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Orthopedic Hip And Knee Review | Dr Hutaif Hip & Knee R -...

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Orthopedic MCQS online Hip and knee

QUESTION 1
Commercially available polymethylmethacrylate cement formulations vary in the consistency of the material as part of its inherent properties. What is the clinical difference between high- and low-viscosity cement formulations?
1
High-viscosity cement has a shorter working time and is a liquid consistency
2
High-viscosity cement has a longer working time and is a doughy consistency.
3
Low-viscosity cement has a longer working time and is a liquid consistency.
4
Lo…w-viscosity cement has a shorter working time and is a doughy
QUESTION 2
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 72-year-old man 5 weeks after a right total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The patient has had continued drainage from a large hematoma in his right knee, despite an irrigation and debridement 4 weeks prior. His physical examination is notable for swelling and erythema with active purulent drainage. Prior operative cultures were negative for growth and repeat aspiration was negative for growth. What is the best next step?
2
1
Resection arthroplasty with a two-stage reconstruction of the knee
2
Resection arthroplasty with a single- stage reconstruction of the knee
3
Irrigation and debridement with a polyethylene insert exchange
4
Removal of components and a knee fusion with antibiotic beads
QUESTION 3
In either a ceramic-on-highly-cross-linked polyethylene (HXPE) or metal- on-HXPE component, increasing the ball head size leads to
1
decreased polyethylene wear.
2
decreased risk for corrosion.
3
increased primary arc of motion.
4
increased offset.
QUESTION 4
After completion of bone cuts and ligament balancing of a severe valgus knee during primary total knee arthroplasty, there is a 5-mm increased medial gap that cannot be corrected. In this scenario, what is the most appropriate level of constraint?
1
Cruciate-retaining
2
Posterior stabilized
3
Varus-valgus constrained
4
Rotating hinge
QUESTION 5
Gerdy’s tubercle is the attachment point for what structure?
1
Iliotibial band
2
Biceps femoris tendon
3
Popliteus muscle
4
Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
QUESTION 6
Pulsatile bleeding is encountered after placing a retractor anterior to the acetabulum while exposing for reaming during total hip arthroplasty (THA). What vascular structure is likely affected?
1
Ascending branches of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
2
Obturator artery
3
Superior gluteal artery
4
External iliac artery
QUESTION 7
After a fall 2 months ago, an 82-year-old woman presents with the inability to straighten her leg. She has had several subsequent falls. She had a successful primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 3 years ago. AP and lateral radiographs are shown Figures 1 and
1
On examination, she has a 45° extensor lag, no significant pain and good knee stability. She can flex to 110° without difficulty. A full allograft reconstruction versus synthetic mesh reconstruction are the two options discussed with the patient and family. What is the difference between the two surgical options? 5
2
Allograft reconstruction is associated with better patient reported outcomes.
3
Allograft reconstruction has been found to have a higher rate of periprosthetic infection.
4
Synthetic mesh reconstruction material is readily available and less costly.
5
Synthetic mesh reconstruction is associated with better patient reported outcomes.
QUESTION 8
A 72-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo right total hip arthroplasty. Her preoperative radiograph is shown in Figure
1
To avoid increasing this patient’s combined offset while maintaining her leg length, what is the most appropriate surgical plan?
2
Lateralize the acetabular component, use a low offset femoral component, and make a shorter neck cut
3
Medialize the acetabular component, use a low offset femoral component, and make a longer neck cut
4
Lateralize the acetabular component, use a high offset femoral component, and make a shorter neck cut
5
Medialize the acetabular component, use a high offset femoral component, and make a longer neck cut
QUESTION 9
Figures 1 and 2 show the radiographs obtained from a 79-year-old woman who has been experiencing increasing tibial pain 10 years after undergoing revision total knee arthroplasty. No evidence of infection is seen. What is the most appropriate treatment?
7
1
Retain the components and implant a tibial strut allograft.
2
Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and metaphyseal uncemented stem.
3
Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and a press-fit diaphyseal-engaging stem.
4
Revise the tibial component with a long cemented diaphyseal-engaging stem. Stems are available for cemented and press-fit implantation. To be effective, press-fit stems should engage the diaphysis, as shown in Figures 3 and
5
They also assist in obtaining correct limb alignment. Short metaphyseal- engaging stems are associated with failure rates that range between 16% and 29%. Cemented stems may be shorter than press-fit stems, because they do not have to engage the diaphysis. Short, fully cemented stems offer the advantage of metaphyseal fixation. Hybrid stem fixation makes use of the metaphysis for cement fixation with metaphyseal cones or sleeves and diaphyseal-engaging press-fit stems.
QUESTION 10
Figures 1 and 2 are the preoperative radiographs of a 75-year-old woman with right hip osteoarthritis who presents for a right total hip arthroplasty (THA). During the intake history and physical, the patient discloses that she has been treated with bisphosphonates by her primary care physician. To reduce the risk of a periprosthetic fracture and optimize long-term survivorship of the THA, what is the best option for acetabular and femoral implant selection?
1
Cemented acetabular component and a cementless femoral component
2
Cementless acetabular component and a cemented femoral component
3
Cementless acetabular component and a cementless femoral component
4
Cemented acetabular component and a cemented femoral component
QUESTION 11
An 88-year-old man presents with persistent left thigh pain after revision total hip arthroplasty. He initially sustained a fatigue fracture of a cylindrical distally fixed stem (Figure
1
that was treated with an extended trochanteric osteotomy, trephining and revision femoral surgery. This implant subsequently subsided and a longer modular, tapered stem was inserted (Figure 2). Over the next 6 months, he developed worsening thigh pain and now presents with the radiographs in Figures 3 and
2
What is the appropriate treatment option?
3
Impaction grafting with a short-cemented stem
4
Megaprosthesis
5
Re-implant a modular tapered stem
QUESTION 12
Figure 1 depicts the radiograph obtained from a 52-year-old woman who has leg-length inequality and chronic, activity-related buttock discomfort. This problem has been lifelong, but it is getting worse and increasingly causing back pain. What is the best current technique for total hip arthroplasty?
1
High hip center with modular femoral prosthesis
2
Anatomic hip center with trochanteric osteotomy and progressive femoral shortening
3
Anatomic hip center with subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy
4
Iliofemoral lengthening followed by an anatomic hip center
QUESTION 13
A 45-year-old man has a draining sinus and recurrent infection of his right total knee arthroplasty. He has had five previous surgeries, including a proximal tibial osteotomy and subsequent hardware removal and two revision surgeries. On clinical examination, he has a draining sinus in the mid portion of his surgical scar and a range of motion of 5° to 85°. AP and lateral radiographs of the right knee are shown in Figures 1 and
1
During surgery, the femoral component is found to be grossly loose, but the tibial component is well fixed. What is the most appropriate extensile approach that would provide adequate exposure and aid in component removal?
2
Extended medial parapatellar approach
3
Quadriceps snip
4
Extended tibial tubercle osteotomy
5
Medial epicondyle osteotomy
QUESTION 14
Figures 1 through 3 are radiographs taken in the emergency department of a 65-year-old active woman who had a ground level fall and has right hip pain and is unable to bear weight. To optimize functional outcome and minimize complications, what is the most appropriate treatment?
14
1
Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
2
Dynamic hip screw
3
Hemiarthroplasty
4
Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
QUESTION 15
Figures 1 through 3 represent the radiographs obtained from a 37-year- old man with severe right knee pain. He has a history of prior tibial osteotomy for adolescent tibia vara but notes residual bowing of his legs. On examination, he is 5'8" tall and weighs 322 pounds. He has a waddling gait with a bilateral varus thrust and 20° varus deformity of both legs. His right knee range of motion is 0° to 120° with a fixed varus deformity. What is the best next step?
15
1
Total knee arthroplasty with standard components
2
Correction of tibial deformity with osteotomy and nonsurgical management of the osteoarthritis
3
Arthrodesis with a long antegrade nail
4
Total knee arthroplasty with a constrained device
QUESTION 16
A 65-year-old woman falls down a couple of stairs at home and has increasing pain in the left hip after prior revision surgery. She is unable to walk and is transferred in for definitive management of her left hip injury. An AP pelvis radiograph is shown in Figure
1
What is an appropriate next test to order?
2
Technetium bone scan
3
CT angiogram of the pelvis
4
Serum metal levels
5
Venous duplex Doppler
QUESTION 17
aOne year after undergoing a primary total knee arthroplasty, a 65-year-old man has a 1-week history of new onset anterior knee pain. He can perform a straight-leg raise with no extension lag. Radiographs reveal a transverse patella fracture with 8 mm of displacement and an intact patellar component. The best course of treatment is
1
patellectomy with retinacular repair.
2
immobilization in extension for 6 weeks.
3
open reduction and cerclage wiring.
4
internal fixation and patellar component revision.
QUESTION 18
When comparing the direct anterior approach with the posterolateral surgical approach, the direct anterior approach is associated with
1
decreased speed of recovery.
2
decreased superficial wound complications.
3
increased femoral-sided complications.
4
increased rate of instability.
QUESTION 19
Figure 1 shows the radiograph obtained from a 67-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis, 8 years after receiving a left metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty (THA). The acetabular component has a modular cobalt alloy acetabular liner. The patient states that he did very well postoperatively, but for the last 6 months has noted worsening pain and swelling in his left hip. Serum metal ion testing reveals a chromium level of 12.4 ng/mL, compared with a normal level of less than 0.3 ng/mL, and a cobalt level of 11.8 ng/mL, compared with a normal level less than 0.7 ng/mL. An MRI with metal artefact reduction sequence (MARS) was performed and is shown in Figure
1
What is the most appropriate management at this time?
2
Annual monitoring of serum metal ion levels and repeat MRI with MARS
3
Revision of femoral and acetabular components with conical stem and dual-mobility implant 19
4
Modular revision to a cobalt alloy femoral head and polyethylene bearing
5
Modular revision to a ceramic femoral head with an inner titanium sleeve and polyethylene bearing
QUESTION 20
When compared with total knee arthroplasty (TKA), unicompartmental knee arthroplasty has been associated with what outcome?
1
Higher readmission rates
2
Increased wound complications
3
Reduced periprosthetic joint infection rates
4
Better 10-year survivorship
QUESTION 21
In long-term follow-up studies of cemented total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the lowest rates of osteolysis have been associated with which design feature?
1
Metal-backed patellar components
2
Modular cruciate-retaining tibial inserts
3
Modular cruciate-substituting tibial inserts
4
Monolithic tibial trays
QUESTION 22
A 63-year-old woman had a primary total hip arthroplasty 7 years ago that included a proximally coated titanium stem, a cobalt alloy femoral head, a titanium hemispherical acetabular component, and a polyethylene liner. She did well for 4 years but has now had two dislocations and reports pain and weakness around the left hip. She denies any fevers, chills, or constitutional symptoms. On examination, the patient walks well without any signs of an antalgic or Trendelenburg gait. Her abductor mechanism demonstrates good strength. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level are normal. On radiographs, all components appear well fixed and in good alignment. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
1
Physical therapy to improve hip stability
2
Use of an abduction brace to limit the patient’s range of motion
3
Conversion to a constrained acetabular liner
4
Cobalt and chromium serum metal ion level testing
QUESTION 23
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 75-year-old man who presents with chronic periprosthetic joint infection. He undergoes explantation and antibiotic spacer placement with osteotomy required to remove the fully porous-coated femoral component. After completing intravenous antibiotic therapy and an antibiotic holiday, inflammatory markers are normal, and aspiration shows 1100 WBC (35% neutrophils), cultures no growth. What is the best option for femoral reconstruction?
1
Allograft-prosthetic composite
2
Proximal femoral replacement megaprosthesis
3
Long cylindrical fully porous-coated femoral component
4
Girdlestone resection for persistent infection
QUESTION 24
A 71-year-old man has worsening left hip pain and is indicated for a left total hip arthroplasty (THA). Figure 1 shows a preoperative plan for the patient. The patient is scheduled for a left THA using a direct anterior approach with the pictured implants. If this plan is followed as pictured, what is the likely outcome for this patient?
Figure could not be loaded
1
Successful THA with significant shortening of the operative limb
2
Compromised THA with a high likelihood of persistent trochanteric bursitis
3
Successful THA with significant lengthening of the operative limb
4
Compromised THA with a Trendelenburg gait and hip instability
QUESTION 25
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 73-year-old woman who had a right hip arthroplasty one year prior. Her BMI is 48. Postoperative radiographs at 6 weeks showed early stem subsidence of 4 mm compared with intraoperative radiographs. The current radiographic findings likely resulted from the
1
spinal fusion.
2
BMI and implant size.
3
mismatch between the metaphysis and diaphysis.
4
modular neck prosthesis.
QUESTION 26
Liposomal bupivacaine, when compared in randomized, controlled studies to peripheral nerve blockade for total hip arthroplasty (THA), is found to have
1
the lowest cost.
2
a lower incidence of falls.
3
improved early ambulation.
4
equivalent pain management.
QUESTION 27
An otherwise healthy 62-year-old woman presents with several years of increasing groin pain after right total hip arthroplasty (THA). CRP and ESR are mildly elevated and a hip aspiration reveals 1,900 WBC and 65% polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs) in that fluid. Serum cobalt levels are slightly elevated at 2.2 ng/mL and chromium is also mildly elevated. Radiographs show mild osteolysis in the calcar and greater trochanter, and the implants show a well-positioned and well-fixed cup and stem, with a 44-mm cobalt chromium head articulating with a highly cross-linked polyethylene liner. At the time of revision, the trunnion shows evidence of crevice corrosion involving 20% of the trunnion. Treatment should consist of
1
revision of all components with extended trochanteric osteotomy with ceramic-on-polyethylene bearing surface.
2
cleaning of the trunnion and conversion to a ceramic head with a titanium adaptor sleeve and polyethylene liner exchange.
3
cleaning of the trunnion and conversion to a 32-mm metal head and polyethylene liner exchange.
4
antibiotic spacer for infection of THA.
QUESTION 28
In degenerative articular cartilage, decreased proteoglycan concentration is associated with what mechanical change?
1
Increased modulus of elasticity
2
Increased permeability to water
3
Increased strength of permeable membrane
4
Increased resistance to shear forces
QUESTION 29
Pharmacoprophylaxis should be avoided in favor of a pneumatic compression device alone for a patient with
1
protein C deficiency.
2
protein S deficiency.
3
factor V Leiden mutation.
4
factor VIII deficiency.
QUESTION 30
Figure 1 is the abdominal radiograph of a 70-year-old man who experiences nausea and abdominal tightness 48 hours after undergoing left total knee arthroplasty. An examination reveals severe abdominal distension and markedly decreased bowel sounds. Insertion of a nasogastric tube does not relieve abdominal tightness. What is the best next step?
1
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
2
Gastrostomy
3
Colonoscopy
4
Laparotomy
QUESTION 31
Figures 1 through 4 show the radiographs, and Figures 5 through 8 show the MRIs obtained from a 32-year-old man with worsening left knee pain. A
1
foot hip-to-ankle radiograph shows a 13-degree varus knee deformity. The patient sustained a major left knee injury 5 years ago managed nonsurgically with a functional brace but experienced worsening pain. He was seen by an orthopaedic surgeon 18 months ago, and a medial meniscus tear was treated with an arthroscopic partial medial meniscectomy. Since then, his knee has been giving way more often, and he no longer feels safe working on a pitched roof. The patient received 6 months of formal physical therapy and was fitted for a hinged knee brace, but he still has pain and instability. He believes he has exhausted his nonsurgical options and would like to undergo surgery. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time? 28
2
ACL reconstruction and subsequent proximal tibial osteotomy
3
ACL reconstruction alone
4
Distal femoral osteotomy with simultaneous ACL reconstruction
5
Proximal tibial osteotomy with subsequent ACL reconstruction
QUESTION 32
A patient has pain 2 years after undergoing a metal-on-metal (MOM) left total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which test(s) best correlate with prognosis in the setting of reaction to metal debris?
1
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, and white blood cell count
2
Serum cobalt and chromium ion levels
3
MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS)
4
CT of pelvis
QUESTION 33
Figures 1 and 2 are the recent radiographs of an 82-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis who underwent total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 18 years ago. These radiographs reveal osteolysis with loosening of the tibial component. Aspiration and laboratory study findings for infection are negative. During the revision TKA, treatment of tibial bone loss should consist of
31
1
filling the tibial defect with methylmethacrylate.
2
revision of the tibial component with porous metal augmentation.
3
reconstruction with iliac crest bone graft.
4
reconstruction with structural allograft.
QUESTION 34
A 72-year-old man has had right knee pain for 4 years that is worsening. Three years ago, he was walker-dependent and received knee injections without any relief (Figure
1
and then went on to have knee replacement (Figure 2). His symptoms were unchanged and he underwent revision surgery by another physician (Figure 3). He currently uses a wheelchair outside the home because of this pain, which is present with ambulation but not at rest. What is the best next step 32
2
Evaluation of his ipsilateral hip
3
Revision to a hinged prosthesis
4
Referral to physical therapy
5
Referral for genicular nerve blockade
QUESTION 35
An 81-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after a high- speed motor vehicle collision. Her relevant imaging is shown in Figures 1 through
1
She has been evaluated with a tertiary survey and has no other identified injuries. What is the best next step?
2
Open fixation of the acetabulum fracture with nonsurgical management of the femoral head fracture
3
Open fixation of the acetabulum fracture with total hip arthroplasty (THA)
4
Initial nonsurgical management with delayed THA after healing
5
Open fixation of the acetabulum and femoral head fractures
QUESTION 36
During revision total knee arthroplasty (TKA), there is significant laxity in 90° of flexion and 10° short of full extension. Correcting the gap imbalance is best achieved by
1
resecting more tibia.
2
resecting more distal femur to raise the joint line, along with resecting more tibia.
3
increasing femoral component size.
4
resecting distal femur and increasing femoral component size.
QUESTION 37
Figures 1 through 5 are the radiographs and MRI scans of an 80-year-old woman who had a total hip arthroplasty (THA) 10 years ago and recently experienced an episode of dislocation that was reduced. She currently has no pain, but has a limp and moderate apprehension. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 32 and C-reactive protein is 34. Her cobalt level is 32.8 ug/L (normal <1ug/L) and chromium level 14 ug/L (normal < 5ug/L). The hip aspiration is negative. What is the most appropriate treatment? 35
1
Nonoperative treatment with close radiographic follow-up
2
Revision THA with ceramic- on-polyethylene with abductor reconstruction
3
Removal of components and placement of spacer as stage 1 of 2-stage revision
4
Revision THA with metal-on- polyethylene and trochanteric slide
QUESTION 38
A 68-year-old man presents with a 5-year history of worsening right knee pain with a 9-year progressive history of weakness in the right leg. He was born and raised in Nigeria prior to immigrating to the United States as a young man. He has required the use of an ankle foot orthosis and a cane for assistance with ambulation for the past 4 years. He has received two intra- articular right knee steroid injections, which provided several months of partial pain relief. Upon examination, he has noticeable weakness throughout the right lower extremity with 2/5 quadriceps muscle strength. Video 1 demonstrates his gait pattern and Figures 1 and 2 are radiographs of his right knee. He is interested in surgical management. What would you recommend for treatment of his knee to maintain function and relieve pain?
37
1
Posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
2
Arthroscopy with posterior capsular imbrication
3
Rotating platform hinge TKA
4
Arthrodesis with the use of dual plating technique The patient has an evident neuromuscular condition causing progressive weakness to the right leg with right knee osteoarthritis. His history of being born in Nigeria provides a high index of suspicion for post-polio syndrome. An initial exposure to polio can cause illness, or patients can be completely asymptomatic and then develop post-polio syndrome later in life. Video 1 demonstrates hyperextension of his knee and resultant incompetence of his posterior capsule. It is recommended to proceed with hinge TKA (Figures 3 and
5
in patients with neuromuscular disease in the setting of significant weakness (loss of antigravity quadriceps function) and knee hyperextension. Arthroscopy in the setting of osteoarthritis is not indicated and posterior capsular imbrication would very likely fail. Posterior stabilized knee is incorrect due to his continued ability to go into hyperextension with resultant implant failure. Arthrodesis is an option but this would take away knee flexion, resulting in decreased mobility and function, while hinge knee arthroplasty would allow him to maintain his knee motion and stop the knee from going into hyperextension. The postoperative video (Video
QUESTION 39
A 52-year-old woman has right hip pain and obvious swelling 3 years after undergoing a resurfacing arthroplasty. Her implant consists of a 42-mm femoral component and 48-mm socket. Her components are well positioned, and her metal ion levels are slightly elevated (less than 4 ppm) with a normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level. What is the most likely cause of her discomfort?
1
Pseudotumor from a local reaction to metal debris from the bearing surface
2
Chronic periprosthetic infection
3
Impingement of the femoral neck on the edge of the cup
4
Referred pain from lumbar disk disease
QUESTION 40
Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs of a 72-year-old woman with right knee pain and leg deformity after revision total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 18 months ago. The surgeon is proceeding with revision TKA of the femoral and tibial implants and has performed a quadriceps snip for exposure. The surgeon continues to struggle with access to the joint with difficulty mobilizing the patella after full synovectomy and debridement of lateral scar tissue. What further exposure technique would provide the most assistance in implant removal with the least risk of complication?
39
1
VY turndown
2
Tibial tubercle osteotomy
3
Extensile lateral release
4
Patellectomy with extensor mechanism reconstruction
QUESTION 41
A 52-year-old man with a BMI of 40 and primary osteoarthritis undergoes total hip arthroplasty through a posterolateral approach. To retract the femur anteriorly when exposing the acetabulum, the surgeon places a sharp curved retractor over (anterior to) the anterior inferior iliac spine. Pulsatile bleeding is encountered. A branch of which artery has been injured?
1
Medial femoral circumflex
2
Obturator
3
Iliac circumflex
4
Femoral
QUESTION 42
Figure 1 is the anteroposterior radiograph of a 20-year-old woman with mild right groin pain and intermittent "catching" in the hip region. What is the most appropriate next step?
41
1
Arthroscopic evaluation and treatment of the hypertrophic labrum and a possible labral tear
2
A hip injection to confirm an intra-articular source of the pain
3
Nonsurgical treatment and subsequent total hip arthroplasty (THA) when the patient is sufficiently symptomatic
4
Periacetabular osteotomy
QUESTION 43
A 59-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis is involved in a high- speed motor vehicle accident, resulting in left hip pain and deformity. The initial radiograph from the trauma bay is shown in Figure
1
Postreduction CT is shown in Figures 2 through
2
What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment? 44
3
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the acetabular fracture with total hip arthroplasty
4
ORIF of the acetabular fracture and ORIF of the femoral head fracture fragments
5
ORIF of the acetabular fracture and hemiarthroplasty
QUESTION 44
Radiographs shown in Figures 1 through 3 show two different prosthetic design variations of the same knee implant. When compared with the design of right knee prosthesis, the left can be expected to have a
1
higher incidence of patellar clunk and similar implant survivorship.
2
higher incidence of patellar clunk and superior implant survivorship.
3
lower incidence of patellar clunk and superior implant survivorship.
4
lower incidence of patellar clunk and similar implant survivorship.
QUESTION 45
A 76-year-old woman has had three hip revisions for instability. She presents to the emergency department with another dislocation that occurred while getting up from a low chair. Current radiographs are shown in Figures 1 and
1
Her prior AP pelvis radiograph is shown in Figure
2
ESR and CRP are normal. What is the best plan for definitive treatment? 46
3
Head and liner exchange to dual-mobility implant
4
Head and liner exchange with lipped liner and extended neck
5
Head and liner exchange to constrained implant
QUESTION 46
A surgeon prepares a medial gastrocnemius rotational flap to cover a medial proximal tibia defect at the time of revision knee replacement surgery. To optimize coverage, the surgeon must optimally mobilize which artery?
1
Profunda femoris
2
Middle genicular
3
Medial sural
4
Inferior medial genicular
QUESTION 47
Compared with the medial parapatellar approach for total knee arthroplasty (TKA), quadriceps-sparing approaches are associated with
1
shorter operative times.
2
higher risk of implant malalignment.
3
significantly better clinical outcomes.
4
better isometric quadriceps strength
QUESTION 48
A 66-year-old man had right total hip arthroplasty performed 10 years ago with metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty. He has had 6 months of increasing right groin pain. Recent serologies reveal ESR, 24 mm/hr (reference range: 0-20 mm/hr) and C-reactive protein, 1.5 mg/dL (reference range: 0-1 mg/dL), metal ions chromium <1 ppb and cobalt, <1 ppb. Serologies from one year ago show ESR, 4 mm/hr (reference range: 0-20) and C-reactive protein, 0.2 mg/dL (reference range: 0-1mg/dL). Figures 1 through 3 are the radiographs and metal artifact suppression MRI scan that show well-fixed components and a fluid collection tracking up the psoas tendon. What is the best next step?
48
1
Hip aspiration
2
Observation
3
Head and liner exchange
4
Irrigation and debridement
QUESTION 49
Figure 1 is the weight-bearing PA radiograph of a 67-year-old woman undergoing total knee arthroplasty (TKA). During surgery, it is observed that she remains tight laterally in extension only while trialing components. What is the most appropriate next step?
1
Resect additional femur
2
Pie-crust Iliotibial band
3
Release posterior capsule off of femur
4
Release of the lateral collateral ligament
QUESTION 50
A 60-year-old man with previous right knee injury now has progressive pain over the last 2 years, despite physical therapy, low impact exercise and steroid injection. Figures 1 and 2 show his current radiographs. What is the best next step?
1
Posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
2
Arthroscopic debridement with osteochondral autograft transplant
3
Constrained TKA
4
Hinged knee arthroplasty
QUESTION 51
A 24-year-old female soccer player has recurrent instability following noncontact injury to the right knee 2 years after anterior cruciate reconstruction using hamstring autograft. Physical examination reveals positive Lachman and pivot shift. Radiographs reveal well-preserved joint spaces with 13° of posterior tibial slope. MRI scan reveals failure of graft with small tear of the lateral meniscus. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Revision anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using patellar tendon autograft and lateral meniscal repair
2
Revision ACL reconstruction with proximal tibial osteotomy and lateral meniscal repair
3
Revision ACL reconstruction using autograft and meniscal transplant
4
Partial lateral meniscectomy and functional bracing
QUESTION 52
Figures 1 and 2 show the clinical photograph and radiograph obtained from a 62-year-old man who has deformity and pain 1 year after primary total hip arthroplasty. What is the reason for the observed deformity?
51
1
A Vancouver type B1 fracture
2
Residual leg-length discrepancy
3
Loosening and subsidence of the femoral stem into anteversion
4
Loosening and subsidence of the femoral stem into retroversion
QUESTION 53
A concern when choosing irradiated (10 Mrad) and subsequently melted highly cross-linked polyethylene rather than lower dose–irradiated (4 Mrad) polyethylene is related to its inferior resistance to
1
adhesive wear.
2
abrasive wear.
3
fatigue failure.
4
creep.
QUESTION 54
The knee arthroplasty type associated with the highest 5-year revision rate is
1
medial unicondylar arthroplasty.
2
mobile-bearing total knee arthroplasty (TKA).
3
patellofemoral arthroplasty.
4
lateral unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA).
QUESTION 55
A complication unique to computer navigation of total knee arthroplasty (TKA) is
1
femoral shaft fracture.
2
intercondylar femur fracture.
3
ligament disruption.
4
nerve palsy.
QUESTION 56
A 75-year-old woman is undergoing knee revision surgery. Her medical history is remarkable only for a gastric bypass surgery. Preoperative examination reveals hyperextension of 25° to 120° of flexion, with global instability throughout that range of motion. Preoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 1 through
1
Infectious work-up is negative. During surgery the implants are removed with minimal bone loss. While trialing with a varus- valgus constrained system, the knee is still in significant recurvatum of >15°, despite augmentation of the distal femur. The knee is otherwise stable to varus-valgus stress, and the flexion space and limb alignment seem appropriate. The joint line measures about 35 mm distal to the medial epicondyle. What is the best next step? 6
2
Implantation of the final prosthesis and postoperative bracing
3
Conversion to a rotating hinge device
4
Trialing a thicker tibial polyethylene
5
Add 10 mm augments to the distal femur
QUESTION 57
A 75-year-old man is transferred in for management of an infected left total knee arthroplasty (TKA). He has had two irrigation and debridements with polyethylene liner exchanges for a resistant enterococcus bacteria that has been cultured from intraoperative specimens during these procedures. He now has an open wound (Figure
1
and reported 50% deficit of the patella tendon from the prior debridements. The patient can straight leg raise but is clearly weak. His range of motion is 8° to 100°. His past medical history includes chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) that is in remission and non-insulin- dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) that is well-controlled with Hgb A1c of ~6. What is the best option for treating this patient's periprosthetic joint infection?
2
Two-stage revision TKA with a static spacer and plastic surgery wound coverage
3
One-stage revision TKA with cemented components and plastic surgery wound coverage
4
Two-stage revision TKA with a dynamic spacer and plastic surgery wound coverage
5
One-stage revision TKA with cementless components and primary closure 59 There has long been a controversy over which is the better option to treat periprosthetic joint infection of the knee, 1-stage versus 2-stage revision surgery. Much of the literature in the United States favors a 2-stage procedure whereas in Europe, a single-stage procedure is often favored. There are some key factors that make a 2-stage procedure the appropriate choice, as well as the use of a static spacer. The wound is infected with a resistant bacteria, it is substantial and will need plastic surgery coverage (gastrocnemius flap), there is compromise of the patella tendon and the patient may be immunocompromised (based on NIDDM and CLL). Despite successful reports of 1-stage procedures, recent data suggest that multidrug resistant bacteria, atypical organisms, soft-tissue/bone compromise, immunocompromised state, acute sepsis, isolation of enterococci, isolation of streptococci and a history of a
QUESTION 58
A 35-year-old construction worker has developed isolated lateral compartment arthritis. He has lost 50 pounds, now has a body mass index of 30, and still has pain that limits his activities of daily living and work despite receiving a 4-month course of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications and 2 intra-articular cortisone injections. His range of motion is 5° to 110°, and his mechanical axis is 18° of valgus. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this patient?
1
Proximal tibial varus osteotomy
2
Lateral unicompartmental arthroplasty
3
Distal femoral varus osteotomy
4
Total knee arthroplasty
QUESTION 59
What is the most well-documented advantage of computer-assisted navigation for total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
1
Lowers risk for symptomatic fat embolization
2
Improves range of motion
3
Decreases radiographic outliers
4
Decreases blood loss
QUESTION 60
A 68-year-old man presents 15 days after left total hip arthroplasty with increasing pain and subjective fevers for the last 3 days. Physical exam reveals a healing surgical incision with moderate erythema and no drainage and pain with range of motion of the hip. ESR is 44 and CRP is 32.4. Hip aspiration reveals 8000 WBC, 80% polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN), and two cultures positive for Cutibacterium acnes. Based on the recommendations of the 2018 Second International Consensus Meeting on Musculoskeletal Infection, what is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Debridement and implant retention (DAIR)
2
Resection arthroplasty due to chronic infection
3
Repeat aspiration due to equivocal result.
4
Nonsurgical treatment of C acnes as a nonpathologic organism
QUESTION 61
A 72-year-old woman has a painful right hip, and left hip issues are discovered on the radiographs shown in Figures 1 and
1
An arthroplasty was done 24 years previously. Her left hip is pain-free, but she reports occasional clicking and grinding on the left side. She wishes to avoid major revision surgery. Considering this, what is the best next step to address the left hip?
2
Repeat radiographs at age 75
3
Intra-articular injection with bone marrow aspirate
4
Cementation of a modern liner into the existing socket
5
Cemented femoral stem revision
QUESTION 62
A 22-year-old female dancer presents with left hip pain progressing over 6 months. Physical examination reveals pain with hip flexion, adduction and internal rotation and positive external log roll. Radiographs reveal crossover sign with positive posterior wall sign, and positive ischial spine sign. Center- edge angle (CEA) is 19°. MRI scan shows acetabular labral tear. She has failed attempts at nonsurgical management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
63
1
Arthroscopic acetabular rim-trimming to correct retroversion deformity
2
Arthroscopic labral repair
3
Surgical dislocation with acetabuloplasty and labral advancement
4
Reverse periacetabular osteotomy
QUESTION 63
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 79-year-old woman with a
1
year history of progressively worsening right hip pain. She had a right total hip arthroplasty 7 years prior. An infection workup is negative. She opts for revision surgery; the most appropriate surgical plan to address her femoral component is 64
2
extended trochanteric osteotomy and revision to a cementless long- stem prosthesis.
3
extended trochanteric osteotomy and revision to a cemented long-stem prosthesis.
4
revision to a cementless long-stem prosthesis without use of an extended trochanteric osteotomy.
5
revision to a cemented long-stem prosthesis without use of an extended trochanteric osteotomy.
QUESTION 64
The direct anterior approach is an internervous approach to hip arthroplasty. What muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve?
1
Gluteus medius
2
Gluteus maximus
3
Rectus femoris
4
Tensor fascia lata
QUESTION 65
Figure 1 is the radiograph of an otherwise healthy 68-year-old man with a 4-year history of increasing global left knee pain. He has noticed stiffness, and despite physical therapy, bracing and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, he has continued to develop worsening symptoms and progression in his deformity. Physical examination demonstrates 80°of flexion and a 10° flexion contracture. What is the best next step?
1
Manipulation under anesthesia
2
Left total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
3
Stem cell injection
4
Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty in the lateral compartment
QUESTION 66
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 70-year-old man who underwent knee explantation with antibiotic spacer placement. At the time of second- stage surgery for reimplantation of a total knee arthroplasty, a medial parapatellar arthrotomy is used to access the knee. An extensive synovectomy is performed and the gutters are recreated. Medial and lateral joint line releases are done, and scar tissue is removed from around the patella. The cement spacer is removed and the nail is cut and extracted. However, despite this, the knee only flexes 45° and lateral exposure is compromised. What is the best next step?
66
1
Divide the quadriceps tendon at a 45° angle proximally about three fingerbreadths superior to the patella.
2
Divide the quadriceps tendon at a 45° angle proximally about three fingerbreadths superior to the patella, then connect this to a lateral release.
3
Release the collateral ligaments from the femur and convert to a rotating hinged implant.
4
Perform an osteotomy of the tibial tubercle approximately 5 to 8 cm in length, dividing the soft-tissue attachments laterally to increase exposure.
QUESTION 67
A 55-year-old woman presents 5 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) using a cobalt alloy femoral head and a polyethylene liner. She initially did well, but now has worsening pain and weakness around the hip. She also had one episode of instability. Serum ESR and CRP were within normal limits, and serum metal ion levels demonstrated a cobalt level of 4.0 ng/mL (normal
<0.7 ng/mL) and chromium level of 2.4 ng/mL (normal <0.3 ng/mL). Her metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) MRI scan is shown in Figure
1
What is the best next step?
2
Annual monitoring of serum metal ion levels
3
A repeat MARS MRI scan in 6 months
4
Revision THA to a cobalt alloy femoral head and polyethylene liner
5
Conversion to a ceramic femoral head with a titanium sleeve and polyethylene liner
QUESTION 68
Increased osteolysis in cementless total knee arthroplasty (TKA) has been associated with what design features?
1
Patches of porous coating separated by smooth metal surfaces
2
Highly porous surfaces with properties resembling trabecular bone
3
Polyethylene locking mechanisms that limit micromotion and hydraulic pressure
4
Hydroxyapatite added to the porous surface
QUESTION 69
In performing a posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty (TKA), which component malpositioning is associated with the wear damage shown in this tibial component retrieval (Figure 1)?
1
Excessive femoral component flexion
2
Excessive anterior slope of the proximal tibia
3
Excessive tibial component varus
4
Excessive valgus resection of the distal femur
QUESTION 70
A 58-year-old woman underwent a left total knee arthroplasty 6 years ago. She initially did well after surgery but sustained a fall 2 months ago while at work. She now describes left knee pain and instability and an inability to straighten her knee since the fall. She has been using a hinged knee brace, which provides partial support. On examination, she has passive range of motion of 0° to 115° and active range of motion of 80° to -115°. Her radiographs are shown in Figures 1 through
1
What is the best option for the restoration of her function?
2
Revision total knee arthroplasty with placement of a hinge constrained device
3
Patellar tendon repair with nonabsorbable suture and patellar resurfacing
4
Hinged knee brace with drop lock design to restore stability during ambulation
5
Extensor mechanism reconstruction using synthetic mesh or allograft
QUESTION 71
A 57-year-old man has end-stage osteoarthritis of his right knee. To mechanically align the total knee arthroplasty (TKA) with a neutral coronal plane axis, the surgeon should cut the
1
femur at a 90° angle with respect to the anatomic axis of the femur.
2
proximal tibia in 3° to 5° of varus with respect to the anatomic axis of the tibia.
3
distal femur in 4° to 6° of valgus with respect to the anatomic axis of the femur.
4
proximal tibia in 3° to 5° of varus with respect to the mechanical axis of the tibia.
QUESTION 72
Two years ago, a 63-year-old man underwent right total hip arthroplasty (THA) with a modular femoral head-neck and neck-stem prosthesis (a photograph of the removed implant is shown in Figure 1). He now has increasing hip pain. Radiographs reveal a stable hip arthroplasty and elevated serum cobalt and chromium levels. MR imaging is obtained, and based on these findings, the patient's hip is revised. Which corrosion type likely is responsible for this THA failure?
71
1
Galvanic
2
Pitting
3
Fretting
4
Crevice
QUESTION 73
What recommendation does the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons’ (AAOS) Guidelines for Preventing Venous Thromboembolic Disease in Patients Undergoing Elective Hip and Knee Arthroplasty make regarding the routine use of postoperative duplex ultrasonography screening of patients who undergo elective hip or knee arthroplasty?
1
Strongly recommended against
2
Strongly recommended for
3
Inconclusive
4
Moderate recommendation for
QUESTION 74
A 56-year-old woman presents with left hip pain and diminishing range of motion. Examination reveals pain with range of motion of the hip. Radiographs reveal multiple calcific lesions within the hip and well-preserved joint space. MRI scan shows thickened synovium nodular loose bodies with decreased signal on T1 and T2. What is the best next step?
1
Hip arthroscopy versus open debridement with synovectomy
2
CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis as part of a staging protocol
3
Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
4
Nonoperative treatment with routine follow-up
QUESTION 75
Figures 1 through 3 show the radiographs obtained from an 86-year-old- woman who has had chronic left hip pain for several years. She now uses a walker and a wheelchair for ambulation. She is medically healthy. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
73
1
Fully cemented left total hip arthroplasty (THA)
2
Cementless left THA with a proximally porous coated femoral stem
3
Left THA with cemented femoral component and cementless acetabular component
4
Cementless left THA with a diaphyseal engaging conical femoral stem
QUESTION 76
Figures 1 and 2 are the radiographs of a 64-year-old woman with right posttraumatic knee arthritis. She has chronic weakness of the right limb due to poliomyelitis. During knee reconstruction, her flexion/extension gaps are as shown in Figures 3 and
1
What is the recommended level of constraint?
2
Hinged prosthesis
3
Posterior stabilized prosthesis
4
Varus-valgus constrained prosthesis
5
Medial pivot prosthesis
QUESTION 77
A 69-year-old woman sustained a periprosthetic distal femur fracture 14 months ago after being struck by a vehicle in a parking lot. She initially underwent lateral femoral plating and presents with complaints of left knee pain, loss of motion and instability. Her radiographs and CT scan at the time of presentation are shown in Figures 1 through
1
Preoperative evaluation reveals an ESR of 34 mm/hr (reference range 0-30 mm/hr) and CRP of 0.9 mg/dL (reference range 0.0-1.0 mg/dL). Aspiration was obtained with 1156 WBC and 62% neutrophils. On examination, she has a well-healed lateral thigh skin incision with range of motion of 5° hyperextension to 80° flexion with 2+ laxity to valgus stress. She is interested in surgical intervention secondary to her pain and dysfunction. What is the recommended treatment?
2
Removal of distal fixation hardware with revision of her total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
3
Removal of all fixation hardware, bone graft of the femoral nonunion, placement of a retrograde femoral nail and retention of the TKA
4
Removal of all hardware with placement of an articulating antibiotic spacer device
5
Removal of fixation hardware with distal femoral nonunion resection and placement of distal femoral arthroplasty 76
QUESTION 78
A 67-year-old man has right hip pain. He has undergone multiple surgeries to include right total hip arthroplasty 12 years ago with subsequent femoral revision 4 years ago for stem loosening followed by acetabular revision 6 months ago for acetabular component loosening. He has been wheelchair bound since his most recent surgery with the inability to bear weight and shortening of the right leg. He has a history of lung cancer with bone metastasis 3 years ago treated with chemotherapy and pelvis irradiation. Histologic specimen obtained from his most recent surgery reveals cellular necrosis with no evidence of metastatic disease. Laboratory evaluation for infection reveals ESR of 22 mm/hr (reference range 0-30 mm/hr) and CRP of
0.3 ml/dL (reference range 0.0-1.0 ml/dL). Figures 1 through 4 show his preoperative radiographs and relevant CT scan. What is recommended for revision of his arthroplasty components?
78
1
Bone grafting, press fit acetabular revision shell with iliac screw fixation
2
Acetabular construct that bridges the defect with iliac and ischial screw fixation
3
Femoral revision with extended trochanteric osteotomy, cemented femoral stem and acetabular liner
4
Posterior column plating, bone grafting, and cemented acetabular fixation
QUESTION 79
When compared with a conventional ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) -bearing surface in total hip arthroplasty, a highly cross-linked polyethylene (XLPE) -bearing surface is associated with
1
significantly reduced wear and greater mid-term implant survival.
2
increased wear and increased fracture rate of the liner.
3
decreased mid-term implant survival when compared with UHMWPE.
4
reduced wear, but increased osteolysis.
QUESTION 80
A 30-year-old patient is indicated for distal femoral osteotomy. This procedure results in survivorship with
1
a functional result for at least 20 years.
2
a functional result that deteriorates within the first 10 years.
3
an eventual conversion to a constrained knee arthroplasty.
4
an eventual need for arthrodesis.
QUESTION 81
Figures 1 through 3 depict the radiographs obtained from a 76-year-old woman with a painful total knee arthroplasty. She describes an uneventful recovery with no wound-healing issues and was pain free for the first 10 years. Although reporting no trauma or inciting event, she now describes pain in the entire knee that is most severe with her first few steps. She has begun to notice night pain and, more recently, constant swelling. What is the most appropriate work-up at this time?
1
CT scan to assess component rotational alignment
2
Knee aspiration with cell count/cultures, CRP, ESR
3
Revision knee arthroplasty with intraoperative frozen section
4
Technetium-99m bone scan
QUESTION 82
In the diagnosis of periprosthetic infection involving a total joint arthroplasty using the 2018 Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria, there are major and minor criteria. An example of a major criteria is
1
a positive culture from synovial fluid.
2
elevated CRP and ESR.
3
positive synovial alpha-defensin and elevated synovial PMN%.
4
sinus tract with evidence of communication to the joint.
QUESTION 83
A 57-year-old man has right knee osteoarthritis and is indicated for a total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The patient has questions regarding the use of preoperative 3-dimensional imaging to develop custom cutting guides. Current data have been shown to support what proposed benefits with the use of custom cutting guides versus conventional instrumentation?
1
Improved coronal component alignment
2
Improved clinical outcomes
3
Decreased instrument trays
4
Improved axial component alignment
QUESTION 84
Figures 1 through 5 are the radiographs and CT scans of a 67-year-old man who has had intermittent anterior and medial pain since his left total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 years ago. Examination reveals full range of motion and positive posterior drawer. His pain has been recalcitrant to physical therapy, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and brace treatment. What is the most appropriate treatment?
83
84
1
Polyethylene exchange
2
Femoral component revision
3
Femoral and tibial component revision
4
Full revision to a constrained hinge prosthesis
QUESTION 85
A 65-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis is undergoing revision total knee arthroplasty (TKA) during which the medial collateral ligament (MCL) is damaged. Suture anchors are used to attempt primary repair, and a varus-valgus constrained insert also is used. Postsurgically she experiences instability that does not respond to bracing with a 3+ opening to valgus stress (Figure 1). What is the most appropriate surgical option?
1
Femoral revision with distal augment
2
MCL allograft reconstruction
3
Ultracongruent insert
4
Rotating-hinge TKA
QUESTION 86
Figures 1 through 3 depict the radiographs obtained from a 60-year-old man with instability and pain 1 year after primary right total knee arthroplasty. He states that he had surgery on two occasions for a tendon rupture that was repaired with sutures but that his knee popped again, and now the leg is unable to hold his weight. On examination, he is in no acute distress. His height is 6'3", and he weighs 240 pounds. He is ambulatory with crutches. Range of motion of the right knee is 50° to 120° actively and 0° to 120° passively. More than 10° of varus/valgus laxity and more than 5 mm of anteroposterior drawer are present. A palpable defect is observed in the tissue just proximal to the patella. The incision is well healed. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 46 mm/h (reference range 0 to 20 mm/h) and the
1
reactive protein level is 2.04 mg/L (reference range 0.08 to 3.1 mg/L). Aspiration of the right knee reveals hazy yellow fluid with a white blood cell count of 120 and 1% neutrophils. No growth of organisms is seen on routine culture. What is the best next step? 86
2
Revision total knee arthroplasty with extensor mechanism reconstruction
3
Revision total knee arthroplasty with liner change and primary quadriceps repair
4
Resection knee arthroplasty and arthrodesis with antegrade nail
5
Two-stage revision total knee arthroplasty with extensor mechanism reconstruction
QUESTION 87
Figures 1 and 2 demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a 63-year-old man who had right total hip arthroplasty (THA) 4 months ago. Progressive stiffness began 2 months after surgery, and he now reports pain only after prolonged physical activity. His examination reveals a normal gait and painless range of motion with flexion of 70°, extension of 0°, internal rotation of 20°, external rotation of 20°, abduction of 10°, and adduction of 10°. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level are within defined limits. Physical therapy has produced no benefit. What is the most appropriate next step?
1
25 mg of indomethacin 3 times daily for 6 weeks
2
1 dose of irradiation at 800 Gy
3
Surgical excision of heterotopic ossification (HO)
4
Re-evaluation in 6 months
QUESTION 88
Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 42-year-old man who presents for surgical management of left hip arthritis. Measurement of the radiograph reveals that the femoral head is 80% subluxated. The Crowe classification grade is
1
I
2
II
3
III
4
IV
QUESTION 89
A 66-year-old woman presents with pain and a worsening deformity of her right knee after a total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 5 years ago. She has a complete work-up and is diagnosed with aseptic loosening of the tibia. She is 5’6” in height and 185 pounds. Her preoperative nasal screening shows she is negative for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Based on laxity on physical examination and bone loss, she was indicated for a full revision procedure. She has no known drug allergies and her past medical history is significant for osteoarthritis, hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. The patient undergoes an uncomplicated revision TKA with intraoperative testing confirming aseptic loosening. Based on the patient’s history, what is the most appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
1
Cefazolin 2 grams preoperative and every 8 hours for 24 hours
2
Cefazolin 2 grams preoperative and every 8 hours until the cultures come back
3
Cefazolin 3 grams preoperative and every 8 hours for 48 hours
4
Clindamycin 900 milligram preoperative and every 8 hours for 24 hours
QUESTION 90
A 57-year-old woman who is undergoing right total hip arthroplasty is found to have a femoral neck shaft angle of 110° for both hips. She has no measurable leg length discrepancy preoperatively. The femoral component that is selected for the reconstruction has a neck angle of 130°. During surgery, if baseline neck length is maintained, the right hip is prone to
1
increased offset and decreased leg length.
2
increased offset and increased leg length.
3
decreased offset and decreased leg length.
4
decreased offset and increased leg length.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon