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Orthopedic Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics Revie -...

Updated: Feb 2026 77 Views
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Orthopedics Online MCQs

QUESTION 1
ORTHOPEDIC MCQS BANK ONLINE OITE 21
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01.1 A 49-year-old man has a persistent Trendelenburg gait after undergoing open
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reduction and internal fixation of a posterior wall acetabular fracture 6 months
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ago. The radiographs reveal a normal joint space with no heterotopic ossification
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and no signs of osteonecrosis. Weakness in what muscle group is the most likely
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cause of his limp?
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon