العربية

Free Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics -...

Updated: Feb 2026 42 Views
Free Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics -...
Score: 0%

FREE Orthopedics MCQS 2022 1901.-1950.

QUESTION 1
The conus medullaris is always termed abnormal if it terminates below this level:
1
L1
2
L1-2 disk
3
L2
4
L2-3 disk
5
L3
QUESTION 2
Regardless of age, the tonsils of the cerebellum should not extend more than this distance below the foramen magnum:
1
1 mm
2
2 mm
3
3 mm
4
5 mm
5
Any protrusion is abnormal
QUESTION 3
When applying a halo, the use of six pins instead of four has which of the following effects:
1
Increase in the infection rate
2
Increased rate of pin loosening
3
Increased rate of dural puncture
4
Increase in load to failure by 50%
5
Increase in risk of injury of the supraorbital nerve
QUESTION 4
Which of the following findings is an indication for the Bernese (Ganz) osteotomy:
1
Acetabular dysplasia in a 10-year-old boy.
2
A 20-year-old woman with a complete developmental dislocation of the hip.
3
A 19-year-old man with osteonecrosis (Stulberg-Stage 4) secondary to Perthes disease.
4
A 30-year-old woman with an anteroposterior (AP) center-edge angle of 10° and a joint space of 1 mm.
5
A 35-year-old woman with an AP center-edge angle of 0° and a joint space of 2 mm
QUESTION 5
The false profile radiographic view of the hip is taken with the patient in which of the following positions:
1
The effected hip is against the film and the pelvis is rotated 65° away from the plane of the film.
2
The uneffected hip is against the film and the pelvis is rotated 65° away from the plane of the film.
3
The patient is supine and the beam is angled 45° cephalad.
4
The patient is supine and the beam is angled 45° caudally.
5
The patient is supine and the affected hip is maximally internally rotated.
QUESTION 6
A 15-year-old boy has a history of excessive bleeding when he is cut. His maternal uncle passed away during a tonsillectomy. The boy presents with severe hip pain (worse in extension than in flexion) and some weakness in his knee extension. The most likely cause of the patientâs symptoms is:
1
Septic arthritis of the hip
2
Psoas abscess
3
Lumbar epidural hematoma
4
Iliopsoas hematoma
5
Hip hemarthrosis
QUESTION 7
A patient with hemophilia A has a hematoma of the iliopsoas. He has a partial femoral nerve palsy. Treatment involves continuous factor replacement and:
1
Open drainage
2
Decompression of the fascia over the femoral nerve
3
Percutaneous insertion of a drainage tube
4
Embolization of feeder vessels by interventional radiologist
5
Observation
QUESTION 8
Which of the following best predicts the risk of nonaccidental injury in young children who sustain a fracture of the femur:
1
The fracture pattern
2
The location of the fracture
3
The socioeconomic status of the family
4
Whether the child was previously able to walk
5
C oexistence of other disabilities
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is known about the genetics of multiple hereditary exostosis (MHE):
1
There is no genetic pattern for this condition.
2
MHE follows an x-linked inheritance pattern.
3
MHE follows an autosomal recessive pattern.
4
MHE encodes glycosyltransferases needed for biosynthesis of heparan sulfate.
5
MHE involves a defect in fibroblast growth factor.
QUESTION 10
A 10-year-old patient has a painful lytic lesion replacing 75% of the distal femoral metaphysis. The lesion has indistinct margins, but there is not any periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals a benign histiocytic tumor with multiple eosinophils. Physical exam and skeletal survey reveal no other abnormalities. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment method:
1
Radiation therapy
2
Methotrexate, ifosfamide and adriamycin followed by resection
3
Oral prednisone treatment for one month
4
Resection and reconstruction
5
C urettage and bone graft
QUESTION 11
Which of the following methods has the highest sensitivity in detecting skeletal lesions in patients with Langerhans cell histiocytosis:
1
Physical examination
2
Skeletal survey
3
Ultrasound
4
Bone scan
5
Indium labeled white blood cell study
QUESTION 12
A 15-year-old girl presents with pain and a 17°-scoliosis curve. The film suggests an enlargement and sclerosis of the transverse process of L2. The best study to further evaluate the nature and anatomic extent of the lesion is:
1
C oned radiographs
2
Bone scintigraphy
3
Bone scan with SPEC T (single photon emission computed tomography)
4
Magnetic resonance imaging
5
C omputed tomography
QUESTION 13
Fibrous dysplasia has been determined to be the result of a mutation in which gene:
1
GNAS1
2
FGFR3
3
FBN1
4
C FBA1
5
C OL1A1
QUESTION 14
Which of the following conditions is not associated with congenital contractures:
1
Amyoplasia
2
Diastrophic dysplasia
3
Popliteal pterygium syndrome
4
Larsen syndrome
5
Down syndrome
QUESTION 15
Diastematomyelia is best described as:
1
Protrusion of neural elements dorsally from the back.
2
A duplicated spinal column.
3
Two hemivertebrae at adjacent levels.
4
An osseous or fibrocartilaginous septum in the spinal canal.
5
A cyst within the spinal cord.
QUESTION 16
Diastematomyelia is most common in which region of the spine:
1
C ervical
2
Upper thoracic
3
Lower thoracic
4
Lumbar
5
Sacral
QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the most common finding in diastematomyelia:
1
C utaneous lesions over the spine
2
Anisomelia
3
Foot deformity
4
Neurologic deficit
5
Widened interpedicular distance
QUESTION 18
In which of the following clinical situations would it be most appropriate to recommend an anterior and posterior hemiepiphyseodesis of the convex side of a congenital scoliosis:
1
A 12-year-old girl with a hemivertebra of L3.
2
A 10-year-old boy with a hemivertebra of L3.
3
A 5-year-old boy with a congenital bar of T3-4.
4
A 5-year-old boy with a hemivertebra of T5.
5
A 5-year-old boy with a hemivertebra of L5.
QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the seating arrangement recommended for a 5-year-old in a family automobile:
1
Lap belt in the middle of the back seat
2
Lap and shoulder belt in the back seat
3
Lap and shoulder belt and booster seat in back
4
Rear-facing child seat in back
5
Lap and shoulder belt and booster seat in front
QUESTION 20
Immediate internal fixation of diaphyseal fractures in polytraumatized children has been shown to provide which of the following benefits:
1
Increased survival rate
2
Decreased incidence of fat emboli
3
Decreased incidence of deep venous thrombosis
4
Improved recovery of central nervous system function after head injury
5
Greater ease of management
QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements is true about pin fixation of supracondylar humerus fractures:
1
Fixation with two lateral pins is biomechanically stronger than crossed pins.
2
Fixation with two lateral pins has a higher risk of iatrogenic nerve injury than medial and lateral pins.
3
Pin fixation is associated with a higher risk of compartment syndrome than cast treatment alone.
4
Fixation with medial and lateral pins carries a higher risk of iatrogenic ulnar nerve injury than two lateral pins.
5
Use of two medial pins is the most biomechanically stable construct.
QUESTION 22
A 6-year-old boy who is treated for a type III supracondylar fracture has no neurovascular deficit on initial examination. His fracture is treated by anatomic closed reduction and percutaneous fixation with medial and lateral pins. A partial deficit in ulnar motor and sensory function is noted after surgery. The next step in treatment should be:
1
Remove the lateral pin.
2
Remove both pins and place the patient in traction.
3
Explore the ulnar nerve.
4
Transpose the ulnar nerve anteriorly.
5
Make sure the elbow is flexed to no more than 90° and observe.
QUESTION 23
Which of the following factors is associated with a decrease in the accuracy of measurement of congenital scoliosis:
1
Increase in the size of the curve
2
Decrease in the size of the curve
3
Increased level of training in deformity surgery
4
Film coned and centered on the deformity
5
Use of the Ferguson technique instead of the C obb technique
QUESTION 24
Which of the following structures enables the growth plate to grow in diameter as the skeleton gets larger:
1
The chondroepiphysis
2
The apophysis
3
The groove of Ranvier
4
The ring of LaC roix
5
The secondary spongiosa
QUESTION 25
Which area of the growth plate has the lowest oxygen tension:
1
The reserve zone
2
The proliferative zone
3
The hypertrophic zone
4
The zone of calcification
5
The perichondral ring
QUESTION 26
How many major centers of ossification comprise the normal lumbar vertebral body:
1
One
2
Two
3
Three
4
Four
5
Five
QUESTION 27
The somite refers to which of the following features of embryologic development:
1
A group of cells that produce the limb bud
2
A structure that gives rise to the spinal cord
3
A group of cells that differentiate to form the cranium
4
A group of cells that are repeated to form the axial skeleton
5
A set of homeobox genes
QUESTION 28
Homeobox genes are best characterized by which of the following descriptions:
1
Homeobox genes regulate fracture healing.
2
Homeobox genes are involved in immune system regulation.
3
Homeobox genes are a series of genes that regulate limb genesis.
4
Homeobox genes regulate spinal development.
5
Homeobox genes regulate vascular invasion of the physis.
QUESTION 29
Which of the following regions of the physis has the highest degree of proteoglycan aggregation in the matrix:
1
Reserve zone
2
Proliferative zone
3
Hypertrophic zone
4
Zone of degeneration
5
Metaphysis
QUESTION 30
Which of the following categories of slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SC FE) is associated with the highest rate of bilaterality:
1
Idiopathic SC FE
2
Renal failure
3
Radiation therapy
4
Hypothyroidism
5
Growth hormone deficiency
QUESTION 31
An African-American mother brings her 18-month-old baby in for examination because he has bowing of the legs. The childâs past medical history is normal including height and weight. The child is still breast-fed. Radiographs reveal mild widening and irregularity of the physes. Which of the following conditions is likely to be found on laboratory examination:
1
Elevated phosphorus
2
Decreased alkaline phosphatase
3
Normal 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D
4
Elevated creatinine
5
Elevated parathyroid hormone
QUESTION 32
The dose of acetaminophen for a child should be no more than:
1
1.5 mg/kg
2
5 mg/kg
3
10-15 mg/kg
4
20-30 mg/kg
5
50 mg/kg
QUESTION 33
Opioids must be used with caution in infants younger than 3 months of age because of which of the following properties:
1
Increased clearance
2
Increased protein binding
3
Increased hepatic activity
4
Decreased clearance and protein binding
5
Decreased body surface area to mass
QUESTION 34
The potency ratio of hydromorphone to morphine sulfate is:
1
1-2:1
2
5:1
3
7-10:1
4
20-25:1
5
50:1
QUESTION 35
The youngest age at which a number scale to quantitate pain (i.e., rating it as 1-10) can be appropriately used is:
1
2 years
2
3 years
3
5 years
4
7 years
5
9 years
QUESTION 36
Which of the following findings on a neuromuscular examination is not characteristic of spasticity:
1
Hyperreflexia
2
C lonus
3
Velocity-dependent resistance
4
Writhing movements
5
Muscle contracture
QUESTION 37
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of Botulinum toxin type A:
1
Botulinum toxin type A blocks the release of acetylcholine.
2
Botulinum toxin type A prevents binding of acetylcholine to receptors.
3
Botulinum toxin type A interrupts transmission of impulses along axons.
4
Botulinum toxin type A softens fibrous tissue causing contracture.
5
Botulinum toxin type A depolarizes sarcolemma of muscles.
QUESTION 38
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of baclofen:
1
Baclofen mimics the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
2
Baclofen blocks the effect of GABA.
3
Baclofen binds to actylcholine receptors.
4
Baclofen potentiates the effect of actylcholine.
5
Baclofen inhibits serotonin reuptake.
QUESTION 39
The migration index of Reimers is best described as:
1
The vertical migration of the center of the femoral head with respect to the lateral margin of the acetabulum.
2
The distance between the medial wall of the acetabulum and the femoral head.
3
The ratio of the uncovered portion of the femoral head to its total width.
4
The difference in subluxation between neutral and abduction films.
5
The angle between two lines through the center of the femoral head â one vertical and one through the lateral edge of the acetabulum.
QUESTION 40
An appropriate indication for preoperative magnetic resonance imaging in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis is:
1
Any curve requiring surgery
2
Any curve more than 90°
3
An abnormal neurologic examination
4
Any progressive deformity in a male
5
Any progression of 12° in 6 months
QUESTION 41
The mean C obb measurement for idiopathic scoliosis curves with a 7° angle of trunk rotation (ATR) is:
1
10°
2
15°
3
20°
4
25°
5
30°
QUESTION 42
Using a 5° angle trunk rotation (ATR) as a positive screening threshold for detection of curves with a C obb angle over 20° is characterized by:
1
A high degree of sensitivity and specificity
2
A high degree of sensitivity but low specificity
3
A high degree of specificity but low sensitivity
4
A low degree of sensitivity and specificity
5
No predictable relationship to C obb angle
QUESTION 43
The normal values (±2 standard deviations) for kyphosis in the general population of children and adolescents are:
1
20° to 50°
2
20° to 40°
3
25° to 45°
4
25° to 60°
5
30° to 60°
QUESTION 44
Which of the following is the most common cause of death in children with pelvic fractures:
1
Intrapelvic exsanguination
2
Head injury
3
Pulmonary embolism
4
Multisystem organ failure
5
Spinal cord injury
QUESTION 45
An 8-year-old pedestrian sustains a pelvic fracture when struck by a car. The injury consists of a posterior iliac fracture in which the iliac wing is rotated internally, although it is not vertically displaced. An anterior fracture of both ipsilateral pubic rami is present with 2 cm of overlap. Recommended treatment includes:
1
Open reduction and plate fixation of the rami
2
Open reduction and plate fixation of the iliac wing
3
Percutaneous sacral screw fixation
4
External fixation
5
Bedrest
QUESTION 46
Which of the following factors should prompt a workup for an underlying disorder in a patient with slipped capital femoral epiphysis:
1
A bilateral slip
2
Weight over the 50th percentile for age
3
Weight under the 50th percentile for age
4
A positive family history
5
A slip of grade II or higher
QUESTION 47
Which of the following categories of slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SC FE) is associated with the highest risk of a grade III
slip:
1
Idiopathic SC FE
2
Renal failure
3
Radiation therapy
4
Hypothyroidism
5
Growth hormone deficiency
QUESTION 48
Which of the following is the central element of Klippel-Feil syndrome:
1
A low posterior hairline
2
Hearing impairment
3
C ervical stenosis
4
C ongenital cervical fusion
5
C ervical scoliosis
QUESTION 49
The most common cause of neurologic deficit in patients with Down syndrome is:
1
Basilar invagination
2
Atlanto-occipital instability
3
Atlantoaxial instability
4
Subaxial instability
5
C ervical kyphosis
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon