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Orthopedic Shoulder And Review | Dr Hutaif Shoulder & E -...

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Orthopedic MCQS online Shoulder and Elbow

QUESTION 1
Figures 1 and 2 show the current radiographs of a 25-year-old skier who presents 2 weeks after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a right elbow fracture dislocation. On examination, he has a well-healed posterior incision without any signs of infection. He expresses mild elbow pain and has limited active and passive range of motion. Neurovascular exam is intact. What is the best next step in treatment?
1
Initiate physical therapy focusing on active-assisted range of motion
2
Revision ORIF
3
Place a hinged external fixator
4
Revision to a total elbow arthroplasty
QUESTION 2
When a patient has recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a bony glenoid reconstructive procedure should be considered in which clinical setting?
1
Associated humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL) lesion
2
Non-engaging Hill-Sachs lesion
3
Glenoid bone loss of at least 25%
4
Anterior labral periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA) lesion
QUESTION 3
A 61-year-old right-hand dominant woman falls down the stairs, resulting in a left anteroinferior shoulder dislocation and non- comminuted greater tuberosity fracture. A closed glenohumeral reduction with intravenous sedation is performed in the emergency department. After reduction, the greater tuberosity fragment remains displaced by 2 mm. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Open reduction internal fixation with transosseous sutures
2
Arthroscopic fixation using a suture bridge technique
3
Nonsurgical treatment with early passive range of motion
4
Nonsurgical treatment with sling immobilization for 8 weeks
QUESTION 4
Residual angulation <30° of the humeral shaft after nonoperative fracture treatment has been shown to have what effect on patient reported outcomes?
1
Angulation in the coronal plane has more effect on functional outcomes than in the sagittal plane.
2
Increased angulation corresponds with worse functional outcomes.
3
Angulation >5° in any plane results in an unacceptable cosmetic result.
4
Residual angulation has no correlation with functional outcomes.
QUESTION 5
A 65-year-old man who underwent an uncomplicated reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA) to treat rotator cuff arthropathy 2 years ago has a routine follow-up visit in your clinic. A radiograph is shown in Figure
1
He denies shoulder pain, dysfunction, or constitutional symptoms, and his clinical examination findings are benign. Based upon the present radiologic evaluation, what is the next most appropriate step?
2
Revision rTSA
3
Conversion to hemiarthroplasty
4
Continued observation
5
Infection work-up with screening labs and joint aspiration
QUESTION 6
A healthy 65-year-old woman undergoes anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty to address osteoarthritis (OA). The surgery is uncomplicated. What is the most common indication for future revision?
1
Deep infection
2
Periprosthetic fracture
3
Glenoid component loosening
4
Rotator cuff tear
QUESTION 7
An 18-year-old male football player dislocated his elbow during a game. A post-reduction MRI scan is shown in Figure
1
The injury is initially treated non-operatively, but the patient continues to note subjective instability and pain when attempting to push up from a chair. Surgical intervention is planned for repair/reconstruction. What guidance should be provided to the patient and therapist in the early postoperative period?
2
No range-of-motion exercises until 6 weeks postoperative
3
Begin immediate strengthening
4
Avoid valgus stress to elbow
5
Avoid shoulder abduction
QUESTION 8
When performing reverse shoulder arthroplasty, what factor leads to an increase in the complication indicated by the black arrow in Figure 1?
6
1
Superior baseplate position on the glenoid
2
Lateralized position of the glenosphere
3
Shorter humeral stem length
4
Larger glenosphere diameter
QUESTION 9
A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a fall from a motorcycle. Imaging reveals a displaced glenoid neck fracture, and surgical intervention is planned through a modified Judet approach. What internervous plane is encountered between the infraspinatus and teres minor muscles?
1
Long thoracic nerve and axillary nerve
2
Suprascapular nerve and axillary nerve
3
Suprascapular nerve and long thoracic nerve
4
Spinal accessory nerve and axillary nerve
QUESTION 10
What complication following total elbow arthroplasty poses more risk for a 60-year-old man with osteoarthritis than for a man of the same age with rheumatoid arthritis?
1
Aseptic loosening of a linked implant
2
Instability of an unlinked implant
3
Triceps rupture
4
Wound dehiscence
QUESTION 11
A 69-year-old woman presents 18 months after undergoing surgical repair of her left proximal humerus fracture. She describes global left shoulder pain with limited range of motion. On examination, she has a well-healed superior shoulder incision without any signs of infection. Active elevation is limited to 45°, and passive range of motion results in crepitus. She expresses difficulty with activities of daily living, such as washing her hair. An AP radiograph of her shoulder is shown in Figure
1
What is the most appropriate step to maximize her function at this time? 8
2
Physical therapy focusing on supine straight arm raises
3
Removal of intramedullary nail and conversion to hemiarthroplasty
4
Revision open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) to proximal humerus locking plate
5
Removal of intramedullary nail and conversion to reverse shoulder arthroplasty
QUESTION 12
Placement of the most distal interlocking screw seen in the radiographs in Figures 1 and 2 poses a risk to the nerve that controls what motor function?
1
Elbow flexion
2
Thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint extension
3
Index finger proximal IP joint flexion
4
Index finger metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint abduction
QUESTION 13
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 40-year-old patient with a history of posterior labral repair who presents with severe pain and stiffness in the shoulder. The pain interferes with activities of daily living and interrupts his sleep at night. He has tried corticosteroid injections, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and activity modification with only temporary benefit. He wishes to discuss definitive treatment options. How can you counsel the patient about treatment with a hemiarthroplasty?
10
1
Functional outcomes and pain relief are inferior to total shoulder arthroplasty.
2
Rates of revision are lower than total shoulder arthroplasty.
3
Hemiarthroplasty avoids problems related to glenoid erosion.
4
He can expect long term satisfaction.
QUESTION 14
In comparing open versus arthroscopic osteocapsular arthroplasty for the treatment of elbow osteoarthritis, what is an advantage of arthroscopic over open treatment?
1
rthroscopic treatment provides better final range of motion than open treatment.
2
Arthroscopic treatment can be safely performed in the presence of prior ulnar nerve transposition.
3
Arthroscopic treatment can be equally effective in both early and advanced elbow osteoarthritis.
4
Arthroscopic treatment allows easy access to both the anterior and posterior compartments of the elbow.
QUESTION 15
A 36-year-old woman dislocated her elbow 6 months ago. The elbow was congruently reduced and rehabilitated. She continues to have a sense of painful clunking in her elbow when she pushes up from a chair with forearm supination, but not pronation. What structure did not heal properly?
1
Posterior band of the medial collateral ligament
2
Anterior band of the medial collateral ligament
3
Radial collateral ligament
4
Lateral ulnar collateral ligament
QUESTION 16
A 36-year-old right-hand dominant butcher presents with a 6-week history of medial elbow pain. On physical examination, she is tender to palpation over the anteroinferior aspect of the medial epicondyle. Pain is reproduced with combined elbow extension/resisted wrist flexion. Nonsurgical treatment of this pathology results in pain relief within one year in what percentage of individuals?
1
25% to 35%
2
45% to 55%
3
65% to 75%
4
85% to 95%
QUESTION 17
A 55-year-old woman develops posttraumatic arthritis in the elbow following a distal humerus fracture. What is the most likely mid-term (5-
10 years after surgery) complication following semiconstrained total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)?
1
Bushing wear
2
Infection
3
Aseptic component loosening
4
Component fracture
QUESTION 18
A 51-year-old man presents with persistent right shoulder pain several weeks after falling off a roof. On examination, he has pain with palpation over the greater tuberosity, active forward shoulder flexion of 60°, and passive forward shoulder flexion of 160°. He has 2/5 forward flexion and external rotation strength. Initial plain radiographs are unremarkable. A coronal MRI scan of his shoulder is shown in Figure
1
After a thorough discussion, the patient elects to proceed with surgical intervention. During intraoperative assessment, the surgeon contemplates performing a single versus a dual row repair. Currently, what is the consistent difference between the two repair techniques?
2
Dual row repairs result in superior objective clinical outcomes
3
Dual row repairs provide a larger footprint coverage.
4
Single row repairs have a reported higher complete retear rate.
5
Single row repairs have fewer points of tendon fixation.
QUESTION 19
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 37-year-old left-hand dominant man with left elbow pain and stiffness. He has a history of elbow dislocation as a child but denies any recent injuries. He has an arc of motion of 105° and stable ligaments. He describes crepitus and locking during elbow range of motion. He is an avid Crossfit athlete, intending to return to this activity and improve his range of motion. What is the best treatment?
1
Total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)
2
Ulnohumeral distraction interposition arthroplasty
3
Radial head replacement
4
Arthroscopic or open debridement and capsular release
QUESTION 20
Figure 1 is the radiograph of 59-year-old left-hand dominant patient who underwent revision to a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty following a failed open reduction and internal fixation of a proximal humerus fracture. What is a risk factor for the complication shown?
1
Female sex
2
Lateralized component
3
Cemented humeral component
4
Previous surgery
QUESTION 21
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 55-year-old woman who fell on her outstretched right arm, resulting in acute elbow pain and swelling. On examination, she has lateral elbow bruising and tenderness, with a mechanical block to forearm supination and pronation. She has no medial tenderness. During surgery through a direct lateral approach, the surgeon observes a completely bare lateral epicondyle and surgical repair is performed, resulting in a stable and congruent joint. Initial postoperative rehabilitation should include
1
3 weeks of cast immobilization.
2
elbow extension exercises with the forearm supinated.
3
elbow extension exercises with the forearm pronated.
4
elbow extension exercises with the forearm in neutral rotation.
QUESTION 22
A 78-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. Her preoperative, 3-month postoperative, and
1
year postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 1 through
2
What is the cause of the radiographic finding seen here? 17
3
Glenoid component malposition
4
Humeral component malposition
5
Over tensioning of the deltoid
QUESTION 23
Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI scans of a 21-year-old swimmer who has had pain in the lateral shoulder for 6 months. It is worse while swimming and with reaching overhead. Twelve weeks of physical therapy and a single corticosteroid injection have failed to improve her symptoms. What is the best next step?
18
1
Arthroscopic superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) repair
2
Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
3
Arthroscopic Bankart repair
4
Suprascapular nerve decompression
QUESTION 24
Figure 1 is the intraoperative radiograph of a shoulder hemiarthroplasty for glenohumeral arthritis. A "ream and run" is planned for the glenoid. What can be said about the outcomes of this procedure?
19
1
Activity restrictions are more rigid than after total shoulder arthroplasty.
2
Fifty percent of patients require glenoid resurfacing within 2 years.
3
Recovery is faster than a total shoulder arthroplasty.
4
Therapy is critical in obtaining a good clinical outco
QUESTION 25
Figure 1 is the axial MRI scan of a 45-year-old brick mason who experienced acute right elbow pain after attempting to lift a wheelbarrow. Examination reveals pain and swelling in the antecubital fossa, weakness with forearm supination, and an abnormal hook test. The surgeon performs an anterior repair with two anchors. Three months after surgery, the patient has appropriate strength and range of motion but reports persistent radiating paresthesias along the radial side of the forearm. What is the best next step in management?
1
Exploration of forearm with neurolysis
2
MRI scan of cervical spine
3
Revision distal biceps repair
4
Observation with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs as needed
QUESTION 26
When performing an ulnar nerve decompression at the elbow, the surgeon must be aware of the
1
median nerve as it crosses the surgical field 6 cm proximal to the medial epicondyle.
2
medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve as it crosses the field 3 cm distal to the medial epicondyle.
3
anterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve as it crosses the field at the medial epicondyle.
4
posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve that crosses the field 2 cm distal to the medial epicondyle.
QUESTION 27
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 40-year-old patient who undergoes treatment of the clavicle fracture shown. What is the most likely complication of this intervention?
21
1
Nonunion
2
Acromioclavicular (AC) joint instability
3
Deltoid origin rupture
4
Symptomatic hardware
QUESTION 28
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 54-year-old man who has increasing weakness and numbness in his lateral arm. No prior surgery or injury is reported. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic test?
1
MRI of the shoulder
2
MRI of the cervical spine
3
CT scan of the chest
4
Radiograph of the chest
QUESTION 29
Figure 1 is the radiograph and Figure 2 is the 3-dimensional CT scan of a 55-year-old male patient who fell out of a tree 3 days ago onto his outstretched hand. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Lateral ligament repair and radial head replacement
2
Coronoid reconstruction utilizing allograft
3
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the coronoid and possible lateral collateral ligament repair
4
ORIF of the coronoid and reconstruction of the medial collateral ligament
QUESTION 30
A 33-year-old right-hand dominant man presents for evaluation of recurrent right shoulder instability following a fall. He initially sustained a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation while playing football 12 years ago that was treated with an arthroscopic Bankart repair. He sustained a repeat traumatic dislocation 5 years ago, prompting a revision arthroscopic Bankart repair and capsular shift. His shoulder has been stable until his recent reinjury three months ago. He feels that the shoulder is "sliding out" when he puts his arm in an abducted and externally rotated position. The symptoms remain unchanged despite participating in 2 months of physical therapy. Apprehension/Relocation test is positive. He has full range of motion without weakness. A CT arthrogram reveals 20% loss of bone of the anteroinferior glenoid, no Bankart lesion, and a non-engaging Hill-Sachs. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Revision arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
2
Open Bankart repair with capsular shift
3
Transfer of the coracoid to the anterior glenoid
4
Injection of platelet-rich plasma
QUESTION 31
What is the most common complication following reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?
1
Scapula spine/acromial fracture
2
Dislocation/instability
3
Implant loosening
4
Periprosthetic fracture
QUESTION 32
A 75-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis and a long history of oral corticosteroid use sustains a comminuted intra-articular distal humerus fracture. What is the best surgical option?
1
Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) with parallel plates
2
ORIF with orthogonal plates and iliac crest bone grafting
3
Total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)
4
Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
QUESTION 33
A 17-year-old girl develops chronic posterolateral rotatory instability (PLRI) of the elbow following closed treatment of an elbow dislocation. Advanced imaging reveals incompetence of the lateral collateral ligament complex, and ligament reconstruction is planned. Examination under anesthesia is performed with the forearm in maximal supination and valgus force applied to the elbow, demonstrated in Video
1
As the elbow is brought through a range of motion assessment, the radial head is
2
dislocating posteriorly in extension and reducing in flexion.
3
dislocating posteriorly in flexion and reducing in extension.
4
dislocating anteriorly in extension and reducing in flexion.
5
dislocating anteriorly in flexion and reducing in extension.
QUESTION 34
Figure 1 is the MRI of a 45-year-old woman with a medical history significant for rheumatoid arthritis who returns to your office with persistent right elbow pain. Her rheumatologist has maximized her disease-modifying anti-rheumatoid drug regimen. She complains of diffuse joint pain and swelling. On examination, she has a pronounced joint effusion, elbow flexion arc of 45°, and crepitus with forearm rotation. Her elbow radiograph reveals preservation of her joint space. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment at this time?
26
1
Total elbow arthroplasty
2
Synovectomy with radial head resection
3
Synovectomy without radial head resection
4
Isolated radial head resection
QUESTION 35
A 15-year-old girl has experienced 6 months of increasing dominant shoulder pain while playing volleyball. Her pain is so significant that she can no longer compete. Examination demonstrates 190° of forward elevation, 110° of external rotation at the side, and internal rotation up the back to T2 bilaterally. She also has 15° of bilateral elbow hyperextension. Load and shift testing demonstrates pain with anterior and posterior drawer tests. She has a large sulcus sign with associated pain. Forward elevation and external rotation strength testing shows 4/5 strength. There is no scapular winging and radiographic findings are normal. What is the best next step?
1
Physical therapy for rotator cuff strengthening
2
Subacromial corticosteroid injection
3
MRI arthrogram
4
Arthroscopic stabilization
QUESTION 36
When performing capsular releases during shoulder arthroplasty for the treatment of glenohumeral joint osteoarthritis, what anatomic landmark indicates the location of the axillary nerve as it begins to travel from anterior to posterior?
1
Inferior border of the subscapularis
2
Insertion of the pectoralis major onto the humerus
3
Insertion of the latissimus dorsi tendon onto the humerus
4
Lateral margin of the conjoint tendon
QUESTION 37
A 24-year-old female rugby player presents after a traumatic shoulder dislocation. She has a history of open Latarjet 3 years ago related to chronic shoulder instability. Her current radiograph and CT scans are shown in Figures 1 through
1
Her shoulder is unstable with abduction and external rotation. Belly press test and axillary nerve function are intact. What is the best surgical option for her? 28
2
Arthroscopic debridement with anteroinferior labral repair and capsular shift
3
Open implant removal and repair of damaged soft-tissue structures
4
Revision anterior glenoid augmentation with iliac crest autograft or distal tibial allograft
5
Open Putti Platt reconstruction
QUESTION 38
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs and MR arthrogram of a 46- year-old woman who reports bilateral elbow pain over the past 2 years. Pain is diffuse, associated with stiffness, and is worst in the morning. It gradually improves over the course of the day. Physical examination shows a moderate elbow effusion, with tenderness to palpation diffusely around the elbow, but worst in the posteromedial and posterolateral gutters. She lacks 25° of terminal extension bilaterally and has pain with terminal elbow flexion. She has tried anti-inflammatory medication, corticosteroid injections, and physical therapy without improvement in symptoms. What is the best surgical treatment option at this point?
1
Arthroscopic debridement and synovectomy
2
Radial head excision
3
Total elbow arthroplasty
4
Interpositional arthroplasty
QUESTION 39
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 56-year-old woman in good health who reports a 6-month history of shoulder pain and external rotation weakness. Her radiographs are unremarkable. What is the diagnosis?
1
Rotator cuff tear
2
Anteroinferior labral tear
3
Suprascapular nerve compression
4
Quadrilateral space syndrome
QUESTION 40
A 41-year-old right-hand-dominant man has been treated nonsurgically for right elbow arthritis. His radiographs reveal end-stage ulnohumeral arthritis with complete loss of the joint space. He reports pain during the mid-arc of elbow flexion and extension. During the last 8 years, he has attempted activity modification, medication, physical therapy, and multiple cortisone injections. His symptoms have progressed, resulting in constant pain, loss of a functional range of motion, and an inability to perform many activities of daily living. Secondary to his age and activity demands, he undergoes a soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty of his elbow with an Achilles allograft. Which presurgical finding correlates with elevated risk for postsurgical complications?
1
Inflammatory elbow arthritis
2
A presurgical flexion-extension elbow arc of approximately 50°
3
Retained distal humerus hardware on presurgical radiographs
4
Evidence of presurgical elbow instability
QUESTION 41
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 12-year-old baseball player who has posterolateral elbow pain with throwing. The area of interest is designated by the black arrow. His range of motion and strength are full. No previous treatment has been provided. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
1
Elbow arthroscopy with debridement
2
Immobilization and rest for 6 weeks
3
Corticosteroid injection
4
Open osteochondral autograft transfer
QUESTION 42
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 69-year-old man with a history of treated prostate cancer and hemodialysis-dependent end- stage renal disease who presents to the emergency department with progressively worsening right shoulder pain and stiffness. Laboratory tests reveal a white blood cell count of 17,000, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, 75, and CRP, 10.1. He has a draining sinus located along the anterior shoulder. What is the best next step?
33
1
Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement
2
Admission and IV antibiotics
3
Culture from draining sinus
4
MRI scan with intravenous contrast
QUESTION 43
In rotator cuff tear arthropathy with pseudoparalysis, forward elevation of the humerus away from the body is prohibited because of
1
deltoid atony.
2
loss of glenoid concavity.
3
loss of humeral head depression from the biceps tendon.
4
loss of compressive force on the humeral head.
QUESTION 44
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 70-year-old woman with left shoulder pain following a ground-level fall 2 days ago. She reports good function of the shoulder prior to her fall. Examination reveals intact neurovascular status. She elects to undergo an acute reverse shoulder arthroplasty (RSA). How does this intervention compare with other arthroplasty options?
1
RSA results in better outcomes but increased complications compared with hemiarthroplasty.
2
RSA results in better outcomes and similar complications compared with hemiarthroplasty.
3
Acute RSA results in better outcomes than delayed RSA in this demographic.
4
Hemiarthroplasty and RSA have similar outcomes.
QUESTION 45
A 45-year-old right-hand dominant woman falls onto an outstretched left hand. Imaging shows a complex elbow dislocation. The postreduction CT scan demonstrates a reduced joint, comminuted radial head fracture, and type I coronoid fracture. Surgical intervention is recommended to address the involved structures. Which component of the intervention adds the most rotational stability?
1
ixation of the coronoid fragment
2
Radial head arthroplasty
3
Repair or reconstruction of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) complex
4
Repair or reconstruction of the medial collateral ligament (MCL)
QUESTION 46
A 68-year-old right-hand dominant woman has experienced progressive right elbow pain and loss of motion for several years. She has failed nonsurgical treatment and elects to undergo a total elbow arthroplasty (TEA). In comparison to a linked prosthesis, an unlinked prosthesis has which reported distinction with extended follow-up?
1
Improved longevity in comparison to the linked prosthesis
2
A significantly larger flexion-extension arc
3
A higher incidence of postsurgical instability
4
Lower frequency of ulnar nerve dysfunction
QUESTION 47
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 68-year-old woman with progressive shoulder pain. She has failed all nonoperative modalities and now presents with refractory shoulder pain at night and with any attempted shoulder motion. She lacks the ability to forward elevate or abduct her shoulder >45°. What is the best treatment option?
37
1
Arthroscopic rotator cuff debridement and superior capsular reconstruction
2
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
3
Shoulder hemiarthroplasty
4
Total shoulder arthroplasty utilizing a titanium in-growth glenoid component
QUESTION 48
Figures 1 and 2 are the CT and MRI scans of a patient with shoulder instability. Contrasting these two imaging techniques for decision making in shoulder instability would suggest
1
Both CT and MRI have equivalent cost for the patient.
2
Both CT and MRI have equivalent safety for the patient.
3
Associated soft-tissue damage can be more reliably shown on CT scans.
4
Two-dimensional CT scans represent better definition of bone loss than two-dimensional MRI scans.
QUESTION 49
A 43-year-old woman is involved in a motor vehicle collision. She sustains the isolated injury shown in the radiograph in Figure
1
Her neurovascular examination is compromised. What is the most likely deficit?
2
Inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger
3
Positive Froment’s sign
4
Weakness with wrist extension
5
Decreased capillary refill
QUESTION 50
Figure 1 is the MR arthrogram of a 24-year old professional baseball pitcher who complains of worsening right elbow pain and decreased pitch velocity over the past 2 months. He was initially managed with rest and forearm strengthening, but continues to complain of medial elbow pain during the long toss portion of his throwing program. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
1
Ulnar nerve decompression
2
Common flexor pronator repair
3
Elbow arthroscopy with debridement
4
Medial ulnar collateral ligament reconstruction/repair
QUESTION 51
A right-hand dominant 45-year-old man sustains an injury to the anterior aspect of his right elbow while trying to lift a heavy load 3 days ago. He has ecchymosis in the anterior and medial elbow regions and has difficulty with resisted forearm supination with the elbow in a flexed position. A diagnosis of an acute distal biceps tendon rupture is made and surgical treatment is chosen. The anatomic relationship of the distal biceps tendon to the median nerve and recurrent radial artery within the antecubital fossa is such that the biceps tendon travels
1
lateral (radial) to the median nerve and posterior (deep) to the recurrent radial artery.
2
lateral (radial) to the median nerve and anterior (superficial) to the recurrent radial artery.
3
medial (ulnar) to the median nerve and posterior (deep) to the recurrent radial artery.
4
medial (ulnar) to the median nerve and anterior (superficial) to the recurrent radial artery.
QUESTION 52
MRI results are shown in Figure 1 for a 22-year-old, right-hand dominant collegiate athlete who reports a 6-month history of progressive weakness in his right arm. He denies any specific traumatic event. He has altered his weight-lifting activities and tried over-the-counter ibuprofen without benefit. No appreciable deformity or atrophy is found on examination of the upper extremities. He demonstrates full active shoulder range of motion, and there is no weakness with abduction in the plane of the scapula. Belly press test findings are normal, but weakness is seen in external rotation with the arm in adduction. He does not demonstrate anterior apprehension, and there is no instability with load and shift testing. Radiographs are unremarkable. What is the best surgical option?
1
Arthroscopic labral debridement and biceps tenodesis
2
Shoulder arthroscopy with undersurface cuff debridement and acromioplasty
3
Cyst decompression at the spinoglenoid notch with possible labral repair
4
Cyst decompression at the suprascapular notch with possible labral repair
QUESTION 53
A 45-year-old woman diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis undergoes an open debridement of the extensor carpi radialis brevis. During surgery, resection extends posterior to the equator of the radiocapitellar joint. Postoperatively, she complains of persistent pain, despite appropriate rehabilitation. What other physical examination finding is she likely to have?
1
Pain with elbow extension in forearm pronation
2
Mechanical symptoms when rising from a chair
3
Valgus instability
4
Tenderness over the medial collateral ligament (MCL)
QUESTION 54
A 75-year-old man presents with complaints of shoulder pain, bruising, and weakness following a fall onto his outstretched hand. He underwent an uncomplicated anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty 5 years prior with good range of motion and strength. His current radiographs are shown in Figures 1 and
1
What is the most appropriate next step to restore this patient’s function? 43
2
Rotator cuff repair
3
Revision to reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
4
Physical therapy
5
Latissimus dorsi transfer
QUESTION 55
Figures 1 and 2 are the MRI arthrograms of a 14-year-old male baseball player who notes medial-sided elbow pain that occurs during the early acceleration phase of throwing. Pain has continued for one year. Pain improves with rest but worsens once he returns to throw. The longest he has rested is 3 months. He has completed a physical therapy program focusing on elbow strengthening and range of motion. He denies mechanical symptoms. Physical examination shows full elbow range of motion, no tenderness, and pain with moving valgus stress test, although there is no instability noted. There is no pain with resisted wrist flexion. What is the best next step?
1
Evaluation of shoulder range of motion and strength
2
Arthroscopic debridement and microfracture
3
Ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction
4
UCL repair
QUESTION 56
A 42-year-old woman sustains a closed posterior elbow dislocation. A closed reduction is performed, and the elbow appears stable under fluoroscopic examination through a full arc of motion. Initial treatment should consist of
1
early mobilization only.
2
surgical repair of medial and lateral collateral ligaments.
3
active motion in a hinged brace from 30° to 120°.
4
application of hinged external fixator with early mobilization.
QUESTION 57
A 40-year-old female recreational basketball player notes pain deep within her shoulder that occurs with activity. Pain began insidiously 6 months previously. She has completed a physical therapy program, and an intra-articular corticosteroid injection provided excellent temporary relief. Physical examination shows symmetric range of motion of her shoulder. She has a positive O'Brien’s active compression test. There is no pain with cross-arm adduction or tenderness to palpation over the acromioclavicular joint. Resisted abduction is nonpainful and strong. MRI shows increased signal in the substance of the superior labrum, low-grade bursal surface fraying of the supraspinatus, and mild degenerative changes within the acromioclavicular joint. What is the best treatment option?
1
Biceps tenodesis
2
Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) repair
3
Rotator cuff repair
4
Distal clavicle excision
QUESTION 58
A 50-year-old man sustained an external rotation traction injury to his right arm. He felt a pop in the anterior aspect of his shoulder associated with immediate pain and swelling. The MRI scan shows a tear of the subscapularis tendon, as shown in Figures 1 and
1
The arrow points to what anatomic structure? 46
2
Biceps tendon
3
Torn anterior labrum
4
Middle glenohumeral ligament
5
Comma/rotator interval tissue
QUESTION 59
Injuries to what two structures would result in a “floating shoulder"?
1
Clavicle shaft and humeral shaft
2
Scapular body and humeral shaft
3
Rotator cuff and coracoacromial ligament
4
Clavicle shaft and glenoid neck
QUESTION 60
A 25-year old right-hand dominant professional baseball pitcher complains of posteromedial right elbow pain that is worsened by throwing. He also reports occasional paresthesias in his small and ring finger after lengthy bullpen sessions. On examination, he is tender along the medial olecranon and complains of pain when extending the elbow >/- 20° of extension. He has negative valgus stress, moving valgus stress, and milking maneuver tests. He is stable to varus stress, chair rise, and lateral pivot shift tests. Radiographs reveal a small osteophyte along the posteromedial border of the olecranon. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Valgus extension overload
2
Varus posteromedial rotatory instability (VPMRI)
3
Valgus posterolateral rotatory instability (VPLRI)
4
Olecranon bursitis
QUESTION 61
A patient sustains a displaced diaphyseal humerus fracture following a motor vehicle accident. Open reduction internal fixation is indicated due to concomitant lower extremity trauma and is planned through an anterior approach. Which intramuscular interval is exploited during the deep dissection of the mid-humerus in this approach?
1
Lateral head of triceps (radial nerve) and brachialis (musculocutaneous nerve)
2
Lateral head of the triceps (radial nerve) and biceps brachii (musculocutaneous nerve)
3
Lateral brachialis (radial nerve) and medial brachialis (musculocutaneous nerve)
4
Brachialis (musculocutaneous nerve) and coracobrachialis (musculocutaneous nerve)
QUESTION 62
Figures 1 and 2 are the current radiographs of a 35-year-old right- hand dominant woman who sustained an acute dislocation to her right elbow after falling from a horse. She underwent a closed reduction and splinting in the emergency department. She describes global elbow pain and difficulty with range of motion. On examination, she has moderate, diffuse elbow swelling with deformity. There are no traumatic wounds, and distally she is neurovascularly intact. Definitive treatment should include
1
repeat closed reduction and casting.
2
radial head arthroplasty or fixation.
3
radial head excision.
4
arthroscopic loose body removal.
QUESTION 63
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 67-year-old woman who underwent shoulder hemiarthroplasty for a proximal humerus fracture dislocation 6 months ago. She now has persistent pain with a pseudoparalytic shoulder. Examination reveals full passive range of motion, but with pain in all directions. Joint aspiration was performed with <50 neutrophils and negative aerobic and anaerobic cultures (anaerobic held for 14 days). What would be her best surgical option for pain relief and improved function?
1
Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
2
Revision hemiarthroplasty with allograft prosthetic composite on the humeral side
3
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
4
Resection arthroplasty
QUESTION 64
A 65-year-old woman has an atraumatic full thickness rotator cuff tear, which is treated successfully with 12 weeks of physical therapy. In discussing future expectations regarding the condition of her rotator cuff, what is the risk of tear progression at 2 years?
1
0%
2
5%
3
>20%
4
>50%
QUESTION 65
A 63-year-old right-hand dominant woman has a history of gradually progressive atraumatic right shoulder pain. She describes a constant nagging pain that radiates to her deltoid insertion and difficulty with overhead activities. Her examination and imaging studies confirm a rotator cuff tear. What is the mostly likely initiating anatomic location of her tear?
1
Anterior portion of the supraspinatus tendon adjacent to the biceps tendon
2
15 mm posterior to the biceps tendon near the supraspinatus/infraspinatus junction
3
Superior portion of the subscapularis tendon
4
30 mm posterior to the biceps tendon near the supraspinatus/infraspinatus junction 51
QUESTION 66
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and MRI scan of a 40-year-old man who fell down a flight of stairs. His upper arm is bruised and painful, and global weakness in the shoulder girdle function is noted. What is the appropriate initial treatment for the acromial finding identified here?
1
Immediate open reduction and internal fixation of the fracture
2
Closed treatment with serial radiographs
3
Fracture fragment excision and deltoid repair
4
Rest, anti-inflammatory medications, and a home exercise program
QUESTION 67
A 38-year-old man sustains a terrible triad injury consisting of an elbow dislocation, comminuted and displaced radial head fracture, and a type I coronoid fracture. Intraoperative findings after radial head replacement and lateral collateral ligament complex repair reveal persistent instability consisting of medial opening on valgus stress and posteromedial subluxation of the ulnohumeral and radiocapitellar joints. What is the best next step?
1
Medial collateral ligament repair or reconstruction
2
Reconstruction of the radial collateral ligament
3
Resection of the type I coronoid fracture and capsular repair to the remaining coronoid
4
Open reduction and buttress plating of the coronoid fracture
QUESTION 68
The fracture seen in Figure 1 is most likely associated with injury to what ligamentous structure?
1
Inferior glenohumeral ligament
2
Acromioclavicular (AC) ligaments
3
Coracoclavicular ligaments
4
Coracoacromial ligament
QUESTION 69
What is the most common organism implicated in periprosthetic infection of the shoulder?
1
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
2
Cutibacterium acnes
3
Enterococcus species
4
Staphylococcus epidermidis
QUESTION 70
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 55-year-old man who sustained an acute traumatic injury to his right shoulder with loss of active range of motion. He was initially evaluated by his primary care physician and treated with physical therapy without success. He was referred to an orthopaedist for surgical consultation 8 weeks after sustaining the injury. The orthopaedic surgeon performs a successful arthroscopic repair but notes poor tendon quality at the repair site. The treating surgeon keeps the patient in a sling full time for 6 weeks without formal therapy. One year after surgery, in comparison to early therapy, this rehabilitation program will likely result in
1
no difference in terminal range of motion.
2
a lower functional outcome score.
3
a clinically significant reduction in passive forward flexion and external rotation.
4
a higher retear rate of the rotator cuff repair.
QUESTION 71
Stemless shoulder arthroplasty prostheses have recently been suggested as an alternative to traditional stemmed replacement. Advantages of the stemless surgical technique would include
1
better glenoid exposure than with stemmed prostheses.
2
reliable use in four-part proximal humerus fracture reconstruction.
3
use in proximal humeral malunion without the need for an osteotomy.
4
improved long-term survivorship profile.
QUESTION 72
Figure 1 is the MRI scan of a 25-year-old left-hand dominant minor league pitcher with a 6 month history of progressive left elbow pain during pitching. He fails nonoperative treatment and undergoes surgery to address the problem. What is the most common complication of this procedure?
1
Ulnar nerve neuropraxia
2
Flexor pronator mass avulsion
3
Posterolateral rotatory instability
4
Symptomatic hardware
QUESTION 73
A 35-year-old man presents one week after an acute right shoulder posterior dislocation after being electrocuted. He is evaluated in the emergency department and undergoes closed reduction. The patient reports global right shoulder pain and limited active and passive range of motion. He has mild anterior and lateral bruising. He is distally neurovascularly intact. Current radiographs and an MRI scan are shown in Figures 1 through
1
What is the best next step?
2
Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF)
3
Sling immobilization in external rotation
4
Bristow-Latarjet
5
Shoulder hemiarthroplasty
QUESTION 74
A 51-year-old man sustains the injury shown in the MRI scan in Figures 1 and 2 following a fall. After a thorough discussion regarding risks and benefits, he elects to proceed with surgery. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for his fracture?
1
Open reduction internal fixation with locking plate
2
Intramedullary (IM) nail
3
Hemiarthroplasty
4
Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
QUESTION 75
A 68-year-old man presents with chronic progressive right shoulder pain and loss of motion. He has active shoulder elevation of 120° and 5-/5 shoulder forward flexion strength limited by pain. He has exhausted nonsurgical management over the past year and is now interested in surgical intervention. Figure 1 is the preoperative axial CT scan of his shoulder. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon should anticipate the location of maximal glenoid erosion to be
58
1
posterior.
2
superior.
3
posterior inferior.
4
posterior superior.
QUESTION 76
For humeral shaft fractures, the characteristic most associated with radial nerve palsy is
1
open fracture.
2
distal one-third fracture.
3
proximal one-third fracture.
4
comminuted fracture.
QUESTION 77
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiograph and axial CT scan of a 75-year-old woman with diffuse superior shoulder pain 5 months after an uneventful reverse shoulder arthroplasty. She denies trauma, but felt a "pop" when reaching overhead. She had initially done well postoperatively. On physical examination, she has decreased active forward flexion with pain and diffuse superior tenderness along the scapular spine and acromion. There are no signs or symptoms of infection. What is the best next step in management?
1
Application of bone stimulator
2
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
3
Physical therapy for deltoid strengthening
4
Sling immobilization for 6 weeks
QUESTION 78
A 76-year-old right-hand dominant woman falls at home, sustaining a displaced 4-part left proximal humerus fracture. When compared with initial treatment with a reverse shoulder arthroplasty, revising a failed open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) to a reverse shoulder arthroplasty results in
1
higher complication rate.
2
improved functional outcomes.
3
lower rates of instability.
4
decreased rate of revision surgery.
QUESTION 79
A 45-year-old man with a history of gout in his foot 2 years ago presents with a 3-day history of atraumatic elbow pain. The pain is diffuse, constant, and worse with any movement. Examination shows motion from -20° extension to 90° flexion with pain. There is no erythema around his elbow, but there is mild warmth. He has no fever, and neurovascular examination is unremarkable. Radiographs show an effusion. Serum uric acid level is within normal limits. What is the next diagnostic step?
1
Elbow joint aspiration
2
MRI scan
3
Splint for 2 weeks and repeat examination
4
Sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level
QUESTION 80
Figures 1 through 5 are the radiographs and CT scans of a 59-year- old woman who has had 10 years of worsening right shoulder pain. She reports a progression of symptoms, despite multiple corticosteroid injections, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and physical therapy. Her active and passive forward elevation is 100°, external rotation with the arm at the side is 20°, and internal rotation is to L5. What is the best next step?
1
Arthroscopic shoulder debridement
2
Rotator cuff repair
3
Shoulder hemiarthroplasty
4
Total shoulder arthroplasty
QUESTION 81
A 23-year-old minor league pitcher describes the insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of his throwing motion. He has gone 6 weeks without throwing, but symptoms quickly returned on return to play. An MR arthrogram of the shoulder reveals fraying of the superior labrum and proximal biceps, and a partial- thickness articular-sided supraspinatus tear (30% tendon thickness). Figure 1 is a representative coronal MRI slice. Clinical examination demonstrates mild weakness of the periscapular muscles, mild superior rotator cuff weakness, and negative instability testing. Internal rotation with the arm in 90⁰ of abduction is 40⁰ in the affected shoulder versus 70⁰ in the contralateral shoulder. What is the best next step?
1
Intra-articular platelet rich plasma (PRP) injection
2
Therapy regimen focused on shoulder range of motion and strengthening
3
Arthroscopic surgery for rotator cuff and labral debridement
4
Arthroscopic surgery for rotator cuff repair and biceps tenodesis
QUESTION 82
A 45-year-old woman with diabetes has a 3-month history of atraumatic left shoulder pain and motion loss. She previously underwent treatment with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication and a home stretching program, experiencing minimal relief of her symptoms. Examination reveals loss of passive external rotation, abduction, and forward elevation without reduction in strength. Radiographs are normal. What is the most appropriate next step?
1
MRI scan with and without contrast
2
Cortisone injection therapy with continued physical therapy (PT)
3
Closed manipulation under anesthesia
4
Arthroscopic release with manipulation under anesthesia
QUESTION 83
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 48-year-old right-hand dominant man who reports progressive pain and stiffness of the elbow. He sustained a fracture dislocation 10 years ago, which was treated with surgical reconstruction. On examination, range of motion is from 40° extension to 110° flexion, with pain at end-range of motion, but no pain through mid-range. A previous corticosteroid injection temporarily improved his pain but did not improve range of motion. The patient elects to undergo an arthroscopic osteocapsular arthroplasty. What structures need to be addressed to improve elbow extension?
65
1
Anterior capsule and osteophytes within anterior compartment
2
Posterior capsule and osteophytes within posterior compartment
3
Anterior capsule and osteophytes within posterior compartment
4
Posterior capsule and osteophytes within anterior compartment
QUESTION 84
Figures 1 through 4 are the radiographs of a 47-year-old right-hand dominant man who was involved in an altercation. What is the most appropriate method to address his radial head injury?
66
1
Immobilization followed by functional therapy
2
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
3
Radial head excision
4
Radial head arthroplasty The images demonstrate a comminuted radial head fracture with extension into the radial neck. There is persistent fracture displacement following closed reduction of the elbow. The preferred treatment of radial head fractures with >3 parts in active individuals is radial head arthroplasty. ORIF has higher rates of failure when used for
5
and 4-part fractures. Radial head excision is typically discouraged in the acute setting, as this can contribute to elbow and forearm axis instability.
QUESTION 85
A 26-year-old recreational athlete sustained an initial shoulder dislocation 1 year ago and was treated nonsurgically. He recently sustained a second dislocation and is scheduled for surgical repair. Plain radiographs and MRI scans reveal no bony defect. What is the difference in rates of recurrent instability after open versus arthroscopic repair?
1
Recurrence after open surgery is twice that of arthroscopic repair
2
Recurrence after arthroscopic surgery is twice that of open repair
3
Recurrence after arthroscopic repair generally occurs at an earlier time than after open repair
4
There is no difference in recurrence after open and arthroscopic repair
QUESTION 86
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 64-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who complains of right elbow pain. She has been treated with tumor necrosis factor-alpha inhibitors and oral corticosteroids for several years. What process is primarily responsible for the radiographic joint destruction?
1
Traumatic insult resulting in complement activation
2
Mutation in the rheumatoid factor gene
3
Osteoblast paracrine signaling resulting in proteolytic collagen degradation
4
Inflammation resulting in a hyperplastic synovial joint lining
QUESTION 87
Figures 1 through 4 are the radiographs and CT scan of a 63-year-old right-hand dominant man with long- standing left shoulder pain, which now limits his activities of daily living. Examination shows elevation to 150° with markedly limited internal and external rotation. Strength testing is limited by pain. Previous treatments have included physical therapy, steroid injections, and platelet-rich plasma (PRP) injections. An MRI scan shows a partial articular supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesion measuring <50% tendon thickness, a superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear, and glenohumeral degeneration with multiple intra-articular loose bodies. What is the best next step?
1
Stem cell injection
2
Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, biceps tenodesis, and extensive debridement with removal of loose bodies
3
Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
4
Reverse shoulder arthroplasty
QUESTION 88
A 75-year-old man sustains an anterior dislocation of his reverse total shoulder arthroplasty. What activity places the arm in the position most commonly associated with instability of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty?
1
Scratching the opposite shoulder
2
Pushing off ipsilateral chair armrest while standing up
3
Tying shoelaces on the contralateral foot
4
Reaching up to comb hair
QUESTION 89
What is the best way to treat patients with a positive nasal swab for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) prior to elective shoulder arthroplasty?
1
No treatment is necessary.
2
Apply 5% povidone-iodine solution to each nostril for 10 seconds 1 hour before surgery.
3
Prescribe one week of doxycycline prior to surgery.
4
Apply 2% mupirocin ointment to each nostril on the morning of surgery.
QUESTION 90
Figure 1 is the clinical photograph of a 22-year-old college pitcher who complains of posterior shoulder pain and feelings of shoulder weakness. He denies shoulder trauma. Evaluation should include
1
CT scan of the shoulder.
2
ultrasonography of the rotator cuff.
3
vascular studies of the upper extremity.
4
electrodiagnostic studies.
QUESTION 91
Figures 1 and 2 are the CT and MRI scans of a 23-year-old man with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. He had his first dislocation while in basic training for the military 4 years ago. Since that time, his shoulder has dislocated with less and less provocation, to the point that it now dislocates in his sleep. Examination demonstrates significant apprehension with abduction/external rotation. What is the most appropriate treatment to prevent recurrent shoulder instability?
71
1
Arthroscopic Bankart repair
2
Latarjet
3
Hill-Sachs remplissage
4
Physical therapy
QUESTION 92
How do outcomes and postoperative care of patients undergoing total elbow arthroplasty differ depending on diagnosis?
1
Those performed for inflammatory arthritis have a lower revision rate than those for osteoarthritis.
2
Activity modifications are not required in elbow replacements done for osteoarthritis.
3
Those performed for inflammatory arthritis have a higher failure rate than those for fracture sequelae.
4
Outcomes are similar despite indication.
QUESTION 93
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 50-year-old man who sustained a first-time traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation after a fall. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Latarjet
2
Rotator cuff repair
3
Bankart repair
4
Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) repair
QUESTION 94
A complication associated with using the Morrey approach (triceps reflecting) to implant a semiconstrained total elbow arthroplasty is
1
loss of elbow extensor power.
2
implant dislocation.
3
implant malposition.
4
development of heterotopic ossification.
QUESTION 95
A 36-year-old recreational athlete feels a pop in his antecubital fossa while lifting weights. He has pain, swelling, and deformity. Representative sagittal and coronal MRI slices are shown in Figures 1 and 2, respectively. What is the most common major complications associated with surgical repair of this structure?
74
1
Symptomatic heterotopic ossification requiring reoperation
2
Brachial artery laceration
3
Deep infection
4
Posterior interosseous nerve palsy
QUESTION 96
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 21-year-old right-hand dominant patient. Compared with nonoperative treatment, open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) results in
1
lower complication rates.
2
lower rates of nonunion.
3
increased time to union.
4
increased functional outcome scores.
QUESTION 97
What are the components of the lateral ligament complex of the elbow?
1
Radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament, annular ligament
2
Lateral ulnar collateral ligament (LUCL, anterior and posterior band) and the annular ligament
3
Transverse ligament, radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament
4
Ulnar collateral ligament (anterior and posterior bands), transverse ligament
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon