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Question 1
Hip and pelvis:
A 27-year-old patient presents with groin pain and clicking. He has a history of mild developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) as a child. Which of the following is the most likely finding on a plain radiograph?
Clinical Rationale
Femoral head/neck junction prominence. The patient is likely to be suffering from cam-type femoro-acetabular impingement, often presenting secondary to DDH, Perthes, or slipped upper femoral epiphysis, with a head/ neck junction prominence that may also lead to labral degeneration, cysts and tear. Degenerate changes at the articular surface in mild DDH is rare in a patient of this age, although cysts may be seen at the head/neck junction if there is impingement.
Question 2
Shoulder and elbow:
A patient sustains a midshaft clavicle fracture which heals with 2 cm of shortening. What is the most likely clinical outcome?
Clinical Rationale
Decreased shoulder muscle strength and endurance. McKee found that patients who had non-operative treatment of displaced (> 2 cm) midshaft clavicle fractures had significant decrease in both strength and endurance of about 80% compared to the contralateral side. Range of motion (ROM) of the affected shoulder was unaffected.
Question 3
Shoulder and elbow:
The optimal position of the shoulder for arthrodesis is? 30 features of a dystrophic curve. in dystrophic curves. kyphoscoliosis is uncommon.
Clinical Rationale
Internal rotation (IR) 30º, Flexion 30º, Abduction 30º. Shoulder arthrodesis should be performed so that the arm rests comfortably at the side without scapular winging and so that the hand can be brought easily to the mouth and perineum. 42 a. Instability of a vertebral fracture can be determined by loss of vertebral height >50%. b. There is no direct relationship between canal compromise and neurological deficit. c. Instability of injuries can be determined by further neurological deterioration under normal physiological load. d. Widening of the interpedicular distance on plain radiograph can indicate a burst fracture. e. In a thoracic burst fracture, a thoracolumbar orthosis is indicated if there is <50% loss of vertebral body height and >30% kyphosis. scoliosis are true except? a. With curves of 20–29, 40% of patients who are Risser 0–1 are at risk of curve progression. b. With curves of 20–29, 22% of patients who are Risser 2–4 progress. c. After skeletal maturity, a lumbar curve >35 can progress by 1–2/year. d. A late curve progression in males is more common than in females. e. A rapid curve progression in females occurs before menarche and before Risser 1. retroperitoneal approach, all of the following statements are correct except? a. The ureter is adherent to the posterior peritoneum and falls away from the psoas through the dissection. b. The sympathetic trunk, lying longitudinally along the lateral border of the psoas, is at risk during this procedure. c. The ilioinguinal nerve emerges from the lateral border of the psoas and travels to the quadratus lumborium. d. A cold and pale right foot is a recognized post-operative examination finding. e. The genitofemoral nerve lies on the anteromedial surface of the psoas. except? a. Non-dystrophic deformities are indistinguishable from idiopathic scoliosis. 47
Question 4
Knee:
The surgical approach for the posterior cruciate ligament insertion site during an open inlay technique is?
Clinical Rationale
A posteromedial approach between medial gastrocnemius and semimembranosus. The tibial insertion of the posterior cruciate ligament is best exposed through a posteromedial approach between medial gastrocnemius and semimembranosus. The former is retracted laterally and inferiorly, pulling the nerves and vessels out of the way to reach the posteromedial corner of the joint. The posterolateral corner of the joint is exposed between the lateral head of the gastrocnemius and biceps femoris muscle. Muscle-splitting approaches are generally not used at the back of the knee.
Question 5
Basic science:
Which is the correct formula for calcium hydroxyapatite?
Clinical Rationale
Ca10 (PO4)6 (OH)2. Calcium hydroxyapatite (Ca10 (PO4)6 (OH)2) forms part of the inorganic component of the bone matrix and gives it compressive strength.
Question 6
Spine:
A 33-year-old male is involved in a road traffic accident sustaining a fracture dislocation of the cervical spine. He has absent motor function, absent sensation and anal tone. The bulbocavernous reflex is intact. Which of the following best describes this spinal cord injury pattern?
Clinical Rationale
Complete spinal cord injury. An intact bulbocavernous reflex indicates that the patient is not in a state of spinal shock and therefore the cord injury can be classified as a complete injury pattern in this scenario.
Question 7
Paediatric orthopaedics:
Which of the following is not associated with spina bifida/neural tube defects?
Clinical Rationale
Budd–Chiari syndrome. Neural tube defects (NTDs) are a spectrum of disorders caused by failure of the posterior neural elements to fuse at around 3–4 weeks’ gestation. The causes are multifactorial although a raised level of homocysteine, a consequence of folate deficiency, is strongly implicated. NTDs are either open or closed. Open lesions usually involve the entire central nervous system (CNS) with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and result from failure of primary neurulation. Closed lesions are usually localized to the spine and result from failure of secondary neurulation. Closed types are covered by an epithelial layer and neural elements are therefore not exposed. However, any overlying skin may be dysplastic and cutaneous stigamata such as a pit or a hairy patch may be noticeable. The effects of NTDs depend on their location and severity although paralysis (flaccid and/or spastic) and bowel and bladder incontinence are characteristic. A type II Arnold–Chiari malformation is the commonest associated condition: downwards displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum which can lead to hydrocephalus and mental retardation. Budd–Chiari syndrome is occlusion of the hepatic veins and is unrelated to NTDs.
Question 8
Paediatric orthopaedics:
Regarding embryological limb bud formation, which of the following is responsible for longitudinal growth of the limb? 175
Clinical Rationale
Homeobox genes. Limb buds are formed from mesoderm covered with surface ectoderm. The upper limb bud appears at 4 weeks post-fertilization and the lower limb bud appears two days later. Two areas form within the mesoderm – the lateral mesoderm which forms bone, cartilage and connective tissues and the somite which forms the muscular elements. Homeobox (Hox) genes via fibroblast growth factors (FGFs) influence development of the apical ectodermal ridge (AER), which is responsible for proximal to distal growth. Hox gene abnormalities therefore lead to proximal/distal losses. The AER is a transient region of activity from which the digits develop. Separation of the digits occurs at around 50 days. Apoptosis under the influence of BMPs allows digits to separate and prevents webbing whereas noggins block apoptosis thereby preserving the webbing of the digits. The Sonic hedgehog genes control the zone of proliferating activity (ZPA) in the mesoderm that is responsible for radial to ulnar growth and differentiation, i.e. the little (fifth) finger from the thumb.
Question 9
Paediatric orthopaedics:
Which of the following procedures is appropriate in the setting of an increased TT-TG (tibial tuberosity–centre of trochlear groove) offset >15 mm in the treatment of chronic patellofemoral instability?
Clinical Rationale
Elmslie–Trillat procedure. Surgical procedures for chronic patellofemoral instability are often used in combination and include soft tissue or bony procedures performed proximally, at the level of the joint or distal to it. A TT-TG distance of greater than 15 mm on CT suggests an increased Q-angle necessitating medial tibial tubercle transfer (Elmslie–Trillat). Unlike the Hauser technique, the Elmslie–Trillat does not involve posterior displacement which increases patellofemoral contact pressures contributing to pain and degeneration. Patellar alta is an indication for distal TT transfer. Trochlear dyplasia is recognized on lateral radiographs by the presence of the ‘crossing sign’ and may require a trochleoplasty to deepen and lateralize the trochlear groove. Lateral release is only indicated for isolated lateral patellar tilt and should be combined with another procedure if other factors are present. In the presence of a normal Q-angle, proximal soft tissue realignment procedures should be considered such as MPFL reconstruction and vastus medialis oblique (VMO) advancement. 189
Question 10
Hand and wrist:
Which of the following is not a recognized treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome?
Clinical Rationale
Nerve stimulation therapy. If symptoms are not severe and there is not significant and progressive neuropathy then non-operative management must be considered. This includes splintage, hand therapy, steroid injection and even yoga has been proven to be beneficial. Alternatively a patient could be referred for either open or endoscopic release.
Question 11
Shoulder and elbow:
Which of the following is the primary stabilizer to resist valgus stress in the flexed elbow?
Clinical Rationale
Anterior band of the medial ulnar collateral ligament. The anterior band provides the major contribution to valgus stability. The olecranon is an important stabilizer of the elbow in extension; at 25 flexion the olecranon is unlocked from its fossa and the ulnar collateral ligament becomes the most important stabilizer. The radial head is an important secondary stabilizer in flexion and extension. The posterior band of the medial ulnar collateral ligament is a secondary stabilizer at 30 of flexion. The transverse band plays no role in joint stability because it originates and inserts on the same bone.
Question 12
Hand and wrist:
A 56-year-old obese man presents with a painless deterioration in bilateral hand function. Initially it was the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints that were involved and now it is the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. He has thick tight skin and a positive prayer sign. The most likely disease is?
Clinical Rationale
Diabetic cheirarthropathy. This is a poorly understood condition. It is thought to be as a result of a muscular or tendon imbalance with soft tissue disruption. There is a microangiopathy of the dermal and subcutaneous blood vessels. It is more common in Type 1 diabetics and can affect 8–50% of the population. Loss of function is painless, and progresses from distal to proximal. The prayer sign is an inability to oppose palmar surfaces.
Question 13
Hand and wrist:
Which of the following is not true of Dupuytren’s disease? for surgery.
Clinical Rationale
Painful nodules are an indication for surgery. The disease is usually in its early phases. The stages, according to Luck’s classification, are proliferative, involutional and finally residual. Early surgery will certainly lead to recurrence and can stimulate the disease process. Carpal tunnel surgery must be performed at a separate occasion for a similar reason. Unfortunately in the long term recurrence rates are high (50%).
Question 14
Basic science:
d. Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative coccus. Pseudomonas is a Gram-negative bacillus. Common bacteria include: Gram-positive coccus Gram-negative coccus Gram-positive bacillus Gram-negative bacillus Staphylococcus aureus Neisseria gonorrhoea Clostridia (tetani, perfringens, difficile) Pseudomonas aeruginosa Enterococcus Neisseria meningitides Listeria monocytogenes Eikenella corrodens 235
Clinical Rationale
Gram-positive coccus Gram-negative coccus Gram-positive bacillus Gram-negative bacillus Steptococcus Actinomyces Escherichia coli Coryneform Salmonella typhi Diphtheroids Klebsiella pneumoniae Helicobacter pylori
Question 15
Basic science:
As a cemented femoral component of a total hip arthroplasty fails by cantilever bending a plain anteroposterior (AP) pelvic radiograph will reveal?
Clinical Rationale
Radiolucent lines in Gruen zones 1, 2, 6 and 7. Gruen described seven zones around a cemented femoral stem starting with zone 1 at the greater trochanter round to zone 7 at the calcar, zone 4 being at the tip of the prosthesis. He described different modes of failure of cemented stems: 238 Mode Mechanism Cause Findings 1A Pistoning Stem subsiding within cement Radiolucent lines in zones 1 and 2 1B Pistoning Stem and cement subsiding within bone Radiolucent lines in all 7 zones Medial stem pivot Lack of supermedial and inferolateral support Medial migration proximally and lateral migration distally Calcar pivot Medial-lateral toggling of distal stem Radiolucent lines in zones 4 and 5 Cantilever bending Loss of proximal support with a well-fixed distal stem Stem fracture, radiolucent lines on zones 1, 2, 6 and 7
Question 16
Foot and ankle:
A 27-year-old banker injures his foot and sustains a displaced divergent Lisfranc fracture-dislocation. The optimal management would consist of?
Clinical Rationale
Closed or open reduction and combined screw and K-wire stabilization. The tarsometatarsal joint is best thought of in three columns: a medial column (first tarsometatarsal joint), a middle column (second and third tarsometatarsal joints) and a lateral column (fourth and fifth tarsometatarsal joints). Any dislocation or subluxation needs reduction. A cast or external fixator does not hold the reduction adequately. Although there are many ways to stabilize the fracture-dislocation after reduction, it is generally accepted that the medial and middle columns should be treated with permanent fixation (for example screws) and the lateral column should have temporary fixation (for example K-wires removed after 6–12 weeks). This is due to the relatively greater mobility of the lateral column.
Question 17
Spine:
A 12-year-old girl with scoliosis was found to have a fluid-filled cavity within the spinal cord on a routine preoperative MRI scan. All of the following are true regarding the spinal cord finding except? thoracic curves. stabilize the scoliotic curve.
Clinical Rationale
Decompression of the syrinx in patients above the age of 10 years will improve or stabilize the scoliotic curve. Syringomyelia usually results from lesions that partially obstruct cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow including craniocervical junction abnormalities (Chiari malformations), spinal cord trauma and tumours. It often presents with central cord syndrome. Light touch, proprioception and vibration sensation are usually preserved. In most patients over the age of ten, surgical treatment of scoliosis is most likely necessary due to a large initial scoliosis curve or curve progression even after syrinx drainage.
Question 18
Shoulder and elbow:
A 68-year-old female rheumatoid patient presents with a painful, stiff elbow. Plain radiographs show a Larsen grade IV. The most appropriate surgical option is?
Clinical Rationale
Total elbow replacement. The Larsen classification of the rheumatoid elbow is based on plain radiographs and is graded I–V: Grade I – soft tissue swelling and osteoporosis. Grade II – mild narrowing of the joint space and some marginal erosion. Grade III – significant joint space narrowing. Grade IV – integrity of subchondral plates is breached by deep erosions. Grade V – total joint destruction
Question 19
Trauma:
An 86-year-old man falls and sustains a minimally displaced proximal humerus fracture. What is the best way to manage him? 199
Clinical Rationale
Physiotherapy and passive range of motion, 10 days following the injury. Immediate physiotherapy and prolonged immobilization are not appropriate in this situation. Although surgical management is an option, a good result can be achieved with non-operative treatment, if the physiotherapy is started within 2 weeks. 212
Question 20
Trauma:
With reference to injuries around the elbow, which of the following statements is false? stabilizer of the elbow to valgus stress. colloquially as ‘the terrible triad’. stabilizer of the elbow to valgus stress.
Clinical Rationale
The posterior, transverse portion of medial collateral ligament is the primary stabilizer of the elbow to valgus stress. Coronoid fractures are classified as follows: Type I – tip/shear/avulsion; Type II – less than 50% height; Type III – more than 50% height. Based on cadaveric studies, the anterior portion of the medial collateral ligament is the primary stabilizer of the elbow to valgus stress with minimal contribution from the posterior ligament.
Question 21
Basic science:
Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scanning? proximal femur.
Clinical Rationale
Vertebral fractures may give rise to false low density values. DEXA scanning is used to assess bone mineral density, in particular to diagnose osteoporosis. Vertebral fractures may give rise to falsely elevated bone density values.
Question 22
Hip and pelvis:
Following total hip replacement, deep infection is?
Clinical Rationale
Less in ceramic than polyethylene cups. The Swedish Hip Registry reports that deep infections are slightly lower with ceramic components. The exact mechanism is unclear, but may be due to bacterial adhesion being poorer on the smoother surface of ceramic components.
Question 23
Hand and wrist:
Which of the following is not a sign of an unstable scaphoid fracture?
Clinical Rationale
Scapholunate angle <60º. This question is a test of the indications for fixation of a scaphoid fracture. The unstable fracture generally needs fixation. Other signs of instability include radiolunate angle >15, scapholunate angle >60, intrascaphoid angles >35 and a proximal pole fracture.
Question 24
Hand and wrist:
A 16-year-old girl had multiple fractures in her forearm and hand. One year later after fracture healing she presents with trouble gripping things. When the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint is extended you cannot passively flex the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. When the MCP joint is flexed it is possible to passively flex the PIP joint. Her extensors are at a good length. Which of the following is incorrect?
Clinical Rationale
She has a claw hand. She has tight intrinsic muscles and her Bunnell test is positive as the intrinsic muscles are more powerful than her extrinsic extensors and flexors. The tight intrinsic muscles are treated with distal releases when fibrotic and a proximal slide when spastic. An intrinsic minus hand is one where there is a loss of function in the ulna and sometimes the median nerve (claw). The patient presents with a monkey grip.
Question 25
Knee:
The blood supply to the anterior cruciate ligament is?
Clinical Rationale
The middle genicular artery. The middle genicular artery supplies the anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments and the synovial membrane. The medial superior genicular supplies the vastus medialis, lower femur and the knee joint. The lateral superior genicular supplies the vastus lateralis, lower femur and the knee joint. The medial inferior genicular supplies the upper end of the tibia and the articulation of the knee.
Question 26
Foot and ankle:
Which of the following inserts into the talus?
Clinical Rationale
None of the above. The talus is made up of a head, neck, body and posterior process. It articulates with the tibia and fibula in the ankle, and the navicular and calcaneum in the foot. It has many ligamentous attachments but no muscle attachments. There is a groove posteriorly in which the flexor hallucis longus tendon runs. It is important to be aware of the blood supply of the talus; the primary source is the artery of the tarsal canal (derived from the posterior tibial artery); additional supply is from the superior neck vessels (derived from the anterior tibial artery) and the artery of the sinus tarsi (derived form the dorsalis pedis).
Question 27
Shoulder and elbow:
Following a total shoulder arthroplasty through a deltopectoral approach, motion and strengthening are typically initially restricted because of which factor?
Clinical Rationale
Risk of dislocation. As part of a deltopectoral approach, the subscapularis is taken down off the humerus. This may be done trans-tendon, directly off bone, or with a lesser tuberosity osteotomy. In the initial post-operative period passive external rotation is limited to a maximum 30 to allow healing and protect the repair.
Question 28
Knee:
The following are all considered predisposing factors for patellofemoral disorders, except? 95
Clinical Rationale
Patella baja. Patellofemoral disorders are extremely common and tend to have a mutlifactorial aetiology. Predisposing factors include the condition femoral anteversion, lateral patella tilt, patella alta (not baja), a reduced trochlea sulcus and a lateral tibial tuberosity. Others include gluteal dysfunction, vastus medialis oblique dysfunction, tight iliotibial band, tight rectus femoris, tight calves/hamstrings, lateral tibial torsion and increased foot pronation.
Question 29
Paediatric orthopaedics:
In Risser staging, an iliac apophysis showing 75% ossification represents which of the following?
Clinical Rationale
Risser 3. Risser staging 1–5 depends on the amount of ossification of the iliac apophysis visible on the anteroposterior (AP) radiograph. Ossification begins anterolaterally and proceeds posteromedially. The first 25% equates to Risser 1 and grade 4 equates to 100% ossification. Grade 5 is signified by fusion of the apophysis. The relevance of Risser staging is in predicting the progression of scoliotic curves. Small curves and greater skeletal maturity according to the Risser stage predicts a smaller likelihood of curve progression compared to larger curves and skeletal immaturity.
Question 30
Spine:
A 29-year-old restrained front seat passenger was involved in a road traffic accident, sustaining a flexion-distraction injury of L1. Which of the following is true regarding this fracture? injury. three levels above and two levels below the fracture. one level above and one level below the fracture.
Clinical Rationale
A ligamentous chance fracture should be treated using a compression construct with one level above and one level below the fracture. A chance fracture is the result of a flexion-distraction injury (seatbelt injury). It can be bony, ligamentous or mixed. Gastrointestinal injuries occur in 50% of cases. The bony lesions unite non–operatively with a brace in extension. The ligamentous type may remain unstable and therefore should be treated operatively using a compression construct (restore the tension band) with one level above and one level below the fracture. A chance fracture is seldom associated with a neurological deficit unless translation occurs.
Question 31
Foot and ankle:
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Achilles tendon surgery? achievable is 6 cm.
Clinical Rationale
A V-Y advancement of the gastrocnemius would be required if the gap is 6 cm. Repair of an Achilles tendon is usually undertaken with the patient prone, and an incision just medial to midline to avoid sural nerve injury. Immobilizing the foot in 20 plantarflexion allows maximum skin perfusion over the tendon, by decreasing skin tension, and protects the tendon repair. A direct repair is usually possible if the gap is less than 3 cm. A V-Y advancement of the gastrocnemius can be considered if the gap is between 3 and 5 cm, and if greater than 5 cm, a flexor hallucis longus transfer must be considered.
Question 32
Spine:
b. This syndrome is also known as cast syndrome. Superior mesenteric artery syndrome also known as cast syndrome is an uncommon but well-recognized complication of scoliosis surgery. It occurs more commonly in thin female 60
Clinical Rationale
patients following correction of scoliosis by a cast or instrumentation. As a result of the curve correction, the angle between the SMA and the aorta is narrowed resulting in the compression of the third part of the duodenum. Initial treatment includes oral intake restriction, nasogastric suction and intravenous fluid administration. The majority of cases settle with conservative measures. In rare cases of failed non-operative treatment, surgical intervention is indicated.
Question 33
Foot and ankle:
Which of the following is true of calcaneal fractures? fragments on sagittal CT scan. fixation.
Clinical Rationale
Bilateral fractures occur in 5–10% of cases. Calcaneal fractures occur after an axial load and are bilateral in 5–10% of cases. They are associated with a spinal injury in about 10%. The majority (75%) are intra-articular, and result in a decreased Bohler’s angle (line drawn by connecting the anterior process, highest point on posterior articular surface and superior tuberosity on the lateral radiograph). The Sanders classification is based upon the number and location of articular fragments on the coronal CT scan, with four types, based on the number of fragments of the posterior facet, with displacement of 2 mm considered significant. The wound complication rate is reported to be up to 30%.
Question 34
Hip and pelvis:
Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for heterotopic ossification following elective total hip replacement?
Clinical Rationale
Previous formation of heterotopic ossification. Although the exact aetiology is poorly understood, if there is a history of heterotopic ossification, then it is very likely to recur at a new site of surgery. Other factors include: ankylosing spondylitis, hypertrophic osteoarthritis, and diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis, with weaker evidence for extensive soft tissue handling/stripping, or bone debris from reamings. Although patients with head injuries are found to produce extensive calcific deposits a patient would not have elective total hip replacement so soon after significant head injury. Over-expression of bone morphogenetic protein-4 BMP-4) may be implicated in the pathogenesis of heterotopic ossification.
Question 35
Spine:
A 50-year-old man presents with difficulty mobilizing and clumsiness buttoning his shirt. He had a fixed cervical kyphosis of 15. An MRI scan showed a central disc herniation at C5–C6 with signal changes within the cord. What is the next appropriate management step?
Clinical Rationale
Anterior cervical decompression and fusion. This patient has myelopathic changes within the cord probably as a result of an anterior degenerative disc. The presence of a fixed kyphosis of >10 is a contraindication to a 64 posterior decompression þ/ fusion. In addition, posterior procedures are ineffective in this case as the anterior compression on the cord will remain. The anterior approach provides direct access to the disc herniation and provides immediate and long-term stability to the motion segment.
Question 36
Shoulder and elbow:
What technical error leads to scapular notching after reverse total shoulder arthroplasty? 28
Clinical Rationale
Superior placement of the glenoid component. Superior positioning of the glenoid component as well as superior tilt of the component with respect to the scapula can lead to scapular notching, with a resultant poorer outcome. Inferior tilt and proper placement of the glenoid component protects against notching.
Question 37
Foot and ankle:
During ankle arthroscopy, which nerve is most likely to be injured with the anterolateral portal?
Clinical Rationale
Intermediate dorsal cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal nerve. The two most common portals used in ankle arthroscopy are the anterolateral and anteromedial. The anterolateral portal is established medial to the lateral malleolus and lateral to the peroneus tertius, and risks injury to the intermediate dorsal cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal nerve. The anteromedial portal is made lateral to the medial malleolus and medial to tibialis anterior, and risks injury to the saphenous nerve and vein. The anterocentral portal, medial to extensor digitorum longus and lateral to extensor hallucis longus, risks damaging the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery.
Question 38
Knee:
Which statement is incorrect regarding tunnel placement during anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction? stability. reference for tibial tunnel positioning.
Clinical Rationale
Tunnel placement is less important when using synthetic grafts. A femoral tunnel in the roof of the notch (12 o’clock position) would result in a vertical graft. This would restore anteroposterior stability, but would not impact on the rotational stability. Several reference points are described for the tibial tunnel. These include the anterior border of the posterior cruciate ligament (10–11 mm anterior to) and the posterior border of the anterior horn of the lateral meniscus (along a line from this point to the tibial spine). Mal-positioning of the femoral tunnel can limit post-operative range of motion; an anterior tunnel could limit flexion and a posterior tunnel could limit extension. Tunnel placement is probably even more important when using synthetic grafts as these are less forgiving of mal-positioning.
Question 39
Shoulder and elbow:
What is the most common pathological arthroscopic finding following a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation?
Clinical Rationale
Anteroinferior labral tear. It has been shown in one study that 87% have an anterior glenoid labral tear (Bankart lesion), 79% had anterior capsular insufficiency, 68% had a Hill–Sachs lesion, 55% had glenohumeral ligament insufficiency, 14% had complete rotator cuff tears, 12% had posterior glenoid labral tears and 7% had SLAP tears.
Question 40
Pathology:
A 31-year-old male presents with stiffness and pain in his back and hips. Examination reveals a bluish-grey discolouration of his ear cartilage and sclera and decreased range of movement in his hips. His urine is noted to be black. Radiographs of his lumbar spine show multilevel disc degeneration. This patient most likely has a deficiency of which of the following enzymes?
Clinical Rationale
Homogentisic acid oxidase. This patient has degenerative arthritis resulting from alkaptonuria. This condition is also known as ochronosis. The deficient enzyme is homogentisic acid oxidase. Homogentisic acid is deposited in joints and turns black. It is also responsible for the black urine.
Question 41
Knee:
An active 66-year-old man is reviewed 1 year after a total knee replacement. He complains that it does not feel right and clinical examination identifies an incompetent medial collateral ligament. The most appropriate treatment is? 98
Clinical Rationale
Revision to a constrained knee prosthesis. Medial collateral ligament deficiency in a total knee replacement may present with pain, instability or both. A knee brace may provide a temporary solution. Repair or reconstruction of the ligament is unlikely to provide the necessary valgus resistance, and the only sensible option is to revise to a constrained prosthesis. There is some debate as to whether this can be a high posted design (non-linked) or whether it has to be hinged. 112 a. Sural. b. Saphenous. c. Tibial. d. Deep peroneal. e. Superficial peroneal. the most important factor in predicting a satisfactory outcome? a. Severity of initial injury. b. The state of the articular cartilage. c. The age of the patient. d. The smoking status of the patient. e. Whether or not a compensation claim is involved. a. Absent fibula. b. Deficient knee ligaments. c. An equinovarus deformity. d. Talocalcaneal coalition. e. Proximal femoral focal deficiency. a. Oligohydramnios. b. Arthrogryposis. c. Congenital talipes equinovarus. d. Tarsal coalition. e. Developmental dysplasia of the hip. performing. The likely diagnosis is? a. Hallux valgus. b. Hallux rigidus. 119
Question 42
Knee:
The following situations preclude the use of a high tibial osteotomy for the treatment of medial compartment osteoarthritis, except?
Clinical Rationale
Deficient anterior cruciate ligament. A high tibial, valgus-producing osteotomy, either lateral closing or medial opening, is an effective surgical option for medial compartment osteoarthritis. It suits younger patients with varus alignment, fixed flexion less than 15º and flexion greater than 90º. Contraindications include lateral compartment degeneration, loss of a significant portion of the lateral meniscus, lateral tibial subluxation of greater than 1 cm, medial compartment bone loss, symptomatic patellofemoral degeneration, inflammatory arthritis and poor patient compliance. Anterior cruciate ligament deficiency alone is not a contraindication.
Question 43
Hand and wrist:
A 13-year-old boy is referred to you after a trivial fall onto his elbow. Radiographs reveal a dislocated radial head. He does not have much pain. His mother says she has always had joint pains with abnormal knee caps. She keeps pointing to her knees in an excited manner with long fake nails. The most likely diagnosis is?
Clinical Rationale
Nail patella syndrome. This syndrome is a result of an abnormality on chromosome 9. Patients may have subluxed or dislocated radial heads and never realize they have a problem until they have an X-ray. The syndrome can include abnormalities of the patella and nail growth, generalized ligamentous laxity and bony exostoses.
Question 44
Basic science:
The pull-out strength of a cortical screw can be increased by? 228
Clinical Rationale
Changing to a finer pitch. The relationship of the inner to the outer diameter affects pull-out strength – a relatively smaller inner (or larger outer) diameter increases pull-out strength. A finer pitch allows for more threads to grip each cortex increasing pull-out strength. A locking screw/plate combination may increase the pull-out strength of the construct as a whole but the addition of the locking thread has no effect on the screw in isolation. 240
Question 45
Trauma:
When predicting the outcome after distal radius fractures, which of the following is false? fractures. fractures. important factor. displaced fractures.
Clinical Rationale
In the prediction of malunion, the presence or absence of comminution is not an important factor. Important factors in predicting early and late instability and radiographic outcome after distal radial fractures include patient age, metaphyseal comminution of the fracture and ulnar variance. Dorsal angulation has not been shown to be significant in the prediction of radiographic outcome for displaced fractures.
Question 46
Paediatric orthopaedics:
Which is the most common site of pelvic apophyseal avulsion fractures?
Clinical Rationale
Ischial tuberosity. The pelvic apophyses appear in early adolescence and fuse around age 14–16. Avulsions therefore occur most commonly in teenagers during sporting activities. Football and gymnastics are commonly associated with these injuries. Avulsion of the ischial tuberosity is the commonest type caused by sudden hip flexion with knee extension such as striking a football. The diagnosis is usually apparent on plain radiographs. Avulsion injuries are best treated conservatively with a gradual return to sporting activity after 3 months. Unrecognized avulsions may heal with abundant callus and can be misdiagnosed as bone tumours. The situation can be clarified with CT or MR imaging.
Question 47
Basic science:
Which of the following is not a recognized World Health Organization (WHO) requirement for a screening test?
Clinical Rationale
The disease should be one in which late treatment is as effective as early treatment. The following criteria are accepted by the WHO (as described by Wilson and Jungner in 1968): The condition sought should be an important health problem for the individual and community. There should be an accepted treatment or useful intervention for patients with the disease. The natural history of the disease should be adequately understood. There should be a latent or early symptomatic stage. There should be a suitable and acceptable screening test or examination. Facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be available. There should be an agreed policy on whom to treat as patients. Treatment started at an early stage should be of more benefit than treatment started later. The cost should be economically balanced in relation to possible expenditure on medical care as a whole. Case-finding should be a continuing process and not a ‘once and for all’ project.
Question 48
Paediatric orthopaedics:
Which of the following is not a component of Kocher’s criteria when diagnosing septic arthritis of the hip?
Clinical Rationale
C-reactive protein (CRP) >20. Due to the rapid chondrolytic effect of pus within the joint, pyogenic septic arthritis of the hip in children represents a surgical emergency. It can be difficult to distinguish a septic hip from other causes of hip pain in children. In such cases, whilst clinical suspicion remains of paramount importance, Kocher’s diagnostic algorithm is a useful tool. The four diagnostic criteria are non-weight-bearing, ESR >40, WBC >12 and fever. The predicted risk of a septic arthritis varies with the number of positive criteria. The algorithm has been tested retrospectively and prospectively. In the prospective validation study the probabilities were lower: Number of criteria met Chance of septic arthritis (original study) Chance of septic arthritis (validation study) 3% 40% 35% 93% 73% 93%
Question 49
Knee:
A 58-year-old man is listed for a total knee replacement. He underwent a closing wedge high tibial osteotomy 10 years prior. The most likely problem one would encounter during the total knee replacement is?
Clinical Rationale
Patella baja. Total knee replacement after a proximal tibial osteotomy presents a number of technical difficulties. Studies have shown that these knee replacements are more prone to complications such as persisting pain, malalignment and infections. Any number of problems can be encountered during surgery, but the most common is patella baja, seen with both opening and closing wedge osteotomies, although more commonly in the latter. Another important consideration is the change in tibial slope as closing wedge tends to decrease the posterior tibial slope and opening wedge increases it.
Question 50
Hand and wrist:
A 23-year-old cricketer had an avulsion of the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon of his ring finger. This was diagnosed early and despite proximal migration he had it reinserted with a button technique. Six months later he complains that he can’t close his fingers tightly over a cricket ball. This problem is?
Clinical Rationale
Quadrigia effect. Though this was a bony avulsion it must be thought of like any other FDP tendon injury. In this case because of the proximal migration of the tendon it was probably repaired tightly with an adhesed improperly tensioned FDP. Because the adjacent remaining fingers share a common muscle belly, they cannot flex entirely (quadrigia effect).