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Free Orthopedics Review | Dr Hutaif General Orthopedics -...

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FREE Orthopedics MCQS 2022 1601-1650.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following injectable substances have shown benefit in the treatment of lateral epicondylitis:
1
C orticosteroids
2
Autologous blood
3
Botulinum toxin
4
None of the above
5
All of the above
QUESTION 2
The nerve most at risk during arthroscopic debridement of lateral epicondylitis is the:
1
Ulnar nerve
2
Median nerve
3
Anterior interosseous nerve
4
Posterior interosseous nerve
5
Musculocutaneous nerve
QUESTION 3
C ommon concomitant intra-articular pathology that can be found and addressed at arthroscopy for lateral epicondylitis include all of the following, except:
1
Synovial plica
2
Loose body
3
Synovitis
4
Medial epicondylitis
5
C hondral lesion
QUESTION 4
Arthroscopic resection/debridement posterior to the midline of the radio-capitellar joint can result in damage to ligament, resulting in instability.
1
Lateral collateral; valgus
2
Ulnar collateral; valgus
3
Ulnar collateral; posterolateral rotatory
4
Annular; posterolateral rotatory
5
Lateral collateral; posterolateral rotatory
QUESTION 5
The muscle that flexes the interphalangeal joint of the thumb is innervated by which roots of the brachial plexus:
1
C 5, C 6
2
C 5, C 6, C 7
3
C 6, C 7, C 8
4
C 5, C 6, C 7, C 8, T1
5
C 7, C 8, T1
QUESTION 6
The anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) originates from the median nerve at what distance from the medial epicondyle:
1
6 cm distal
2
10 cm proximal
3
6 cm proximal
4
10 cm distal
5
At the medial epicondyle
QUESTION 7
A 30-year-old right-hand dominant woman presents to the emergency department with a 6-week history of difficulty writing and pain after playing tennis. She also reports a recent inability to abduct and adduct her fingers. What is the mechanism of her symptoms:
1
Writerâs cramp or focal dystonia
2
Riche-C annieu anastamosis
3
Martin-Gruber interconnection
4
Ulnar neuropathy
5
C arpal tunnel syndrome
QUESTION 8
What is the innervation of the indicated muscle in the image (Slide):
1
Median nerve
2
Anterior interosseous nerve
3
Radial nerve
4
Ulnar nerve
5
Posterior interosseous nerve
QUESTION 9
Sites of potential compression of the median nerve include all of the following except:
1
Pronator teres
2
Transverse carpal ligament
3
Pisohamate ligament
4
Supracondylar process
5
Mass in carpal canal (e.g., lipoma)
QUESTION 10
What position of the wrist most commonly produces scaphoid fractures:
1
Wrist flexion and radial deviation
2
Wrist extension and radial deviation
3
Wrist flexion and ulnar deviation
4
Wrist extension and ulnar deviation
5
C lenched fist and wrist flexion
QUESTION 11
Which of the following blood vessels supplies the majority of the scaphoid:
1
Superficial palmar branch of the radial artery (volar)
2
Radial artery
3
Dorsal carpal branch of the radial artery (dorsal)
4
Ulnar artery
5
3,4 intracompartmental supra-retinacular artery (3,4-IC SRA)
QUESTION 12
During a posterior (dorsal) approach to percutaneous screw fixation for a scaphoid fracture, many structures are close to the guidewire insertion location and are at risk for injury. Which of the following structures is the closest to the guidewire insertion location according to a recent cadaveric study:
1
Posterior interosseous nerve
2
Extensor digitorum communis to the index
3
Extensor indicis proprius
4
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
5
Extensor digitorum communis to the index and posterior interosseous nerve
QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a concerning risk factor for a dorsal open approach to the scaphoid:
1
Damage to tenous blood supply of the scaphoid
2
Difficulty of central screw placement
3
Damage to scapho-trapezial-trapezoid joint during the approach
4
Damage to the lunatotriquetral (LT) ligament
5
njury to the higher rate of infection
QUESTION 14
A volar approach to the scaphoid is ideal in which of the following fractures:
1
Proximal pole fractures
2
Distal pole fractures
3
C omminuted scaphoid fractures
4
Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid proximal pole
5
Scaphoid fracture with associated scapholunate ligament tear
QUESTION 15
Which finger is most commonly involved in a flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion injury:
1
Index
2
Middle
3
Ring
4
Small
5
Thumb
QUESTION 16
Which type of flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) avulsion is considered the most severe:
1
Type I
2
Type II
3
Type III
4
Type IV
5
Type V
QUESTION 17
When performing pollicization to correct a hypoplastic thumb, the surgeon should rotate the index finger:
1
120º
2
135º
3
150º
4
165º
5
180º
QUESTION 18
For which types of thumb hypoplasia is pollicization the best option:
1
Type I
2
Type II
3
Type IIIA
4
Type IIIB
5
Type I, type II, and type IIIA
QUESTION 19
What is the most critical step in pollicization to create a normal-looking thumb:
1
C reating skin incisions with skin flaps that will allow a natural first web space
2
Shortening of tendons
3
Shortening of the index finger metacarpal
4
C reating a hyperextended joint when stabilizing the metacarpophalangeal joint to the carpus
5
All of the above
QUESTION 20
All of the following may be present in a child with type IIIA hypoplasia except:
1
Metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint laxity
2
Web space contracture
3
Lack of extensor pollicis longus
4
Unstable carpometacarpal (C MC ) joint
5
Thenar muscle atrophy
QUESTION 21
The main 3-4 viewing portal for wrist arthroscopy lies in between which two tendons:
1
Extensor pollicis longus (EPL) and extensor carpi radialis brevis (EC RB)
2
Extensor digitorum communis (EDC ) and extensor digiti minimi (EDM)
3
Abductor pollicis longus (APL) and extensor carpi radialis longus (EC RL)
4
EPL and EDC
5
Extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) and APL
QUESTION 22
Which of the following ligaments acts as a neurovascular conduit:
1
Long radiolunate
2
Radioscaphocapitate
3
Radioscapholunate
4
Short radiolunate
5
Ulnotriquetral
QUESTION 23
C omplications after wrist arthroscopy occur in what percentage of patients:
1
5%
2
10%
3
15%
4
20%
5
25%
QUESTION 24
C omplications after wrist arthroscopy occur in what percentage of patients:
1
5%
2
10%
3
15%
4
20%
5
25%
QUESTION 25
The fracture fragment in Bennettâs fracture is located in which of the following areas of the hand:
1
Radiopalmar trapezium
2
Dorsal thumb metacarpal base
3
Ulnopalmar trapezium
4
Ulnopalmar thumb metacarpal base
5
Radiopalmer lunate
QUESTION 26
Which of the following two main soft tissue forces are disrupted by Bennettâs fracture subluxation:
1
Volar beak (anterior oblique) ligament and extensor pollicis longus
2
Volar beak (anterior oblique) ligament and abductor pollicis longus
3
Posterior oblique ligament and abductor pollicis brevis
4
Dorsal radial ligament and flexor pollicis brevis
5
Dorsal radial ligament and abductor pollicis brevis
QUESTION 27
The greatest amount of step-off that is well-tolerated in a Bennettâs fracture is:
1
0 mm
2
1 mm to 2 mm
3
2 mm to 3 mm
4
3 mm to 4 mm
5
4 mm to 5 mm
QUESTION 28
When fracture step-off is greater than the accepted limits, which of the following complications is the most common:
1
Arthritis
2
Pain
3
Decreased range of motion
4
Decreased pinch strength
5
All of the above
QUESTION 29
C linically, what is the upper limit of acceptable fracture angulation for a fifth metacarpal neck fracture:
1
20°
2
40°
3
50°
4
70°
5
80°
QUESTION 30
In cadaveric models, when does the biomechanics of fifth finger flexion consistently change in relationship to metacarpal neck fracture angulation:
1
10°
2
30°
3
50°
4
70°
5
80°
QUESTION 31
Up to how much angulation can be tolerated in the small finger metacarpal shaft fracture:
1
0° to 10°
2
11° to 20°
3
21° to 30°
4
31° to 40°
5
41° to 50°
QUESTION 32
If a metacarpal shaft fracture shortens 4 mm, what will the theoretical amount of extensor lag be at the metacarpophalangeal joint:
1
0°
2
5°
3
7°
4
14°
5
20°
QUESTION 33
In a short oblique metacarpal shaft fracture without comminution or bone loss, what is usual amount of maximal shortening that will occur:
1
1 mm
2
3 mm
3
5 mm
4
7 mm
5
9 mm
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements is true regarding metacarpophalangeal joint anatomy:
1
The collateral ligaments are lax in flexion.
2
The joint volume is highest in flexion.
3
Joint stability is maximal in flexion.
4
The metacarpal head is spherical.
5
The collateral ligaments originate volar to the axis of flexion.
QUESTION 35
Which of the following fracture patterns and mechanisms is incorrectly paired:
1
Transverse fracture-direct blow
2
Transverse fracture-axial load on an extended metacarpophalangeal joint
3
C omminuted fractures with a butterfly fragment-axial compression and bending
4
Spiral fracture-torsion
5
Oblique-torsion and axial load
QUESTION 36
Giant cell tumor of tendon sheath commonly occurs in which of the following age groups:
1
Infants (age 0-1 year)
2
Age 1-10 years
3
Age 10-20 years
4
Age 30-40 years
5
Age 60-70 years
QUESTION 37
Which of the following clinical features is common in giant cell tumor of tendon sheath:
1
Transillumination
2
Erythematous
3
Fluctuates in size
4
Presents with rapid change in size
5
Painless
QUESTION 38
After plain radiographs of giant cell tumor of tendon sheath are obtained, the following imaging study should be obtained:
1
C omputed tomography scan
2
Ultrasound
3
Magnetic resonance image
4
Angiogram
5
Bone scan
QUESTION 39
Which of the following cell types is not typically found in giant cell tumors of tendon sheath:
1
Multinucleated giant cells
2
Histiocytes
3
Monocytes
4
Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes
5
Fibroblasts
QUESTION 40
A 25-year-old, right-hand-dominant male truck driver presents to the emergency department (Slide 1, Slide 2). The tip of his left ring finger was amputated in a bicycle accident 2 weeks prior. The amputated piece was âsewn back onâ in the emergency department immediately after the accident, but âturned blackâ over the next week. There is no evidence of infection. He states that the appearance of his finger is embarrassing, and he would like it taken care of as soon as possible. Which of the following procedures is the most appropriate:
1
Local debridement, allow to heal by secondary intention
2
Atasoy-Kleinert V-Y advancement flap closure
3
Kutler V-Y advancement flap closure
4
Moberg flap closure
5
Split-thickness hypothenar skin graft
QUESTION 41
A 52-year-old, right-hand-dominant watchmaker arrives at the emergency department 30 minutes after the volar soft tissue of his right thumb and index finger was avulsed while using a bandsaw. Physical examination shows 2 cm 3 2 cm wounds involving the distal phalanx of each affected digit. No exposed tendon or bone is present, and no involvement of the joints is noted. The patient requests a treatment option that will retain the most sensation so he can effectively continue in his occupation. Which of the following options is the most appropriate management of this patientâs wounds:
1
C overage with cross-finger flaps
2
Healing by secondary intention
3
Split-thickness skin grafting
4
Full-thickness skin grafting
5
Radial free forearm flap
QUESTION 42
Which of the following is not considered a part of the triangular fibrocartilage complex:
1
Ulnolunate ligament
2
Palmar radioulnar ligament
3
Dorsal radioulnar ligament
4
Radiolunate ligament
5
Ulnotriquetral ligament
QUESTION 43
Which of the following arterial branches does not supply the peripheral 25% of the triangular fibrocartilage complex:
1
Dorsal branch of the anterior interosseous artery
2
Palmar branch of the anterior interosseous artery
3
Dorsal branch of the radial artery
4
Dorsal branch of the ulnar artery
5
Palmar branch of the ulnar artery
QUESTION 44
Which of the following statements is true:
1
In a wrist with neutral ulnar variance, 20% of the axial load is transmitted across the ulna.
2
In a wrist with 2.5 mm ulnar negative variance, 20% of the axial load is transmitted across the ulna.
3
In a wrist with 2.5 mm ulnar negative variance, 60% of the axial load is transmitted across the ulna.
4
In a wrist with 2.5 mm ulnar positive variance, 600% of the axial load is transmitted across the ulna.
5
In a wrist with 2.5 ulnar positive variance, 20% of the axial load is transmitted across the ulna.
Dr. Mohammed Hutaif
Written & Medically Reviewed by
Consultant Orthopedic & Spine Surgeon