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Free Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics -...

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Free Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics -...
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FREE Orthopedics MCQS 2022 1851-1900.

QUESTION 1
In studying a newly recognized disorder using a large population of affected individuals, geneticists discover that although the disorder often affects siblings, it is rarely found in any of their ancestors. This disorder most closely follows which pattern of inheritance:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
Sex-linked
4
Multifactorial
5
Anticipation
QUESTION 2
Diseases caused by enzyme deficiency are commonly inherited by which of the following patterns:
1
Autosomal dominant
2
Autosomal recessive
3
X-linked dominant
4
Multifactorial
5
Non-mendelian
QUESTION 3
Morquio syndrome is caused by a deficiency in:
1
Alpha-L-iduronidase
2
Galactose-6-sulfatase
3
Beta-glucuronidase
4
Fibroblast growth factor receptor protein
5
Sulfate transport protein
QUESTION 4
Polymerase chain reaction (PC R) is best characterized by which of the following descriptions:
1
Use of enzymes to link chains of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) together
2
Use of viral vectors to insert new DNA into a cell
3
Denaturing and reannealing DNA multiple times with known primers
4
Use of high temperatures to create ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene
5
The process by which a cell-surface receptor turns on the transcription process
QUESTION 5
Pleiotropy is demonstrated by which of the following examples:
1
Patients with osteogenesis imperfecta differ in the number of fractures they have received.
2
Patients with hemophilia A have different target joints.
3
Hurler syndrome is usually not present in prior generations of an affected patient.
4
Some patients with Marfan syndrome have scoliosis or pectus carinatum, while other patients with Marfan syndrome do not.
5
Patients with Ollier disease often have more involvement on one side of the body.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the most common concern regarding anesthesia for a patient with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis:
1
Basilar invagination
2
Rotatory subluxation of C 1-C 2
3
Subaxial subluxation
4
Small, stiff jaw
5
C ervical stenosis
QUESTION 7
A 4-year-old boy is brought to a clinic because he has been fussy, febrile, and unable to bend over for the past 4 days. In the office, his temperature is 38.2° C and his neurologic examination is normal. His lumbar lordosis is flattened and he resists flexion or extension. He has normal range of hip motion. Plain films of the lumbar spine are normal. The next imaging study should be:
1
Magnetic resonance imaging of the spine
2
Hip arthrogram
3
Spinal ultrasound
4
C omputed tomograms of the lumbar spine
5
Indium labeled white blood cell scan
QUESTION 8
A 6-year-old child suffers a displaced fracture of the distal humerus in the supracondylar region. The surgeon decides to reduce and pin the fracture. Which of the following risks increases if the procedure is delayed more than 8 hours?
1
Brachial artery damage
2
Median nerve palsy
3
Radial nerve palsy
4
Need for an open reduction
5
No risks increase
QUESTION 9
Which of the following statements is true regarding the growth plates around the ankle:
1
The distal fibula grows more than the distal tibia.
2
The distal tibia grows more than the distal fibula.
3
The anterolateral portion of the tibial physis ceases growing first.
4
The two physes should be at an even level.
5
The two growth plates are part of a common physis.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the most common final attribution of back pain in children and adolescents after all appropriate diagnostic studies are performed:
1
Spondylolysis
2
Osteoid osteoma
3
Infection
4
Herniated nucleus pulposus
5
No identifiable cause
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the most definitive means of making a diagnosis of active skeletal tuberculosis:
1
Positive tuberculin tine test
2
Negative tuberculin tine test
3
Positive culture and histological exam
4
Magnetic resonance imaging
5
Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test
QUESTION 12
The most common region of the spine affected by tuberculosis is:
1
C ervical
2
Upper thoracic
3
Lower thoracic-upper lumbar
4
Lower lumbar
5
C acral
QUESTION 13
Which of the following descriptions is more characteristic of tuberculosis than pyogenic spondylitis:
1
Disc space is narrowed before significant bony changes occur.
2
Involvement of multiple contiguous levels is uncommon.
3
Bony erosions seen on computerized tomography are usually small and focal.
4
Vertebral destruction exceeds disc destruction.
5
Magnetic resonance imaging rarely shows significant soft tissue swelling.
QUESTION 14
A 5-year-old girl comes into the clinic with back pain. Her family has just moved to the United States from southeastern Asia. A lateral radiograph shows destruction of T11, T12, and L1. Magnetic resonance imaging shows a moderate posterior soft tissue mass. A neurological exam is normal. Biopsy confirms tuberculosis. For the girlâs spinal problem, recommended treatment includes:
1
A two-drug therapy for at least 6 months
2
A two-drug therapy for at least 6 months along with a body cast
3
A two-drug therapy and posterior spinal fusion to prevent deformity
4
Anterior spinal debridement and a rib strut graft
5
Anterior debridement, strut graft, and posterior fusion with instrumentation
QUESTION 15
A dorsal approach has which of the following characteristics with regard to a posteromedial approach in the surgical treatment of congenital vertical talus:
1
The dorsal approach requires a more extensive dissection.
2
The dorsal approach has a lower risk of avascular necrosis of the talus.
3
The dorsal approach requires plication of the talonavicular capsule.
4
The dorsal approach has a higher risk of redislocation.
5
The dorsal approach requires a longer tourniquet time.
QUESTION 16
Which of the following conditions is not associated with an increased incidence of congenital vertical talus:
1
C erebral palsy
2
Myelomeningocele
3
Arthrogryposis
4
Nail patella syndrome
5
Larsen syndrome
QUESTION 17
Scoliosis in Marfan syndrome is characterized by which of the following:
1
Scoliosis curves are more likely to begin in the juvenile period.
2
There is an increased likelihood of left thoracic curves.
3
Brace treatment is more likely to be successful because of the flexibility.
4
Patients are less likely to have back pain.
5
C urves are more likely to be stable in adulthood.
QUESTION 18
Which of the following statements is true of demineralized bone matrix:
1
Demineralized bone matrix is osteogenic.
2
Demineralized bone matrix is strongly osteoinductive.
3
Demineralized bone matrix is weakly osteoinductive.
4
Demineralized bone matrix is consistent between forms and different sterilization methods.
5
Demineralized bone matrix is not osteoconductive.
QUESTION 19
A 16-year-old boy with type I Ehlers-Danlos syndrome has a spinal curvature that has progressed 18° in the past year. The curve is a double major type with a C obb angle of 60° in each curve. There is no associated kyphosis. The following treatment is recommend:
1
Observation
2
Bracing
3
Anterior fusion and instrumentation
4
Posterior fusion and instrumentation
5
Anterior and posterior fusion with instrumentation
QUESTION 20
Scoliosis in osteogenesis imperfecta is characterized by which of the following:
1
Scoliosis is due primarily to vertebral fractures.
2
Scoliosis is due primarily to ligamentous laxity.
3
Scoliosis is due primarily to associated neurologic problems.
4
Scoliosis usually responds to brace treatment.
5
Scoliosis rarely impairs quality of life.
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is not a specific feature in making the diagnosis of a dystrophic curve in neurofibromatosis 1:
1
Penciling of the ribs
2
Scalloping of the vertebrae
3
Widening of the foramen
4
Thinning of the transverse processes
5
Right convex apex
QUESTION 22
The spine in familial dysautonomia is characterized by which of the following:
1
Rare scoliosis
2
Flexible scoliosis
3
Dense bone
4
Increased risk of loss of fixation after surgery
5
Spinal stenosis
QUESTION 23
Which of the following spinal problems is most common in achondroplasia:
1
Atlantoaxial instability
2
Basilar invagination
3
Symptomatic kyphosis
4
Thoracolumbar stenosis
5
Spondylolisthesis
QUESTION 24
A 2-year-old girl with diastrophic dysplasia is brought into the office for an overall examination. A lateral radiograph of the spine shows a kyphosis of 35° from C 3 to C 6. A neurologic exam is normal, although she does have stiff joints. The patient is not yet walking. For management of this kyphosis, recommended treatment includes:
1
Observation
2
C ervicothoracic orthosis
3
Halo traction
4
Posterior fusion
5
Anterior and posterior fusion
QUESTION 25
A baby born with diastrophic dysplasia today may eventually require all of the following orthopedic procedures during childhood or adulthood except:
1
C orrection of equinus or varus feet
2
Arthrodesis from the occiput to the atlas or axis
3
Posterior spinal fusion for scoliosis
4
Arthroplasty of the hips
5
Arthroplasty of the knees
QUESTION 26
A patient with spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita reaches the age of 5 without being able to walk with a walker. She has five beats of clonus in both ankles. Her reflexes are brisk and her toes are upgoing. The most likely problem that accounts for these findings is:
1
Severe scoliosis of the thoracic spine
2
Foramen magnum stenosis
3
Lumbar stenosis
4
Thoracolumbar kyphosis
5
Atlantoaxial instability
QUESTION 27
Scoliosis in cleidocranial dysplasia is frequently associated with which of the following conditions:
1
Syringomyelia
2
Atlantoaxial instability
3
Spondylolisthesis
4
Spinal stenosis
5
Spinal decompensation
QUESTION 28
A 3-year-old girl with Larsen syndrome is brought into the office for examination. A spinal radiograph demonstrates a 50°
kyphosis of the cervical spine. Her neurologic examination is normal. Recommended treatment includes:
1
Observation
2
Halo traction
3
C ervical-thoracic orthosis
4
Posterior cervical fusion
5
Anterior and posterior fusion
QUESTION 29
A 10-year-old patient with Hurler syndrome has undergone a bone marrow transplant and is currently medically stable. He has developed a painful thoracolumbar kyphosis that measures 50° with 25% subluxation T12 on L1. Recommended treatment includes which of the following:
1
Exercise program for the trunk extensor muscles
2
Thoracolumbar orthosis
3
Halo traction followed by orthosis
4
Anterior spinal fusion
5
Anterior and posterior spinal fusion
QUESTION 30
Aneurysmal bone cyst of the spine is most common in which of the following regions:
1
C ervical
2
Upper thoracic
3
Lower thoracic
4
Lumbar
5
Sacral
QUESTION 31
Aneurysmal bone cyst of the spine is most likely in this age group:
1
First decade
2
Second decade
3
Third decade
4
Fourth decade
5
Fifth decade
QUESTION 32
A 14-year-old girl is examined because of a pain in her left flank. The radiographs of the lumbar spine show loss of the pedicle with expansion of the lateral wall of the third lumbar vertebral body. Magnetic resonance imaging shows multiple fluid levels with no additional areas of involvement. She is neurologically normal. Recommended treatment includes:
1
Observation
2
Radiation therapy
3
Selective arterial embolization
4
Radical en bloc resection
5
C urettage plus radiation therapy
QUESTION 33
A 15-year-old girl has severe hip pain following slipped capital femoral epiphysis that was complicated by avascular necrosis. Recommended treatment is a hip arthrodesis. In response to questions about late effects, after surgery the patient should be told that she is most likely to experience:
1
Low back pain
2
C ontinued severe pain in the ipsilateral hip
3
Marked limitation of activity
4
Significant continued limp
5
Pain in the contralateral hip
QUESTION 34
Which of the following is a parameter that should be used in positioning arthrodesis of the hip in a young person:
1
Flexion of 45°
2
Abduction of 15° if there is shortening
3
Adduction of 0°
4
External rotation of 25°
5
Shortening of at least 3 cm
QUESTION 35
A 9-year-old boy with cerebral palsy has trouble sitting. His mother states that whenever his diapers are changed or his hips are moved, he begins to cry. Radiographs demonstrate high dislocations of both femoral heads. The femoral heads have an ovoid shape and superolateral flattening. Recommended treatment includes:
1
Botulinum toxin injected into the adductors
2
Bilateral open adductor tenotomy
3
Bilateral femoral osteotomies with acetabuloplasty
4
Bilateral proximal femoral resection
5
Bilateral C olonna arthroplasty
QUESTION 36
A 9-year-old boy is examined due to a closed distal forearm fracture. The radius and ulna are both fractured and translated
100%. After manipulation twice with sedation, the translation cannot be reduced. There is 10-mm shortening of the radius and 5- mm shortening of the ulna. The distal radial angulation on the anteroposterior view is 5° less than normal. The next step in treatment should include:
1
C losed reduction in the operating room under general anesthesia
2
Open reduction and cast application
3
Open reduction and percutaneous pin fixation
4
Open reduction and plate fixation
5
Acceptance of the reduction and maintenance with a cast
QUESTION 37
When applying a halo for postoperative immobilization in a skeletally mature teenager, which of the following is the proper torque for the pins:
1
2 inch-pounds
2
4 inch-pounds
3
8 inch-pounds
4
10 inch-pounds
5
12 inch-pounds
QUESTION 38
A posterior spine fusion with segmental hook fixation from T4-L4 is performed for idiopathic scoliosis in a 15-year-old girl. Somatosensory evoked potential monitoring is normal throughout the procedure. The patient awakens and is unable to move either lower extremity, but she does have some sensation in the lower extremities. Recommended treatment includes:
1
Removal of instrumentation
2
Myelogram
3
Laminectomy above the conus medullaris
4
Administration of corticosteroids and observation for 6 hours
5
Full heparinization of the patient
QUESTION 39
A 12-year-old boy with achondroplasia has a gradual 40° thoracolumbar kyphosis. He is unable to walk more than two blocks. Magnetic resonance imaging reveals spinal stenosis, and the patient is scheduled to undergo posterior decompression from T12- S1. In addition to this procedure, you recommend:
1
Observation with serial radiographs every 4 months
2
Postoperative brace for 6 months
3
In situ fusion with bone graft
4
Posterior fusion across the kyphosis with instrumentation
5
Anterior corpectomy and fusion of T12
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is true regarding brace treatment for Scheuermann kyphosis:
1
The Milwaukee brace is not indicated.
2
Permanent correction is usually obtainable.
3
Bracing is effective in curves over 75°.
4
Bracing is ineffective in curves having an apex at or above T8.
5
The brace should be worn for 1 year after starting brace treatment.
QUESTION 41
Which of the following statements is true about bone marrow transplantation in mucopolysaccharidoses:
1
Bone marrow transplantation is contraindicated.
2
Bone marrow transplantation does not affect the orthopedic problems.
3
Bone marrow transplantation reverses the orthopedic manifestations.
4
Graft-versus-host disease is rare.
5
Bone marrow transplantation should be deferred until skeletal maturity.
QUESTION 42
A 3-year-old girl with spina bifida is able to flex and adduct her hips, but she cannot extend her knees. The hips are both dislocated. The patientâs parents ask how the hips must be treated to optimize function. The recommended treatment is:
1
Observation
2
Bilateral closed reduction
3
Bilateral open reduction
4
Bilateral open reduction and femoral osteotomies
5
Bilateral open reduction with femoral osteotomies and muscle transfers
QUESTION 43
A patient with spina bifida and L5 motor level undergoes tendon transfers about the ankle. After cast removal, he is lost to follow-up for 3 years. Upon re-examination, the patient has no motor power on either side below the knee. The most likely explanation is:
1
The tendon transfers have all pulled out.
2
His ventriculoperitoneal shunt has malfunctioned.
3
His spinal cord has become tethered.
4
His muscles have fatigued.
5
He has sustained a silent compartment syndrome because of lack of sensation.
QUESTION 44
A 6-year-old boy with spina bifida and L3 motor level presents to the clinic with bilateral swollen legs (below the knees). His legs have been swollen for the past 3 days and his knees are warm. The patient has an oral temperature of 38.1°C . He denies any pain. There is no history of systemic infection or of any other trauma. The problem may be most likely diagnosed by ordering:
1
A venogram of both lower extremities
2
A duplex ultrasound of both lower extremities and the pelvic veins
3
C ell count, gram stain, and culture of synovial fluid of both knees
4
Aspirate of both distal femoral metaphyses
5
Plain and stress varus-valgus radiographs of both knees
QUESTION 45
A patient with spina bifida has significant symmetrical calcaneus positioning of both ankles. This is most likely due to:
1
Lack of ambulatory experience
2
Braces that are set in too much dorsiflexion
3
Motor level at L3
4
Motor level at L5
5
Motor level at S1
QUESTION 46
C orrection of the congenital gibbus in spina bifida must follow which of these surgical principles:
1
Long instrumentation
2
Short instrumentation
3
Avoidance of instrumentation
4
Avoidance of bony resection
5
Anterior approach to deformity
QUESTION 47
A patient with L4 level myelomeningocele has developed a full-thickness pressure sore on the heel that has a central necrosis and is draining. While undergoing debridement in the local emergency department, the patient develops labored respiration and a nondetectable blood pressure. The most likely cause is:
1
Latex allergy
2
Aortic dissection
3
Septic shock
4
Spontaneous tension pneumothorax
5
Shunt failure
QUESTION 48
The most common benign tumor of vertebral bodies is:
1
Osteoid osteoma
2
Osteoblastoma
3
Osteochondrom
4
Giant cell tumor
5
Aneurysmal bone cyst
QUESTION 49
A magnetic resonance image of a 7-year-old girl shows a line of high-signal intensity within the cord on T2 sequences that parallels the ventral surface of the cord and appears as a syrinx. However, on the axial images and on the T1 sequences, this finding is not evident. The most likely diagnosis is:
1
C ollapsing syrinx
2
Gibbs artifact
3
Motion artifact
4
Ependymoma
5
Astrocytoma
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon