Full-length weight-bearing radiographs of both legs
2
MRI scan of the left knee
3
CT scan of the left knee
4
Ultrasonography of the left leg

QUESTION 77
A 9-year-old boy is injured while playing soccer. His examination reveals painful range of motion between 5° and 75°. There is tenderness on the medial side of his knee. There is no effusion, a grade 1A Lachman test, and severe pain over the medial epicondyle of the knee. Varus stress is negative and pain is elicited with valgus stress. Initial radiographs were negative for abnormality. Stress radiographs show a 2-mm medial physeal widening with valgus stress. What is the best initial treatment strategy for this patient?
1
Femoral medial collateral ligament repair, extraphyseal
2
Arthroscopically assisted medial collateral ligament repair
3
Crutch ambulation without immobilization and weight bearing as tolerated
4
Protected weight bearing with cast immobilization

QUESTION 78
A 53-year-old man sustains a fall while skiing. He experiences immediate pain and deformity in his lower leg just above his ski boot top. Radiographs of his left lower leg are shown in Figures 1 and






1
After discussing operative management with the patient, you choose to proceed with an intramedullary nail. Where should blocking screws be placed to prevent the characteristic deformity of this fracture?
![img](/media/upload/ce66e467-f24e-4257-b1eb-66bf7d14907e.png) ![img](/media/upload/e6f41835-fc7f-424b-a598-6aef457d3f9b.png)
![img](/media/upload/88d82a11-1ee2-45d0-a206-77f37aeee8d2.png)
![img](/media/upload/47d686a0-a0ed-45ab-92ac-2983aa2f3e81.png) ![img](/media/upload/260cfcf5-aceb-4ec5-a132-5d60543e5f83.png)
![img](/media/upload/5a1e6b2c-897e-482f-8f61-46e9856fa76c.png)
2
Posterior and medial aspect of the proximal fragment
3
Anterior aspect of the proximal fragment and medial half of the distal fragment
4
Posterior and lateral aspect of the proximal fragment
5
Anterior and lateral aspect of the proximal fragment

QUESTION 79
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 36-year-old athlete who is tackled from behind and falls forward onto his left knee. He has pain, swelling, and stiffness. Examination includes a moderate effusion, positive quadriceps active test, and normal Lachman test finding. If the patient chooses surgical reconstruction, he should be advised that, when compared with a transtibial technique, the tibial inlay technique has been shown to provide
---

1
stronger initial graft fixation.
2
more anatomic positioning of tibial fixation.
3
more natural knee kinematics during deep flexion.
4
more graft protection during cyclic loading.

QUESTION 80
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 36-year-old athlete who is tackled from behind and falls forward onto his left knee. He has pain, swelling, and stiffness. Examination includes a moderate effusion, positive quadriceps active test, and normal Lachman test finding. Left untreated, injury to this structure most likely will lead to degenerative changes in
---

1
medial and lateral compartments.
2
medial and patellofemoral compartments.
3
lateral and patellofemoral compartments.
4
the patellofemoral compartment only.

QUESTION 81
A 16-year-old boy falls while playing soccer. He reports that his knee buckled when he planted his leg to kick a ball. He noticed an obvious deformity of his knee, which spontaneously resolved with a “clunk.” He could not finish the game but was able to bear weight with a limp. He has had two similar episodes but has never sought medical attention. An initial examination demonstrated an effusion, tenderness at the proximal medial collateral region and medial patellofemoral retinaculum, decreased range of motion, and patella apprehension. A lateral patellar glide performed at 30° of flexion was 3+. He was otherwise ligamentously stable, and there were no other noteworthy findings.Figures 3 and 4 are this patient's proton density fat-saturated MR images. His tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is 12 mm, and he has normal limb-alignment film findings. Treatment at this stage should include
---
---


1
hinged knee bracing, protected weight bearing, and physical therapy.
2
anteromedialization of the tibial tubercle.
3
internal fixation and medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction.
4
arthroscopic lateral retinacular release.

QUESTION 82
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 36-year-old athlete who is tackled from behind and falls forward onto his left knee. He has pain, swelling, and stiffness. Examination includes a moderate effusion, positive quadriceps active test, and normal Lachman test finding. This patient elects nonsurgical treatment and later experiences persistent instability. Examination reveals an asymmetric Dial test finding and a varus thrust during ambulation. Which osteotomy and correction appropriately addresses this chronic instability pattern?
---

1
Distal femoral/opening lateral wedge osteotomy
2
Distal femoral/closing lateral wedge osteotomy
3
High tibial osteotomy; opening medial wedge with increased tibial slope
4
High tibial osteotomy; closing lateral wedge with decreased tibial slope

QUESTION 83
Augmentation of a Broström repair with the mobilized lateral portion of the extensor retinaculum (Gould
modification) is expected to produce
1
higher risk for iatrogenic nerve injury.
2
decreased ankle range of motion 6 weeks after surgery.
3
no significant biomechanical difference in initial ankle stability.
4
a significantly lower incidence of osteoarthritis on long-term follow-up.

QUESTION 84
A 19-year-old female field hockey player sustains a right ankle injury last night during a game. The patient
is on crutches and reports that she has not been able to put any weight on her right ankle since the injury. She was running alongside with another player when her right ankle “gave out” and she twisted it, falling to the ground. Physical examination reveals discoloration similar to a hematoma and significant swelling around the lateral ankle area. Pain is elicited during palpation of the anterior talofibular ligament. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient’s condition?
1
Early mobilization and a guided proprioceptive and strengthening
2
Extended immobilization in a cast
3
Surgical intervention
4
Weight bearing as tolerated in an ankle brace for 6 weeks

QUESTION 85
A 19-year-old female field hockey player sustains a right ankle injury last night during a game. The patient
is on crutches and reports that she has not been able to put any weight on her right ankle since the injury. She was running alongside with another player when her right ankle “gave out” and she twisted it, falling to the ground. Physical examination reveals discoloration similar to a hematoma and significant swelling around the lateral ankle area. Pain is elicited during palpation of the anterior talofibular ligament. What test should be performed to aid in this diagnosis?
1
Thompson test
2
External rotation stress test
3
Anterior drawer test
4
Squeeze test

QUESTION 86
A 19-year-old female field hockey player sustains a right ankle injury last night during a game. The patient
is on crutches and reports that she has not been able to put any weight on her right ankle since the injury. She was running alongside with another player when her right ankle “gave out” and she twisted it, falling to the ground. Physical examination reveals discoloration similar to a hematoma and significant swelling around the lateral ankle area. Pain is elicited during palpation of the anterior talofibular ligament. Radiographs of the player’s right ankle confirm there are no fractures. With a lateral talar tilt test result of 19°, which additional structure is most likely damaged?
1
Deltoid ligament
2
Calcaneofibular ligament
3
Anterior tibiofibular ligament
4
Posterior tibiofibular ligament

QUESTION 87
A 19-year old Division 1 offensive lineman sustains an ankle injury during a game. He has pain with weight-bearing and is unable to return to the game. Figures 1 through 5 are his radiographs taken the next day. What is the best next step?
---
---
---
---
---





1
Immobilization
2
Syndesmotic fixation
3
Physical therapy
4
Obtain an MRI scan

QUESTION 88
A hockey player had a puck hit his foot. Radiographs taken immediately after the game were negative. He still has persistent pain 5 days after the injury and difficulty weight bearing. What is the best next step?
1
Repeat radiographs
2
Full clearance to return to play
3
Bone scan
4
MRI scan

QUESTION 89
A 12-year-old boy has a head-on head collision while playing soccer. He had no loss of consciousness
but has persistent headaches for 2 weeks. The patient is now back to school and has no headaches. What is the best next step?
1
Return to full soccer activity
2
Start light aerobic activity
3
Obtain baseline neuropsychological testing
4
MRI scan of the brain

QUESTION 90
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) is a neurodegenerative disease that is characterized by
1
onset most often by age 30.
2
a temporary state of neuronal and axonal derangement.
3
manifestations of affect such as apathy, irritability, and suicidal ideation.
4
absence of gross pathological brain changes upon autopsy.

QUESTION 91
A 14-year-old gymnast misses her dismount off of the uneven bars, hits the mat face first, and loses
consciousness for about 15 seconds. She is dazed and confused for several minutes. She does not complain of pain; numbness; or weakness, and she is moving all extremities without deficit. The athlete and coach want to go back to competition that day. How should they be advised?
1
Concussion precludes same-day return to play.
2
Order an urgent MRI scan; if findings are normal, she can return to competition.
3
Order neurocognitive testing; if findings are normal, she can return to competition.
4
If she is symptom-free after a 15-minute exertional test, she may return to competition.

QUESTION 92
A collegiate lacrosse player is struck on the head by an opposing player’s stick. She is initially
unresponsive. She regains consciousness within 2 minutes but remains confused and uncooperative, complaining of head and neck pain. This is her second concussion of the calendar year. Initial management should consist of
1
calculation of Glasgow Coma Scale score.
2
evaluation with a sideline assessment tool, such as the SCAT-3.
3
urgent hospital transfer for CT scan.
4
stabilization of the cervical spine and placement of a collar

QUESTION 93
A 17-year-old high school football player sustains a neck injury in a game. During the initial on-field
assessment, the team physician removes the player’s helmet, and the athlete is log-rolled to the supine position while the physician manually stabilizes his cervical spine. An examination demonstrates tenderness to palpation over the cervical spine and neurologic deficits in bilateral upper and lower extremities. Shoulder pads prohibit proper placement of a hard cervical collar, and the athlete is immobilized on a spine board and transported to the emergency department via ambulance. Comprehensive evaluation in the emergency department reveals a bilateral facet dislocation of C5 on C6. The on-field intervention most likely to cause a neurologic injury is
1
failure to place a hard cervical collar.
2
helmet removal prior to examination.
3
transfer to a spine board prior to transport.
4
log-rolling the athlete to the supine position.

QUESTION 94
A coach of three football teams—the B team, junior varsity team, and varsity team—wants to study the
average times in the 40-yard dash for his players. Which test would help him determine if the mean 40-yard dash times for the athletes on one team are different from those on the other teams?
1
Independent 2-sample _t_ test
2
Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
3
Chi-square test
4
Fisher's exact test

QUESTION 95
Figures 1 through 6 reveal the radiographs and MR images of a 30-year-old man who has a 1-year history
of atraumatic medial-sided left knee pain refractory to nonsurgical measures. What is the most appropriate treatment?
---
---
---
---
---
---






1
Distal femoral varus osteotomy
2
Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)
3
Fresh osteochondral allograft (OCA) transplantation
4
Arthroscopic microfracture

QUESTION 96
A 19-year-old male collegiate rower has a 3-month history of right shoulder pain. There was no inciting trauma prior to the onset of his pain. He also complains of weakness, particularly in abduction and overhead activity. Examination reveals no range-of-motion deficits. Strength testing of the right shoulder demonstrates 4/5 motor strength in forward elevation and abduction. His Beighton hypermobility score is 3/9. Figure 1 shows his scapular position during a wall pushup maneuver. An EMG would likely reveal damage to what nerve?
---

1
Long thoracic nerve
2
Cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve)
3
Suprascapular nerve
4
Axillary nerve

QUESTION 97
A 16-year-old football player is participating in the second session of two-a-day preseason practices. He complains of dizziness and fatigue. He is brought to the sideline by the athletic trainer where examination
demonstrates confusion and disorientation. Ambient temperature is 82°F. What would be the next most appropriate step in his treatment?
1
Rapid cooling via ice bath, cold water and fans
2
Transportation via ambulance to a local emergency department
3
Rapid rehydration via oral and IV fluids
4
Immediate administration of acetaminophen or other anti-pyretics

QUESTION 98
What is the most common complication after surgical management of chronic exertional compartment
syndrome (CECS) in the pediatric (≤18 years) population?
1
Recurrent CECS
2
Infection
3
Neurologic dysfunction
4
Hematoma or seroma formation

QUESTION 99
In the pediatric population, CECS most commonly presents in females involved in running sports. In this cohort, recurrence occurs at a rate of 18%. Wound complications are the next most common at a rate of 11.2%.
A 15-year-old male ice hockey player is hit in the chest by a puck and immediately falls to the ground unconscious. What has been shown to predict survival in the treatment of this condition?
1
Use of chest protectors
2
Time to initiation of chest compressions
3
Lower velocity of the puck at impact
4
Time to defibrillation





Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon