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100 Random Orthopedic MCQs for Board Prep (2026 Update)

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100 Random Orthopedic MCQs for Board Prep (2026 Update)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following cells produce osteocalcin and bone sialoprotein:
1
Osteocytes
2
Osteoblasts
3
Mast cells
4
Osteoclasts
5
Fibroblasts
QUESTION 2
In an obese patient undergoing unicondylar knee arthroplasty (UKA):
1
The results are worse than in a normal weight patient.
2
The results are better than in a normal weight patient.
3
The results are not predictably better or worse.
4
The results depend on the design of the prosthesis.
5
Results are gender dependent.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following defects occurs in Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (pseudohypoparathyroidism):
1
Type X collagen
2
Sulfate transporter gene
3
Beta glucosidase
4
Galpha S (GNAS1)
5
C arbonic anhydrase type II, proton pump
QUESTION 4
Internal impingement is characterized by which of the following anatomic lesions?

1
Subscapularis tear
2
Bursal-sided rotator cuff tear
3
Articular-sided rotator cuff tear
4
Tight anterior capsule
5
Laxity of the posterior capsule
QUESTION 5
Slide 1 Slide 2
A 9-year-old boy has a history of multiple fractures. He presents with left leg pain following a minor fall. His anteroposterior
(Slide 1) and lateral (Slide 2) plain radiographs are shown. The most likely genetiCdefect would be:
1
FGF receptor 3
2
Type I collagen
3
Cartilage oligomeriCmatrix protein
4
Fibrillin
5
Type II collagen
QUESTION 6
of 100
A 69-year-old patient with diabetes has had acute-onset back pain and difficulty with ambulation for several hours. Evaluation reveals a temperature of 38.3°C, a white blood cell (WBC) count of 14000/µL (reference range [rr], 4500-11000/µL), C-reactive protein (CRP) level of 120 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 130 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h), normal rectal examination findings, and normal sensation to light touch. Motor function testing of the lower extremities reveals 3/5 ankle dorsiflexion and 4/5 plantar flexion strength bilaterally. An MR image reveals a large epidural abscess from L1-5. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?


1
Medical management with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and observation
2
CT-guided aspiration of the abscess before initiating antibiotics
3
Surgical decompression and IV antibiotics
4
Blood cultures and re-evaluation in 24 hours
QUESTION 7
A 40-year-old man who is a manual laborer has had 3 years of worsening medial-sided left knee pain that
has inhibited his ability to work. He reports undergoing a left subtotal medial meniscectomy 10 years ago. He has been treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and two different corticosteroids, with the most recent injection given 1 month ago. Each injection provided him with a few weeks of pain control. His medical history is unremarkable, and he has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for the last 15 years. His BMI is 22. On examination, he has varus alignment of the involved leg and medial joint line tenderness and no lateral or patellofemoral pain. His knee range of motion is 3° shy of full extension to 130° of flexion. He has negative Lachman and posterior drawer test results. He demonstrates no lateral thrust with ambulation. The patient is provided with a medial unloader brace that provides substantial pain relief, and he is able to work while wearing the brace. After 4 months, he returns to work and reports that while the brace enables him to work, it is uncomfortable. Consequently, his symptoms return when he is not wearing the brace, and he is requesting a surgical intervention for his problem. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
1
Valgus-producing high tibial osteotomy (VPHTO)
2
Repeat knee arthroscopy
3
Total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
4
Medial meniscus transplant
QUESTION 8
A 53-year-old man reports acute, severe left shoulder pain after undergoing abdominal surgery 10 days ago. Initial management, consisting of anti-inflammatory drugs, physical therapy, and a subacromial injection of corticosteroid, fails to provide relief. Reexamination of the shoulder 2 months after the onset of symptoms reveals atrophy of the infraspinous and supraspinous fossa and profound weakness of active abduction and external rotation. His neck is supple with a full range of motion. Plain radiographs and an MRI scan of the shoulder are normal. What diagnostic study should be performed next in the evaluation of this patient?**
1
Shoulder arthrography
2
MRI of the cervical spine
3
CT of the head
4
Technetium Tc 99m bone scan
5
Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies
QUESTION 9
of 100
Figures 16a and 16b are the radiograph and MR image of a 15-year-old dance athlete with 2 weeks of pain at the left distal femur, a limp, and an inability to dance. Knee motion is 0 to 135 degrees with minimal pain and there is no effusion. Her temperature is 37.0°C, WBC is 12000 /µL (rr, 4500-11000 /µL), CRP is 0.8 mg/L (rr, 0.08-3.1 mg/L), and ESR is 21 mm/h (rr, 0-20 mm/h).


1
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and intravenous (IV) nafcillin
2
Aspiration, cultures, surgical irrigation and debridement, and IV vancomycin
3
Aspiration, cultures, Lyme serology, and oral amoxicillin
4
Biopsy, culture, curettage, bone graft, and possible internal fixation
5
Physical therapy, ibuprofen, and an antinuclear antibody test
QUESTION 10
aOne year after undergoing a primary total knee arthroplasty, a 65-year-old man has a 1-week history of new onset anterior knee pain. He can perform a straight-leg raise with no extension lag. Radiographs reveal a transverse patella fracture with 8 mm of displacement and an intact patellar component. The best course of treatment is
1
patellectomy with retinacular repair.
2
immobilization in extension for 6 weeks.
3
open reduction and cerclage wiring.
4
internal fixation and patellar component revision.
QUESTION 11
What is the most consistent finding regarding glenohumeral kinematics in patients with symptomatic tears of the rotator cuff?
1
No superior translation during abduction
2
Retention of ball-and-socket kinematics with more than 30 degrees of abduction
3
Loss of ball-and-socket kinematics with less than 30 degrees of abduction
4
Superior translation of the humeral head with more than 30 degrees of abduction
5
Superior translation of the humeral head with external rotation
QUESTION 12
A 7-year-old boy has a swollen and deformed right arm after falling off his bicycle. Radiographs reveal a completely displaced posterolateral supracondylar humeral fracture. Examination reveals a warm, pink hand and forearm but absent pulses. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
1
Angiography
2
Immediate closed reduction and casting in extension
3
Surgical exploration and repair of the artery, followed by skeletal stabilization
4
Closed reduction and pinning, followed by reassessment of the vascular status
5
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
QUESTION 13
of 100
Figures 1 through 4 are the injury radiographs and postsurgical open treatment radiographs of a 13-year-old girl who fell while on a trampoline and sustained an injury to her right-dominant elbow. The skin is closed and she has normal vascular and neurologic examination findings. Which complication most likely could occur as a result of this injury and treatment?
1
Compartment syndrome
2
Loss of elbow motion
3
Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the radial head
4
Nonunion of the fracture site
QUESTION 14
Which of the following most accurately approximates the estimated risk of a musculoskeletal allograft containing the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) despite adequate screening?

1
1 in 600
2
1 in 6,000
3
1 in 60,000
4
1 in 1,600,000
5
1 in
QUESTION 15
When an anterior approach to the cervical spine is being performed, many
2. surgeons prefer the left-sided approach to the right-sided approach because on
3. the left side the recurrent laryngeal nerve is
4. 1- larger.
5. 2- more consistent in location.
6. 3- entirely within the carotid sheath.
7. 4- well protected by the strap muscles of the neck.
8. 5- located between the longus colli and the esophagus.
1
surgeons prefer the left-sided approach to the right-sided approach because on
2
the left side the recurrent laryngeal nerve is
3
1- larger.
4
2- more consistent in location.
5
3- entirely within the carotid sheath.
QUESTION 16
Delayed unions and nonunions of base of fifth metatarsal fractures have been demonstrated to heal by:
1
Prolonged cast immobilization and non-weight bearing
2
Pulsed electromagnetic fields
3
C ontinued use of a fracture boot with protected weight-bearing
4
Injection of demineralized bone matrix
5
Rigid carbon fiber shoe inserts
QUESTION 17
A 22-year-old patient has had severe groin pain for many months and is unable to engage in any physical activity. The _A_ A _L-M_ P _a_ r _d_ a _e_ d _n_ i _a_ o _C_ g _o_ r _p_ a _y_ ph of the pelvis shows minimal arthritis. The lateral radiograph of the hip is shown in Figure 33a. An MR-arthrogram is shown in Figure 33b. What is the most appropriate treatment at this stage?
1
Hip arthroscopy and labral debridement
2
Femoroacetabular osteoplasty and labral repair
3
Femoral osteotomy
4
Hemiarthroplasty
5
Total hip arthroplasty
QUESTION 18
of 100
If the culture results are positive, which treatment will most likely resolve the infection?
1
Arthroscopic debridement
2
Intravenous antibiotics
3
Single-stage revision
4
Double-stage revision
QUESTION 19
The distinction between a Lauge-Hansen supination-external rotation III injury and a Lauge-Hansen supination-external rotation
IV injury is:
1
A spiral oblique fracture of the lateral malleolus
2
Anteroinferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) disruption
3
Posteroinferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL) disruption or posterior malleolus fracture
4
Deltoid ligament disruption or medial malleolus fracture
5
Anterior talo-fibular ligament disruption
QUESTION 20
A 36-year-old recreational athlete feels a pop in his antecubital fossa while lifting weights. He has pain, swelling, and deformity. Representative sagittal and coronal MRI slices are shown in Figures 1 and 2, respectively. What is the most common major complications associated with surgical repair of this structure?
74
1
Symptomatic heterotopic ossification requiring reoperation
2
Brachial artery laceration
3
Deep infection
4
Posterior interosseous nerve palsy
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is the rate-limiting step in the production of biologically active Vitamin D:
1
25 hydroxylation in the liver
2
Absorption of calcium in the duodenum
3
Conversion of 7 dehydrocholesterol to vitamin D3 in the skin
4
1 hydroxylation in the kidney
5
Absorption of calcium in the jejunum
QUESTION 22
You design a research study in which you ask patients who have a nonunion of the tibia to fill out a questionnaire in which they report on a variety of medical conditions and social/behavioral practices. You compare these findings to a similar group who did not develop a nonunion in order to identify medical and/or social conditions that might be risk factors for the development of tibial nonunions. This would be an example of what type of study?
1
Case series
2
Meta-analysis
3
Case control study
4
Retrospective cohort study
5
Prospective cohort study #
QUESTION 23
of 100
During an anterior approach to correct thoracolumbar scoliosis, there is a sudden decrease in somatosensory-evoked potential (SSEP) and motor-evoked potential (MEP) signals. Correction maneuvers have not been attempted when signals go down. All neuromonitoring and anesthesia concerns have been addressed, and the measured abnormalities persist. What is the likely reason behind the neuromonitoring abnormalities?

1
Occlusion of the artery of Adamkiewicz
2
Neurapraxia
3
Mechanical injury to the cord via instrumentation
4
False positive, proceed as planned
QUESTION 24
Slide 1 Slide 2 Slide 3
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his concerned parents. The boyâs forearm is bowed, and his parents are confused as to the possible diagnosis and treatment options. You notice that the right forearm of the child is bowed ulnarwards and is shorter compared to the left forearm. The pronosupination is markedly decreased on the right side but is also limited on the left side. The patient has a good grip, pinch, and grasp. He is neurologically intact as well.
The parents say that they first noticed the deformity around 6 or 7 years ago, and the mother informs you that she had noticed a hard bump on the forearm. She has recently noticed another bump on his right leg. The child does not complain of pain and is using both of his hands quite well. The parents were informed by a previous physician that the child has Madelungâs deformity and are concerned that the disease is now involving other areas of his body.
You order a radiograph of the forearm. The anteroposterior radiograph is shown (Slide 1). The childâs skeletal radiograph survey is also presented (Slide 2 and Slide 3).
The genetic pattern seen in patients with this type of presentation is:
1
Autosomal recessive
2
Autosomal dominant
3
Sex-linked recessive
4
Sex-linked dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 25
A 43-year-old former professional hockey player reports severe pain in his chest after being checked from the side in a pick-up hockey game. An MRI scan and plain radiographs are shown in Figures 25a through 25c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Anterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation
2
Posteroinferior sternoclavicular joint dislocation
3
Anterior acromioclavicular joint dislocation
4
Posterior acromioclavicular joint dislocation
5
Acromial fracture
QUESTION 26
The risk of nerve injury following revision total hip arthroplasty (THA) is approximately:
1
0.5%
2
1%
3
1% to 10%
4
10% to 20%
5
More than 20%
QUESTION 27
What is the most likely cause of recurrent symptoms following excision of a third web space neuroma?
1
Traumatic neuroma tethered by plantar neural branches
2
Regeneration of the transverse intermetatarsal ligament
3
Development of an intermetatarsal synovial cyst
4
Complex regional pain syndrome
5
Metatarsophalangeal joint synovitis
QUESTION 28
A 35-year-old male with a pronation abduction ankle injury would have which of the following radiographs?




1
Figure A
2
Figure B
3
Figure C
4
Figure D
5
Figure E
QUESTION 29
During gait evaluation of a 25-year-old patient who had polio at age 5, it is noted that the right foot slaps
the floor at heel strike, and the toes extend during the swing phase. Examination reveals a flexible cavus foot, claw toes, and an equinus deformity. The patient has tried various orthoses and would like surgical correction if possible. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Calcaneal osteotomy, Achilles tendon lengthening, metatarsal osteotomies
2
Calcaneal osteotomy, Achilles tendon lengthening, extensor hallucis longus transfer to the first metatarsal neck, flexor digitorum longus to extensor digitorum longus transfer of the lesser toes
3
Calcaneal osteotomy, plantar fascia release, Achilles tendon lengthening, tibialis posterior transfer to the dorsum of the foot, flexor digitorum longus to extensor digitorum longus transfer of the lesser toes
4
Triple arthrodesis, Achilles tendon lengthening, extensor hallucis longus transfer to the first metatarsal neck, flexor digitorum longus to extensor digitorum longus transfer of the lesser toes
5
Plantar fascia release, Achilles tendon lengthening, extensor hallucis longus transfer to the first metatarsal neck, tibialis posterior transfer to the dorsum of the foot, flexor digitorum longus to extensor digitorum longus transfer of the lesser toes
QUESTION 30
of 100
A 58-year-old man has right shoulder pain. An examination reveals full range of motion in all planes but 4/5 forward elevation strength (Figures 90a and 90b).


1
Humeral head resurfacing/shoulder hemiarthroplasty
2
Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA)
3
Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA)
4
Rotator cuff repair
5
Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
QUESTION 31
What is the most common cause of reoperation following contemporary hip resurfacing for degenerative coxarthrosis?
1
Limb-length discrepancy
2
Altered femoral offset
3
Snapping psoas tendon
4
Limitation of hip movement
5
Femoral neck fracture
QUESTION 32
Which of the following may be beneficial in decreasing the deleterious effects of total muscle ischemia in a patient who has a compartment syndrome:
1
Systemic steroids
2
Hypothermia
3
Elevation of the extremity above the heart
4
Antihypertensive therapy
5
Anticoagulant therapy
QUESTION 33
of 100
Figure 93
1
Chromosome 17 mutation
2
MYH3 mutation
3
Embryonic vascular interruption
4
Infantile vascular interruption
5
Chromosome 11 mutation
QUESTION 34
Figure 1 shows a radiograph obtained from an active 30-year-old man who sustained an injury to his ring finger 1 week earlier. The most appropriate treatment is

1
open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF).
2
a mallet splint.
3
repair of the terminal tendon.
4
arthrodesis.
QUESTION 35
What is the most common pathogen for soft-tissue infection of the foot caused by a puncture wound?
1
Staphylococcus aureus
2
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3
Eikenella corrodens
4
Pasteurella multocida
5
Vibrio species
QUESTION 36
Ultrasound therapy delivers superficial heat to the tissue and has a penetration depth of 5 mm.
1
True
2
False
QUESTION 37
Slide 1 Slide 2 Slide 3
A 44-year-old obese man presents for treatment of acute ankle pain. He does not have a history of trauma or a systemic history of note. His opposite foot has had multiple episodes of acute pain in the past, lasting from 3 to 5 days. On examination, the
ankle is warm, swollen, and exquisitely tender to palpation and any range of motion (Slide1, Slide 2, and Slide 3). C oncerned about the source of pain, you aspirate the joint and send the sample for analysis. You expect to find:
1
Gram-positive cocci
2
Gram-negative rods
3
Normal joint fluid
4
Sodium monourate crystals
5
A high red cell count
QUESTION 38
The thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint should be flexed to what degree to properly assess ligamentous stability?
1
30 degrees of flexion to test the proper collateral ligament and full extension to test the accessory collateral ligament and the palmar plate
2
30 degrees of flexion to test the accessory collateral ligament and full extension to test the proper collateral ligament and the palmar plate
3
45 degrees of flexion to test the accessory collateral ligament, the proper collateral ligament, and the palmar plate
4
90 degrees of flexion to test the proper collateral ligament and full extension to test the acces sory collateral ligament and the palmar plate
5
90 degrees of flexion to test the accessory collateral ligament and full extension to test the proper collateral ligament and the palmar plate
QUESTION 39
A 56-year-old man who underwent a left total hip arthroplasty 8 years ago is seen following a fall from a standing height. A radiograph obtained at 2 years postoperatively is shown in Figure 55a and a current radiograph obtained in the emergency department is shown in Figure 55b. On further questioning, he reports pain in this thigh for the past 3 years that has been increasing in intensity. Appropriate management at this time includes which of the following?
1
Nonsurgical management with the use of a cast-brace
2
Nonsurgical management with skeletal traction
3
Open treatment with a locked plate with or without strut allograft
4
Revision of the femoral component to a cemented femoral component that bypasses the fracture site by two cortical diameters
5
Revision of the femoral component to a cementless femoral component that bypasses the fracture site by at least two cortical diameters
QUESTION 40
Figures 34a and 34b show the radiographs of a 28-year-old man who fell on his outstretched arm with significant force while mountain biking. The nerve deficit most likely to occur would result in weakness of
1
wrist extension.
2
digital abduction.
3
thumb flexion.
4
thumb opposition.
5
thumb extension.
QUESTION 41
Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy is unique among the dystrophies because of the development of which deformity:
1
Neck extension contracture
2
Hip abduction
3
Knee flexion
4
Equinus contracture
5
Scoliosis
QUESTION 42
The patient in Figure 55 is actively attempting to make a fist. This clinical scenario suggests which of the following anatomic lesions? ](http://www.orthobullets.com/anatomy/10106/median-nerve)
1
Median nerve lesion in the arm
2
Radial nerve lesion in the arm
3
Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome
4
Posterior interosseous nerve syndrome
5
Median neuropathy at the wrist
QUESTION 43
What percentage of the human genome represents the actual genes:
1
80%
2
66%
3
50%
4
20%
5
5%
QUESTION 44
A 5-year-old boy has had a limp for the past 4 weeks with intermittent pain at the foot. He remains normally active and has no history of trauma. He has no fevers, rashes, or swelling. Examination reveals tenderness at the mid-dorsum of the foot medially. Radiographs are seen in Figures la and lb. Treatment should include which of the following?

1
MRI of the foot with gadolinium
2
Open biopsy of the lesion
3
Needle aspiration and culture, followed by antibiotic treatment
4
Observation or an orthotic arch support
5
Steroid injection of the lesion
QUESTION 45
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 56-year-old woman in good health who reports a 6-month history of shoulder pain and external rotation weakness. Her radiographs are unremarkable. What is the diagnosis?
1
Rotator cuff tear
2
Anteroinferior labral tear
3
Suprascapular nerve compression
4
Quadrilateral space syndrome
QUESTION 46
When compared with a conventional ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) -bearing surface in total hip arthroplasty, a highly cross-linked polyethylene (XLPE) -bearing surface is associated with
1
significantly reduced wear and greater mid-term implant survival.
2
increased wear and increased fracture rate of the liner.
3
decreased mid-term implant survival when compared with UHMWPE.
4
reduced wear, but increased osteolysis.
QUESTION 47
Haversian bone is composed of vascular channels surrounded circumferentially by lamellar bone. Which of the following terms is used to describe the unit of bone composed of a neurovascular channel surrounded by a cell-permeated layer of bone matrix:
1
Bone remodeling unit
2
Plexiform bone
3
Osteon
4
Volkman unit
5
Canaliculi
QUESTION 48
A 20-year-old male military recruit reports a 5-day history of progressive deep groin pain that is made worse with weight-bearing activities and running. His initial coronal T2-weighted MRI scan is shown in Figure 75. His initial treatment should consist of which of the following?
1
Bed rest with skeletal traction (distal femur traction pin)
2
Calcium supplements
3
Crutches with protected weight bearing
4
Open reduction and internal fixation
5
Pulsed ultrasound treatment
QUESTION 49
of 100
Which treatment regimen for Ewing sarcoma most effectively controls disease?
1
Chemotherapy alone
2
Chemotherapy plus wide surgical resection
3
Chemotherapy plus radiation therapy
4
Surgery plus radiation therapy
QUESTION 50
A 24-year-old man has a deep knife wound across the dorsal aspect of his wrist, transecting all of his wrist and finger extensor tendons. How does the surgeon determine which of the proximal tendon stumps in the fourth dorsal compartment is the extensor indicis proprius? ](http://www.orthobullets.com/anatomy/10040/extensor-indicis)Review Topic
1
The tendon runs in a separate compartment.
2
The tendon has a more circular cross section.
3
The tendon has the most distal muscle belly.
4
The tendon is the most radial and superficial.
5
The tendon has two separate slips.
QUESTION 51
Which of the following mutations occurs in patients with diastrophic dysplasia:
1
Type II collagen mutation
2
Type V collagen mutation
3
Type I collagen mutation
4
Sulfate transporter gene mutation
5
Fibrillin gene mutation
QUESTION 52
of 100
A 78-year-old woman has a history of chronic low back pain. She denies any extremity problems. Her pain is worse in the morning, and gets better, although it does not go away, as the day goes on. An MRI scan of the lumbar spine is shown in Figure

1
She denies any acute worsening of her symptoms, although in general, her symptoms are slowly worsening. She takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs as needed for her pain, but otherwise takes no other medications. What is the next most appropriate step in management? ![img](/media/upload/ElRL4hLHvYgQsEoPkfSWKTaepXsCnTHHXb71gXsEML9Ex2xLDzhZSOGA-q-Omp8US8tUvt5RsHjQuB3qEekCUJqTyMIchSWJJOLJ2CJLOm6O_T0X30dS7vj6LXJwnXjaTpG8mqZKSvOfebx4TH0sSJr1wQJw_tBehizi-2Dwjww_NrRO5EGmo9ndxjdvDQ)
2
DEXA scan
3
Brace treatment with a Jewett hyperextension brace
4
Anterior lumbar corpectomy and arthrodesis with instrumentation
5
Posterior lumbar decompression and fusion
QUESTION 53
Figures A and B are radiographic images of an 85-year-old woman with isolated left hip pain. She describes a non-syncopal fall from standing 4 hours ago. Physical examination reveals pain with log-rolling the left thigh and the inability to bear weight on the affected leg. The radiologist reports no fracture in the left hip. What would be the next best step?


1
Stress view radiographs of the left hip
2
Non-weight bearing and pelvic bone scan in 7 days
3
Non-weight bearing and repeat the CT scan after 48 hours from injury
4
MRI hip and pelvis
5
Weight bearing activity as tolerated with close follow-up
QUESTION 54
This patient developed a peripheral neuropathy of uncertain etiology. She has a partial peroneal nerve palsy with lack of extensor function of the hallux. She repeatedly stubs and catches the hallux when walking. Upon examination, she has good strength of the extensor digitorum longus tendon, as well as the anterior tibial tendon. Flexor strength of the foot is intact. All of the following are acceptable surgical alternatives except:
1
Arthrodesis of the hallux metatarsophalangeal (MP) joint
2
Tenodesis of the extensor hallucis longus tendon to the extensor digitorum longus tendon
3
Tenodesis of the extensor hallucis longus tendon to the anterior tibial tendon
4
Transfer of the peroneus tertius tendon to the extensor hallucis longus tendon
5
Transfer of a portion of the extensor digitorum longus tendon to the extensor hallucis longus tendon
QUESTION 55
of 100
What is the most common complication following open reduction locking plate osteosynthesis of this injury?
1
Intra-articular screw penetration
2
Posttraumatic avascular necrosis (AVN)
3
Nonunion
4
Subacromial plate impingement
QUESTION 56
A 22-year-old volleyball player has atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. This deficit is the result of entrapment of what nerve?
1
Axillary nerve in the posterolateral space
2
Dorsal scapular nerve at the medial border of the scapula
3
Suprascapular nerve in the scapular notch
4
Suprascapular nerve in the spinoglenoid notch
5
Subscapular nerve at the rotator interval
QUESTION 57
Which of the following statements is true regarding soft tissue sarcomas:
1
Soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasize to bone.
2
Patients with soft tissue sarcomas of the hand have worse prognosis than patients with similar tumors in other extremities.
3
Soft tissue sarcomas present as a painful mass in the hand.
4
Overall prognosis is better with radical resection than wide excision.
5
Soft tissue sarcomas can be "shelled out".
QUESTION 58
of 100
A patient undergoes excision of a presumed lipoma of the superficial thigh. Final pathology reveals synovial sarcoma without reference to the margins. What is the recommendation for definitive treatment?
1
Observation
2
External beam radiation therapy alone
3
Wide resection of the tumor bed and radiation therapy
4
Radiation therapy and chemotherapy
QUESTION 59
When fracture step-off is greater than the accepted limits, which of the following complications is the most common:
1
Arthritis
2
Pain
3
Decreased range of motion
4
Decreased pinch strength
5
All of the above
QUESTION 60
Which of the following stress fractures is the most prone to nonunion and require surgical intervention:
1
Proximal posteromedial compression
2
Distal posteromedial compression
3
Anterior tibial cortex tension
4
Femoral shaft compression
5
Medial malleolus
QUESTION 61
A 56-year-old man has a chief complaint of leg weakness and inability to walk. Examination reveals 5out of 5 motor strength in all lower extremity muscle groups tested and normal sensation to light touch in
both lower extremities. The patient is slow in getting up from a seated position and has an unsteady widebased gait. An MRI scan of the lumbar spine is shown in Figure

1
![img](/media/upload/16ef12c8-3e78-4dcb-aa8a-2f8fd20ab04c.jpg) What is the next most appropriate course of action?
2
Electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies of bilateral lower extremities
3
Multilevel lumbar laminectomy
4
MRI of the thoracic and cervical spine
5
MRI of the brain
QUESTION 62
The increased radiographiCbone density in osteonecrosis is most likely secondary to:
1
Calcification of the necrotiCbone marrow
2
Insoluble soap from released calcium and free fatty acids
3
Creeping substitution on the dead trabeculae
4
Resorption of the Haversian canal bone
5
NecrotiCcortical bone
QUESTION 63
Emergent management of acute tooth displacement (luxation) includes
1
delaying replantation until a dentist is present.
2
scrubbing the root of the tooth clean with hydrogen peroxide.
3
transporting the tooth in a carbonated beverage.
4
emergency root canal.
QUESTION 64
What is the most well-documented advantage of computer-assisted navigation for total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?
1
Lowers risk for symptomatic fat embolization
2
Improves range of motion
3
Decreases radiographic outliers
4
Decreases blood loss
QUESTION 65
A 24-year-old man sustains an injury to his right elbow after falling 10 feet. Radiographs are shown in Figures 41a and 41b. Treatment should consist of
1
open reduction and internal fixation, followed by casting.
2
open reduction and internal fixation, followed by early range of motion.
3
open reduction and internal fixation, medial collateral ligament repair, and early range of motion.
4
open reduction and internal fixation of the ulna, application of a hinged external fixator, and early range of motion.
5
closed reduction and splinting, followed by early range of motion.
QUESTION 66
of 100
Recommendations for sports activity should include
1
full participation without restrictions.
2
avoidance of contact or collision sports.
3
avoidance of racquet sports.
4
avoidance of throwing sports.
QUESTION 67
In injured tissues, ischemia begins when the tissue pressure within the compartment comes within mm Hg of the diastolic pressure.
1
10
2
20
3
30
4
40
5
50
QUESTION 68
A 78-year-old woman undergoes a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty for cuff tear arthropathy. Her preoperative, 3-month postoperative, and
1
year postoperative radiographs are shown in Figures 1 through
2
What is the cause of the radiographic finding seen here? 17
3
Glenoid component malposition
4
Humeral component malposition
5
Over tensioning of the deltoid
QUESTION 69
A 35-year-old male sustains the fracture seen in Figures A and B. Which of the following substances has been shown to result in the least radiographic subsidence when combined with open reduction and internal fixation?

1
Cancellous allograft bone chips
2
Autograft iliac crest
3
Femoral intramedullary reamings
4
Calcium phosphate cement
5
Calcium sulfate cement
QUESTION 70
A 16-year-old boy with type I Ehlers-Danlos syndrome has a spinal curvature that has progressed 18° in the past year. The curve is a double major type with a C obb angle of 60° in each curve. There is no associated kyphosis. The following treatment is recommend:
1
Observation
2
Bracing
3
Anterior fusion and instrumentation
4
Posterior fusion and instrumentation
5
Anterior and posterior fusion with instrumentation
QUESTION 71
Which of the following cell type-cell function pairings is false:
1
Pre-osteoblasts â stem cell for osteoblasts
2
Osteoblasts â synthesize organiCmatrix
3
Ostecytes â maintain mineral homeostatsis
4
Osteoclasts â synthesize organiCmatrix
5
Osteoblasts â receptors for PTH
QUESTION 72
..What is the most likely predictor of postsurgical pain following a coracoid transfer procedure for recurrent shoulder instability?
1
Suboptimal graft placement
2
Pain before surgery
3
Progression of osteoarthritis
4
Previous surgical treatment DISCUSSION…Recurrent glenohumeral instability with anteroinferior glenoid bone loss is best treated with a coracoid transfer. Schmid and associates reported on 49 patients with these lesions and recurrent instability who underwent coracoid transfer procedures. Good and excellent outcomes were reported in 88% of patients, and there were no instances of recurrent instability. With anteroinferior glenoid bone loss, capsular procedures—whether open or arthroscopic—are unlikely to provide stability. Remplissage is a procedure designed to address Hill-Sachs lesions rather than glenoid defects. The absolute indications to treat Hill-Sachs lesions surgically include a lesion associated with a humeral head fracture, a lesion involving more than 30% of the humeral head with chronic instability, and reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving more than 20% of the articular surface with symptoms of posterior instability. Lesions involving 20% to 35% with or without engagement on examination are relative indications, as are lesions exceeding 10% that do not remain centered in the glenoid following arthroscopic stabilization. In Schmid and associates’ series of coracoid transfers for recurrent instability and anterior glenoid deficiency, patients who reported pain before surgery were 20 times more likely to have pain after surgery that compromised the functional outcome. Optimal graft placement correlated with better functional outcomes and less progression of arthrosis, but not with pain. Consequently, poor graft position, arthritis progression, and prior surgical treatment are not as consistently predictive of pain after surgery.
QUESTION 73
slide 1 slide 2
A patientâs upper extremity radiographs are shown in Slide 1 and Slide 2. What is the most likely inheritance pattern of this condition:
1
X-linked recessive
2
X-linked dominant
3
Autosomal recessive
4
Autosomal dominant
5
Sporadic
QUESTION 74
A 25-year-old laborer sustains a transverse fracture of the proximal 25% of the scaphoid. CT reconstructions reveal a 1-mm fracture gap. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Above-elbow thumb spica cast
2
Short arm thumb spica cast
3
Scaphotrapezial-trapezoidal (STT) fusion
4
Excision of the proximal pole
5
Internal fixation of the fracture with a compression screw
QUESTION 75
A 55-year-old woman with polyarticular rheumatoid arthritis has had progressively increasing left shoulder pain for the past 2 years despite nonsurgical management. No focal weakness is noted during examination of the shoulder. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 47a and 47b. Treatment should consist of
1
arthroscopic synovectomy.
2
humeral arthroplasty.
3
unconstrained total shoulder arthroplasty.
4
constrained total shoulder arthroplasty with a fixed-fulcrum prosthesis.
5
glenohumeral arthrodesis.
QUESTION 76
of 100
Figures 58a through 58c are the radiograph, MR image, and sagittal CT scan of a 13-year-old boy with a 5-month history of a left hip injury. He has no current pain, but substantial, progressive limitations in hip flexion are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?






1
Extraskeletal osteosarcoma
2
Myositis ossificans
3
Chondrosarcoma
4
Pelvic osteosarcoma
QUESTION 77
Figure 16a shows the radiograph of a 34-year-old woman who sustained a basicervical fracture of the femoral neck. The fracture was treated with a compression screw and side plate. Seven months postoperatively, she continues to have significant hip pain and cannot bear full weight on her hip. A recent radiograph is shown in Figure 16b. Management should now consist of
1
continued non-weight-bearing and a bone stimulator.
2
removal of the hardware, bone grafting of the femoral neck, and refixation.
3
removal of the hardware and hemiarthroplasty.
4
removal of the hardware and total hip arthroplasty.
5
removal of the hardware and a valgus osteotomy.
QUESTION 78
A 45-year-old coach sustains a complete distal biceps tendon rupture at the elbow. Surgical repair is most indicated to
1
restore full supination strength.
2
restore full elbow flexion strength.
3
restore full range of motion.
4
improve cosmesis.
5
prevent degenerative changes of the elbow.
QUESTION 79
A 24-year-old female soccer player has recurrent instability following noncontact injury to the right knee 2 years after anterior cruciate reconstruction using hamstring autograft. Physical examination reveals positive Lachman and pivot shift. Radiographs reveal well-preserved joint spaces with 13° of posterior tibial slope. MRI scan reveals failure of graft with small tear of the lateral meniscus. What is the most appropriate treatment?
1
Revision anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using patellar tendon autograft and lateral meniscal repair
2
Revision ACL reconstruction with proximal tibial osteotomy and lateral meniscal repair
3
Revision ACL reconstruction using autograft and meniscal transplant
4
Partial lateral meniscectomy and functional bracing
QUESTION 80
A 45-year-old woman sustains an injury to her lower leg. Examination reveals that there is a deformity with no neurologic or vascular problems. The skin is intact. Radiographs are shown in Figures 46a and 46b. Which of the following factors would make closed management the least appropriate choice for this injury?
1
Spiral fracture pattern
2
Low-energy mechanism
3
Amount of shortening
4
Fracture of the fibula at a different level
5
Ipsilateral femoral fracture
QUESTION 81
A magnetic resonance image of a 7-year-old girl shows a line of high-signal intensity within the cord on T2 sequences that parallels the ventral surface of the cord and appears as a syrinx. However, on the axial images and on the T1 sequences, this finding is not evident. The most likely diagnosis is:
1
C ollapsing syrinx
2
Gibbs artifact
3
Motion artifact
4
Ependymoma
5
Astrocytoma
QUESTION 82
of 100
The floor of the acetabular fossa touches the ilioischial line
1
Figure 51a
2
Figure 51b
3
Figure 51c
4
Figure 51d
5
Figure 51e
QUESTION 83
Which of the following diseases has documented transmission by allograft tissue transplantation in the last 20 years?

1
Tuberculosis
2
Hepatitis B
3
HIV
4
West Nile virus
5
Clostridium
QUESTION 84
.Figures 11a and 11b show the radiographs of the open fracture of a 46-year-old man who injured his elbow on his nondominant arm in a motorcycle crash. On the day of injury, he underwent irrigation and débridement of the fracture. He was also treated with antibiotics. Which of the following definitive treatment methods will most likely lead to the best functional outcome?
1
Cast immobilization
2
Intramedullary screw fixation
3
Open reduction and plate fixation
4
Open reduction and internal fixation with tension band wiring
5
Fragment excision and triceps advancement
QUESTION 85
A healthy 72-year-old woman is seen 14 days after cemented total knee arthroplasty. She reports increasing pain and swelling for the last 4 days accompanied by 4 days of wound drainage. Examination reveals that she is afebrile, and has erythema and moderate serosanguinous drainage from the wound. The knee is moderately swollen. Aspiration of the knee reveals no organisms on Gram stain. Culture results are expected back in 48 hours. Optimal management should consist of


1
initiation of a first-generation cephalosporin while awaiting culture results.
2
initiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics while awaiting culture results.
3
ultrasound to evaluate for fluid collection around the knee.
4
surgical debridement of the knee before culture results are available.
5
inpatient observation and no antibiotics until culture results are available.
QUESTION 86
A 25-year-old student sustains the injury shown in Figures 13a through 13c after falling off a curb. Initial management should consist of
1
weight bearing as tolerated in a hard-soled shoe.
2
weight bearing as tolerated in an ankle lacer.
3
weight bearing as tolerated in a short leg cast.
4
non-weight-bearing in a hard-soled shoe.
5
non-weight-bearing in a short leg cast.
QUESTION 87
ORTHOPEDIC MCQS BANK ONLINE OITE 21
For OITE 21 FIGURES CLICK OITE21FIG
1
01.1 A 49-year-old man has a persistent Trendelenburg gait after undergoing open
2
reduction and internal fixation of a posterior wall acetabular fracture 6 months
3
ago. The radiographs reveal a normal joint space with no heterotopic ossification
4
and no signs of osteonecrosis. Weakness in what muscle group is the most likely
5
cause of his limp?
QUESTION 88
A healthy 39-year-old male presents to clinic with posttraumatic elbow stiffness after a minimally displaced radial head fracture. His injury occurred 4 months ago with no improvement in range of motion despite 10 weeks of supervised physiotherapy. Follow-up radiographs reveal normal osseous anatomy. What is the next best step in treatment?

1
Intra-articular and extra-capsular cortisone injection
2
Closed manipulation under anesthesia
3
Aggressive home exercise program
4
Continuous passive motion device
5
Static or dynamic progressive elbow splinting
QUESTION 89
A 22-year-old male sustains the injury seen in Figures A and B as the result of a motor vehicle collision. He subsequently undergoes the procedure shown in Figures C and D with a 12 millimeter nail. When would full weight-bearing be allowed after surgery?



1
Immediately
2
4-6 weeks
3
8 weeks
4
12 weeks
5
After consolidation is seen
QUESTION 90
of 100
Figure 26 is a radiograph of an 11-year-old boy with insidious-onset anterior knee pain.
1
Plain radiographs
2
CT scan
3
MRI
4
Arthrogram
QUESTION 91
C orrection of the congenital gibbus in spina bifida must follow which of these surgical principles:
1
Long instrumentation
2
Short instrumentation
3
Avoidance of instrumentation
4
Avoidance of bony resection
5
Anterior approach to deformity
QUESTION 92
of 100
Figures 34a through 34c are the radiographs and MR image of a 15-year-old, right-hand-dominant boy who was playing ice hockey and was checked into the boards. He had immediate anterior right shoulder pain and was unable to return to play. He was seen in the emergency department, and radiograph findings reportedly were normal. A sling is placed and he is seen in the office 3 days later. An examination reveals forward flexion of 90 degrees, abduction of 50 degrees, and external rotation of 0 degrees; all are painful. Belly-press test findings also are painful and abnormal. What is the most likely diagnosis?


1
Lesser tuberosity fracture
2
Acromioclavicular separation
3
Coracoid fracture
4
Salter 1 fracture of the proximal humerus
QUESTION 93
A 23-year-old national team rower reports pain over the radial dorsum of the forearm that is made worse with flexion and extension of the wrist during competition. His primary physician initially diagnosed de Quervain’s tenosynovitis, and a subsequent corticosteroid injection into the first dorsal compartment at the wrist provided no relief. The patient continues to report pain and audible crepitus that is noted 5 cm proximal to the wrist joint, on the radial aspect. What structures are involved in the continued pathology?
1
Abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis brevis
2
Abductor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus
3
Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
4
Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis longus
5
Adductor pollicis and extensor pollicis longus
QUESTION 94
of 100 When performing a shoulder hemiarthroplasty for an unreconstructable proximal humerus fracture, the relationship of the repaired greater tuberosity to the prosthetic humeral head should be
1
6 mm to 8 mm superior to the top of the humeral head.
2
6 mm to 8 mm inferior to the top of the humeral head.
3
1.5 cm inferior to the top of the humeral head.
4
at the same height as the top of the humeral head.
QUESTION 95
A 25-year-old man has an isolated flexor digitorum profundus laceration just proximal to the distal interphalangeal (DIP) flexion crease of his ring finger. The tendon ends are trimmed, removing 10 mm from each end (secondary to fraying) and the tendon repaired. Four months later, he reports limited finger motion of the long, ring, and small fingers. He cannot fully extend his wrist and all joints of the 3 fingers simultaneously. He has full passive flexion but cannot actively completely close his fingers into a fist. What is the most likely cause?
1
Quadrigia
2
Intrinsic tightness
3
Lumbrical plus deformity
4
Disruption of the tendon repair
QUESTION 96
of 100
Standard guidelines necessitate the use of intraoperative neurophysiological monitoring for patients undergoing surgery for which condition?
1
Primary lumbar disk herniation
2
Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis
3
Cervical spondylotic myelopathy
4
No conditions; there are no official guidelines
QUESTION 97
Figure 64 shows the radiograph of a 61-year-old man with ankylosing spondylitis. He is scheduled to undergo left total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following perioperative interventions should be considered?
1
Intraoperative sciatic nerve monitoring
2
Preoperative radiation therapy with 700 centigray
3
Postoperative radiation therapy with 1,500 centigray
4
Postoperative continuous passive motion
5
Soft cervical collar during postoperative physical therapy
QUESTION 98
What mechanism contributes to strength gains during conditioning of the preadolescent athlete?
1
Enhanced neurogenic adaptations
2
Advanced myogenic adaptations
3
Increased contractile proteins
4
Increased short-term energy sources
5
Thickening of the connective tissue
QUESTION 99
A 16-year-old ice hockey player is struck on the chest by the puck. He skates a few strides and then collapses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1
Acute aortic dissection
2
Pulmonary contusion
3
Commotio cordis
4
Acute cardiac tamponade
5
Splenic rupture
QUESTION 100
A 33-year-old woman reports a 3-month history of pain in both feet while running. Examination reveals bilateral point tenderness over the plantar fascia at its origin, and the pain is accentuated when the ankle is dorsiflexed. Management should consist of
1
steroid injection
2
stretching of the heel cord
3
surgical release of the plantar fascia
4
application of a short leg cast for 6 to 8 weeks
5
wearing dorsiflexion night splints
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon