For anyone wondering about Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs - Part 35, Practice Arab Orthopaedic Board MCQs Part 35. Review orthopedic surgery questions 1701 to 1750 for your board exam preparation.
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Question 1
Synovial fluid is produced by which of the following cells of the synovium:
Question 2
Synovial fluid is made up of all EXCEPT:
Question 3
A joint is diagnosed to be degenerative, all the following statements concerning it, are true, EXCEPT:
Question 4
Which of the following in the list below has not been associated with a Charcot joint:
Question 5
Which of the following conditions listed below can lead to a Charcot joint:
Question 6
All the following are major Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever, EXCEPT:
Question 7
All the following are minor Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever, EXCEPT:
Question 8
All the following arthropathies are characterized by positive HLA-B27 and negative rheumatoid factor, EXCEPT:
Question 9
A condition that presents with fever, butterfly malar rash, pan cytopenia, pericarditis, nephritis and polyarthritis and the joint destruction is not as destructive as rheumatoid arthritis is most likely:
Question 10
The thick filament of the sarcomere consists of mainly:
Question 11
The thin filament of the sarcomere consists of:
Question 12
All the following are true concerning isotonic contraction of muscle, EXCEPT:
Question 13
The pseudo fracture’s (looser’s zone) that occurs in osteomalascia, occurs mainly on the:
Question 14
The pseudo fracture’s (looser’s zone) that occurs in osteogenesis imperfecta occurs mainly on the:
Question 15
Type II osteoporosis is known as:
Question 16
The osteoporosis associated with hyperparathyroidism, is known as:
Question 17
Which of the following has been identified in patients with Paget’s disease and could be a possible etiology:
Question 18
All the following have been associated with Paget’s disease, EXCEPT:
Question 19
The arthritis that occurs in patients with Paget’s disease may occur as a result of all, EXCEPT:
Question 20
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with an enlarged vertebral body:
Question 21
Which of the following muscles does not originate from the medial epicondyle:
Question 22
Which of the following muscles does not originate from the lateral epicondyle:
Question 23
The anterior bundle of the medial collateral ligament of the elbow is:
Question 24
Which of the following statements does not apply to the radial nerve:
Question 25
The medial column of the distal humerus diverges from the central humeral axis at an angle of:
Question 26
The lateral column of the distal humerus diverges from the central humeral axis at an angle of:
Question 27
The distal articular surface of the elbow lies in how much of valgus:
Question 28
The distal articular surface of the elbow lies in how much of external rotation to the central axis of the humerus:-
Question 29
The capitellum and trochlea are translated anteriorly relative to the humeral diaphysis, creating an angle between the central humeral axis and the distal articular segment of:-
Question 30
The greatest exposure of the articular surface following a distal humeral intraarticular fracture would be:
Question 31
Treatment of supracondylar fractures of the elbow is complex and difficult, due, mainly to all except:
Question 32
The distinguishing feature and size that distinguishes an osteoid osteoma from an osteoblastoma would msbe:
Question 33
The chromosomal alteration that involve the genes controlling osteogenesis and are implicated to have a role in the development of several solid malignancies are:
Question 34
Osteoid osteomas are common lesions that account for about what percent of all benign bone tumors:
Question 35
Osteoid osteoma occurs least in which of the following bones:
Question 36
Enclosed are x-rays and a pathologic specimen of a lesion within bone. What is your most likely diagnosis?
Question 37
Which of the following lesions which when exists close to a physis often leads to a leg length discrepancy:
Question 38
High levels of which of the following substances have been found to be present within the nidus of an osteoid osteoma:
Question 39
All the following enter the differential diagnosis of an osteoid osteoma except:
Question 40
Reported success rates for treatment by thermocoagulation with radiofrequency electrodes have ranged between:
Question 41
When Osteoid osteoma involves the spine, it is most commonly located in which of the following locations:
Question 42
All are virtually essential for early detection of a nidus except: a. Bone scintigraphy
Question 43
which of the following conditions is occasionally associated with an aneurysmal bone cyst?
Question 44
Tumors that are characterized microscopically by the presence of so-called epithelioid osteoblasts are known to be:
Question 45
Aggressive osteoblastomas has been associated with wish of the following conditions?
Question 46
All the following are findings of an epithelioid osteoblast except:
Question 47
Which of the following tumors has been associated with Gardner’s syndrome
Question 48
The motion segment, or functional spinal unit of the spine, comprises:
Question 49
The majority of vertical compressive loads on the spine is received by:
Question 50
The horizontal trabeculae within the vertebral body: