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Orthopedic Sports Medic Review | Dr Hutaif Sports Medic -...

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Orthopedic MCQS online sports Medicine

QUESTION 1
A 38-year-old man has increasing left knee pain and occasional instability. Several years earlier he sustained a noncontact twisting injury to his knee. He had initial soreness and pain but was able to resume his normal activities while avoiding sports. On examination, he has medial joint line tenderness, a grade 2+ Lachman, and a slight varus thrust. His radiographs reveal mild-to-moderate medial compartment osteoarthritis with varus alignment. In addition to ligament reconstruction, what surgical treatment strategy is most likely to alleviate his pain and instability?
1
Distal femoral osteotomy
2
Total knee replacement
3
High tibial osteotomy (HTO), lateral closing wedge
4
HTO, medial opening wedge with decreased tibial slope
QUESTION 2
A 14-year-old girl has a head-on-head collision while playing basketball. She had no loss of consciousness but had persistent headaches for 2 weeks. The patient is now back to school and has no headaches. What is the best next step?
1
Return to full basketball activity
2
Start light aerobic activity
3
Obtain baseline neuropsychological testing
4
MRI scan of the brain
QUESTION 3
A 55-year-old woman with degenerative joint disease underwent total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA). She was doing well without complications at her 2-week visit (Figures 1 and 2). She returned at 6 weeks with increased pain, shoulder clicking, and difficulty with forward elevation and internal rotation. She recalls slipping, and to prevent a fall, moved her arm suddenly to grab a rail. New radiographs are shown in Figures 3 and
1
What is the best next step?
2
Revision to reverse shoulder arthroplasty
3
Electromyography
4
Subscapularis tendon repair
5
Closed reduction The patient underwent TSA. At her regular
QUESTION 4
Which factor increases the success rate associated with all-inside lateral meniscal repair?
1
Concomitant anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction
2
Concomitant medial meniscus repair
3
Older patient age
4
Varus knee alignment
QUESTION 5
A 39-year-old right-hand dominant woman presents with many years of right shoulder instability. She tried physical therapy several times over the years without any benefit. Figure 1 shows her current axillary radiograph. Figures 2 and 3 are representative MR arthrogram images. What is the best treatment plan?
1
Open Bankart repair and capsular shift
2
Arthroscopic anterior labral repair and remplissage
3
Coracoid transfer
4
Glenoid osteotomy
QUESTION 6
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a high school hockey player who is checked from behind and falls forward to the ice onto his flexed knees. He complains of swelling and posterior knee pain. Nonoperative treatment of the injured structure will most likely result in increased risk of degenerative change in
1
medial and patellofemoral compartments.
2
lateral and patellofemoral compartments.
3
medial compartment only.
4
patellofemoral compartment only.
QUESTION 7
A 32-year-old man with a history of seizure disorders is evaluated in the emergency department following a recent seizure. The patient complains of new onset shoulder pain following the seizure. After emergency department workup, he is discharged home. The patient follows up in the office 2 weeks after the seizure with continued shoulder pain. Radiographs obtained in the office are shown in Figures 1 through
4/. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Anterior instability
2
Acromioclavicular joint separation
3
Rotator cuff tear
4
Posterior instability
QUESTION 8
Injury to the structure noted with an arrow in the MRI in Figure 1 would lead to what clinical condition?
1
Pain in the elbow with resisted wrist flexion
2
Pain in the elbow with resisted wrist extension
3
Lateral elbow pain and instability with varus elbow force
4
Medial elbow pain and instability with valgus elbow force
QUESTION 9
A 54-year-old right-hand dominant man with a recent history of cervical lymph node biopsy for suspected metastatic melanoma complains of a 1-month history of atraumatic left shoulder pain and weakness. He has difficulty lifting objects overhead. He denies any neck pain or tingling/numbness in the extremities. He became concerned regarding the asymmetry he notices in the mirror (Figures 1 and 2). What physical examination finding is most likely to be seen? 7
1
Lateral scapular winging
2
Medial scapular winging
3
Triceps weakness
4
Deltoid atrophy
QUESTION 10
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 12-year-old right-hand dominant baseball pitcher who has had right shoulder pain for the past 3 months. He recalls no specific injury. Pain initially occurred only with throwing, but now is bothersome during daily activities. He denies neck pain, or extremity numbness or tingling. Examination demonstrates a BMI of 31.5, a mild decrease in passive glenohumeral internal rotation with a symmetric increase in external rotation, and normal neurovascular findings. What factor most is likely related to the patient’s pain?
8
1
Above average body weight
2
Use of breaking ball pitches
3
Number of innings pitched
4
Excessive glenohumeral external rotation
QUESTION 11
A coach of three football teams—the B team, junior varsity team, and varsity team—wants to study the average times in the 40-yard dash for his players. Which test would help him determine if the mean 40-yard dash times for the athletes on one team are different from those on the other teams?
1
Independent 2-sample t test
2
Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
3
Chi-square test
4
Fisher's exact test Data collected in research studies fall into one of two categories—continuous or discrete. Continuous data can be displayed on a curve. Examples include height, weight, and time recorded in a 40-yard dash. Discrete data represent data that fall into specific categories such as gender or the presence or absence of a risk factor. 9 ANOVA is used to determine statistical significance in mean values of continuous data when there are more than two independent samples. The
5
sample t test compares mean values of continuous data between two independent groups. The Chi-square test and Fisher's exact tests are tests used to analyze discrete data.
QUESTION 12
A 19-year-old female volleyball player presents after injuring her knee playing volleyball. She has had two prior anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction procedures; the first with bone-patellar-tendon autograft, the second procedure involved an Achilles allograft. She has a 2B Lachman examination and asymmetric high-grade pivot shift. MRI and CT scans are shown in Figures 1 through
1
She has instability with activities of daily living. What is the best next step in management?
2
Bone grafting and removal of hardware
3
Anterolateral ligament reconstruction
4
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of tibial plateau
5
Brace and return to play
QUESTION 13
A 25-year-old male professional lacrosse player collides with another player, with injury resulting from a knee impacting the athlete’s thigh. He has immediate pain in the mid-thigh area and is unable to return to the game because of difficulty with running. Examination reveals developing swelling in the anterior mid-thigh area. The thigh compartments are soft, and he is able to extend his knee against gravity. Knee flexion at 90° gives him discomfort in the thigh but no knee pain. The knee and hip examinations are otherwise unremarkable. Plain films of the femur are negative. What is the best next step?
1
Intracompartmental pressure monitoring
2
Immobilization of the knee in a flexed position
3
Fasciotomy of the thigh
4
MRI scan of the femur
QUESTION 14
The lesion seen in the MRI scan in Figure 1 is treated with a marrow stimulation technique. The reparative tissue formed by this technique is predominantly composed of
1
only type 1 collagen.
2
only type 2 collagen.
3
type 1 and type 2 collagen.
4
neither type 1 or type 2 collagen.
QUESTION 15
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 58-year-old retired laborer who has had many years of right shoulder pain. He initially experienced relief with anti-inflammatory medication over the past year, but this no longer provides him pain relief. He has pain with overhead activities and is dissatisfied with his shoulder function. Examination indicates active and passive forward elevation to 130°, full strength with external rotation, and a negative belly press test. MRI demonstrates an intact rotator cuff. What is the best next step in treatment?
1
Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA)
2
Hemiarthroplasty
3
Reverse shoulder arthroplasty
4
Arthroscopy with debridement and biceps tenodesis
QUESTION 16
According to the MRI scan shown in Figure 1, which pathologic finding is expected to be encountered during arthroscopy?
1
Figure 2
2
Figure 3
3
Figure 4
4
Figure 5 The sagittal MRI scan is a clear example of a double posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) sign. This sign has a high specificity for a displaced bucket handle tear of the medial meniscus as seen in Figure
5
The other arthroscopic
QUESTION 17
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 21-year-old football player who underwent anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with patellar tendon autograft 1 year ago. He reports mild stiffness in his knee. Upon examination, he has a negative Lachman test, trace effusion, and range of motion from 0 to 85° of knee flexion. Which factor is most contributory to his examination findings?
1
Incorrect graft choice
2
Improper tunnel position
3
Tibial graft-tunnel mismatch
4
Femoral fixation at 80° flexion
QUESTION 18
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a high school soccer player who sustained a right knee injury during a game while making a cut toward the ball. He felt a pop and his leg gave way. During physical examination, as the knee is moved from full extension into flexion with an internal rotation and valgus force, you notice a "clunk" within the knee. What is the most likely biomechanical basis for the "clunk"?
1
n extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the medial tibial plateau is subluxated; with flexion, the medial tibial plateau reduces.
2
In extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the medial tibial plateau is reduced; with flexion, the medial tibial plateau subluxates.
3
In extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the lateral tibial plateau is reduced; with flexion, the lateral plateau subluxates.
4
In extension with internal rotation/valgus force, the lateral tibial plateau is subluxated; with flexion, the lateral plateau reduces.
QUESTION 19
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 15-year-old boy who has had knee pain with running for 5 months. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Arthroscopic or open reduction and internal fixation
2
Arthroscopic loose body removal
3
Activity restriction for up to 9 months
4
Subchondral drilling
QUESTION 20
A 20-year-old division 1 collegiate football player presents with an acute left ankle injury. He states that as he was carrying the football, his left foot became trapped under another player while his body was rotated inward, causing a hyperexternal rotation moment to his ankle. He was unable to return to the game secondary to pain and inability to bear weight. Radiographs did not show any fracture. An external rotation stress radiograph is shown in Figure
1
In comparison to screw fixation, suture button fixation of this injury has demonstrated what clinical outcomes? 16
2
Decreased American Orthopaedic Foot and Ankle Society (AOFAS) scores at
3
year follow-up
4
Slower return to work
5
Increased rate of hardware removal
QUESTION 21
A 26-year-old weightlifter has increasing pain in his left shoulder for 4 months. Nonsurgical treatment consisting of anti-inflammatory medication, corticosteroid injections, and rest fails to alleviate his symptoms. He undergoes an arthroscopic distal clavicle resection with excision of the distal 8 mm of clavicle (Mumford procedure). Three months after surgery, he reports mild pain and popping by his clavicle. His clavicle demonstrates mild posterior instability on examination without any obvious deformity on his radiographs. What structures were
compromised during his excision? 17
1
Anterior and superior acromioclavicular joint ligaments
2
Posterior and superior acromioclavicular joint ligaments
3
Conoid ligament
4
Trapezoid ligament
QUESTION 22
Figures 1 and 2 are the T2-weighted MRI scans of a 54-year-old woman with medial knee pain and catching of 6 months’ duration. What treatment option is most likely to be associated with a favorable outcome?
1
Physical therapy
2
Meniscal repair
3
Meniscectomy
4
Reconstruction
QUESTION 23
A 24-year-old semiprofessional baseball player has noted increasing medial elbow pain for the past 2 months. This has been associated with a concomitant loss in velocity and control. He denies pain, numbness, or tingling in the hand or digits. Examination demonstrates medial elbow tenderness and swelling. Elbow range of motion is full. There is pain with milking maneuver and valgus stress test. Tinel’s sign is negative over the cubital tunnel, and there is no ulnar nerve subluxation. His MRI scan is shown in Figure
1
After thorough discussion, the player elects to undergo surgical intervention. What surgical variable has been associated with inferior outcomes?
2
Use of palmaris autograft
3
Ulnar nerve transposition
4
Muscle-splitting approach
5
Use of a docking technique
QUESTION 24
A 19-year-old collegiate lacrosse player stumbles to the sideline after a collision with an opposing player during the first quarter of a game. She complains of dizziness and is disoriented to place and time. She initially shows disturbances in balance. The player is diagnosed as having sustained a concussion and is removed from the rest of the game. What should the coaching staff be advised of regarding the player’s return to activity?
1
The player should be kept in dark, quiet rooms until she returns to baseline function.
2
The player is eligible to return to play tomorrow if she remains symptom-free.
3
The player needs to show return to baseline computerized neuropsychological scores and then is cleared to play.
4
The player can return to sub-symptom threshold light aerobic exercise after 24 to 48 hours if symptom-free.
QUESTION 25
A 16-year-old female high school soccer player presents with more than one year of bilateral anterior and lateral lower extremity pain, tightness and a heavy feeling in her lower legs that starts 5 minutes after she begins running and resolves about 10 to 15 minutes after she stops. She describes feeling as though her foot slaps down on the ground when she is running. She failed extensive nonsurgical management and was ultimately indicated for surgery. At the time of endoscopically assisted treatment of this condition, damage to the structure identified by an asterisk in Figure 1 would result in what complication?
21
1
Postoperative hematoma
2
Medial leg numbness
3
Weakness of foot eversion
4
Dorsal foot numbness
QUESTION 26
Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of a 57-year-old man who dislocated his left shoulder after a fall while playing tennis. On examination, he had full passive shoulder range of motion, but he was unable to actively elevate his injured shoulder. Sensation was intact to light touch over the lateral shoulder. What is the most likely etiology of his shoulder weakness?
22
1
Axillary nerve injury
2
Cervical radiculopathy involving the C6 nerve root
3
Massive rotator cuff tear with loss of the transverse force couple
4
Long head of the biceps tendon rupture with loss of superior stabilizing effect
QUESTION 27
A 14-year-old gymnast misses her dismount off of the uneven bars, hits the mat face first, and loses consciousness for about 15 seconds. She is dazed and confused for several minutes. She does not complain of pain, numbness, or weakness and she is moving all extremities without deficit. The athlete and coach would like to return to competition that day. What is the best next step?
1
Advise that loss of consciousness precludes same day return to play.
2
Order an urgent MRI scan; if findings are normal, she can return to play.
3
Order neurocognitive testing; if findings are normal, she can return to play.
4
If she is symptom-free after a 15-minute exertional test, she may return to play.
QUESTION 28
A 19-year-old linebacker underwent a coracoid transfer procedure for recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability. At his 1-week postsurgical check-up, his incision is healing well; however, he reports numbness over the lateral aspect of his forearm. What nerve may have been injured during his surgery?
1
Axillary
2
Median
3
Musculocutaneous
4
Radial
QUESTION 29
A 32-year-old volleyball player has dull posterior shoulder pain. An examination reveals moderate external rotation weakness with his arm at his side but normal strength on supraspinatus isolation. Deltoid and supraspinatus bulk appear normal, although there appears to be mild infraspinatus atrophy. Sensation is normal throughout the shoulder and shoulder girdle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Calcified transverse scapular ligament
2
Parsonage-Turner syndrome
3
Spinoglenoid notch cyst
4
Quadrilateral space syndrome
QUESTION 30
A patient underwent a right hip arthroscopy, CAM resection, and labral repair while positioned supine on a fracture table with a perineal post. The leg was in traction for 4 hours, and no intrasurgical complications were noted. At the 2‐week follow‐up appointment, the patient was experiencing numbness and tingling in the perineum on the surgical side and noted pain predominantly while sitting. What is the likely cause of these symptoms?
25
1
Traction injury to the sciatic nerve
2
Traction injury to the femoral nerve
3
Compression injury to the pudendal nerve
4
Direct injury to the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
QUESTION 31
An 18-year-old female collegiate soccer player presents with right knee pain and swelling after a noncontact pivoting injury during a game. Four years prior, she underwent successful anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with hamstring autograft on the same knee. Physical examination and MRI scan are consistent with ACL graft rupture without associated meniscal tears. What statement can be made about the graft options in counseling this patient on revision ACL reconstruction?
1
Two-year sports function, as measured by International Knee Documentation Committee (IKDC), is better with allograft.
2
At 1-year follow-up, there is greater knee laxity with the use of autograft.
3
There is a higher infection rate with autograft.
4
Risk of graft rerupture is higher with allograft.
QUESTION 32
An investigation studying whether physical therapy or subacromial injection can be successfully used to treat shoulder pain is conducted. Two groups are identified. One group is prescribed physical therapy, while the other receives a subacromial injection. The groups have similar baseline demographics and shoulder pathologies. Ten patients are randomized in each group and findings show that there is no significant difference in any patient-reported outcome measure. An increase in sample size would reduce the risk of what parameter?
1
Type I error
2
Type II error
3
Selection bias
4
Recall bias
QUESTION 33
A football player injures his knee when he is tackled and falls awkwardly. He does not note any discreet “pop,” but pain prevents him from returning to the game. An effusion is noted the following day and an MRI scan is ordered. Selected images are shown in Figures 1 through
1
Based on these images, physical examination findings likely include 27
2
positive Lachman test, normal posterior drawer, positive pivot shift.
3
positive Lachman test, positive posterior drawer, negative pivot shift.
4
normal Lachman test, positive posterior drawer, positive pivot shift.
5
normal Lachman test, positive posterior drawer, negative pivot shift.
QUESTION 34
A 20-year-old collegiate pitcher has had increasing pain over his medial elbow for 3 months. He has point tenderness over his medial epicondyle and reproduction of his symptoms with a moving valgus stress test. What phase of the throwing cycle most likely will reproduce his symptoms?
1
Early cocking
2
Late cocking
3
Acceleration
4
Deceleration
QUESTION 35
Figures 1 and 2 are radiographs of a 25-year-old man who has had persistent right hip pain for over a year. There was an acute injury and the pain has progressively worsened and is now 9/10 in severity. The pain interferes with activities of daily living and the patient's capacity to participate in sports. The patient has failed nonsurgical treatment in the form of physical therapy and activity modification. On physical examination, forward flexion is limited to 90°, internal rotation is limited to 10°, and flexion adduction internal rotation examination is positive. The hip pain was relieved on physical examination after intra-articular administration of local anesthetic. The patient had an MRI and CT scan. What is the most appropriate surgical option?
1
Hip arthroscopy with labral repair, rim trimming and femoral osteochondroplasty
2
Hip arthroscopy with labral repair and periacetabular osteotomy with femoral osteochondroplasty
3
Open surgical hip dislocation with labral repair, rim trimming and femoral osteochondroplasty
4
Hip arthroscopy with labral repair and reverse periacetabular osteotomy with femoral osteochondroplasty
QUESTION 36
Videos 1 and 2 are the coronal plane MRI scan and arthroscopic evaluation of a 48-year-old woman with 2 weeks of posterior knee pain after feeling a “pop” in the knee while climbing stairs. Physical examination reveals passive range of motion of +5° to 120°, with pain limiting her in terminal extension. Failure of surgical repair of the injured structure is most associated with
1
poor vascularity of the injured tissue.
2
BMI >35 kg/m^2.
3
valgus alignment >5°.
4
repair technique. 30
QUESTION 37
A 47-year-old man who is an avid tennis player and laborer has had one year of shoulder pain and weakness. His pain occurs at night and radiates to the deltoid laterally. The patient denies any anterior based pain. He reports no prior surgeries and has been managed with steroid injections and physical therapy. On examination, he has full passive motion with significant weakness with external rotation. His neurologic examination is unremarkable. MRI evaluation reveals a posterior- superior rotator cuff tear with Goutallier grade 4 fatty infiltrate in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with retraction beyond the glenoid. He is concerned about the lack of rotation of his arm and reports that this disability creates significant disability with his occupation as a mason. What is the best next step?
1
Shoulder arthroscopy and subacromial decompression
2
Tendon transfer
3
Total shoulder arthroplasty
4
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
QUESTION 38
A multicenter prospective study of 7,500 patients that assesses differences in rerupture rates after anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using hamstring autograft shows a decreased rate of rerupture when the graft diameter is >9.0 mm versus <9.0 mm (p = 0.05). A follow-up study done at a single institution of 200 patients fails to show any difference in rerupture rates based upon graft size. If the multicenter trial is assumed to be accurate, which statistical error occurred in the follow-up study?
1
Type-I error
2
Type-II error
3
Selection bias
4
Alpha error
QUESTION 39
A 17-year-old male soccer player sustains repeated lateral patellar dislocations refractory to physical therapy, bracing, and taping. After a workup including radiographs and MRI, the orthopaedic surgeon considers an isolated tibial tubercle osteotomy (TTO). A 60-degree anteromedialization is planned to address instability and to unload the patellofemoral joint. What is a relative contraindication to this procedure?
1
Grade III chondrosis of the proximal patella
2
Caton-Deschamps ratio of 1:1
3
Tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 21 mm
4
Q angle of 17°
QUESTION 40
During preseason training camp, a 23-year-old football player comes to the sideline complaining of nausea, dizziness and headache after a
1
mile run. Vital signs include blood pressure 110/80, heart rate 115 bpm and core body temperature of 39°C (102°F). He is otherwise alert and oriented. What is the recommended initial treatment?
2
Immediate ice water bath immersion
3
Immediate return to training
4
Rehydration with a carbohydrate- electrolyte beverage
5
Emergent transportation to a local emergency department
QUESTION 41
Surgical repair of the injury shown in the MRI scans in Figures 1 through 4 through a single-incision approach has a higher incidence of
33
1
heterotopic ossification.
2
posterior interosseous nerve injury.
3
secondary surgery.
4
lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve injury.
QUESTION 42
Figure 1 is the T2 coronal MRI scan of a 52-year-old woman with a 6- month history of shoulder pain. She does not recall a history of trauma. Physical therapy is recommended. What is the most significant predictor of failure of nonoperative treatment?
1
Tear size
2
Pain scale score
3
Strength deficit
4
Patient expectations
QUESTION 43
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 51-year-old active man who injured his right shoulder after a fall while sailing 4 days ago. Optimal surgical management of the patient’s pathology is expected to involve
35
1
supraspinatus, infraspinatus and subscapularis repair and biceps tenodesis.
2
supraspinatus and subscapularis repair and biceps tenodesis.
3
supraspinatus and infraspinatus repair.
4
supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor repair.
QUESTION 44
A 16-year-old swimmer has right shoulder pain with activity. She describes the continued sensation that her shoulder is "loose." She has been in physical therapy for 7 months to work on strengthening the muscles around her shoulder and scapula. She denies being able to voluntarily dislocate her shoulder. Upon examination, you can feel the humeral head slide over the glenoid rim both anteriorly and posteriorly with the load and shift test. She has a grade III sulcus sign. What is the most appropriate next step?
1
Arthroscopic superior labrum anterior to superior repair
2
Arthroscopic Bankart repair
3
Latarjet procedure
4
Capsulorrhaphy
QUESTION 45
A 12-year-old boy who plays multiple sports has had insidious-onset heel pain while running for 4 months. On examination, he had ankle dorsiflexion of 5°. The squeeze test result was positive and the Thompson test result was negative. He has no pain with forced ankle plantar flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Achilles rupture
2
Gastrocnemius strain
3
Calcaneal apophysitis
4
Os trigonum syndrome
QUESTION 46
A 21-year-old female cross-country runner is brought to the medical tent after completing her run. The race took place during an unseasonably warm day in August. The patient is disoriented upon her arrival to the tent and cannot state the exact date. What is the next most appropriate course of action?
37
1
Administration of intravenous fluids
2
Immediate transport by ambulance to the closest hospital
3
Immersion in a cold-water ice bath
4
Temperature check with an oral thermometer
QUESTION 47
A 14-year-old male high school wrestler presents to the training room with the lesions seen in Figures 1 and
1
He reports that he had a low-grade fever last week. Prior to the appearance of the lesions, he was experiencing some itching and burning in the affected area. What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
2
Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
3
Oral acyclovir
4
Oral fluconazole
5
Topical mupirocin
QUESTION 48
A 24-year-old former high school wrestler had anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with hamstring autograft 6 years ago. He now experiences daily instability of his knee with routine activities including walking. Examination reveals a grade 3+ Lachman test with a soft endpoint, varus laxity at 30°, and a positive dial test at 30° that dissipates at 90° of knee flexion. He has mild medial joint line tenderness. When walking, there is a slight varus thrust. Radiographic alignment is neutral. What treatment is most likely to lead to a successful outcome?
1
Revision ACL reconstruction
2
Revision ACL reconstruction and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction
3
Revision ACL reconstruction and posteromedial corner reconstruction
4
Revision ACL reconstruction and posterolateral corner reconstruction
QUESTION 49
Figure 1 is the anteroposterior radiograph of a 20-year-old dancer who fell during his routine and injured his right foot. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Closed reduction and cast
2
Open reduction and internal fixation
3
In situ percutaneous pinning
4
Posterior splint immobilization and controlled ankle motion (CAM) walker ambulation
QUESTION 50
A 38-year-old woman underwent left knee anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with patellar tendon autograft and medial meniscus repair 11 years ago. She has no complaints of instability since surgery. She presents with left knee pain, swelling and the inability to extend her knee after getting up from a kneeling position one week prior. She reports feeling a pop in her knee at the time of injury. On examination she lacks 5° of extension and has a symmetric Lachman test. Figure 1 is the radiograph of her knee. Figures 2 through 4 show the findings at the time of arthroscopy. What is the most appropriate treatment?
40
1
artial lateral meniscectomy
2
Revision ACL reconstruction and medial meniscus repair
3
Lateral meniscus repair
4
Partial medial meniscectomy
QUESTION 51
A 19-year-old running back lands directly on his anterior knee after being tackled. He has mild anterior knee pain, a trace effusion, a 2+ posterior drawer, a grade 1A Lachman, no valgus laxity, and negative dial tests at 30° and 90°. What is the best treatment strategy at this time?
1
Physical therapy with a focus on quadriceps strengthening
2
Physical therapy and delayed posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction
3
PCL reconstruction
4
PCL and posterolateral corner reconstruction
QUESTION 52
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 61-year-old man who had left shoulder pain with a massive rotator cuff tear. Active forward elevation was 120°. Arthroscopic examination revealed that the rotator cuff tear was irreparable. The articular surfaces of the glenohumeral joint have a normal appearance without significant degenerative changes. What is the most appropriate treatment option for pain relief in this patient?
1
Biceps tenotomy
2
Loose body removal
3
Latissimus dorsi transfer
4
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
QUESTION 53
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 52-year-old runner who has right knee pain that has been occurring 10 minutes into her run for 2 months. On examination, she has tenderness over the lateral epicondyle. Her Ober test result is positive. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
1
liotibial band bursectomy
2
Z-lengthening of the iliotibial band
3
Partial excision of the iliotibial band
4
Home stretching program and cross training
QUESTION 54
A 43-year-old mechanic presents with acute onset right elbow pain after attempting to lift a heavy car bumper while at work during which he felt an immediate sharp pain and snapping sensation deep within the elbow. An MRI scan of his injury is shown in Figure
1
When considering operative management for this injury, what operative technique has been shown to increase supination strength?
2
Utilization of the single-incision technique
3
Repairing the tendon in an ulnar position on the radial tuberosity footprint with the forearm in supination
4
Repairing the tendon through a bone-tunnel technique
5
Utilizing a cortical suspensory button for tendon fixation
QUESTION 55
A 21-year-old Division 1 collegiate track and field athlete has had acute worsening right anterior shin pain for the past week. He reports having shin pain since sophomore year of high school but has continued to run through the pain. Upon presentation, he was diagnosed with a tibial stress fracture and underwent 8 weeks of nonoperative treatment and correction of vitamin D levels. His follow-up radiograph is shown in Figure
1
In counseling the patient about his surgical treatment options, what information should be discussed regarding the risks of compression plating versus intramedullary (IM) nailing in the treatment of this injury? 45
2
Compression plating results in a lower rate of symptomatic hardware.
3
IM nailing allows for faster time to radiographic union.
4
Risk of fracture progression or completion is greater after compression plating.
5
There is a lower rate of anterior knee pain after compression plating.
QUESTION 56
A star high school pitcher comes to see you in clinic for shoulder pain with throwing. He has been a pitcher since Little League. He has had pain for approximately one year, typically not during normal activities. On examination, his scapula is protracted on his throwing arm, and he has a positive Mayo dynamic shear test. Figure 1 shows the point in the throwing motion when he is having pain. Figure 2 is an arthroscopic image from the posterior portal. What phenomenon is most directly responsible for the findings on examination and on arthroscopic evaluation?
46
1
Subacromial impingement
2
Internal impingement
3
Anterior instability
4
Posterior instability
QUESTION 57
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 16-year-old high school football player who sustained a traumatic dominant shoulder dislocation during a game. On-field reduction was unsuccessful. The shoulder is reduced in the emergency department, and the player and his family follow-up in clinic. Which factor is most associated with failure of surgical treatment in this scenario?
47
1
Dominant shoulder
2
Age
3
Size of labral tear
4
Periosteal stripping
QUESTION 58
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 13-year-old right-hand dominant male baseball pitcher who presents with new onset right shoulder pain. Over the past month, he has participated in several tournaments. He was unable to complete his most recent game secondary to continued pain while throwing. Examination reveals a healthy, adolescent male in no apparent distress. Range-of-motion examination of the bilateral shoulders is symmetric with mild pain at the end points of motion. He reports pain on palpation over the lateral aspect of his deltoid. What pathologic process is most likely responsible for this patient's pain?
1
Posterior capsular tightness
2
Excessive humeral retroversion
3
Internal impingement of the articular side of supraspinatus
4
Microtrauma to proximal humeral physis
QUESTION 59
A 25-year-old woman has lower leg pain during exercise without numbness, tingling, or weakness. The symptoms resolve within 45 minutes of exercise cessation. Compartment pressure measurements obtained 1 minute after exercise are shown in Figure
1
She undergoes anterior compartment fasciotomy with complete resolution of symptoms. Two years later, she has recurrent pain and tightness with exercise. Radiographs, a technetium bone scan, and noninvasive vascular study findings are normal. Compartment pressure measurements obtained 1 minute after exercise are shown in Figure
2
What is the most likely etiology for her recurrent symptoms?
3
Misdiagnosis
4
Hematoma formation
5
Postsurgical fibrosis
QUESTION 60
Figure 1 is the T2 axial MRI scan of a 21-year-old man who was injured while playing for his college football team. His pain was aggravated with blocking maneuvers and alleviated with rest, and he had to stop playing because of the pain. What examination maneuver most likely will reproduce his pain?
1
Forward elevation in the scapular plane
2
External rotation and abduction
3
Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
4
Flexion and abduction
QUESTION 61
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 55-year-old man who has a 3-year history of right shoulder pain. He has maximized nonoperative management and is interested in operative treatment. He had an open Bankart repair 20 years ago and did well until a few years ago. What is most important to know when deciding on the best surgical treatment for this patient?
1
Range of motion
2
Infraspinatus strength
3
Activity level
4
Quality of the subscapularis
QUESTION 62
Which group experiences the highest rate of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears?
1
Female athletes with valgus knee alignment and small femoral notch width
2
Female athletes with valgus knee alignment and large ACL width
3
Male athletes with valgus knee alignment and small ACL width
4
Male athletes with varus knee alignment and small femoral notch width
QUESTION 63
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 20-year-old Division I baseball pitcher who has a 1-month history of medial elbow pain in his throwing arm. He also notes a decrease in both control and pitching velocity. An examination reveals tenderness at the medial epicondyle that is exacerbated with valgus elbow stress. The strongest indication for ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction is
1
progressive ulnar neuropathy.
2
a decision to enter the Major League Baseball (MLB) draft.
3
pain with resisted wrist flexion.
4
failure to improve after prolonged nonsurgical treatment.
QUESTION 64
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a patient with recurrent knee instability, which persists after a period of nonsurgical treatment. Anatomic reconstruction of the torn ligament is recommended. What radiographic finding is the most important independent predictor of recurrent instability following surgery?
1
Tibial tubercle to trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance
2
Patella alta
3
Tibial slope
4
Trochlear dysplasia
QUESTION 65
An otherwise healthy 31-year-old man has had right knee pain for the past 9 months. His former physician administered a cortisone injection and ordered 6 months of physical therapy. The patient later had an arthroscopy with debridement of the right knee by another physician and completed another course of physical therapy. He had minimal relief from these treatments and still is not able to walk longer distances or go on hikes. On examination, he is a healthy appearing male with a body mass index of 24 kg/m2. He has a small effusion, minimal quadriceps atrophy, no 53
tenderness about the knee, full range of motion, stable to varus and valgus stress at 30° of flexion, a grade 1 Lachman test, and a normal posterior drawer. Figures 1 through 4 are his arthroscopic views, radiograph and MRI scan from his prior surgical procedure. What is the next most appropriate step in treatment?
1
Bracing with physical therapy focusing on quadriceps/vastus medialis obliquus (VMO) and hamstring strengthening
2
Osteotomy
3
Osteochondral allograft transplant
4
Arthroscopy with femoral condyle microfracture
QUESTION 66
The lesion noted on the MRI scans in Figures 1 through 3 leads to what effect on tibiofemoral contact pressure?
1
Increased medial compartment contact pressures worsening in extension
2
Increased medial compartment contact pressures worsening in flexion
3
Increased lateral compartment contact pressures worsening in extension
4
Increased lateral compartment contact pressures worsening in flexion
QUESTION 67
A 45-year-old postmenopausal smoker with a body mass index (BMI) of 22 has had severe knee pain for the past year. The pain has been progressing and the patient is now only able to perform activities of daily living. Knee radiographs reveal medial compartment osteoarthritis without any involvement of the patellofemoral joint or the lateral compartment. What is the contraindication for a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) in this patient?
1
Smoking status
2
Postmenopausal status
3
BMI
4
Radiographic findings
QUESTION 68
In an asymptomatic athlete, what condition represents an absolute contraindication to returning to contact or collision sports?
1
Healed one-level anterior cervical fusion
2
Congenital atlanto-occipital fusion
3
Cervical disk herniation previously treated nonoperatively
4
Spina bifida occulta
QUESTION 69
Based on the injury shown on the axial MRI scan of the shoulder in Figure 1, what other pathology should be closely examined for during surgery?
1
Subscapularis tear
2
Supraspinatus tear
3
Superior labral anterior- posterior (SLAP) tear
4
Bankart tear
QUESTION 70
Figures 1 through 4 are the MRI scans of a 24-year-old former collegiate basketball player who injured his left knee while playing recreational basketball 10 days prior to presentation. He landed from a jump awkwardly and reported that his knee gave out. He heard a pop at the time of injury and was unable to continue playing. He complains of medial and lateral knee pain and difficulty with weight bearing. On physical examination, he has a moderate effusion and his range of motion is from 10° to 80°. Ligament examination reveals a 2B Lachman, negative posterior drawer as well as negative varus and valgus stress testing. What is the diagnosis?
1
Meniscus tear
2
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
3
ACL tear and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
4
ACL tear and medial meniscus tear
QUESTION 71
A 49-year-old marathon runner is unable to continue running at the 18-mile marker. The ambient temperature is 28°C (82°F) with a relative humidity of 80%. Concern for heat-related illness prompts immediate recooling efforts, including ice, fans and oral rehydration. What symptom should most strongly urge transfer to a hospital or other definitive treatment facility?
1
Core body temperature of 39ºC (102ºF)
2
Confusion
3
Nausea/vomiting
4
Headache
QUESTION 72
A 16-year-old female basketball player sustains a re-tear of her anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Her physical examination reveals a 3+ Lachman and 2+ pivot shift. Her range of motion is 10° of hyperextension to 130° of flexion. Radiographs reveal her ACL inclination angle to be 50°, tibial slope, 7°, and her physes are closed. What finding has been associated with an increased risk graft failure?
59
1
Hyperextension
2
Flexion
3
Tibial slope
4
ACL inclination angle
QUESTION 73
A 20-year-old collegiate running back lowers his head to absorb a hit and is tackled to the ground. He is able to get up immediately and return to the sidelines on his own power but reports to the medical staff that he felt a burning sensation in his left shoulder, arm, and hand for 15 seconds following the hit. The feeling has since resolved. This is the first time this sensation has occurred. Examination on the sidelines reveals full and painless neck range of motion and normal and symmetric strength throughout the upper and lower extremity. What is the best next course of action?
1
Removal from the game with additional physical examination and continued monitoring of symptoms
2
Removal from the game with placement of cervical immobilization
3
Urgent MRI scan
4
Return to play without restrictions
QUESTION 74
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 14-year-old girl with increasing posterior ankle pain, especially during pointe technique exercises. Nonsurgical measures such as modification, stretching, and injection have been unsuccessful. Which nerve is most vulnerable to injury during endoscopic excision of this lesion?
1
Sural
2
Deep peroneal
3
Medial plantar
4
Posterior tibial
QUESTION 75
A 65-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain and weakness after failing extensive nonoperative treatment. Physical examination shows full passive range of motion, weakness with shoulder abduction, pain on palpation of the acromioclavicular (AC) joint and with cross-body adduction. Radiographs of the affected shoulder show evidence of AC joint osteoarthritis and an MRI scan reveals a full-thickness, reparable supraspinatus tear. A preoperative diagnostic lidocaine injection transiently improves the patient’s pain in the AC joint. In comparison with rotator cuff repair alone, at 2-year follow-up, distal clavicle excision for this patient’s condition has been shown to
1
decrease AC joint pain.
2
improve range of motion in forward elevation.
3
have no difference in patient-oriented outcome scores.
4
decrease the need for repeat surgery.
QUESTION 76
A 68-year-old man with a history of degenerative joint disease is taken to the operating room for a right total shoulder arthroplasty. Figure 1 is the clinical photograph of the deltopectoral incision. Excessive retraction using the Kolbel self-retaining retractor would most likely result in what functional deficit?
1
Shoulder abduction weakness
2
Shoulder external rotation weakne
3
Elbow flexion weakness
4
Wrist extension weakness
QUESTION 77
Figure 1 is an arthroscopic view of the intercondylar notch of a right knee from an anterolateral portal. What is the main function of the structure delineated by the black asterisks?
62
1
Resist anterior translation during knee flexion
2
Resist posterior translation during knee flexion
3
Resist rotatory loads during knee flexion
4
Resist rotatory loads during knee extension
QUESTION 78
A 58-year-old woman returns for an evaluation of right knee pain after a twisting injury. A small pop was felt at the time of injury. Her pain is medial and she is unable to bear weight. A complete physical examination demonstrated range of motion is 0°to 125°; significant medial joint line tenderness; negative flexion McMurray; negative Lachman; stable to varus and valgus stress at 0° and 30° and negative posterior drawer. Based on her history, physical examination, and the MRI scan shown in Figure 1, what is the diagnosis?
1
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
2
Horizontal tear of posterior horn of medial meniscus
3
Posterior root tear of medial meniscus
4
Anterior root tear of medial meniscus
QUESTION 79
A 30-year-old woman complains of medial knee pain 15 years after a meniscectomy. Radiographs show her affected knee to be 8° varus while her contralateral knee shows 3° varus. What is the goal of performing a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) on this patient?
1
Increase tibial slope
2
Decrease tibial slope
3
Decrease compartment pressure in medial compartment
4
Increase varus thrust moment arm
QUESTION 80
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 65-year-old man with long-standing shoulder pain who has had acute worsening shoulder pain over the past three months following a fall. He is unable to raise his arm in forward elevation >90° and has failed nonsurgical treatments including physical therapy. What is the most predictable way to reverse pseudoparalysis?
64
1
Reverse shoulder arthroplasty (RSA)
2
Superior capsular reconstruction
3
Rotator cuff repair
4
Lower trapezius muscle transfer
QUESTION 81
A 13-year-old football player sustains the injury shown in the AP and axillary radiographs in Figures 1 and
1
When deciding between operative and nonoperative treatment, what risk factor is most associated with poorer outcomes with nonoperative treatment?
2
Displacement
3
Angulation
4
Skeletal age of the patient
5
Playing contact sports
QUESTION 82
A patient is considering treatment of knee pain with bone marrow aspirate versus platelet-rich plasma. Which factor has been shown to be higher in bone marrow aspirate in comparison with platelet-rich plasma?
1
Interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra)
2
Platelet-derived growth factor
3
CD-40 cell surface marker
4
Matrix metalloprotease
QUESTION 83
A 65-year-old woman complains of right shoulder pain. She has been diagnosed with a full-thickness rotator cuff tear. She has failed nonsurgical measures including physical therapy, corticosteroid injections, and oral pain medication. She is considering platelet-rich plasma (PRP) injections to the shoulder in conjunction with rotator cuff repair. What should the patient be informed of regarding PRP injections in this setting?
1
There is good evidence to suggest that PRP injections help heal full-thickness rotator cuff tears nonoperatively.
2
The use of PRP injections during rotator cuff repair is associated with decreased pain scores.
3
There remains a lack of evidence to support the use of PRP in rotator cuff repair.
4
Leukocyte-depleted PRP is more efficacious in healing rotator cuff tears than leuckocyte-enhanced PRP.
QUESTION 84
An 18-year-old male wrestler is injured while picking up an opponent over his head. Witnesses observed his knee buckle out from under him. He is immediately taken to the hospital. On physical examination, his knee is swollen and grossly unstable in multiple planes. Radiographs reveal a located joint without fracture. Distal pulses are palpable. What is the best next step?
67
1
Measure compartment pressures.
2
Order a knee MRI scan.
3
Perform ankle-brachial index (ABI).
4
Go to surgery for urgent stabilization of the knee.
QUESTION 85
Figure 1 is the clinical photograph and Video 1 is the nonarthrographic sagittal plane MRI scan of a 23-year-old male active duty Marine who presents with 3 months of pain and weakness in his nondominant arm. He states that he had rapid onset of “severe” left shoulder pain, which has recently subsided followed closely by weakness in that arm. There was no antecedent trauma that he can recall. Upon further questioning, he states he had one episode of a brief cold sometime prior to the development of symptoms, but he is uncertain. On examination, he is weak in forward flexion and external rotation at 0° of abduction, but otherwise he is neurologically intact. The EMG result is abnormal. What is the best next step?
1
Physical therapy for range-of-motion and periscapular muscle treatment
2
Arthroscopic labrum repair and paralabral cyst decompression
3
Radiographs and MRI scan of the cervical spine
4
Arthroscopic transverse scapular ligament release
QUESTION 86
When performing an arthroscopic Bankart repair in the lateral decubitus position, a surgeon notes a patulous capsule and a very lax anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament. The surgeon decides that in addition to simply repairing the torn labrum, a capsular shift should be performed. The surgeon instructs the fellow assisting to take a “nice, big bite” of the capsule in this region to tighten the capsule upon repair. Which postoperative complication is most likely a result of this maneuver?
1
Weakness with shoulder abduction
2
Weakness with shoulder external rotation with arm at side
3
Weakness with wrist extension
4
Numbness at the lateral aspect of the forearm
QUESTION 87
Figure 1 is a representative MRI scan of a 45-year-old man who was lifting a couch 2 days ago when he felt a pop in the elbow and had immediate pain in this area. He had no problems with the elbow prior to this injury. Examination reveals full range of motion; however, he has significant bruising and swelling in the antecubital fossa. A hook test is positive. If choosing to perform single-incision surgical repair for this injury, what is the most common complication associated with this procedure?
1
Injury to the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve
2
Injury to the radial nerve
3
Radioulnar synostosis
4
Tendon re-tear
QUESTION 88
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 26-year-old man who injured his knee wrestling one day prior. He has a moderate effusion, medial knee pain and an inability to extend his knee actively or passively. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment option?
1
Physical therapy
2
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction
3
Attempted meniscus repair
4
Knee aspiration and manipulation under anesthesia
QUESTION 89
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 15-year-old boy who sustained an injury to his shoulder after a fall while playing soccer. Following completion of a month-long rehabilitation program, he is able to tolerate sports-specific drills without symptoms. The patient is eager to return to play, as it is mid-season. How should the patient be counseled?
72
1
Patient should not return to play mid-season and should undergo arthroscopic stabilization of the Bankart lesion.
2
Patient may return to play: however, he should be counseled on a moderate risk for recurrence.
3
Patient may not return to play this season, as the patient has evidence of significant glenoid bone loss on MRI scan.
4
Patient may return to play, however, only after a repeat MRI arthrogram confirms interval healing of the Bankart lesion.
QUESTION 90
Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of a 28-year-old woman who has left knee pain and instability 10 days after a fall while skiing. The injury occurred when her ski became stuck in deep snow. Her shoe did not pop off and she pivoted around her ski. She was unable to continue skiing. She reports pain with weight bearing and the feeling of instability. On physical examination, she demonstrates a positive Lachman, 2+ opening to valgus stress at 0° and 30° of knee flexion without an end point. Her knee range of motion is 3° to 120°, and she has a trace effusion. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?
73
1
Immediate anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction and medial collateral ligament (MCL) repair
2
Immediate ACL and MCL reconstruction
3
Immediate MCL reconstruction and delayed ACL reconstruction
4
Nonoperative management of the MCL and delayed ACL reconstruction
QUESTION 91
What examination findings are most consistent with the pathology seen in the radiographs?
1
Pain with resisted hip flexion
2
Pain with a half sit-up, plus tenderness at the pubic ramus
3
Pain with a combination of hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
4
Tenderness to palpation at the greater trochanter
QUESTION 92
A 15-year-old football player was diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis 2 weeks ago. Today he states that he is relatively asymptomatic and would like to return to play. At what point can the patient return to full contact practice?
1
Now if splenomegaly has resolved
2
Now if treated with oral valacyclovir
3
In 2 weeks if splenomegaly has resolved
4
After a 4-week course of oral valacyclovir
QUESTION 93
During knee arthroscopy, you discover an irreparable complete radial tear of the medial meniscus. After partial medial meniscectomy what should be the primary concern?
1
Lateral meniscal tear
2
Accelerated medial compartment degeneration
3
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
4
Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
QUESTION 94
A 19-year-old college runner presents complaining of bilateral leg pain during activity. There is no history of trauma, but symptoms have occurred in some degree since her sophomore year of high school. She notes pain after running for 5 to 10 minutes and localizes her discomfort to anterolateral aspects of both legs. This pain resolves within 30 to 45 minutes after running. She denies any pain, numbness or tingling in either foot. There is no pain with routine daily activities. Examination at rest is normal; specifically, there is no tenderness, swelling, masses, or edema. Plain radiographs are unremarkable. A course of anti- inflammatory medication and physical therapy is unsuccessful. The next most appropriate diagnostic study would be
1
three-phase bone scan.
2
compartment pressure measurements.
3
angiography.
4
MRI scan.
QUESTION 95
A 25-year-old professional soccer player presents with a chief complaint of left ankle pain. He has a history of a grade 3 lateral ankle sprain that was treated nonsurgically with rest and physical therapy approximately 4 months ago but has yet to return to play. He continues to report lateral-sided ankle pain and a mechanical snapping sensation. A current MRI scan is shown in Figure
1
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
2
Lateral ligament reconstruction (Brostrom procedure)
3
Superior retinacular reconstruction with fibular groove deepening
4
Syndesmosis repair with suture button fixation
5
Diagnostic arthroscopy, synovectomy and microfracture
QUESTION 96
The ABER (abducted and externally rotated) position in the shoulder MRI scan shown in Figure 1 can be helpful in identifying a variety of subtle pathologies including rotator cuff tears and capsulolabral injury. While in the ABER position, the humerus and glenoid are seen predominantly in what planes, respectively?
1
Sagittal and coronal
2
Coronal and axial
3
Axial and sagittal
4
Axial and coronal
QUESTION 97
A 13-year-old football running back is tackled during a game. On impact with the ground, his chest is compressed between the opposing player and the turf. He experiences immediate pain, difficulty breathing, and on physical examination is tender to palpation over the sternoclavicular joint. What is the best next step?
1
Administer bronchodialator
2
Repeat examination in 15 minutes
3
Referral for radiograph with attempted closed reduction
4
Start advanced trauma life support (ATLS) protocol
QUESTION 98
Figures 1 and 2 are drawings of the posterior and medial aspect of the knee, respectively. What is the structure demarcated by the arrow on both images?
1
Oblique popliteal ligament
2
Popliteofibular ligament
3
Deep fibers of the medial collateral ligament
4
Posterior oblique ligament (POL)
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon