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Orthopedic Pediatric Review | Dr Hutaif Pediatric Ortho -...

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Orthopedic Pediatric Review | Dr Hutaif Pediatric Ortho -...
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ORTHOPEDIC MCQS ONLINE PEDIATRIC 016

QUESTION 1
of 100
Second-impact syndrome following a concussion











1
poses minimal concern for morbidity or mortality.
2
is less common in adolescents than in adults.
3
is related to a disruption of cerebral autoregulation.
4
refers to a second head injury after the athlete has been medically cleared to return to play.
QUESTION 2
of 100
Figure 2
1
Curettage and/or grafting
2
Radiofrequency ablation
3
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
4
Incision, drainage, and IV antibiotics
5
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical reconstruction
QUESTION 3
of 100
Figure 4
1
Curettage and/or grafting
2
Radiofrequency ablation
3
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
4
Incision, drainage, and IV antibiotics
5
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical reconstruction
QUESTION 4
of 100
Figure 5
1
Curettage and/or grafting
2
Radiofrequency ablation
3
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
4
Incision, drainage, and IV antibiotics
5
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical reconstruction
QUESTION 5
of 100
Figure 6a through 6c
1
Curettage and/or grafting
2
Radiofrequency ablation
3
Intravenous (IV) antibiotics
4
Incision, drainage, and IV antibiotics
5
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical reconstruction
QUESTION 6
of 100
Use of titanium elastic nailing for treatment of pediatric femur fractures is associated with a higher complication rate among


1
patients younger than age 6.5.
2
patients who bear weight immediately after surgery.
3
patients weighing more than 50 kg (110 pounds).
4
patients with grade 1 open transverse midshaft fractures.
QUESTION 7
of 100
A 6-year-old boy had a 4-day history of worsening atraumatic right thigh and knee pain. He was seen in the emergency department, where he had a temperature of 39.1°C. Laboratory studies reveal a white blood cell count of 15000 /µL (reference range, 4500-11000 /µL). He had a small knee effusion with range of motion 0 to 90 degrees and a swollen, painful, hot distal thigh. The knee effusion was aspirated, revealing a white blood cell (WBC) count of 2000 with negative gram stain (reference range < 2000 WBC/mL). The boy was admitted to the pediatric medical service and intravenous (IV) antibiotics were initiated. The next day, MR
imaging was obtained and orthopaedics was consulted. Based on Figures 8a and 8b, what is the most appropriate description of his condition?


1
He has osteomyelitis with a significant subperiosteal abscess that will necessitate open drainage in the operating room.
2
He has osteomyelitis without any abscess, so continued IV antibiotics and clinical observation are recommended.
3
He has a muscle abscess that would best be treated by percutaneous drainage in interventional radiology.
4
The MR image shows cellulitis with some adjacent myositis, so a short course of IV antibiotics followed by 2 to 3 weeks of appropriate oral antibiotics is recommended.
QUESTION 8
of 100
What is the most likely mechanism of injury?
1
Fall directly onto the elbow
2
Fall onto an outstretched elbow and hand
3
The direct impact of the elbow against the bars upon falling
4
Entrapment of the upper extremity under the trunk
QUESTION 9
of 100
Treatment should address predictable
1
instability of the fracture.
2
absence of the radial pulse.
3
inability to oppose the thumb and index finger.
4
rigidity of the forearm muscles.
QUESTION 10
of 100
The most mechanically stable fixation pattern for this fracture involves
1
lateral pins that diverge at the fracture site.
2
lateral pins that converge at the fracture site.
3
lateral and medial pins.
4
parallel lateral pins.
QUESTION 11
of 100
After reduction and pinning, the radial pulse is absent by both palpation and Doppler.
Capillary refill in the fingers appears normal. What is the most likely explanation?
1
Laceration of the brachial artery during reduction
2
Compression of the brachial artery by a pin
3
Abnormal arterial supply
4
Spasm in the brachial artery
QUESTION 12
of 100
What is the most appropriate way to communicate instructions to a family when there is a language barrier?












1
Use a translation program to print out instructions in the family’s native language and ask if they have questions
2
Have the patient translate the instructions if his or her English skills are adequate
3
Use a member of the hospital’s nonmedical staff to translate
4
Use a professional medical interpreter
QUESTION 13
of 100
Figures 14a through 14e are the clinical photograph, radiographs, and MR images of a 13-year-old boy with a 10-day history of a painful right ankle following a slide into second base that resulted in skin abrasions. He cannot bear weight and he has severe pain with any ankle motion. His primary care physician treated him 2 days ago and 7 days ago with intravenous ceftriaxone, but there has been no improvement. His temperature is 38.8°C, his white blood cell count (WBC) is 21000 /µL (reference range [rr], 4500-11000 /µL), C-reactive protein (CRP) is 6.8 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 95 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h).
1
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and intravenous (IV) nafcillin
2
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and IV vancomycin
3
Aspiration, cultures, Lyme serology, and oral amoxicillin
4
Biopsy, culture, curettage, bone graft, and possible internal fixation
5
Physical therapy, ibuprofen, and an antinuclear antibody test
QUESTION 14
of 100
Figures 15a through 15d are the clinical photographs and radiographs of a 7-year-old girl with a markedly swollen left knee, a limp (but she can bear weight), and a rash on her inner left thigh. Her temperature is 38.1°C, WBC is 14000 /µL (rr, 4500-11000 /µL), CRP is 2.1 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), and ESR is 34 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h). She has no pain with knee range of motion from 45 to 110 degrees. The patient vacationed in central Connecticut 1 month ago.
1
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and intravenous (IV) nafcillin
2
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and IV vancomycin
3
Aspiration, cultures, Lyme serology, and oral amoxicillin
4
Biopsy, culture, curettage, bone graft, and possible internal fixation
5
Physical therapy, ibuprofen, and an antinuclear antibody test
QUESTION 15
of 100
Figures 16a and 16b are the radiograph and MR image of a 15-year-old dance athlete with 2 weeks of pain at the left distal femur, a limp, and an inability to dance. Knee motion is 0 to 135 degrees with minimal pain and there is no effusion. Her temperature is 37.0°C, WBC is 12000 /µL (rr, 4500-11000 /µL), CRP is 0.8 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), and ESR is 21 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h).


1
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and intravenous (IV) nafcillin
2
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and IV vancomycin
3
Aspiration, cultures, Lyme serology, and oral amoxicillin
4
Biopsy, culture, curettage, bone graft, and possible internal fixation
5
Physical therapy, ibuprofen, and an antinuclear antibody test
QUESTION 16
of 100
Figure 17 is the radiograph of a 3-year-old girl who has shoulder pain after a fall. What is the best next step?

1
4 to 6 weeks of immobilization
2
Incisional biopsy followed by curettage and bone grafting
3
Irrigation and debridement and then antibiotics based on culture findings
4
Radical excision
QUESTION 17
of 100
An examination most likely will reveal pain with
1
forward bending of the back.
2
hyperextension of the back.
3
flexion, abduction, and external rotation testing of the hips.
4
passive straight-leg raising.
QUESTION 18
of 100
The addition of oblique lumbar radiographs has been shown to
1
allow easier classification of the condition severity.
2
allow easier determination of the stage of healing.
3
provide greater diagnostic accuracy for the condition.
4
provide no significant benefit.
QUESTION 19
of 100
Initial treatment for this condition should include
1
activity modification and therapy to support the lumbar musculature.
2
a thoracolumbar sacral orthosis to immobilize the lower lumbar spine.
3
a diagnostic/therapeutic injection of the defect.
4
open treatment with fusion and instrumentation of the defect.
QUESTION 20
of 100
The family is curious about the likelihood that the condition could worsen. What is the main risk factor for progression of this condition?
1
Male gender
2
Age
3
The involved level
4
Ethnicity
QUESTION 21
of 100
What is the statistical likelihood that this boy could develop a progressive deformity for which surgery would be necessary?
1
Lower than 5%
2
10%
3
25%
4
50%
QUESTION 22
of 100
This condition is most prevalent in people of which ancestry?











1
Northern European
2
Asian
3
Native American
4
Sub-Saharan African
QUESTION 23
of 100
Figures 24a and 24b are the radiographs of a 7-year-old boy who fell off the monkey bars and has a closed injury. His hand appears warm and well perfused with an absent radial pulse. What is the best initial treatment?
1
Immediate open reduction with an anterior approach
2
Immediate open reduction with a posterior approach
3
Obtain an immediate arteriogram
4
Perform closed reduction and reassess perfusion and pulse
QUESTION 24
of 100
A concussion diagnosis is made when there is








1
a 20% decrease in the neurocognitive score from baseline.
2
a brain MRI with abnormal findings.
3
a loss of consciousness for longer than 15 seconds.
4
evidence of a traumatic brain injury that alters the way the brain functions.
QUESTION 25
of 100
Figure 26 is a radiograph of an 11-year-old boy with insidious-onset anterior knee pain.
1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 26
of 100
Figures 27a and 27b are the radiographs of a 2-month-old with a swollen ankle and abdominal bruising.
1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 27
of 100
Figure 28 is the radiograph of a 14-year-old boy with an ankle injury.
1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 28
of 100
Figure 29 is the radiograph of a 12-year-old female gymnast with elbow pain.
1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 29
of 100
Figure 30 is the radiograph of a newborn admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) with a swollen elbow following a difficult birth.
1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 30
of 100
Figures 31a and 31b are the radiographs of a 5-year-old boy with an elbow injury.

1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 31
of 100
Figure 32 is the current right femur lateral radiograph of a 9-year-old boy who went to the emergency department after falling from his skateboard. He has acute right leg pain, deformity, and cannot bear weight. Vascular and neurologic examination findings are normal. His skin is intact; however, he has a healed 3-inch scar on the lateral side of his right thigh. The boy weighs 90 pounds. Treatment should include
1
a 1-1/2 hip spica cast.
2
removal of the plate and insertion of flexible titanium nails.
3
removal of the plate and insertion of a rigid reamed nail with an entry point for the nail starting at the piriformis fossa.
4
placement of a proximal tibial traction pin for 4 weeks of skeletal traction followed by a 1-leg spica cast.
QUESTION 32
of 100
What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Activity restriction and follow-up radiographs in 3 months
2
Long-leg casting for 3 months
3
Arthroscopic evaluation and drilling
4
Arthroscopic vs an open osteochondral autograft transfer system (OATS) procedure
QUESTION 33
of 100
The patient returns after 3 months and the lesion is still present radiographically, with minimal appreciable healing. Her symptoms are controlled with activity restriction. What is the best next step at this stage?
1
Activity restriction and follow-up radiographs in 3 months
2
Long-leg casting for 3 months
3
Arthroscopic evaluation and drilling
4
Arthroscopic vs an open OATS procedure
QUESTION 34
of 100
The patient falls and undergoes imaging that demonstrates the lesion is unstable. What is the best next step?
1
Continued observation for 3 more months
2
Arthroscopic evaluation and drilling
3
Arthroscopic evaluation and fixation
4
Open debridement and osteochondral autograft transfer
QUESTION 35
of 100
The patient does well initially but returns for the 4-month postsurgical evaluation with ongoing stiffness and pain despite going to physical therapy twice weekly and working on motion at home. She is unable to bear weight comfortably. What is the best next step?



1
Manipulate the knee under anesthesia
2
Aspirate the knee for persistent hematoma to improve motion
3
Obtain advanced imaging to evaluate the lesion and fixation
4
Prescribe more intensive physical therapy 3 to 5 times a week to achieve motion
QUESTION 36
of 100
Figure 37a is the initial radiograph of a 7-year-old boy who fell from monkey bars 4 hours ago. He has intact motor function in his fingers and normal capillary refill, but his radial pulse is not palpable. Figures 37b and 37c are the radiographs following closed reduction and pinning. This boy’s hand and fingers remain pink, but his radial pulse remains nonpalpable. What is the best next step?
1
An arteriogram to evaluate the brachial artery
2
Open exploration and repair of the brachial artery
3
Pin removal to rereduce the fracture
4
Additional splinting and continued observation in the hospital
QUESTION 37
of 100
A 6-year-old boy has a 2-month history of intermittent, mild, unilateral thigh pain and a limp. An examination reveals a Trendelenburg sign and restricted hip abduction and internal rotation.
1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 38
of 100
An 11-year-old obese boy has a 5-month history of unilateral knee pain and a limp. An examination reveals obligate external rotation with flexion and pain with attempted hip internal rotation.
1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 39
of 100
An 18-month-old girl was treated at the age of 4 months with medial open reduction of a unilateral developmental hip dislocation.
1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 40
of 100
A 15-year-old boy who underwent in situ fixation of a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis 2 years ago now has groin pain and mechanical symptoms.
1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 41
of 100
A 10-year-old boy has chronic renal failure and activity-related groin pain.
1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 42
of 100
A 12-year-old girl was treated with open reduction and internal fixation for an unstable slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Anatomic alignment with normal femoral head-neck offset was achieved, but she now has worsening groin pain. Examination reveals an antalgic gait, and her hip has limited passive internal and external rotation.
1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 43
of 100
A 17-year-old male baseball catcher has groin pain and intermittent hip locking. Examination demonstrates reproduction of the pain with hip flexion, internal rotation, and adduction. MR imaging reveals an anterosuperior labral tear.
1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 44
of 100
A 10-month-old boy has an untreated developmental hip dislocation.




1
Sclerosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis with subchondral lucency
2
Abnormal femoral head-neck junction offset
3
Widening of the proximal femoral physis with normal femoral head-neck junction offset
4
Absence of the proximal femoral epiphysis secondary ossification center
QUESTION 45
of 100
Figures 46a through 46d are the injury radiographs and postsurgical open treatment radiographs of a 13-year-old girl who fell while on a trampoline and sustained an injury to her right-dominant elbow. The skin is closed and she has normal vascular and neurologic examination findings. Which complication most likely could occur as a result of this injury and treatment?


1
Compartment syndrome
2
Loss of elbow motion
3
Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the radial head
4
Nonunion of the fracture site
QUESTION 46
of 100
Based on this history and radiographic examination, how should you advise the family?
1
Many people fracture during childhood, so no further workup is indicated.
2
The boy likely has osteogenesis imperfecta (OI).
3
The boy has rickets and needs treatment with vitamin D.
4
The fracture pattern does not match the history and is suspicious for nonaccidental trauma.
QUESTION 47
of 100
What is the most likely underlying bone problem?
1
None; this is suspicious for nonaccidental trauma
2
A genetic defect in the type I collagen gene
3
A genetic defect in the type II collagen gene
4
A genetic defect in the prolyl 3-hydroxylase 1 gene (LEPRE1)
QUESTION 48
of 100
The fracture location and pattern can be explained because
1
there is a sudden change in elasticity between the plated and unplated bone.
2
there is probably an unrecognized infection from the original open fracture.
3
the plates were put in improperly.
4
the original fracture never completely healed.
QUESTION 49
of 100
Which treatment of the current fracture will provide the best long-term outcome?




1
Casting it in its current position, which is acceptable alignment
2
Closed reduction and casting
3
Functional brace because this is a stable fracture
4
Open reduction with revision of the current implants
QUESTION 50
of 100
The workup to exclude other congenital abnormalities should include evaluation of which systems?
1
Cardiac, renal, and gastrointestinal (GI)
2
Cardiac, renal, and auditory
3
Cardiac, pulmonary, and GI
4
Cardiac, pulmonary, and neural axis
QUESTION 51
of 100
This shoulder deformity often is associated with an abnormal connection between the scapula and the
1
posterior ribs.
2
clavicle.
3
humerus.
4
spine.
QUESTION 52
of 100
Recommendations for sports activity should include
1
full participation without restrictions.
2
avoidance of contact or collision sports.
3
avoidance of racquet sports.
4
avoidance of throwing sports.
QUESTION 53
of 100
Genetic mutations that may result in the cervical abnormalities noted in the figures generally affect the






1
embryonic process of neurulation.
2
embryonic process of gastrulation.
3
segmentation or resegmentation of somites.
4
differentiation of somites into sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome segments.
QUESTION 54
of 100
Figures 55a through 55c are the clinical photograph and radiographs of a 5-year-old boy who fell and injured his right elbow. His radial pulse is thready. Which neurologic deficit most commonly is associated with this injury?

1
Anesthesia in the first dorsal web space
2
Inability to extend the fingers
3
Inability to abduct the fingers
4
Inability to flex the thumb interphalangeal (IP) joint
QUESTION 55
of 100
Figure 56 is the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 3-year-old boy who fell and sustained the isolated injury shown. What is the best treatment modality?
1
Elastic intramedullary nailing
2
Submuscular plating
3
Early hip spica casting
4
Traction as definitive treatment
QUESTION 56
of 100
Osteomyelitis with 72 hours of symptoms
1
Cortical thickening in the region of the lesion
2
Erosive metaphyseal lesion with loss of cortical integrity
3
Normal bony anatomy on radiographs
4
Diffuse articular erosion with loss of joint space
5
Round, expansive, well-circumscribed metaphyseal lesion with thinning of the cortex
QUESTION 57
of 100
Osteomyelitis with 14 days of symptoms
1
Cortical thickening in the region of the lesion
2
Erosive metaphyseal lesion with loss of cortical integrity
3
Normal bony anatomy on radiographs
4
Diffuse articular erosion with loss of joint space
5
Round, expansive, well-circumscribed metaphyseal lesion with thinning of the cortex
QUESTION 58
of 100
Septic arthritis with 48 hours of symptoms
1
Cortical thickening in the region of the lesion
2
Erosive metaphyseal lesion with loss of cortical integrity
3
Normal bony anatomy on radiographs
4
Diffuse articular erosion with loss of joint space
5
Round, expansive, well-circumscribed metaphyseal lesion with thinning of the cortex
QUESTION 59
of 100
Osteoid osteoma with 1 year of symptoms
1
Cortical thickening in the region of the lesion
2
Erosive metaphyseal lesion with loss of cortical integrity
3
Normal bony anatomy on radiographs
4
Diffuse articular erosion with loss of joint space
5
Round, expansive, well-circumscribed metaphyseal lesion with thinning of the cortex
QUESTION 60
of 100
Unicameral bone cyst
1
Cortical thickening in the region of the lesion
2
Erosive metaphyseal lesion with loss of cortical integrity
3
Normal bony anatomy on radiographs
4
Diffuse articular erosion with loss of joint space
5
Round, expansive, well-circumscribed metaphyseal lesion with thinning of the cortex
QUESTION 61
of 100
Nonossifying fibroma
1
Cortical thickening in the region of the lesion
2
Erosive metaphyseal lesion with loss of cortical integrity
3
Normal bony anatomy on radiographs
4
Diffuse articular erosion with loss of joint space
5
Round, expansive, well-circumscribed metaphyseal lesion with thinning of the cortex
QUESTION 62
of 100
In the United States, groups at risk for community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) within the pediatric and adolescent populations include




1
tennis players.
2
toddlers in daycare.
3
children who are home schooled.
4
African Americans.
QUESTION 63
of 100
The diagnosis is
1
Freiberg infraction.
2
tarsal coalition.
3
accessory navicular.
4
neglected clubfoot.
QUESTION 64
of 100
Which inheritance pattern has been described for the condition shown in Figures 64a through 64d?
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
X-linked recessive
4
X-linked dominant
QUESTION 65
of 100
The condition shown in Figures 64a through 64d is overrepresented among craniosynostosis syndromes with mutations in
1
MSX-2 and MSX-3.
2
EFNB-1.
3
TWIST-1.
4
FGFR-1, FGFR-2, and FGFR-3.
QUESTION 66
of 100
The patient fails nonsurgical treatment. What is the best next step?
1
CT scan
2
MRI
3
Bone scan
4
Laboratory studies: complete blood count (CBC) with differential, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), antinuclear antibody (ANA), and rheumatoid factor (RF)
QUESTION 67
of 100
The CT scan shows the involvement area is approximately 30% of the posterior facet.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Surgical resection
2
Lateral column lengthening
3
Coalition resection and lateral column lengthening
4
Triple arthrodesis
QUESTION 68
of 100
A 4-year-old girl who attends daycare had knee swelling for 21 days. She has been afebrile, her white blood cell (WBC) count is 13000/mm3 (reference range [rr], 4500-11000 /µL), and her C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are slightly elevated. The child is unable to walk because of her pain. Radiographs show a knee effusion. A sedated knee aspiration reveals 22000 cells/ml (a normal result is less than 1000 cells/mL). A culture of the aspirate is pending. What is the best next step?
1
Presumptively treat for toxic synovitis of the knee
2
Presumptively treat for juvenile idiopathic arthritis
3
Perform polymerase chain reaction (PCR) screening for Kingella kingae (K. kingae)
4
Perform arthroscopic debridement and knee irrigation
QUESTION 69
of 100
A 10-year-old Little League pitcher has elbow pain and stiffness. Upon examination, he has a flexion contracture of 10 degrees and lateral elbow pain on palpation.
1
Thrower's elbow/physeal irritation of the medial epicondylar physis
2
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)
3
Supracondylar humeral stress fracture
4
Patellar sleeve fracture
5
Distal femoral physeal fracture
QUESTION 70
of 100
An 8-year-old basketball player jumped up and felt a pop in his knee. He has diffuse anterior swelling and pain, and he is unable to perform a straight-leg raise. A small fleck of bone is seen distal to the patella on his radiograph.
1
Thrower's elbow/physeal irritation of the medial epicondylar physis
2
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)
3
Supracondylar humeral stress fracture
4
Patellar sleeve fracture
5
Distal femoral physeal fracture
QUESTION 71
of 100
A 13-year-old soccer player describes popping and catching on the medial side of his knee with activity. This has slowly worsened during the season. Upon examination, there is medial joint line tenderness and medial pain with McMurray testing.
1
Thrower's elbow/physeal irritation of the medial epicondylar physis
2
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)
3
Supracondylar humeral stress fracture
4
Patellar sleeve fracture
5
Distal femoral physeal fracture
QUESTION 72
of 100
A 9-year-old cheerleader is brought in for concern regarding a knee mass. She has no pain but is experiencing waxing and waning swelling at the back of her knee. There is no anterior swelling, and range of motion is full. Upon examination, the 3-cm x 3-cm posteromedial mass is mobile and it transilluminates.
1
Thrower's elbow/physeal irritation of the medial epicondylar physis
2
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)
3
Supracondylar humeral stress fracture
4
Patellar sleeve fracture
5
Distal femoral physeal fracture
QUESTION 73
of 100
A 13-year-old girl has had to restrict her activity because of anterior knee pain. Upon examination, she has no point tenderness or effusion with normal knee range of motion. She has a normal gait and normal knee alignment and appearance. A ligamentous examination is stable. There is mild patellofemoral crepitation. Her radiograph findings are normal.


1
Thrower's elbow/physeal irritation of the medial epicondylar physis
2
Osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)
3
Supracondylar humeral stress fracture
4
Patellar sleeve fracture
5
Distal femoral physeal fracture
QUESTION 74
of 100
Figures 75a and 75b are the radiographs after attempted reduction of an injury in a 9-year-old girl. Which anatomic structure is most likely to be interposed?


1
Brachialis muscle
2
Radial nerve
3
Median nerve
4
Ulnar nerve
QUESTION 75
of 100
The pathogenesis of this condition is associated with
1
a PITX1 mutation.
2
a point polymorphism in a regulatory sequence for the COLIA-1 gene.
3
mutations in the EXT gene family.
4
mutations in the COL5A or COL3A genes.
QUESTION 76
of 100
The idiopathic form of this condition may be associated with
1
absence of the anterior tibial artery.
2
absence of the fibula.
3
duplication of the first ray.
4
postaxial polydactyly.
QUESTION 77
of 100
The bony abnormalities in this condition occur mostly in the
1
tibiotalar joint.
2
tarsal bones.
3
tarsal-metatarsal joint.
4
forefoot.
QUESTION 78
of 100
The infant underwent Ponseti casting for 5 weeks. Afterward, a heel cord release was done 1 cm proximal to the insertion site of the Achilles tendon and was casted in long-leg casts with the knee flexed and an external rotation mold on the leg for 3 weeks. Straight-last shoes with an abduction bar set at 70 degrees of external rotation were fitted. The infant’s feet remained in the corrected position at a 1-month check, but, at a 3-month check, ankle equinus and forefoot varus were present. Recurrence of the deformity is most likely attributable to
1
noncompliance with postsurgical bracing.
2
insufficient length of time in postsurgical casts.
3
proximal placement of the incision for heel cord release.
4
excessive rotation of postsurgical bracing.
QUESTION 79
of 100
Recurrence of this deformity after initial treatment should be treated with



1
recasting.
2
anterior tibialis tendon transfer.
3
extensive posteromedial-lateral release.
4
tibial osteotomy.
QUESTION 80
of 100
What is the zone of injury?
1
Proliferative zone
2
Resting zone
3
Hypertrophic zone
4
Zone of maturation
QUESTION 81
of 100
The examination suggests a neurologic deficit of which nerve?
1
Common peroneal nerve
2
Superficial peroneal nerve
3
Deep peroneal nerve
4
Tibial nerve
QUESTION 82
of 100
The patient is treated with emergent open reduction and internal fixation via a lateral approach to the distal femur. The peroneal nerve is found intact but is under pressure by a proximal bone fragment. After fixation, there is near-anatomic fracture reduction and no tension on the nerve. The patient is comfortable at a postsurgical check 4 hours later. Her toes
are warm and pink and there is no pain with passive dorsiflexion/plantar flexion of the toes. However, she continues to have absent first web space sensation, diminished dorsal foot sensation, and absent toe/ankle dorsiflexion. What is the best next step?
1
Return to surgery emergently for 4-compartment fasciotomy because she has a compartment syndrome and the nerve will not otherwise recover
2
Return to surgery urgently within the next few days for nerve exploration and potential microsurgical repair (vs cable grafting) to the damaged nerve to speed repair
3
Observe the nerve injury with further workup/intervention only if there is no sign of nerve recovery by 3 months after surgery
4
Observe the nerve injury with further workup/intervention only if there is no sign of nerve recovery by 12 months after surgery
QUESTION 83
of 100
Six months later, the patient’s fracture has healed and a CT scan to further evaluate the physis is performed (Video 85). Based on these findings, how should you advise the family?
1
The fracture is healed and the physis is growing well with no problems expected.
2
Complete physeal closure has occurred. There will be no significant leg length difference because the patient is almost done growing.
3
Complete physeal closure has occurred. There will be a significant (> 2-cm) leg length difference if no other surgical treatment is offered.
4
Asymmetric physeal closure has occurred. There will be an increasing angular deformity at the knee as well as a significant (> 2-cm) leg length difference if no other surgical treatment is offered.
QUESTION 84
of 100
A 17-year-old cross country athlete runs 7 miles per day, 6 days per week. She has new-onset right groin pain. Passive flexion of her hip is normal, but internal rotation of the hip, resisted hip flexion, and knee extension reproduce the pain. Hip radiograph findings are normal. What is the best next step?





1
Recommend decreasing her training regimen
2
Obtain a bone scan
3
Obtain an MRI
4
Obtain a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
QUESTION 85
of 100
What is the best initial treatment?
1
A sling and careful follow-up
2
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) using an intramedullary pin
3
ORIF using a 4-hole semitubular plate
4
ORIF using an 8-hole pelvic reconstruction plate
QUESTION 86
of 100
Figure 88 is the current radiograph. The patient received nonsurgical treatment. Two months later he is pain free and vascular and neurological examination findings have remained normal, but he has a large palpable bony bump under his skin. What is the best next step?
1
Open reduction of the clavicle and compression plating
2
Open reduction of the clavicle malunion and compression plating
3
Open reduction of the clavicle malunion and intramedullary fixation with a flexible titanium nail
4
Observation and careful follow-up
QUESTION 87
of 100
Figure 89 is the radiograph of this boy 3 months later. The patient and family ask if he can safely play baseball in the spring. He is pain free at this time. What is the best advice?
1
No sports allowed; recommend clavicle bump resection, contouring, and plating
2
No sports allowed; recommend clavicle bump resection (no plate needed)
3
Allow baseball as tolerated and careful follow-up
4
Recommend an electrical stimulator and advise him to change his sport and join the swim team
QUESTION 88
of 100
Figure 90 is the radiograph of this patient 5 months later when he returned for his preseason football physical. He is asymptomatic. What is the best next step?










1
Advise against football because of increased risk for clavicle fracture
2
Order a bone density test prior to return to football
3
Allow football as tolerated and follow up as the situation demands
4
Perform a clavicular osteotomy and plating
QUESTION 89
of 100
Figures 91a and 91b
1
Chromosome 17 mutation
2
MYH3 mutation
3
Embryonic vascular interruption
4
Infantile vascular interruption
5
Chromosome 11 mutation
QUESTION 90
of 100
Figure 92
1
Chromosome 17 mutation
2
MYH3 mutation
3
Embryonic vascular interruption
4
Infantile vascular interruption
5
Chromosome 11 mutation
QUESTION 91
of 100
Figure 93
1
Chromosome 17 mutation
2
MYH3 mutation
3
Embryonic vascular interruption
4
Infantile vascular interruption
5
Chromosome 11 mutation
QUESTION 92
of 100
Figures 44a through 94c
1
Chromosome 17 mutation
2
MYH3 mutation
3
Embryonic vascular interruption
4
Infantile vascular interruption
5
Chromosome 11 mutation
QUESTION 93
of 100
Figures 95a and 95b
1
Chromosome 17 mutation
2
MYH3 mutation
3
Embryonic vascular interruption
4
Infantile vascular interruption
5
Chromosome 11 mutation
QUESTION 94
of 100
Figure 96


1
Chromosome 17 mutation
2
MYH3 mutation
3
Embryonic vascular interruption
4
Infantile vascular interruption
5
Chromosome 11 mutation
QUESTION 95
of 100
What is the best next step? 1- Knee aspiration
1
Blood cultures
2
Indium-labeled WBC scan
3
Pelvic radiographs
QUESTION 96
of 100
The pediatric service orders an MRI, and findings are unremarkable. Results from the tests ordered above are pending. The clinician should recommend
1
discharge home on crutches with an ibuprofen prescription.
2
discharge home with an oral antibiotic prescription.
3
initiation of intravenous (IV) antibiotics.
4
a knee CT scan.
QUESTION 97
of 100
Blood cultures drawn by the pediatric intern grow gram-positive cocci. Antibiotics should include coverage for
1
H. influenza.
2
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
3
Anaerobic organisms.
4
Kingella kinga.
QUESTION 98
of 200
Figures 1a and 1b are the recent radiographs of an 82-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who underwent total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 18 years ago. These radiographs reveal osteolysis with loosening of the tibial component. Aspiration and laboratory study findings for infection are negative. During the revision TKA, treatment of tibial bone loss should consist of
1
filling the tibial defect with methylmethacrylate.
2
revision of the tibial component with porous metal augmentation.
3
reconstruction with iliac crest bone graft.
4
reconstruction with structural allograft.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon